Category: Class 11

Students get through the MP Board Class 11th Biology Important Questions Chapter 4 Animal Kingdom which are most likely to be asked in the exam.

MP Board Class 11th Biology Important Questions Chapter 4 Animal Kingdom

Animal Kingdom Class 11 Important Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Write down three main characters due to which birds are able to fly.
Answer:
Three main characters due to which birds can fly are :

1. Body is streamlined and is covered with feathers.
2. Forelimbs are modified as wings for flying.
3. Bones are pneumatic (Porous), this reduces the weight of the body.

Question 2.
Differentiate radial and bilateral symmetry. (Any two)
Answer:
Differences between Radial and Bilateral Symmetry

Radial Symmetry	Bilateral Symmetry
1. In this type of body organization organs of the body are arranged around an axis.	The body of these organisms is flat and body is dorsiventral.
2. Body can be divided into two equal halves by cutting in any of radial plane. e.g., Hydra, Obelia, Starfish.	The body of these organisms can be divided into two equivalent halves through only one plane, e.g., Man, Earthworm.

Question 3.
Write three characteristics of protochordata.
Answer:

1. They possesses notochord either throughout the whole life or in some phase of life.
2. Vertebral column does not develop.
3. They do not have a cranium and the jaws.

Question 4.
Give examples of three stationary organisms.
Answer:

1. Leucosolenia,
2. Sycon,
3. Grantia.
   All these organisms belong to phylum Porifera and are found attached to the stone or substratum.

Question 5.
Write two characters of sub-phylum :
(a) Urochordata,
(b) Cephalochordata,
(c) Hemichordata.
Answer:
(a) Urochordata :

• They are marine.
• They are sessile forms and possess the notochord in the tail region in the larval stage which is degenerated completely in the adult stage.
• Adults are always enclosed in a tunic composed of animal cellulose, e.g., Herdmania known as sea squirt, etc.

(b) Cephalochordata :

• Animals of this sub-phylum are exclusively marine and solitary animal.
• They are small, fishlike animals.
• Notochord is present from head to tail.
• Many gonads are present, e.g., Amphioxsus, Asymmetron, etc.

(c) Hemichordata :

• Its body is divided into Probosis, Colar and Neck.
• In Probosis, notochord like structure is formed.
• They are marine animals, e.g., Balanoglossus.

Question 6.
What are glass sponges?
Answer:
Skeleton of some sponges are transparent and their spicules or spines are silicious thus they are called as glass sponges.

Animal Kingdom Class 11 Important Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Differentiate between Intracellular digestion and Extracellular digestion. (NCERT)
Answer:
Intracellular digestion :
The process of digestion which occurs inside the cell is called as intracellular digestion. Unicellular organisms like Amoeba, Paramoecium engulf food by endocytosis process then hydrolytic enzymes present in the lysosomes help for digestion. After absorption of digested food, undigested food is released out of the body by exocytosis process. Whereas Extracellular digestion is the process of digestion which occurs outside the cell. In multicellular organisms extracellular digestion occurs in the digestive system.

Question 2.
Write differences between Direct and Indirect development.
Answer:

• Direct development: In this type of development larva stage is not found. Zygote directly develops to form individual, e.g., Human, Rat, Elephant, Monkey etc.
• Indirect development: In this type of development zygote first develops into larva, then larva develops to form young individual, e.g., Cockroach, frog etc.

Question 3.
What is the importance of presence of air bladder in fishes?
Answer:
Air bladder present in the fishes help for buoyancy, due to which they may swim easily, even if it reaches to the bottom it can come up easily, e.g., Exocoetus, Rohu fishes.

Question 4.
Write differences between Chordates and Non-chordates.
Answer:
Differences between Chordates and Non-chordates

Chordates (Vertebrate)	Non-chordates (Invertebrate)
1. Vertebral column present.	Vertebral column absent.
2. Central nervous system is hollow and dorsal in position.	Central nervous system is solid and ventral in position.
3. Heart is ventral in position.	Heart is dorsal in position.
4. Gill slits are present.	Gill slits are absent.
5. Haemoglobin present in red blood corpuscles.	Haemoglobin if present is dissolved in plasma.
6. A post anal tail is found.	The anus is posterior in position, so no post anal tail.

Question 5.
Explain adaptations in birds for aerial habitat.
Answer:
Basic features of birds with reference to habitat:
Birds are terrestrial organ-isms which can fly in the air. Following adaptations are found in them for aerial habitat:

• Body is covered with feathers which hold air and decreases body weight.
• Forelimbs are modified into wings.
• Digits of hind limbs are adapted for sitting on the branches of the tree.
• Bones are hollow and aerated thus decreases body weight for flying.
• Urinary bladder is not found and they do not store waste product in the body (As it is produced is released out from the body).
• Foot webs are found in aquatic birds for swimming.
• Air sacs are found on the lungs.
• Beak is adapted according to its food habit. It is toothless.

Question 6.
Write down the name of the animals which are related with the given organs :
1. Compound eye,
2. Carapace,
3. Medusa,
4. Flame cells,
5. Placoid scales,
6. Blabber,
7. Parapodia.
Answer:
Organs – Animals related to it

1. Compound eye – Periplanata
2. Carapace – Crab
3. Medusa – Aurelia
4. Flame cells – Plan aria
5. Placoid cells – Scoliodon
6. Blabber – Whale fish
7. Parapodia – Nereis
8. Tube feet – Starfish

Question 7.
Write down the difference between :
1. Coelomate and Pseudocoelomate,
2. Urochordata and Cephalochordata,
3. Flat worm and Round worm,
4. Bony fishes and Cartilage fishes, 5. Oviparous and Viviparous, 6. Diploblastic and Triploblastic.
Answer:
1. Coelomate and Pseudocoelomate:
Presence of true coelom with mesoderm surrounding the body cavity entirely is called Coelomate, whereas Pseudocoelomate are partially open fluid filled body cavity which develops in the blastocoel, so mesoderm does not entirely surround the body cavity.

2. Urochordata and Cephalochordata :
Urochordata are marine sessile animals possessing notochord in tail region in larval stage and degenerates in adult stage whereas Cephalochordata are marine and solitary animal possessing notochord from head to tail.

3. Flat Worm and Round Worm:
The animal body of Platyhelminthes are flat and tapering only at the anterior end are called Flat worm. Whereas the animal body of Nemathelminthes are round in shape, tapering at both ends.

4. Bony fishes and Cartilage fishes :
Fishes having bones are called Bony fishes and they are fresh water as well as marine whereas Cartilaginous fishes are having cartilage they are all marine.

5. Oviparous and Viviparous :
Oviparous animals lay eggs outside the body and fertilization may be internal or external, whereas Viviparous animals hatch eggs within the female body and fertilization is internal.

6. Diploblastic and Triploblastic :
Diploblastic animals are those where their embryo are made up of two germ layers : Ectoderm and endoderm, whereas Triploblastic animals are those where their embryo are made up of three germ layers : Ectoderm, meso-derm and endoderm.

Question 8.
What is False fish? Explain it with examples.
Answer:
Those animals which live in water and have the capacity to swim in water like fishes. But they do not come under class Pisces. So they are called false fish.
Example :

• Jelly fish : It is Aurelia genus and is in phylum Coelenterats.
• Silverfish : It is in phylum Arthropoda and is genus of Lepisma.
• Devilfish : It is in phylum Mollusca of genus Octopus.
• Starfish : It is in phylum Echinodermata of genus Asterias.

Question 9.
Describe the characteristic features of the class mammalia.
Or
In which class of Animalia human is included and why? Explain with five features of this class.
Answer:
Characteristics of class mammalia : It is the highly developed group of king-dom animalia.
Human is placed under the class mammalia, because of the following reason :

• They are isothermal. Body is covered by hairs. Skin contains sweat and oil glands.
• Females possess mammary glands, which secrete milk after the birth of young ones and thus, infant is given nutrition in the initial stage of growth.
• The heart is four chambered with two auricles and two ventricles. Only the left aortic arch is present.
• Ear with fleshy external ear or pinna.
• A muscular diaphragm is present, which separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity.
• They have well developed brain, this enables them to learn.
• Number of neck vertebrae is always seven.
• They are warm blooded animals.

Question 10.
What do you mean by Amphibian? Give eight characteristics of class Amphibia.
Answer:
Those animals of phylum Chordata which live both on land and in water are called Amphibian animals e.g., Frog (Rana tigrind), Bufo etc.
Characteristics of class Amphibia :

• Their body is fit for survival in water and on land.
• They are cold blooded animals.
• Their skin is moist, slippery and glandular, due to which they can respire both on land and in water.
• They possess ears which consists of tympanum.
• R.B.Cs. are nucleated.
• Heart is three chambered.
• Webs are present between the digits of hind limb.
• External fertilization occurs in water.

Question 11.
What do you understand by symmetry of animals? How many kinds of symmetry is found in animals ? Write at least any one character and give one example from each type of symmetry.
Answer:
Symmetry :
The arrangement of various parts of the body of organisms is called as symmetry .There are three types of symmetry found in animals :

1. Asymmetry :
   In asymmetrical arrangement body of animals cannot be divided into two equal parts in any plane, e.g., Gastropods, Sponges.
2. Radial symmetry :
   In this type, body of animals can be divided into two equal halves by cutting in any of the radial planes, e.g., Hydra and Starfish.
3. Bilateral symmetry :
   In this type, body of animals can be divided into two equal halves through only one plane i.e., main axis of the body passing through the center, e.g., All vertebrate animals.

Question 12.
Write the characters of the phylum Annelida.
Answer:
Characteristic features of the phylum Annelida :

• They are mostly aquatic, marine or fresh water, burrowing or living in tubes.
• The body is thin, elongated, cylindrical and is metamerically segmented, externally by transverse groove and internally by septa into a number of divisions, each division is called segment or metamere.
• Body is bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and coelomatic, which is covered by a contractile and muscular body wall. Epidermis is cuticulized.
• A straight, tube like alimentary canal is found in the center of body cavity which is extending from mouth to anus.
• Locomotion takes place by setae or chaetae.
• Blood vascular system is closed type. Blood is red due to presence of haemoglobin. R.B.Cs. are not found in the blood.

Question 13.
Describe the characteristic features of the kingdom Animalia.
Answer:
Characteristic features of the kingdom Animalia :

• The organisms of this kingdom are eukaryotic, multicellular, heterotrophic and holozoic in nutrition.
• Cell wall and plastids are absent.
• Locomotion and movement occur.
• All of them are consumers.
• They reproduce sexually, except some lower animals.
• They possess muscles, which possess the capacity of expansion and contraction.
• Body is triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical and possesses the capacity of sensation.
• They possess nervous and hormonal systems for coordination.

Question 14.
Describe the important adaptations of the Arthropods.
Answer:
Phylum Arthropoda is the largest phylum of the animal kingdom. The following adaptive characters are found in the arthropods :

• Body is covered with a chitinous cuticle forming exoskeleton.
• The salts of CaC03 and calcium phosphates are also present in the exoskeleton, which increase the hardness of the body.
• Respiration through general body surface by gills in aquatic forms, trachea or booklungs in terrestrial forms.
• Moulting is present in the exoskeleton.
• The body is bilaterally symmetrical and metamerically segmented.
• Exoskeleton is solid, hence it provides the space for joining the muscles.
• The animals are suited for aquatic as well as terrestrial environment.
  Ex. Butterfly, Scorpion, Cockroach, Housefly, Mosquito.

Question 15.
Describe the characteristic features of the phylum Chordata.
Or
(A) Write three important characters of phylum Chordata.
(B) Write the name of phylum of the following animal:
(i) Star fish,
(ii) Jelly fish,
(iii) Octopus,
(iv) Earthworm,
(v) Tape worm,
(vi) Paiaemon.
Answer:
Characteristic features of the phylum Chordata :

• Notochord is present in any stage of life.
• Nervechord is present.
• Gills are present in any stage of life.
• A heart made up of muscles is present.
• Presence of closed circulatory system and blood cells contain R.B.Cs.
• Endoskeleton is present, which is made up of bones and cartilages.
• Presence of two pairs of appendages and well developed system. e.g., Man, Frog, Lizards, etc.

(B)
Name of related animal and their phylum :
Animal – Phylum

• Starfish- Echinodermata
• Jellyfish – Coelenterata
• Octopus – Mollusca
• Earthworm – Annelida
• Tapeworm – Platyhelminthes
• Paiaemon – Arthropoda.

Question 16.
Give characteristic features of phylum Moliusca.
Answer:
Characteristic features of Moliusca :

• They are essentially aquatic, mostly marine, few fresh water and some terrestrial forms.
• The body is soft, bilaterally symmetrical and consists of head, foot, circular mantle and visceral mass.
• Body is protected by an exoskeletal of calcareous shell, secreted by mantle.
• They possess a mantle cavity between body wall and mantle, in which digestive system, reproductive system and kidneys are opened.
• Head is distinct, bearing the mouth and provided with eyes, tentacles and other sense o-gans.
• Ventral body is modified into muscular flat or foot, which is variously modified for creeping, burrowing and swimming.
• Pharynx contains a rasping organ the radula except in bivalvia (pelecypoda).

Question 17.
Name the class which is represented by bats. Give three reasons.
Answer:
Bats are placed under the class Mammalia due to the following features :

• It has mammary glands with teats,
• Body is covered by hairs and skin possessing sweat and oil glands,
• Females give birth to young ones,
• It has four chambered heart.

Question 18.
Why whale fish is placed under the class mammalia? Give four reasons.
Or
Why is whale included in Mammalia? Explain with five reasons.
Answer:
Whale is placed under the class Mammalia, because of the following reasons :

• Females give birth to young ones.
• It contains mammary glands with teats.
• Their heart is four chambered.
• Fertilization is internal.
• Young ones develop within uterus.

Question 19.
Why frogs are placed under the class Amphibia? Give four reasons.
Answer:
Frogs are placed under the class Amphibia, because of the following reasons :

• Their body is fit for survival in water and on land,
• They are cold blooded animals,
• Their skin is moist, slippery and glandular, due to which they can respire both on land and in water,
• They possess ears.

Question 20.
Give at least one example of the following animals :
1. Egg laying mammal,
2. Flying mammal,
3. Flying reptile,
4. Flying fish.
Answer:
Animal – Example

1. Egg laying mammal – Echidna
2. Flying mammal – Bat
3. Flying reptile – Draco
4. Flyingfish – Exocetus.

Question 21.
What do you understand by Bilateral Symmetry? Explain it with example.
Answer:
Bilateral symmetry : If the body can be divided into two equal halves by one plane only it is called bilateral symmetry. Here the body organs are paired and occur on the two sides of a central axis, e.g., all vertebrates like fishes, human beings, birds, etc.

Such animals possess a front or anterior end and a rear or posterior end. They also possess an upper back or dorsal side and a lower belly or ventral side. On the basis of dorsal and ventral sides the right and left side® ‘if the body are called lateral sides. Man, Snake, Earthworm are the examples of Bilateral symmetry.

Question 22.
Differentiate between Starfish and Flyingfish on the basis of their body
symmetry and exoskeleton.
Answer:
Differences between Starfish and Flyingfish

Characters	Starfish	Flyingfish
1. Body symmetry	Body is radially symmetrical.	Body is bilaterally symmetrical.
2. Exoskeleton spines.	Body is covered by calciated spines.	Body is covered by

Question 23.
Write down the name of phylum and class of the following animals :
1. Roundworm,
2. Leech,
3. Scorpion,
4. Bat.
Answer:

1. Roundworm:Phylum – Aschelminthes
   Class – Nematoda
2. Leech :Phylum – Annelida
   Class – Hirudinia
3. Scorpion:Phylum – Arthropoda
   Class – Arachnida
4. Bat:Phylum – Chordata
   Class – Mammalia.

Question 24.
Write down the name of phylum and class of the following animals :
1. Tapeworm,
2. Nereis,
3. Cockroach,
4. Starfish.
Answer:

1. Tapeworm:Phylum – Platyhelminthes
   Class – Cestoda
2. Nereis:Phylum – Annelida
   Class – Polychaeta
3. Cockroach :Phylum – Arthropoda
   Class – Insecta
4. Starfish: Phylum – Echinodermata
   Class – Asteroidia.

Question 25.
Write down the name of phylum and class of the following animals :
1. Hydra,
2. Earthworm,
3. Unio,
4. Horsefish,
5. Turtle.
Answer:

1. Hydra :Phylum – Coelenterata
   Class – Hydrozoa
2. Earthworm:Phylum – Annelida
   Class – Oligochaeta
3. Unio: Phylum – Mollusca
   Class – Gastropoda
4. Horse fish :Phylum – Chordata
   Class – Osteichthyes
5. Turtle:Phylum – Chordata
   Class – Amphibia.

Question 26.
Draw a well labelled diagram of Earthworm.
Answer:

Fig. Earthworm (Pheretima) : (A) Ventral view; (B) Segment 1, 2 and 3; (C) Reproductive organs

Question 27.
Write down the zoological name of the following animals :
1. Housefly,
2. Elephant,
3. Ostrich,
4. Roundworm,
5. Kangaroo.
Answer:
Common Name – Zoological Name

1. Housefly – Musca domestica
2. Elephant – Elephas maximus
3. Ostrich – Struthio
4. Roundworm – Ascaris lumbricoidis
5. Kangaroo – Macropus.

Question 28.
Pila and Octopus are kept in same phylum why?
Answer:
Pila and Octopus are kept in same phylum because :

• Their body is soft covered by shell.
• Body consists of head, visceral mass and foot.
• Whole body is covered by muscular mantle.

Question 29.
Write the name of locomotory organs of the following animals :
1. Amoeba,
2. Earthworm,
3. Paramoecium,
4. Snake,
5. Starfish,
6. Hydra,
7. Euglena.
Answer:
Animal – Name of the locomotory organs

1. Amoeba – Pseudopodia.
2. Earthworm – Setae.
3. Paramoecium – Cilia.
4. Snake – Ribs and scales.
5. Starfish – Arms.
6. Hydra – Tentacles.
7. Eugiena – Flagella.

Question 30.
Write the phylum of following animals :
1. Starfish,
2. Jellyfish,
3. Dogfish,
4. Horsefish,
5. Devilfish,
6. Whalefish,
7. Silverfish.
Answer:
Animal – Phylum

1. Starfish – Echinodermata
2. Jellyfish – Coelenterata
3. Dogfish – Chordata
4. Horsefish – Chordata
5. Devilfish – Mollusca
6. Whalefish – Chordata –
7. Silverfish – Arthropoda.

Question 31.
Give one example of each of the following :
1. Animal with largest life span,
2. Largest lizard,
3. Largest snake,
4. Largest animal of the world.
Answer:
Animal – Examples

1. Animal with largest life span – Turtles
2. Largest lizard – Kamado dragon
3. Largest snake – Python
4. Largest animal of the world – Blue whale.

Question 32.
All vertebrates are chordates, but all chordates are not vertebrates. Explain.
Answer:
All vertebrates have three important characteristics :

• Presence of Notochord,
• Presence of nerve chord and
• Presence of gill slits.

All vertebrates are bilaterally symmetrical, Notochord is replaced by vertebral column, Heart is ventrally situated, Level of organisation is observed, closed circulatory system is found in them, tail is found in them. On the basis of all above characteristics it is clear that all vertebrates are chordates, whereas all chordates are not vertebrates because in vertebrates notochord is found in embryonic stage whereas in adult stage it is replaced by vertebral column and chordate may or may not has cranium jaws, vertebral column and brain.

Thus, it is clear that all vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.

Question 33.
Write the scientific name of the following animal:
1. Frog,
2. Man,
3. Cat,
4. Ox.
Answer:
Common Name – Zoological name

1. Frog – Ran a tigrina
2. Man – Homo sapiens
3. Cat – Felis domestica
4. Ox – Bos indicus.

Question 34.
Classify the classes of Phylum chordata.
Answer:
Phylum chordata is classified into seven classes :
Class – Example

1. Cyclostomata – Petromycin
2. Chondricthyes – Scoliodon
3. Osteichthyes – Labeo
4. Amphibia – Rana
5. Reptilia – Snakes
6. Aves – Columbia
7. Mammals – Macropus (Kangaroo)

Question 35.
Write five phylum giving examples.
Answer:
Five Phylum are :
Phylum – Example

1. Porifera – Sycon
2. Coelenterata – Hydra
3. Platyhelminthes – Planaria
4. Nemathelminthes – Ascaris
5. Annelida – Pheritima.

Question 36.
Write short notes on :
1. Haemocoel,
2. Porifera,
3. Insecta,
4. Cyclostomata,
5. Protochordata,
6. Nematoda,
7. Metamerism.
Answer:
1. Haemocoel: Coelom is a cavity which lies between body wall and digestive tract. It is filled with a fluid called coelomic fluid, but in phylum Arthropoda, in place of coelomic fluid, blood is filled, therefore it is called Haemocoel. It works as transporter.

2. Porifera :
General characteristics of phylum Porifera :

• They are radially symmetrical, multicellular and diploblastic animals.
• They are mainly marine except few sedentary and colonial or solitary.
• The skeleton is formed of calcareous or siliceous spicules present in between gelatinous substance.
• Body is perforated by numerous pores called Ostia.
• Nervous system is absent. Digestion is intracellular. No respiratory and excretory organs are present, e.g., Sycon, Spongilla.

3. Insecta :
It is the class of Phylum Arthropoda, which has following points :

• Body is divisible into head, thorax and abdomen.
• Thorax is three segmented and carries three pairs of legs and two pairs of wings.
• Mostly terrestrial but some are aquatic.

4. Cyclostomata :
It is a part of Phylum chordata, which have following characters :

• It consists of Cranium box, Jaws are absent, but mouth is suctorial.
• Body is long, narrow, cylindrical with laterally compressed tail. ‘
• It appears like fish, but skin is naked glandular.
• Single nostril is found on the dorsal surface of the head, e.g., Petromyzon.

5. Protochordata :
It is a part of chordata, having following characters :

• Notochord is not properly developed.
• Cranium and Jaws are absent.
• Body is laterally compressed and leaf like.

6. Nematoda:

• Nematodes have tube within a tube body plan with mouth, pharynx, intestine and anus. Body is covered with thick cuticle.
• They have unsegmented triploblastic and bilaterally symmetrical cylindrical body.
• Posterior end of body is frequently curved in males while pointed in females. Males are always smaller than females.
• Body is not distinguished into different regions. Head is not distinct.
• They are pseudocoelomic.

7. Metamerism :
The body of many animals is formed of numerous segments which show serial repetition of parts. This kind of segmentation is called metameric segmentation and the phenomenon is known as metamerism.

Question 37.
Give eight characteristics of super class Pisces.
Answer:
Characteristics of super class Pisces :

1. They are aquatic vertebrates,
2. Body is covered by scales,
3. They are cold-blooded organisms (Poikilothermal),
4. Heart is two chambered,
5. Respiration by gills,
6. Tympanic membrane absent,
7. Lateral line is found on the body,
8. Fins present for swimming.

Question 38.
Compare the oviparous, viviparous and ovo-viviparous among animals.
Answer:
Comparison of Oviparous, Viviparous and Ovo-viviparous Animals

Oviparous	Viviparous	Ovo-viviparous
1. Female lays eggs.	Give birth to young ones.	Give birth to young ones.
2. Fertilization may be external or internal.	Always internal.	Always internal.
3. Egg is generally large in size.	Egg is small in size.	Egg is large in size.
4. Development occurs outside the body of female.	Development occurs inside the body of female.	Development occurs inside the body of female.
5. Placenta in not formed. eg., All birds, Amphibians and Most fishes.	Placenta is formed. eg., Most of mammals.	Placenta not formed. eg.,Rattle snake.

Question 39.
“Number of offsprings produced by oviparous and viviparous organisms is equal”. Yes or No? Give reason.(NCERT)
Answer:
Oviparous organisms lay eggs whereas Viviparous organisms gives birth to young one.
Number of offsprings produced by them are not equal because in oviparous organisms internal or external fertilization occurs. They lays large number of eggs which undergoes various stages of development. During this long period of development some eggs get spoiled and remaining hatches to produce offsprings, whereas viviparous organisms give birth to young individual which are very less in number. Development of embryo occurs directly in the uterus of mother and no larva stage appears.

Question 40.
If a specimen is provided to you, what step will you take to classify the organisms? (NCERT)
Answer:
Inspite of different external features and shapes, some basic similarities are found in cellular organization, body symmetry, type of coelome, digestive system, circulatory system and reproductive system of the organisms.
To classify, all these features can be considered.

Question 41.
How structure of coelome and coelomate is helpful in the classification of living organisms? (NCERT)
Answer:
Coelome is defined as a cavity lined by mesoderm, it lies between the body wall and the digestive tract in which various internal organs are found suspended. Presence or absence and nature of coelome is the main basis of classification. Organism with coelome is called as Coelomate. e.g., Annelids, Echinodermates and Chordates etc.

The animals without coelome are called as Acoelomate. eg., Sponges, coelentrates and flatworms. In some other organisms mesoderm is found in the form of small packs scattered in between outer ectoderm and inner endoderm. Such organisms are called are Pseudocoelomate. eg., Roundworms such as Ascaris.

Animal Kingdom Class 11 Important Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Give the general characteristic of phylum Porifera.
Answer:
General characteristics of phylum Porifera :

• They are radially symmetrical, multicellular and diploblastic animals.
• They are mainly marine except few sedentary and colonial or solitary.
• The skeleton is formed of calcareous or siliceous spicules present in between gelatinous substance.
• Body is perforated by numerous pores called Ostia.
• Nervous system is absent. Digestion is intracellular. No respiratory and excretory organs are present, e.g., Sycon, Spongilla.

Question 2.
Give eight characteristics of phylum Coelenterata.
Answer:
Characteristics of phylum Coelenterata :

• They are multicellular animals showing cell-tissue level of body organisation with most of the cells specialised for different functions and some forming a tissue. They exhibit physiological division of labour.
• Cnidarians are diploblastic metazoans, the body wall is made up of two layers the outer ectoderm and inner endoderm (gastroderm) with middle non-living gelatinous layer mesoglea.
• Coelenterates exhibit a blind sac plan and are radially symmetrical.
• Cnidarians are acoelomate.
• Head and segmentation absent.
• These are short or slender, extensile projections called tentacles, encircle the mouth in one or more whorls and are used for food-capture, intake and defence.
• Coelome is not found in them. Only one cavity found in the body called coelenteron, which is enclosed by endoderm. e.g., Hydra, Aurelia.

Question 3.
“Arthropoda is regarded as largest group of animals.” Give reason.
Answer:
Arthropoda is regarded as a most successful and largest group of animals. It has about 9,00,000 species out of which 7,50,000 species are the members of class Insecta. Due to following adaptations they forms approximately two third (2/3) part of the total number of animals present in the world :

1. Legs are divided into small segments.
2. They are found in different habitats likes air, water, soil as parasites etc.
3. Body is triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical.
4. The true coelome is greatly reduced.
5. Open circulatory system is found in them.
6. Excretory organs are malpighian tubules.
7. Compound eyes are found in them.
8. Respiration occurs through tracheal system.
9. The segments of the body bears paired, jointed and lateral appendages which are modified as jaws, gills and legs.
10. Body is covered by thick exoskeleton containing Chitin. e.g., Palaemon, cockroach, Julus, Crab etc.

Question 4.
Write down the characteristics of phylum Platyhelminthes.
Answer:
General characters of Platyhelminthes :

• Flatworms are triploblastic (i.e., consists of three germinal layers ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm). Acoelomate, bilaterally symmetrical, dorsoventrally flattened organisms with anteriorly differentiated into a definite head.
• They have flattened body because of their primitive system of circulation and excretion. Each cell of the body must be near to the body surface to get nutrients and oxygen and for the removal of waste products and carbon dioxide.
• Platyhelminthes have unsegmented body except in tapeworms (Class-Cestoda). In Cestodes body is strobilated, i.e., it consists of large number of proglottids.
• Flatworms are with blind sac body plan.
• The alimentary canal is either absent or highly branched and only mouth is present and anus is absent.
• They do not have any body cavity or coelom, various organs are embedded in a sort of solid packing tissue known as mesenchyme or parenchyma.

Question 5.
Explain modern classification of Animal Kingdom giving two-two examples.
Answer:
Modem classification of Animal Kingdom, showing important phylum is as follows, Animal Kingdom is divided into three branches. They are :
(A) Mesozoa Branch :
They are tissueless group of cells. It consists of only one
phylum.
1. Phylum Mesozoa :

• Body is made up of group of cells.
• Found in water, e.g., Diacima.

(B) Parazoa Branch :
It has cellular organization, clear mouth, anus absent. It has only one phylum.
2. Phylum Parazoa :

• Body consists of numerous pores.
• It is found in stagnant and flowing water, e.g., Sycon, Euspongia.

(C) Eumetazoa Branch :
It consists of tissue, organ, mouth alimentary canal. It consists of following
phylum :
3. Phylum Coelenterata:

• Coelenteron present, radial symmetry and tissue present,
• It is a multicellular organism, e.g., Hydra, Aurelia.

4. Phylum Platyhelminthes :

• Body ribbon shaped,
• Body cavity absent, e.g., Taenia solium, Planaria.

5. Phylum Nematoda :

• Body is long and round,
• Female is longer than male. e.g., Ascaris.

6. Phylum Annelida :

• Body is segmented,
• Locomotion by setae. e.g., Leech, Earthworm.

7. Phylum Mollusca :

• Body is soft,
• Shell is present all round the body, e.g., Unio, Pila.

8. Phylum Arthropoda :

• Jointed legs,
• Exoskeleton made of Chitin,
• Eyes simple or compound, e.g., Cockroach, Scorpion.

9. Phylum Echinodermata :

• Body radially symmetrical,
• Skin covered with spines, e.g., Starfish.

10. Phylum Chordata:

• Animal having notochord, nervecord and gills are present.
• All organs are well developed, e.g., Frog, Man, Fish.

Question 6.
Write down the characteristics of Chordata; classify it giving two-two characters with examples.
Answer:
Characteristics of Chordata :
Characteristic features of the phylum Chordata :

• Notochord is present in any stage of life.
• Nervechord is present.
• Gills are present in any stage of life.
• A heart made up of muscles is present.
• Presence of closed circulatory system and blood cells contain R.B.Cs.
• Endoskeleton is present, which is made up of bones and cartilages.
• Presence of two pairs of appendages and well developed system. e.g., Man, Frog, Lizards, etc.

Phylum Chordata is further classified into 7 classes; they are :
1. Class Cyclostomata :

• Cranium box is present,
• Lower jaw absent,
• Suctorial mouth, e.g., Petromyzon, Myxine.

2. Class Chondrichthyes :

• Endoskeleton is cartilagenous,
• Operculum and air bladder are absent, e.g., Scoliodon, Torpedo.

3. Class Osteichthyes :

• Endoskeleton formed of bones,
• Gills are covered by operculum, e.g., Labeo, Hippocampus.

4. Class Amphibia :

• They are amphibian animals, living both on land and in water but its larva grows in water only,
• It consists of four limbs, e.g., Rana tigrina, Bufo.

5. Class Reptiles :

• They creep on land,
• Skin is dry. e.g., Calotis, Naja.

6. Class Aves :

• Forelimbs modified into wings, and whole body is covered by feathers,
• Air is filled in bones, e.g., Columba, Passer.

7. Class Mammals :

• Presence of hair on the body,
• Mammary glands with teats, e g., Macropus, Homo sapiens.

Question 7.
If there is lack of knowledge of basic features then will you face problem to classify animals? (NCERT)
Answer:
Following problems may be faced while classifying the animals :

• Different levels of organisations are found in different organisms, such as cellular level, tissue level, organ level etc.
• Some animals are radially symmetrical and some are bilaterally symmetrical.
• Some animals has closed circulatory system and some has open circulatory system.
• Some shows extracellular and some shows intracellular digestion.
• Some are acoelomate, some are coelomate and some are pseudocoelomate.
  Thus, lack of all above basic knowledge causes problems to classify animals.

Question 8.
Classify Mammalia into subclasses with characters and examples.
Answer:
There are three subclasses : Prototheria, Metatheria and Eutheria.
(A) Prototheria :

• Nippleless mammary glands.
• External ear absent.
• Egg laying mammals.
  Examples : Platypus, Ornithorincus.

(B) Metatheria :

• Mammary glands with nipples.
• External ear present.
  Examples: Kangaroo.

(C) Eutheria :

• These are true mammals with allantoic placenta.
• They give birth to fully developed young ones.
• Mammary glands and their teats are well-developed.
• Embryo develops inside the uterus and is nourished by a true allantoic placenta.
  Examples: Talpa, monkey, man, whale, dog, goat, rat, bat, elephant (Elephas), tigers, cows, horse, squirrel, etc.

Question 9.
Write short note on following :
(1) Class-Aves,
(2) Class-Reptilia,
(3) Class-Pisces.
Answer:
(1) Class-Aves:
It is an important class of phylum-Chordata. It includes organisms which can fly and has notochord, nerve cord and gill slits in some stages of its life cycle.
Characteristic features :

• They are warm blooded organisms,
• Body is covered with feathers,
• Body is divided into head, neck, trunk and tail,
• Air sacs are found on the lungs,
• Bones are hollow,
• Heart is four chambered,
• Forelimbs are modified into wings.
  Examples : Columba, Peacock, Ostrich etc.

(2) Class-Reptilia :
Class-Reptilia belongs to phylum-Chordata.
Characteristic features :

• They are cold blooded animals,
• Skin is dry and consists of scales,
• RBCs are nucleated,
• Mostly terrestrial but some are aquatic,
• Heart consists of three chambers,
• They show internal fertilization,
• Body is divided into head, trunk and tail,
• They are oviparous, a few snakes are viviparous.
  Examples : Lizard, Snake, Crocodile etc.

(3) Class-Pisces :
Class-Pisces is an important class of phylum-Chordata. It includes aquatic organisms.
Characteristic features :

• Body is streamlined,
• Body is covered by scales,
• They are cold blooded organisms,
• Heart is two chambered,
• Respiration by gills,
• Lateral line is found on the body,
• Fins help in swimming,
• Tympanic membrane is absent.
  Example : Scoliodon, Rohu fish, Torpedo etc.

Animal Kingdom Class 11 Important Questions Objective Type

1. Choose the correct answers:

Question 1.
Water vascular system is the characteristics feature of:
(a) Porifera
(b) Cnideria
(c) Echinodermata
(d) Chordata.
Answer:
(c) Echinodermata

Question 2.
All members of ………………. are marine :
(a) Porifera
(b) Coelenterata
(c) Echinodermata
(d) Anthozoa.
Answer:
(c) Echinodermata

Question 3.
Following is the important feature of arthropoda :
(a) Jointed legs
(b) Three pairs of legs
(c) Sheath on body
(d) Two pairs of wings.
Answer:
(a) Jointed legs

Question 4.
Which of the following is a true fish :
(a) Cuttlefish
(b) Silverfish
(c) Whale
(d) Flyingfish.
Answer:
(d) Flyingfish.

Question 5.
Amnion is found in the embryo of:
(a) Cockroach
(b) Tadpole
(c) Fish
(d) Lizard.
Answer:
(d) Lizard.

Question 6.
Animals found in the bottom of sea are called as :
(a) Lentic
(b) Lotic
(c) Benthic
(d) Pelagic.
Answer:
(c) Benthic

Question 7.
Pearl formed from Pearl oyster is :
(a) First drop of rain
(b) Drop of dew
(c) Egg which cannot come outside the body
(d) A round external cup buried in the skin.
Answer:
(d) A round external cup buried in the skin.

Question 8.
Phylum which contains largest number of species :
(a) Chordata
(b) Arthropoda
(c) Insecta
(d) Mollusca.
Answer:
(b) Arthropoda

Question 9.
Which of the following animal possessing exo and endoskeleton :
(a) Frog
(b) Earthworm
(c) Snake
(d) Leech.
Answer:
(c) Snake

Question 10.
Which of the following is not a fish :
(a) Liingfish
(b) Dogfish
(c) Catfish
(d) Silverfish.
Answer:
(d) Silverfish.

Question 11.
Locomotory organ of Amoeba is:
(a) Tentacle
(b) Pseudopodia
(c) Flagella
(d) Cilia.
Answer:
(b) Pseudopodia

Question 12.
Kangaroo is :
(a) Prototheria
(b) Metatheria
(c) Eutheria
(d) Reptiles.
Answer:
(b) Metatheria

Question 13.
Animals of …………… class has three pairs of legs :
(a) Arthropoda
(b) Gastropoda
(c) Insecta
(d) Crustacea.
Answer:
(c) Insecta

Question 14.
Mesoglea is the characteristic feature of the phylum :
(a) Porifera
(b) Coelenterata
(c) Annelida
(d) Hydrozoa.
Answer:
(b) Coelenterata

Question 15.
Leech is:
(a) Parasitic
(b) Autotrophic
(c) Roundworm
(d) Flatworm.
Answer:
(a) Parasitic

Question 16.
Which of the following is an oviparous mammal:
(a) Whale
(b) Platypus
(e) Rabbit
(d) Snake.
Answer:
(b) Platypus

Question 17.
Best definition of birds:
(a) They are flying
(b) Isothermic
(e) Winged bipedal
(d) Above tetrapod.
Answer:
(d) Above tetrapod.

Question 18.
Which of the following is a flying fox:
(a) Fox
(b) Bat
(e) Reptile
(d) Mollusca.
Answer:
(b) Bat

Question 19.
Causal organism of filaria disease is:
(a) Fasciola
(b) Taenia
(c) Wuchereria
(d) Mosquìto.
Answer:
(c) Wuchereria

Question 20.
Light blue colour of the blood of arthropods is due to:
(a) Haemoglobin
(b) Haemocyanin
(c) Hirudin
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Haemocyanin

Question 21.
Blind chamber body arrangement is found in:
(a) Sponges
(b) Annelids
(c) Coelenterates
(d) Mammals.
Answer:
(c) Coelenterates

Question 22.
Cephalopoda is a class of animals having:
(a) Notochord is elongated up to head
(b) Feet are found on the head
(c) Head is found on legs
(d) Head is jointed with cephalothorax.
Answer:
(c) Head is found on legs

Question 23.
Pearl oyster is associated with the class:
(a) Gastropoda
(b) Pelecypoda
(e) Schiphozoa
(d) Amphineura.
Answer:
(b) Pelecypoda

Question 24.
Eutherian mammals are:
(a) Oviparous
(b) Viviparous
(c) Ovi-viviparous
(d) Both (a) and (c).
Answer:
(b) Viviparous

Question 25.
Mesoglea is made up of:
(a) Amoeboid cell
(b) Nerve cell
(e) Nematocyst
(d) A cellular jelly
Answer:
(d) A cellular jelly

2. Fill in the blanks:

(A)
1. The skeleton of Porifera is chiefly formed of ………………
Answer:
Spicules

2. Shell of Mollusca is secreted by …………………
Answer:
Mantle

3. Physalia is popularly known as ………………….
Answer:
Portuguese man of war

4. ………………… fishes are exclusively marine.
Answer:
Cartilaginous

5. Pneumatic bones are found in …………………..
Answer:
Birds

6. Jointed appendages is the important characteristic of ……………… phylum.
Answer:
Arthropoda

(B)
1. Arthropoda is classified on the basis of wings and ………………..
Answer:
Appendages

2. Silverfish belongs to …………………
Answer:
Arthropoda

3. Heart of amphibians consists of …………………. chambers.
Answer:
Three

4. Bones of birds are …………………..
Answer:
Hollow

5. Most of the flat worms are anaerobes, this is ………………… adaptation.
Answer:
Parasitic

6. Starfish is ………………… symmetrical.
Answer:
Radially

7. Jointed legs are found in …………………… phylum
Answer:
Arthropoda

8. Excretory organs of earthworm are …………….
Answer:
Nephridia

9. Malpighian tubules are the ……………….. organs of insect.
Answer:
Excretory

10. Presence of hairs on the body surface is the characteristic features of class …………………..
Answer:
Mammalia

3. Match the following:

(A)

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Reptalia	(a) Echinodermata
2. Starfish	(b) Mollusca
3. Devilfish	(c) Pisces
4. Cartilage fish	(d) Tetrapoda.

Answer:
1. (d) Tetrapoda.
2. (a) Echinodermata
3. (b) Mollusca
4. (c) Pisces

(B)

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Ostrich	(a) Platyhelminthes
2. Whale	(b) Aves
3. Round worm	(c) Mammalia
4. Tapeworm	(d) Nematoda.

Answer:
1. (b) Aves
2. (c) Mammalia
3. (d) Nematoda
4. (a) Platyhelminthes

(C)

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Nematocyst	(a) Aurelia
2. Tube feet	(b) Planaria
3. Medusa	(c) Starfish
4. Parapodia	(d) Hydra
5. Flame cell	(e) Nereis.

Answer:
1. (d) Hydra
2. (c) Starfish
3. (a) Aurelia
4. (e) Nereis
5. (b) Planaria

(D)

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Operculum	(a) Ctinophora
2. Setae	(b) Mollusca
3. Scale	(c) Porifera
4. Comb plate	(d) Reptilia
5. Radula	(e) Annelida
6. Hair	(f) Cyclostomata or Chonichthyes
7. Choenocyte	(g) Mammalia
8. Gill slits	(h) Osteichthyes.

Answer:
1. (h) Osteichthyes.
2. (e) Annelida
3. (d) Reptilia
4. (a) Ctinophora
5. (b) Mollusca
6. (g) Mammalia
7. (c) Porifera
8. (f) Cyclostomata or Chonichthyes

4. Write true or false:

1. All major groups of animals have evolved in the sea.
Answer:
True

2. Exoskeleton is absent in Vertebrates.
Answer:
False

3. Snakes and Lizards shed their scales as skin cast.
Answer:
True

4. Toad skin is dry and warty and cannot absorb water.
Answer:
False

5. Flatworms are acoelomate organisms.
Answer:
True

5. Answer in one word:

1. The excretory organs in earthworm are.
Answer:
Nephridia

2. The process of transformation of a larva into an adult is called.
Answer:
Metamorphosis

3. The body fat of whale is called.
Answer:
Blubber

4. Malpighian tubules are the organs in insects.
Answer:
Excretory

5. The largest class of molluscs are.
Answer:
Gastropods

6. Write name of one bisexual animal of the phylum annelida.
Answer:
Hirudinaria (the cattle Leech)

Students get through the MP Board Class 11th Biology Important Questions Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement which are most likely to be asked in the exam.

MP Board Class 11th Biology Important Questions Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement

Locomotion and Movement Class 11 Important Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What is arthritis?
Answer:
Arthritis is a disease characterized by the inflammation of the joints. In this disease, the synovial membrane secretes extra fluid which causes swelling and pain in the joints. A hard tissue deposits over the articular cartilages. As a result the joints become stiff.

Question 2.
What is muscle twitch?
Answer:
When a muscle fibre receives only one stimulus, then it contracts only one time. This one time contraction of muscle fibre is called as muscle twitch.

Question 3.
How many vertebrates and ribs are found in human?
Answer:
In human 26 vertebrates, and 12 pairs of ribs are found.

Question 4.
Name the longest bone of human body.
Answer:
Longest bone of human body is femur.

Question 5.
Write name of the locomotory organs of the following organisms :
(i) Paramoecium,
(ii) Hydra,
(iii) Earthworm,
(iv) Octopus,
(v) Starfish.
Answer:
(i) Cilia,
(ii) Tentacle,
(iii) Setae,
(iv) Muscular arm,
(v) Tube feet.

Question 6.
What is Sliding filament theory? (NCERT)
Answer:
Sliding filament theory was proposed by Lein. Muscle fibres contract and relax on being excited by the nerve fibres. According to this theory, during the contraction of muscle, actin filaments slide over the myosin filaments.

Locomotion and Movement Class 11 Important Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What is joint? Name the joints related to the following organs :
(i) Joint of knee,
(ii) Joint between glenoid cavity of pectoral girdle and acetabulum cavity of pelvic girdle with the humerus and femur,
(iii) Elbow joint,
(iv) Joint between skull bones,
(v) Joint between carpals and metacarpals of thumb,
(vi) Ankle joint.
Answer:
Joint: The region at which two or more bones of skeleton come in contact and move freely is called as Joint.
(i) Hinge joint,
(ii) Ball and Socket joint,
(iii) Hinge joint,
(iv) Immovable joint,
(v) Saddle joint,
(vi) Hinge joint.

Question 2.
How movement takes place in skeleton by muscles?
Answer:
The skeleton of our body is connected with each other by voluntary muscles. The fibres that connect the bones with any muscle are known as tendon, whereas the fibres that connect bones to bones are known as ligaments. Muscle cells are made up of muscle fibres having the property of contraction and expansion hence muscle cells also possessing these characteristics. The contraction and expansion of these muscles resulting in the movement of skeleton.

Question 3.
Describe any four functions of the skeletal system.
Answer:
The skeletal system of vertebrates performing the following functions:

1. It protects the heart, brain and other soft organs.
2. It provides base to the body and gives a definite shape to it.
3. Skeletal system functioning like a pendulum and thus performing the process of movement and locomotion.
4. The thick bones of skeleton system synthesise R.B.Cs. and W.B.Cs. within their bone marrow.

Question 4.
From where energy is obtained for contraction of muscles?
Answer:
The energy for the contraction of muscle fibres is obtained from a chemical substance known as adenosine triphosphate (ATP) which is found in mitochondria. This sub¬stance is the source of energy required for the metabolic activities of cells. The energy obtained by the oxidation of glucose which is stored in ATP. Little glucose is present in muscle fibres but myosin is rich in ATP. When the muscle is excited, ATP itself changes into adenosine diphosphate (ADP), thereby releasing energy.
ATP → ADP + P04 + Energy
ADP is again converted into ATP by the energy obtained from the creatine phosphate. CP + ADP → ATP + C. Creatine is resynthesized into creatine phosphate by the energy ob¬tained from glucose of muscle glycogen.

Question 5.
Name various parts of human skeletal system and write number of bones found in them.
Answer:

Question 6.
Red muscle fibres functioning up to a longer period of time than white muscle fibres, why?
Answer:
Red muscle fibres contain a large amount of myoglobin and mitochondria. Myo¬globin combine with oxygen to form oxymyoglobin. For muscular contraction oxygen is derived from oxymyoglobin. These muscles do not respire anaerobically due to presence of oxygen and thus lactic acid is not formed. Thus, red muscle fibres functioning up to a longer period of time without fatigue. White muscle fibres do not contain myoglobin.

The number of mitochondria is also few. Hence oxygen supply becomes irregular and lactic acid is formed in these muscle fibres due to anaerobic respiration. Thus, these muscles become fatigue and they do not functioning up to a longer period of time.

Question 7.
What is meant by twitch muscle and tetanus?
Answer:
Twitch muscle: When a muscle receive only one stimulus then it contracts only one time. This one time contraction of muscle fibre is called as muscle twitch.
Tetanus : It is the permanent contraction condition of the muscle which occurs due to continuous conduction of impulse. This may lead to death of the person.

Question 8.
What is oxygen debt?
Answer:
Oxygen debt: After heavy work or exercise muscle do not get oxygen to fulfil their energy requirement. Thus, they produces ATP by anaerobic process, and lactic acid is formed. In this stage more oxygen is required than normal stage. This requirement of extra quantity of oxygen is called as oxygen debt.

This extra oxygen is used up by the lactic acid for its aerobic oxidation. By this process creatine phosphate is produced. Some quantity of required oxygen is supplied by myoglobin which has capacity to store oxygen for future. During training of athletes rate of oxy- contraction of muscle is increased. Thus, athletes required less oxygen debt.

Question 9.
Write differences between Fixed joint and Synovial joint.
Answer:
Differences between Fixed joint and Synovial joint

Fixed joint	Synovial joint
1. In this type of joint bones are connected by connective tissue called as suture.	A synovial cavity is found in between two bones which contains synovial fluid and two bones are jointed by ligaments.
2. Movement do not occur.	Movement occurs.
3. This type of joint is found in the bone of skull.	Found in all movable bones.

Question 10.
Draw diagram showing one sarcomere of the striped muscle and label its various parts. (NCERT)
Answer:

Question 11.
How will you differentiate skeletal muscle and Cardiac muscle? (NCERT)
Or,
Write differences between Striped, Unstriped and Cardiac muscles.
Answer:
Differences between Striped, Unstriped and Cardiac muscles

Question 12.
Draw a labelled diagram of pelvic girdle of human.
Answer:

Question 13.
Name the type of joints found in the following : (NCERT)
(a) Atlas and axis,
(b) Carpal and metacarpal of thumb,
(c) Between phalanges,
(d) Femur and acetabulum,
(e) Between bones of skull,
(f) Between pubic bones of pelvic girdle.
Answer:
(a) Pivot joint,
(b) Saddle joint,
(c) Hinge joint,
(d) Ball and socket joint,
(e) Fibrous joint (sutures),
(f) Cartilaginous joint.

Locomotion and Movement Class 11 Important Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Write the differences between following : (NCERT)
(a) Actin and Myosin
(b) Red muscle fibre and White muscle fibre
(c) Pectoral and Pelvic girdle.
Answer:
(a) Differences between Actin and Myosin filament

Actin filament	Myosin filament
1. ‘I’ band of striped muscle is consists of actin protein. 2. A dark line is found at the centre of the ‘I’ band called as ‘Z’ line. 3. During contraction ‘I’ line disappear and ‘Z’ lines come nearer to each other.	‘A’ band of striped muscle is consists of myosin protein. A light line is found at the centre of the ‘A’ band called as ‘H’ line. During contraction of muscle ‘A’ band do not show any change but ‘H’ line disappear.

(b) Difference between Red and White muscle fibres

Red muscle fibres	White muscle fibres
1. Thin in size.	Thick in size.
2. Dark red coloured due to the presence of haemoprotein known as myoglobin. It combines with oxygen to form oxymyoglobin and thus stores oxygen which can be released during muscle contraction.	Light red in colour as there is no myoglobin.
3. Rate of contraction is slow.	Rate of contraction is fast.

4. These muscle fibres contain large number of mitochondna.	These muscle fibres are poor in mitoch ondria.
5. These muscle fibres are able to carry out aerobic metabolism. So aerobic contraction of muscles takes place without accumulation of much lactic acid.	These fibres mainly depend upon anaerobic metabolism (glycolysis) and so anaerobic contraction of muscles takes place,accumulation of lot of lactic acid leading to muscle fatigue.
6. These muscle fibres can do sustained but slower work for a long time.	These muscle fibres can do fast work, but for a short period only.
7. Red muscle fibres are innervated by smaller nerve fibres. Example: Extensor muscLes on the back of the human body, some flight muscles of birds.	These are innervated by longer nerve fibres. Example: Extrinsic muscles of the eyeball, sparrow uses these muscles for short, fast flight.

(c) Differences between Pectoral and Pelvic girdle

Pectoral girdle	Pelvic girdle
1. It is found in the shoulder region.	It is found in the hip region.
2. It provides articulation with head of the humorous at glenoid cavity.	It provides articulation with head of the femur at acetabulum cavity.
3. It has two halves, each half consists of two bones : Scapula and Clavicle.	It has two halves, each half consists of three bones – Ilium, Ischium and Pubis.
4. It is also meant for attachment of the muscles of arm.	It provides surface for attachment of the muscles of the legs.
5. It protects delicate organs of the thorax.	It protects the soft organs present inside the pelvic cavity.

Question 2.
Describe main steps of muscular contraction. (NCERT)
Or,
Draw a labelled diagram of striped muscle and describe mechanism of muscular contraction in brief.
Answer:
Structure of striped or voluntary muscles: Since their movement is always at the will of the animal possessing them, they are known as voluntary muscles. They are always attached with the skeleton, hence called as skeletal muscles. Their cells are long and tubular and each is surrounded by thin membrane called sarcolemma. Many nuclei are found in the sarcoplasm surrounded by sarcolemma; therefore, muscular tissue is multinucleated or syncytial. A large number of parallel myofibrils are present in the sarcoplasm.
Transverse bands of light and dark shade are found in each muscle fibres. Dark bands are known as ‘A’ discs or Dobie’s dots while light bands are called ‘I’ discs. Each ‘I’ disc is divided into two another band known as ‘Z’ disc or Krause’s membrane. Similarly ‘A’ disc is also divided into two parts by Hensen’s disc or ‘H’ zone. The part between two ‘Z’ discs is known as sarcomere.

Electron microscopic studies have shown that these bands are formed of protein. ‘A’ bands are formed of parallel bars of a protein called myosin. ‘I’ bands are made up of similar bars of a protein known as actin. The muscles lengthen and shorten due to the contraction and expansion of these bars. These muscles take main part in the movement of organs as limbs, neck, eye etc.

Working of striped muscle fibre: The muscle fibres contract and relax on being excited by the nerve fibres. H.E. Huxley and A.F. Huxley explained the working of muscle fibres with the help of electron microscopic studies. The theory proposed by Lein is known as sliding filament theory. It says that during contraction the actin filaments slide over the myosin filaments. There is no change in the length of ‘A’ bands at the time of contraction.

The actin bars of T bands slide on the myosin bars of ‘A’ bands and come so close that they overlap each other in the region of Hensen’s discs. Thus the muscle fibres contract due to the shortening of sarcomeres. The muscle fibres remain in their normal state when the effect of excitation is over, i.e. actin and myosin bars come back in their normal position. The sarcomeres are the functional units of striped muscle fibres.

Question 3.
What are joints? Describe the various types of joints found in human beings Or, What is joint ? Describe perfect joint and explain any three types of it.
Answer:
Joints: The region at which two or more bones of skeleton come in contact and move freely is called as joint.
Basically three types of joints are found in the body or vertebrates :

1. Perfect joints,
2. Imperfect joints,
3. Immovable joints.

1.Perfect joints: These joints have synovial cavity which allow movement in more than one plane. The perfect joints may be of following types :

(a) Bail and Socket joint: Arthritis is a disease characterized by the inflammation of the joints. In this disease, the synovial membrane secretes extra fluid which causes swelling and pain in the joints. A hard tissue deposits over the articular cartilages. As a result the joints become stiff.

(b) Pivot joint: In this joint the articulating face of one bone is stationary like a pivot while the articulating face of the other can rotate over it. e.g. Joint between carotae and vertebral column.

(c) Hinge joint: It is just like a hinge of a door, allowing movement in one plane, e.g. Elbow joint, knee joint, ankle joint.
(d) Gliding joint : In such joint the articulating surface of the bone can glide one above the other, e.g. Joint between radio ulna and carpal.

(e) Saddle joint: It resembles the ball and socket joint except that in this case neither the ball nor the socket is fully developed, e.g. Metacarpal of the thumb joining the wrist bone in man.

2. Imperfect joint: These joints which do not possess synovial cavity or connecting ligaments are called imperfect joints, e.g. Joints between ileum of pelvic girdle and transverse process of sacral vertebrae.

3. Immovable joint: These joints which are permanently fixed and cannot perform any movement are termed as immovable joints, e.g. Bones of skull. These joints are called sutures. These joints lack synovial capsule.

Question 4.
What is Axial Skeleton? Describe various bones of Axial skeleton of human.
Answer:
Axial Skeleton: Skeleton which forms axis of the body is called as Axial skeleton. It consists of skull, Hyoid, vertebral column and ribs.
1. Skull: It is formed of 28 bones and is skeleton of the head region. Skull can be further divided into following regions :
(i) Cranium or brain box: It encloses the brain and is formed of eight bones namely frontal, parietal (two), temporal (two), occipital, sphenoid and ethmoid.

(ii) Facial bones : These form facial part of the skull and are fourteen in number. These include nasal 2, maxillary 2, squamosal 2, mandible 1, lachrymal 2, palatine 2, turbinals 2 and vomer 1.

(iii) Ear bones: These are three pairs of ear ossicles : malleus 2, incus 2 and stapes 2.
2. Hyoid: It supports tongue.
3. Vertebral column: It forms axis of the body and also known as backbone. Vertebral column supports the body like a beam. It is slightly curved vertical rod in the mid dorsal line of the body extended from the atlas vertebra to the caudal vertebra. Vertebral column protects the general viscera and houses the spinal cord also.
Vertebral column develops from the notochord part of the embryo. Total number of vertebrae in the vertebral column of human being is 26, however in primitive stage it is 33 in number. Vertebral column is differentiated into five regions, which are :

• Cervical vertebrae,
• Thoracic vertebrae,
• Lumbar vertebrae,
• Sacral vertebrae,
• Caudal vertebrae.

4. Sternum and ribs: It forms the floor of thoracic basket and supports anterior part of chest. Sternum has three parts manubrium, body and xiphoid process. 12 pairs of ribs are associated with the sternum.
Functions :
(i) Ribs form thoracic cavity along with sternum and vertebral column.
(ii) It protects lungs and heart.
(iii) These help in breathing.

Question 5.
What are Appendicular skeleton? Explain the bones of appendicular skeleton in man.
Answer:
Appendicular Skeleton: It is formed of bones appended to axial skeleton i.e., pectoral girdle, pelvic girdle and associated limbs.
Girdles: It consists of two types :
1. Pectoral girdle : It is found in the shoulder region where forelimbs join with it at the glenoid cavity. It is generally a duplex structure and functions as an intermediary structure through which the weight of the body is transferred to the forelimbs. Pectoral girdle is formed of two bones, scapula (2) and clavicle (2).

2. Pelvic girdle: It provides articulation with bones of hind limbs at acetabulum cavity. It has two halves, each half has three main bones ilium dorsal in position, ischium and pubis ventral in position. Each half of the girdle forms innominate bones or osinnominatum.

3. Limbs: These are meant for locomotion in tetrapod vertebrates. Limbs are differentiated into:
(i) A pair of forelimbs,
(ii) A pair of hind limbs.
(i) Forelimb : Forelimbs are attached to the pectoral girdle. Each forelimb has upper arm, forearm and hand. There are 30 bones in each forelimb namely, humerus in the upper arm, radius and ulna in forearm, eight carpals in the wrist, five metacarpals in the palm and 14 phalanges in the fingers of the hand.

(ii) Hind limbs : Hind limbs are attached to the pelvic girdle. Each hind limb has thigh, shank and foot. There are thirty bones in each hind limb namely, femur in the thigh, patella in the knee, tibia and fibula in the shank, 7 tarsals in the ankle, 5 metatarsals insole and 14 phalanges in the toes of the foot.

Locomotion and Movement Class 11 Important Questions Objective Type

1. Choose the correct answers:

Question 1.
Synovial joints are found between :
(a) Two vertebrae
(b) Two skull bones
(c) Humerus and ulna
(d) Caudal vertebrae.
Answer:
(c) Humerus and ulna

Question 2.
The fluid present in ball and socket joints and which reduces the friction is:
(a) Pericardial fluid
(b) Mucin
(c) Synovial fluid
(d) Coelomic fluid.
Answer:
(c) Synovial fluid

Question 3.
The number of vertebrae in human is :
(a) 30
(b) 31
(c) 32
(d) 33.
Answer:
(d) 33.

Question 4.
Hinge joint is found between :
(a) Radius ulna and humerus
(b) Femur and acetabulum
(c) Humerus and acetabulum
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Radius ulna and humerus

Question 5.
The muscle fatigue is due to accumulation of:
(a) Lactic acid
(b) CO₂
(c) Acetic acid
(d) Sulphuric acid.
Answer:
(b) CO₂

Question 6.
The articulation of femur and pelvic girdle is an example of:
(a) Ball and socket joint
(b) Pivot joint
(c) Hinge joint
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Ball and socket joint

Question 7.
Which one is the contractile protein of a muscle :
(a) Actin
(b) Myosin
(c) Tropomyosin
(d) Globulin.
Answer:
(a) Actin

Question 8.
Our wrist joint is a :
(a) Sliding
(b) Hinge joint
(c) Pivot
(d) Fixed joint.
Answer:
(a) Sliding

Question 9.
The joint between the lower jaw and skull is :
(a) Perfect joint
(b) Hinge joint
(c) Gomphoses
(d) Gliding joint.
Answer:
(c) Gomphoses

Question 10.
Ends of long bones are covered with.
(a) Cartilage
(b) Muscles
(c) Ligaments
(d) Blood cells.
Answer:
(a) Cartilage

2. Fill in the blanks:

(A)
1. ……………… joint is found in the bones of skull.
Answer:
Immovable joint,

2. Skeletal movement takes place due to ……………… muscles.
Answer:
voluntary muscles,

3. ……………… is the smallest bone of the human body.
Answer:
Stapes,

4. Myoglobin stores ……………… .
Answer:
Oxygen,

5. Haversian system is found in ……………… .
Answer:
Bones,

6. Bone is made of ……………… protein and cartilage is made up of ……………… protein.
Answer:
Ossein, Chondrin,

7. ……………………… element is essential for the constriction of muscles.
Answer:
Ca⁺⁺

8. Total ………………………  bones are found in the body of an adult human being.
Answer:
206.

(B)
1. In all vertebrates except few ……………… cervical vertebrates are found.
Answer:
7

2. In the fine fibre of myofibril 2 ‘F’ actin and two other proteins ……………… and ……………… are found.
Answer:
Tropomyosin, Troponin

3. In each human limb number of phalanges is ……………… .
Answer:
14,

4. In muscle fibre calcium is stored in the ……………… .
Answer:
Sarcoplasmic reticulum,

5. Cranium of human consists of ……………… bones.
Answer:
8.
3. Match the following:

(A)

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Hydra	(a) Cilia
2. Starfish	(b) Setae
3. Amoeba	(c) Tentacles
4. Euglena	(d) Tube feet
5. Earthworm	(e) Pseudopodia.

Answer:
1.  (c) Tentacles,
2. (d) Tube feet
3. (e) Pseudopodia.,
4. (a) Cilia
5. (b) Setae

(B)

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Pelvic girdle	(a) Ear
2. Knee	(b) Ball and Socket joint
3. Ligaments	(c) Hinge joint
4. Tendon	(d) Bone-bone
5. Malleus	(e) Bone-muscle.

Answer:
1.  (b) Ball and Socket joint
2.  (c) Hinge joint
3. (d) Bone-bone
4. (e) Bone-muscle.
5. (a) Ear

(C)

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Smooth muscle	(a) Myoglobin
2. Tropomyosin	(b) Fine fibre
3. Red muscle	(c) Suture
4. Cranium	(d) Involuntary.

Answer:
1. (d) Involuntary.,
2. (b) Fine fibre
3. Myoglobin
4. (a) Myoglobin.

4. Write true or false:

1. Actin is located in the fine fibre.
Answer:
True,

2. H-zone of striped muscle represents both thin and thick fibre.
Answer:
True,

3. Human skeleton consists of 206 bones.
Answer:
True,

4. Inhuman 11 pairs of ribs are found.
Answer:
False,

5. Sternum lies in the ventral surface of the body.
Answer:
True.

5. Answer in one word :

1. Name the joint found between humerus and radius ulna.
Answer:
Hinge joint,

2. What is the number of vertebrae and ribs in human being?
Answer:
33, 24,

3. Where is glenoid cavity found?
Answer:
In shoulder region,

4. Where is acetabulum found?
Answer:
In articulation of hind limbs,

5. Give one-one example of the following :
(a) Ball and socket joint,
(b) Immovable joint.
Answer:
(a) shoulder and hip joint
(b) Bones of the skull.

6. How many bones are there in human body?
Answer:
206

7. Name the smallest bone in human body. ‘
Answer:
Stapes

8. Name the longest bone in human body.
Answer:
Femur

9. Name the locomotory organ of Amoeba & starfish.
Answer:
Pseudopodia, Tube fee

Students get through the MP Board Class 11th Biology Important Questions Chapter 3 Plant Kingdom which are most likely to be asked in the exam.

MP Board Class 11th Biology Important Questions Chapter 3 Plant Kingdom

Plant Kingdom Class 11 Important Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Draw a well labelled diagram of the Archegonia of Moss plant.
Answer:
Archegonia of Moss : (Female reproductive organ)

Question 2.
What do you understand by protonema?
Answer:
Juvenile forms (Protonema) :
It is a green branched filamentous structure. From green aerial filaments produced some branches which grows below substratum and are without chloroplasts are known as rhizoidal branches. They penetrate the soil and help in absorption of water and minerals. Several buds develops on protonema and each bud develops into leafy gametophore.

Question 3.
What do you understand by Mycorrhiza?
Answer:
It is a type of symbiotic association which is found in Pinus plant in between roots and fungi in which on outer side of root safety shell is present. Fungus absorbs water, mineral and protein for plants and in return from plants, it gets nutrition.

Question 4.
What do you understand by Apospory?
Answer:
Sometime the cells of sparophytes get separated from mother plant and fall on soil, where they germinate and form protonema. Sometime on top of protonema a leafy gametophore is formed from which a new plant is formed in which all the cells have double characters. Thus the protonema formed from the cell of sporophyte without division gametophyte develops. This is known as Apospory.

Question 5.
What do you understand by sulphur shower?
Answer:
At maturity, the microsporophylls separate and spread apart. The sporangia dehisce by longitudinal slit and shed large quantities of pollen grains. Since pollen grains flow in colour and are discharged in such a large number that their shedding is referred to as sulphur shower.

Question 6.
Give economic importance of Brown algae.
Answer:

• It is food for Japanese.
• More than 30% of dry weight of brown algae is KCl (Potassium chloride).
• Vitamin B, acetic acid and iodine are obtained from brown algae.
• Alginic acid obtained from sea kelps are used as thickeners in making ice-cream, cosmetics and in textile industries.

Question 7.
Name the algae from which agar-agar is obtained.
Answer:
Agar-agar is obtained from Grasillaria and Galidum.

Question 8.
Why Spirogyra is called as Pond silk?
Answer:
Pectin layer present outer to the cellulose cell wall of Spirogyra dissolves in water to form a mucilaginous sheath. Thus Spirogyra became slippery, after drying looks like a silk thread, that is why it is called as pond silk.

Question 9.
Name two algae used as food.
Answer:

1. Laminaria,
2. Porphyra.

Question 10.
Name the algae which causes rust of tea disease.
Answer:
Cephalurous algae.

Question 11.
Who is regarded as ‘Father of Indian Phycology’ in India?
Answer:
Indian scientist M.O.P. Iyengar is regarded as Father of Indian Phycology.

Question 12.
What is thallus?
Answer:
Plant which cannot be differentiated into root, stem and leaves are called as thallus.

Question 13.
Which terrestrial plants are primitive?
Answer:
Terrestrial plants of pteridophyta are primitive.

Question 14.
In which part of the fern plant sporangium is found ?
Answer:
In the sporophyll part of the leaves of fem plant sporangiums are found.

Question 15.
Give two fern like characteristics of Cycas plant of gymnosperm.
Answer:

1. Both are vascular plants,
2. Main plant is sporophytic.

Question 16.
Name the plant which produces largest flower.
Answer:
Rafflesia plant produces largest flower.

Question 17.
Give three examples of gymnosperms found in India.
Answer:

1. Pinus,
2. Cycas,
3. Cedrus deodara.

Question 18.
Give two important features of Angiosperms.
Answer:

1. They are flowering plants,
2. Seeds are formed within the fruit.

Question 19.
Give two medicinal importance of algae.
Answer:

• Vitamin B is obtained from Laminaria,
• Iodine is obtained from Kelps.

Plant Kingdom Class 11 Important Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Where and when reduction division occurs in liverwort, moss, fern, gymnosperms and angiosperms? (NCERT)
Answer:
In liverwort, moss, fem and gymnosperms reduction division occurs in the spore mother cell to produce haploid spores.
In Angiosperms reduction division occurs during formation of pollen grains in the pollen sac of the stamen and during formation of embryo sac in the ovule of carpel.

Question 2.
Give ploidy of following :

1. Protonemal cell of Moss,
2. Nucleus of primary endosperm of Moss,
3. cells of leaves of Moss,
4. cells of Fern prothallus,
5. Gemma cells of Marchantia,
6. Meriste- matic cell of monocot plant,
7. Ovum of Liverwort,
8. Zygote of Fern. (NCERT)

Answer:

1. Protonemal cell of Moss – Haploid
2. Nucleus of primary endosperm of Moss – Triploid
3. Cells of leaves of Moss – Diploid
4. Cells of Fem prothallus – Haploid
5. Gemma cells of Marchantia – Haploid
6. Meristematic cell of monocot plant – Diploid
7. Ovum of Liverwort – Haploid
8. Zygote of Fem – Diploid.

Question 3.
Both Gymnosperms and Angiosperms produce seeds, inspite of that they are classified into different groups, why? (NCERT)
Answer:
Both Gymnosperms and Angiosperms produces seeds, inspite of that they are classified into different groups because seeds of gymnosperm are naked whereas seeds of angiosperms are formed within the fruit.

Question 4.
Draw a well-labelled diagram of moss capsule showing internal structure.
Answer:

Question 5.
What is Heterospory? Write a note on it and give two examples.
Answer:
Heterospory : Formation of two different types of spores, such as small microspores and large megaspores is called as Heterospory.
First of all heterospory was observed in Selaginella. It is also observed in Salvinia.
Megaspore (female) and microspore (male) develop to produce female and male gametophytes respectively.
Female gametophyte remains attached to sporophytic plant to fulfil its requirement.

Question 6.
Write economic importance of algae and gymnosperms.
Answer:
Economic importance of algae :
(A) Economic importance of Red algae :

• Agar : Agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria, which is mainly used in production of medium for culturing bacteria.
• Agar is used as laxative factor to prepare medicine.
• Some species of red algae are used in preparation of pudding, ice-cream, cheese, salad decoration etc.
• Irish agar obtained from Chondrus crispes, is used in preparation of chocolate.

(B) Economic importance of Brown algae :

• It is food for Japanese.
• More than 30% of dry weight of brown algae is KCl (Potassium chloride).
• Vitamin B, acetic acid and iodine are obtained from brown algae.
• Alginic acid obtained from sea kelps are used as thickeners in making ice-cream, cosmetics and in textile industries.

(C) Economic importance of Gymnosperms :

• It provides timber wood and firewood.
• Some plants are used as ornamental plants, such as Cycas, Pinus etc.
• Sago is obtained from Cycas.
• Many medicines are obtained from different species of gymnosperms, such as ephedrine medicine is obtained from Ephedra species.
• From some species of gymnosperms edible oil is obtained.
• Leaves of Cycas are used in making broom and rope.
• Some conifers are used in making paper.

Question 7.
Write four characteristics of Chlorophyta.
Answer:
Characteristics of Chlorophyta :

1. Photosynthetic pigment in green algae are chlorophyll-a, chlorophyll-b, β -carotene and Xanthophyll.
2. Cell wall is made up of cellulose.
3. Ciliated Zoospores are formed which are motile.
4. Stored food is starch.
5. Sexual reproduction ranges from isogamy to oogamy. e.g., Spirogyra, Ulothrix, Sargassum etc.

Question 8.
Give important characteristics of Angiosperms.
Answer:
Characteristics of Angiosperms :

• Plant body is differentiated into root, stem and leaves.
• Reproductive organs are flower having four whorls : Calyx, corolla, androecium and gynoecium.
• Ovules are covered within ovary.
• The ovary ripe into fruit which contains seeds.
• Vascular bundles are well developed.
• Double fertilization occurs in them.
• They may be parasitic (e.g., Cuscuta), Saprophytic (e.g., Orobanche), epiphytic (e.g., Orchid), insectivorous (e.g., Nepenthes) and antotrophic.
• They are well adapted for their environment. e.g., Mango, rose, wheat, rice etc.

Question 9.
Give important characteristics of Bryophyta.
Answer:
Characteristics of Bryophyta :

• Main plant is gametophytic.
• There is complete absence of true root, stem and leaves.
• Plant body is bilaterally symmetrical, branched and leaf like which bears Rhizoids on the ventral surface. They contain chlorophyll.
• They are non-vascular amphibian plants.
• Sporophyte partly depends on gametophyte.
• Reproductive organs are multicellular and found surrounded by jacket layer. Water is required for fertilization.
• They shows alternation of generation. e.g., Funaria, Riccia, Marchantia etc.

Question 10.
Write similarities between Gymnosperms and Angiosperms.
Answer:
Similarities between Gymnosperms and Angiosperms :

• Both are perennial plants.
• Both produces special reproductive organs.
• In both, main plant is sporophytic.
• In both, gametophyte depend on sporophyte.
• Both produces seeds.
• In both, ovules develop to form seeds.
• Both shows alternation of generation.

Plant Kingdom Class 11 Important Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Name three groups of plants in which Archegonium is found. Describe Life cycle of any one of them. (NCERT)
Answer:
In following three groups of plants Archegonium is found :

1. Bryophyta,
2. Pterydophyta,
3. Gymnosperms.

Life Cycle of Bryophyta (Funaria):
In the life history of mosses two generations viz, gametophyte and sporophyte are found which regularly alternate with each other. The dominant phase is represented by the gametophyte which is haploid (n) and it reproduces sexually by the fusion of gametes (antherozoids and ovum) give rise to the sporophyte which is diploid structure (2n). Meiotic division takes place in the capsule of sporophyte during sporogenesis to form spores. These spores germinate to producer new gametophyte.

Question 2.
Write differences between Gymnosperms and Angiosperms.
Answer:
Differences between Gymnosperms and Angiosperms

Gymnosperms	Angiosperms
1. These are naked seeded plants.	These are closed seed plants.
2. Reproductive organs of gymnosperms are found in cone form.	Reproductive organs of angiosperms are found in flower form.
3. These are generally unisexual.	They may be unisexual or bisexual type.
4. These are adapted for xerophytic life, mesophytic or aquatic life.	They may be adapted for xerophytic,
5. In gymnosperms, xylem is devoid of vessel and phloem that of companion cell.	These structures are found in angiosperms.

Question 3.
Write differences between Pteridophytes and Bryophytes.
Answer:
Differences between Pteridophytes and Bryophytes

Pteridophytes	Bryophytes
1. They are vascular, terrestrial plants.	They are non vascular and amphibian in nature.
2. Plant body is differentiated into root, stem and leaves.	Their body is not differentiated into root, stem and leaves.
3. Plant body is sporophytic and diploid.	Plant body is gametophytic and haploid.
4. Both stages are generally independent and autotrophic. In some members sporophyte partially depends upon gametophyte.	Sporophyte depends upon gametophyte.
5. Spores are formed in sporangium found on leaves.	Spores are formed in capsule.

Question 4.
Explain following terms with example:
(i) Protonema,
(ii) Antheridium,
(iii) Archegonium,
(iv) Dipiontic,
(v) Sporophyll,
(vi) Isogamy. (NCERT)
Answer:
(i) Protonema :
It is the first stage of life cycle of Moss (Funaria). It is formed by germination of haploid spore. Protonema is multicellular, branched structure which contain chlorophyll, thus are autotrophs.

(ii) Antheridium:
Male reproductive organ of Bryophyta and Pterydophyta are called as Antheridium. It produces biflagellate spermatozoids or antherozoids.

(iii) Archegonium :
Female reproductive organ of Bryophyta and Pterydophyta are called as Archegonium. It is multicellular flask shaped structured, which produces haploid
egg.

(iv) Dipiontic :
In this mode of reproduction and life cycle, adults have diploid set (2x) of chromosome. During sexual reproduction (2x) individuals produces haploid (x) gametes by meiosis cell division which fuses to form diploid zygote (2x). This diploid zygote grows to form adult.
e.g., Life cycle of Saccharomycod.es ludurigii.

(v) Sporophyll:
In Pterydophytes leaves on which sporangium are formed called as Sporophyll. e.g., Fern.

(vi) Isogamy :
Similar gametes which fuses together to form zygote are called as Isogamy. e.g., Chlamydomonas.

Question 5.
Write differences between Monocot and Dicot plant.
Answer:
Differences between Monocot and Dicot Plant

Parts of plant	Monocot Plant	Dicot Plant
1. Root	Adventitious (fibrous) roots are found in them. Number of vascular bundles are more than 6 in their roots.	Tap roots are found in them Number of vascular bundles are 2-6 in their roots.
2. Stem	Vascular bundles are scattered in their stem. Cambium is not found in them. Secondary growth is absent.	Vascular bundles are arranged in ring in their stem. Cambium is found in them.Secondary growth is found.
3. Leaf	Isobilateral leaves are found. Parallel venation is found in them.	Dorsiventral leaves are found in them. Reticulate venation is found in them.
4. Flower	Floral parts are trimerous or in multiple of three.	Floral parts are tetra or pentamerous.
5. Seed	Seeds are with one cotyledon.	Seeds are with two cotyledons.

Question 6.
Differentiate following :
(i) Red algae and Brown algae,
(ii) Liverwort and Moss,
(iii) Heterosporous and Homosporous pteridophytes,
(iv) Syngamy and Triple fusion, stem and leaves.

(i) Red algae and Brown algae :
Red alage:

• They are red in colour due to presence of pigments called phycobillins mainly phycocyanin and phycoerythrin.
• There is complete absence of motile stages in life.
• Stored food is floridian starch.
• Cell wall consists of cellulose pectic compounds and mucopolysaccharides.
• Sexual reproduction is Oogamous type.
  e.g., Porphyra, chordrus.

Brown algae :

• They are brown coloured due to presence of xanthophyll, fucoxanthin. In addition to this accessory pigments are chl-a, chl-c, β and C carotene are also found.
• Flagellate Zoospores are formed during reproduction which are motile.
• Stored food is manitol, laminarin and lipid.
• Cell wall is double layered. Inner layer consists of cellulose and outer layer is a gelatenous substance known as phycocolloids, alginic acid.
• Sexual reproduction varies from isogamy, anisogamy to oogamy.
  e.g., Laminaria, Macrocystis, Sargassum.

(ii) Liverwort and Moss :

• Rhizoid of liverwort is non-septate whereas Rhizoids of moss is septate.
• Gametophyte of liverwort is thallus flat leaf like whereas moss gametophyte is differentiated into rhizoid, stem and leaf like structure.
• Leaves of liverwort are not arranged in spiral way whereas leaves of moss are spirally arranged.
• lators are found in liverwort for dispersal of spores whereas elators are not found in moss.
• Liverwort belongs to group Hepaticeae whereas moss belongs to group Musci.

(iii) Heterosporous and Homosporous pteridophytes:
Heterosporous pteridophytes produces two types of spores Megaspores and microspores such as Selaginella, whereas Homosporous pteridophytes produces all similar sized spores such as Lycopodium.

(iv) Syngamy and Triple fusion :
In Angiosperms, process of fusion of first male gamete with haploid egg to produce a diploid zygote is called as Syngamy. Zygote develops to form embryo, whereas fusion of secondary nuclei and second male gamete to produce a triploid body is called as Triple fusion. Triploid body develops to produce endosperm.

Question 7.
Write important characteristics of gymnosperms.
Answer:
Characteristic features of Gymnosperms:

• Plants are perennial, woody trees or shrubs and xerophytic in nature.
• This subdivision includes vascular, naked seed plants.
• Plants are sporophytic which are differentiated into root, stem and leaves.
• Vascular bundle consists of xylem and phloem but the xylem is devoid of vessels and phloem that of companion cells.
• Reproductive parts borne in the form of cones or strobilus.
• Male cone contains several microsporophylls with microsporangia on their undersurface. Female cone contains many megasporophylls with one to several naked ovules.
• Inside the microsporangia microspores or pollen grains are formed by meiosis division of special cells, which germinate to produce male gametes.
• Female gametophyte develops inside the ovule and contains two or more arche-gonia at the anterior end.
• Pollination is anemophilous (wind pollinated).
• Pollen grain germinates to form pollen tube on female cone after pollination and produces male gametes which fuses with female gamete to form zygote. Embryo develops from zygote and ovule along with embryo forms seed, which germinate to form new plant.
• Secondary growth is present.
• Usually polyembryony is found in seed.
• Archegonia lack neck canal cells.
• Embryo bears two or more cotyledons.

Plant Kingdom Class 11 Important Questions Objective Type

1. Choose the correct answers:

Question 1.
Dominant stage of bryophytes is :
(a) Haploid
(b) Diploid
(c) Both are similar
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Haploid

Question 2.
Zoospores are formed from :
(a) Asexual reproduction
(b) Sexual reproduction
(c) Amitotic division
(d) Mitosis.
Answer:
(a) Asexual reproduction

Question 3.
In the life history of Spirogyra, meiosis takes place during :
(a) The formation of gametes
(b) The formation of zoospores
(c) The germination of zygote
(d) The formation of zygote.
Answer:
(c) The germination of zygote

Question 4.
Habitat of mosses is :
(a) Dry place
(b) Fresh water
(c) Non-salty water
(d) Moist and shadow places.
Answer:
(d) Moist and shadow places.

Question 5.
Sperms of moss is:
(a) Uniflagellate
(b) Biflagellate
(c) Multiflagellate
(d) Non-motile.
Answer:
(b) Biflagellate

Question 6.
Mosses are found in moist and shadowy places because of the :
(a) Absence of vascular tissue
(b) Requirement of water for fertilization
(c) Absorption of water through general body surface
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(c) Absorption of water through general body surface

Question 7.
Female reproductive organ of Funaria is known as :
(a) Sporangium
(b) Spermatium
(c) Archegonia
(d) Sporophyll.
Answer:
(c) Archegonia

Question 8.
Sperms reach archegonia through :
(a) Air
(b) Water
(c) Animals
(d) Insects.
Answer:
(b) Water

Question 9.
Mosses will not be larger because of the :
(a) Absence of vascular tissue
(b) Presence of vascular tissue
(c) Absence of flower
(d) Absence of seeds.
Answer:
(a) Absence of vascular tissue

Question 10.
Fern prothallus is :
(a) Haploid
(b) Diploid
(c) Triploid
(d) Sporophyte.
Answer:
(a) Haploid

Question 11.
Shape of the prothallus is :
(a) Rounded
(b) Elongated
(c) Heart like
(d) Polygonal.
Answer:
(c) Heart like

Question 12.
Ferns are highly developed than mosses because of the :
(a) Presence of vascular tissue
(b) Dominance of sporophyte
(c) Root, stem and leaves are well developed
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 13.
Prothallus is:
(a) An independent structure
(b) A dependent structure
(c) Depend on gametophyte
(d) Depend on sporophyte.
Answer:
(a) An independent structure

Question 14.
In Spirogyra :
(a) Sexual reproduction between two adjacent cells
(b) Variable biflagellate antheridium and oogonium
(c) Sexual reproduction between various substances of a cell.
(d) Only sexual reproduction.
Answer:
(a) Sexual reproduction between two adjacent cells

Question 15.
Funaria possessing :
(a) Unicellular simple rhizoids
(b) Tuberculated rhizoids
(c) Differentially branched rhizoids
(d) Multicellular oblique rhizoids.
Answer:
(a) Unicellular simple rhizoids

Question 16.
Number of peristome teeth in the capsule of Funaria is :
(a) 4 in one ring
(b) 32 in two rings
(c) 16 in one ring
(d) 16 in two rings.
Answer:
(b) 32 in two rings

Question 17.
Type of gametes fused during sexual reproduction in Spirogyra is :
(a) Two identical motile gametes
(b) Two identical non-motile gametes
(c) One motile and one non-motilé gametes
(d) Two different non-motile gametes.
Answer:
(d) Two different non-motile gametes.

Question 18.
Cell of Funaria in which reduction division occur, is:
(a) Antheridial cell
(b) Archegonial cell
(c) Gametic cell
(d) Spore mother cell.
Answer:
(d) Spore mother cell.

Question 19.
Algae producing agar-agar is:
(a) Spirogyra and Nostoc
(b) Gracilaria and Gelidium
(d) Rivularia and Ulothrix.
(c) Volvox and Vaucheria
Answer:
(b) Gracilaria and Gelidium

Question 20.
Ulothrix is found in :
(a) Floating freshwater
(b) Floating marine water
(d)Pure marine water.
(c) Pure freshwater
Answer:
(a) Floating freshwater

Question 21.
In Funaria, stomata are found in
(a) Leaves
(b) Stem
(c) Theca
(d) Apophysis.
Answer:
(d) Apophysis.

Question 22.
Gametophyte of Funaria is :
(a) Monoecious
(b) Dioecious
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Heterothallic.
Answer:
(a) Monoecious

Question 23.
In Pteridophytes, meiosis takes place :
(a) Sporogenesis
(b) Gametogenesis
(c) Prothallus formation
(d) Sex organ formation.
Answer:
(a) Sporogenesis

Question 24.
Cell wall of Spirogyra is made up of:
(a) Cellulose
(b) Pectin
(c) Lignin
(d) Chitin.
Answer:
(a) Cellulose

Question 25.
Ribbon like chloroplast is found in :
(a) Ulothrix
(b) Spirogyra
(c) Oedogonium
(d) Marc hantia.
Answer:
(a) Ulothrix

Question 26.
Main stage or dominant stage of bryophyta is :
(a) Gametophyte
(b) Cone Pinus
(c) Spore
(d) Hormogonium.
Answer:
(a) Gametophyte

Question 27.
Pinus species is :
(a) Monoecious
(b) Dioecious
(a) Chlorophyll-a
(c) Chlorophyll-c
Answer:
(b) Dioecious

Question 28.
Pigment found in green plant is:
(a) Chlorophyll-a
(b) Chlorophyll-b
(c) Chlorophyll-c
(d) Chlorophyll-m.
Answer:
(a) Chlorophyll-a

Question 29.
Life cycle of spirogyra is :
(a) Haploid
(b) Diploid
(c) Haplontic
(d) Diplontic.
Answer:
(c) Haplontic

Question 30.
Pinus is:
(a) Deciduous
(b) Dioecious
(c) Monoecious
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Monoecious

Question 31.
In Funaria spore produces :
(a) Primary protonema
(b) Prothallus
(c) Proembryo
(d) Embryo.
Answer:
(a) Primary protonema

Question 32.
Meiotic division takes place in the zygote of :
(a) Selaginella
(b) Spirogyra
(c) Pinus
(d) Equisetum.
Answer:
(b) Spirogyra

Question 33.
In which meiosis does not occur :
(a) Green algae
(b) Fungi
(c) Bacteria
(d) Higher plants.
Answer:
(c) Bacteria

Question 34.
Non-motile gametes are found in:
(a) Spirogyra
(b) Ulothrix
(c) Funaria
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Spirogyra

Question 35.
In Funaria plant stomata are present in :
(a) Foot
(b) Seta
(c) Capsule
(d) Leaf.
Answer:
(c) Capsule

2. Fill in the blanks:

1. The red colour of red algae is due to ………………..
Answer:
Phycoerythrin

2. The ………………… act as soil binders and prevent soil erosion.
Answer:
Mosses

3. The ……………… shoot of Pinus has limited growth.
Answer:
Dwarf

4. Phycology is known as the study of ………………..
Answer:
Algae

5. ………………… is given a nick name of pond scum.
Answer:
Spimgyra

6. Effective independent sporophytes are found in ……………….. group of plants.
Answer:
Tracheophyta

7. ……………….. are called as naked seed plants.
Answer:
Gymnosperms

8. Reproductive organs of ………………… are multicellular.
Answer:
Embryophyta

9. In …………………. polyembryony is found.
Answer:
Cycas

10. Life cycle of Funaria begins from ………………
Answer:
Haploid spore

11. In ………………… vascular tissues are not found.
Answer:
Bryophyta

12. …………………. are called as sea weeds.
Answer:
Brown algae

13. Heart shaped haploid independent structure of pterydophyta is called as …………………..
Answer:
Prothallus

14. In ………………… plants seed develops within the fruit.
Answer:
Angiosperms

15. In two kingdom classification algae and fungi are kept in …………….. group.
Answer:
Thallophyta

16. Algae found in the form of colony of cells is called as ………………….
Answer:
Volvox

17. Spimgyra belongs to class ………………..
Answer:
Chlorophyceae

18. ………………… are amphibian plants.
Answer:
Bryophytes

19.In angiosperms ……………… fertilization occurs.
Answer:
Double

20. Main plant of pterydophyta is ………………………
Answer:
Sporophytic

3. Match the following:

(A)

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Pteridophytes	(a) Amphibian plants
2. Naked seed	(b) Not differentiated into root, leaf etc.
3. Bryophytes	(c) First terrestrial plant
4. Thallophytes	(d) Pinus.

Answer:
1. (c) First terrestrial plant
2. (d) Pinus.
3. (a) Amphibian plants
4. (b) Not differentiated into root, leaf etc.

(B)

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Kelp	(a) Starch
2. Iodine	(b) Funaria
3. Protonema	(c) Marine algae
4. Pyrenoids	(d) Algae.

Answer:
1. (c) Marine algae
2. (d) Algae.
3. (b) Funaria
4. (a) Starch

(C)

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Undeveloped sporophyte	(a) Flowering plants
2. Developed sporophyte	(b) Bryophytes
3. Dependent sporophyte	(c) Non-flowering plants
4. Double fertilization	(d) Thallophyta.

Answer:
1. (d) Thallophyta.
2. (c) Non-flowering plants
3. (b) Bryophytes
4. (a) Flowering plants

(D)

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Phycoerythrin	(a) Mycelium
2. Stored food glycogen	(b) Alternation of generation
3. Regular series of gametophyte and sporophyte	(c) Red algae
4. Network of hypha	(d) Bryophyta
5. Autotrophic gametophyte	(e) Fungi.

Answer:
1. (c) Red algae
2. (e) Fungi.
3. (b) Alternation of generation
4. (a) Mycelium
5. (d) Bryophyta

(E)

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Chlamydomonas	(a) Musci
2. Cycas	(b) Pterydophyta
3. Selaginella	(c) Algae
4. Sphagnum	(d) Gymnosperms.

Answer:
1. (c) Algae
2. (d) Gymnosperms.
3. (b) Pterydophyta
4. (a) Musci

4. Write true or false:

1. Bryophytes are found in marshy place not in water.
Answer:
False

2. Selaginella is a heterosporous pteridophyte.
Answer:
True

3. Mucor is a saprophytic fungi commonly known as bread mould.
Answer:
True

4. Spirogyra is marine algae also known as marine silk.
Answer:
False

5. Inside the seed of Pinus gerardiana, almond is present.
Answer:
False

5. Answer in one word:

1. The antherozoids of Selaginella are?
Answer:
Biflagellate

2. Ligule is present in the leaves of?
Answer:
Selaginella

3. Peristome is found in the capsule of?
Answer:
Pellia

4. The main plant body of Funaria is?
Answer:
Carposporophytic

5. The development of seed habit is started with?
Answer:
Heterospory

Students get through the MP Board Class 11th Biology Important Questions Chapter 21 Neural Control and Coordination which are most likely to be asked in the exam.

MP Board Class 11th Biology Important Questions Chapter 21 Neural Control and Coordination

Neural Control and Coordination Class 11 Important Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Write the name, nature, origin and distribution area of that nerve which rotates tongue.
Answer:
Hypoglossal nerve rotates the tongue. It is stimulative in nature and originates from the medulla of brain and goes up to the muscles of tongue.

Question 2.
What would be happened in the absence of acetylcholine from synapse?
Answer:
In synapse, acetylcholine transmits the nerve impulse from the axon of one nerve cell to the dendrite of the other nerve cell. Thus in the absence of acetylcholine from synapse nerve impulses do not pass from one nerve cell to other and thus transmission of nerve impulses is inhibited.

Question 3.
Give one example of reflex action.
Answer:
Withdrawal of hand when it is pricked with a needle.

Question 4.
What are axons?
Answer:
The largest branch (dendrite) of nerve cells is known as axon. It plays an important role in the conduction of informations.

Question 5.
Name the humours found in the eyes and describe their functions?
Answer:
Eye has two types of humours :

1.  Aqueous humour: It is a fluid which is filled in aqueous chamber present between the cornea and lens. It
   protects the lens, iris and conjunctiva from direct light and outer forces.
2. Vitreous humour: It is jelly like liquid which is filled in vitreous chamber present between lens and retina. It provides an specific shape to eye ball and also protects it from adherence.

Question 6.
Describe the functions of the following :
(i) Cerebellum,
(ii) Iris,
(iii) Eustachian tube.
Answer:
(i) Cerebellum: The part of the brain which lies behind and below the cerebrum.
(a) Maintenance of posture and equilbrium of the body.
(b) Maintenance of muscle tone.
(c) It modulates and moderates voluntary movements initiated by cerebellum.
(a) It is the site of pain, touch and temperature.

• It controls voluntary movement of muscles, visual and audio sensation.
• Iris: It controls the amount of light that enters the eyes.
• Eustachian tube: It controls the pressure applied on tympanum (membrane between external and middle ears).

Question 7.
What is synapse?
Answer:
Nerve ending of axon of one neuron are connected with the dendrites of next neuron by specific joint is called as Synapse.

Question 8.
Name five sense organs and give their functions.
Answer:

Sense organs	Functions
(a) Skin	Touch
(b) Eye	Vision
(c) Ear	Hearing and balance of the body
(d) Nose	Smell
(e) Tongue	Taste

Question 9.
Give nature of following nerves :
(a) Olfactory,
(b) Vagus,
(c) Auditory,
(d) Mandibular.
Answer:

Nerve	Nature
(a) Olfactory	Sensory
(b) Vagus	Motor and sensory
(c) Auditory	Sensory
(d)Mandibular	Motor.

Question 10.
Why owl cannot see during day time but it can see during night ?
Answer:
Owl cannot see during day time as cones are absent in their retina. But it can be able to see during night because their retina possessing a large number of rods.

Question 11.
(a) Which part of the ear determine pitch of the sound ?
(b) Which is the most developed part of the human brain ?
(c) Which part of the central nervous system functions as master clock ?
Answer:
(a) Internal ear,
(b) Cerebrum,
(c) Brain.

Neural Control and Coordination Class 11 Important Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Give functions of cerebrum of man.
Answer:
Functions of cerebrum :

• Its parietal lobe is the centre of pain, touch and stimuli of temperature.
• Its motor area of frontal lobe regulates movement of voluntary muscles.
• Its premotor area of frontal lobe regulates all the functions regulated by autonomous nervous system.
• Its temporal lobe feels taste and smell.
• Visual area of occipital lobe is responsible for the knowledge of light and dark.
• Hypothalamus regulates hunger, thurst and quantity of urine. It also regulates secretion of anterior lobe of pituitary gland.

Question 2.
Write the names of brain ductules of human beings.
Answer:
Human brain consists of a hollow cavity from which the cavity of forebrain is called as lateral cavity. It represents first and second cavity. The cavity of diencephalon is called as third or tertiary cavity. The cavity of mid-brain is called as oieter whereas the cavity of hind-brain is known to be as fourth cavity.

Question 3.
Name the smallest bone of human ear. What happen if this bone is removed ?
Answer:
The smallest bone of human ear is stapes. This bone transmits sound vibration from the tympanic membrane to the membrane of the oval window. This bone increases the force of vibration thus acting like lever, when stapes is removed from ear the waves of sound do not enter the inner ear because stapes which is associated with fenestra ovalis, transmits the vibration of sound into perilymph of vestibular cavity.

Question 4.
What are adrenalin and acetylcholine? Give their functions.
Answer:
Adrenalin and acetylcholine are chemical substances secreted by sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve fibre. Both the chemicals function in opposite way. Adrenalin induces various activities and acetylcholine inhibits them.

Question 5.
What is mosaic vision?
Answer:
This type of vision is found in cockroach because they have compound eyes. Many small images are formed by them. Complete vision is compound form of these many small images and is called as mosaic vision.

Question 6.
Draw a well labelled diagram of longitudinal section of human eye.
Answer:

Question 7.
What is hypermetropia and myopia? (M.P. 1995 Set II)
Answer:
Hypermetropia (Far or Long-sightedness): It is a disease of eyes in which light rays strike the retina before being converged to form image i. e. image is formed beyond the retina. This happens because of (i) abnormally small eye ball, (ii) flattening or abnormally low convexity of the lens. Hypermetropia is corrected by using spectacles with suitable biconvex or convergent lenses.

Myopia (Short sightedness) : This defect results from abnormally long eye ball or abnormally high convexity of lens. The eyes are able to observe nearby objects clearly. However distant objects like writing on the black board or a bird sitting on a tree are not visible properly. It is because of the light rays from distant objects do not form the images on the retina but in front of it in the vitreous humour. The defect is corrected by using spectacles having suitable concave or divergent lens.

Question 8.
What do you understand by nervous system? Nervous system is divided into how many parts?
Answer:
The system which recieves the stimulus, transmits it to the other part of the body and the corresponding effects are shown is known as nervous system.
Nervous system consist of the following three parts :

1. Central nervous system : Comprising of brain and spinal cord.
2. Peripheral nervous system : Includes the nerves which arise from CNS.
3. Autoinomic nervous system : Has connections with central nervous system, but works somewhat independly to regulate the involuntary activites of the body e.g. Heart beat, peristalsis etc.

Question 9.
Explain the role of rods, cones and yellow spot in human eye. (MP 2000, 02, 06 Set C,)
Answer:
1. Rods : Rods are dark light receptors containing rhodopsin synthesized from vitamin A.
Rods are responsible for photopic vision and function best at night and dim light.

2. Cones: Cones are colour receptors containing iodopsin. They function in strong light and responsible for scotopic vision (colour vision).

3.Yellow spot: Posterior part of retina contains only cones and rods are absent and contains yellow pigment called yellow spot. It helps in the formation of clear picture of object.

Question 10.
How many types of nerves are there on the basis of their functions?
Answer:
According to the functions neurons are divided into three parts :

1. Sensory Nerves: These nerve fibers conduct impulses from receptor organ (such as nervous) towards the central nervous system.
2. Motor nerves : These nerve fibres carry the impulses from CNS to effector organs.
3. Mixed nerves: These nerves contain both sensory and motor nerve fibres, hence they do both the functions.

Question 11.
Differentiate the following : (NCERT)
(a) Central Nervous system and peripheral Nervous system.
(b) Resting Potential and Active potential.
(c) Choroid and Retina.
Answer:
(a) Central Nervous System (CNS): Originates from ectoderm part of the embryo. It consists of Brain and spinal cord. Neural tube part of the embryo develops to form this system. This part is responsible for processing of information, where as Peripheral Nervous system (PNS) includes the nerves which arise from the central nervous system.

Nerves arises from brain are called as Cranial nerves and nerves arises from spinal cord are called as spinal nerves. It fonns a communicating system by connecting central nervous system with sensory organs (receptors) through sensory nerves and effector organs through motor nerves.

(b) Resting Potential and Action Potential: At resting stage difference between electric potential of plasma membrane is called as Resting potential. Its value is -70mv, whereas whenever any part of the axon is stimulated depolarisation of Axolemma occurs, thus potential difference decreases up to 30 mV. This is called as Action potential.

(c) Choroid and Retina : Choroid is the middle or second coat of the wall of the eye made up of connective tissue, which is highly vascularised and pigmented. In the front side it fonns iris which has a hole in the centre called as pupil, where as Retina is the innennost layer of the eye wall, which consists of light sensitive cells called as rods (which perceives light) and cones (which distinguish colours).

Question 12.
Explain the structure and functions of spinal cord with diagram.
Or,
Draw a well labelled diagram of T. S. of spinal cord.
Answer:

Structure of spinal cord: The spinal cord consists of central canal surrounded by a central core of grey matter, which is surrounded by white matter. In transverse section, grey matter shows a butterfly shape, i. e., it is produced into two dorsal horns and two ventral horns. A central canal is present in the centre of the grey matter. The spinal cord serves as a centre for spinal reflexes and as pathways to and’from the brain.

The grey matter contains the bodies of neurons with tree-like branching of their dendrons and neurological cells. The white matter is composed of obliquely running medullated nerve fibers supported by pro¬longations of the neuroglia. The bands of fibers which extend transversely, one dorsal and other ventral, to the central canal are known as dorsal and ventral commissures, respectively, Thirty one pairs of spinal nerves arise from the spinal cord. Each nerve is attached to the spinal cord by dorsal and ventral root.

The sensory nerve fibres enter the spinal cord by way of dorsal root while the motor fibres emerge from the spinal cord by way of the ventral root to conduct motor impulses through spinal nerves to effector organs (gland and muscles).
Functions of spinal cord :
(i) Spinal cord controls and coordinates the reflex actions.
(ii) It acts as link between spinal nerves and brain and conducts the impulses of brain.

Question 13.
Write differences between :
(a) Yellow spot and Blindspot.
(b) Short sight and Long sight.
(c) Endolymph and Perilymph.
Answer:
(a) Differences between Yellow spot and Blind spot

Yellow spot	Blind spot
1. Posterior part of retina has yellow pigment. There is a point in retina where the It is called yellow spot.	optic nerve fibre leave the retina. This point is called blind spot
2. In yellow spot, rod and cones are present.	In blind spot, rod and cones are absent.

(b) Differences between Short sight and Long sight

Short sight	Long sight
1. In this type nearby objects are clearly visible,  but the distant objects are not visible but clearly visible.	In this type, distant objects are clearly nearby objects are not clearly visible.
2. Image is formed infront of retina.	Image is formed behind the retina.
3. This defect is removed by using concave lens.	This defect is removed by using convex lens.

(c) Differences between Endolymph and Perilymph

Endolymph	Perilymph
1.The membranous labyrinth and cochlea are filled with a fluid called as endolymph which contain CaC03 particles called as otoliths,	Space between bony labyrinth and membranous labyrinth is filled with a fluid called as perilymph, which is a cerebrospinal fluid. It protects internal ear.
Sound wave causes vibration of endolymph, due to which otoliths vibrate. Vibration of endolymph helps to receive stimuli of sound, thus helps for hearing as well as balancing.

Neural Control and Coordination Class 11 Important Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Describe following processes : (NCERT)
(a) Polarisation of membrane of nerve fibre.
(b) Depolarisation of membrane of nerve fibre.
(c) Conduction of impulse through nerve fibre.
(d) Transmission of impulse across synapse (chemically).
Or,
What is nerve impulse? How is it conducted?
Answer:
Nerve impulse: The sum total of the physical and chemical reactions which take place in the propagation of the wave of physiological activity along the nerve fibre is called as nerve impulse.

Propagation of Nerve impulse :

1. Depolarization: When a stimulus of any kind electrical, mechanical or chemical acts on the nerve fibre momentarily, a local increase occurs in the permeability of membrane by opening sodium gate at the site of stimulus. This suddenly brings sodium ions influx into the cell, carrying enough positive charges to the inside to cause complete disappearance of the normal resting potential and usually enough charges to develop a positive state inside the fibre. This positive state of the fibre is called reverse potential. It results in the depolarization of the membrane.

2. Action potential: The changed electrical potential of the plasma membrane of neuron is called action potential. The initial change produces an ionic imbalance across the membrane on either side of the points of stimulus producing local electrical current. These areas of negative depolarization in turn initiate changes in the membrane adjacent to them. A wave of electric charges or depolarization along the length of the nerve fibre or axon is called nerve impulse.

3. Repolarization: With the increase of positive charge inside further entry of Na⁺ is prevented and the permeability of membrane decreases. Na⁺ ions are pushed out which transfer large number of positive charge outside, once again creating negativity inside the membrane which restores the original resting potential. This is known as repolarization. The repolarization starts exactly on the same spot where depolarization had started and then continues to advance ahead. The entire process of repolarization requires some time during which the nerve cannot be stimulated again. It is known as refractory period.

Theories of nerve impulse conduction or Transmission :

1. Saltatory conduction or through nerve fibre : Myelin sheath acts as insulator in the medullated nerve fibres. It is almost impermeable to the ions. The membrane at the nodes of Ranvier is 500 times more permeable. The nerve impulse in these fibres passes from node to node along the entire length of nerve fibre rather than continuously along the entire fibre as occurs in unmyelinated fibre.

This process is called saltatory conduction. It is of dual value. First by causing the depolarization process to jump along nodes of Ranvier on the axis of the nerve fibre increases greatly the speed of impulse travel and secondly saltatory conduction conserves energy for the axon because only the nodes depolarize.
The velocity of conduction in nerve fibre varies from 5 metres per second in a small unmyelinated fibres to as high as 130 metres per second in large myelinated fibres.

Transmission of impulse across synapse (synaptic transmission): The area where the dendrite of one neuron is in close proximity with the axon of another is known as the synapse. The space between the axon and dendrite is called the synaptic cleft.

When the impulse reaches the tip of axon it stimulates the synaptic vehicles which move towards the synaptic cleft and discharge the neurotransmitter or neurohormones.
They then return the knob and become recharged. This chemical neurotransmitter substance has been identified as acetylcholine. Once released the neurotransmitter diffuses across the synaptic cleft and becomes attached to chemo- receptors present on the dendrites of the next neuron.

This attachment triggers the depolarization of the membrane and initiates action potential which travels across the next neuron. Thus, the actual transmission of the impulse across the synapse is by means of specific chemicals. Just after the transmission of impulse through the synapse, acetylcholine is hydrolyzed into acetic-acid and choline by the enzyme acetylcholinesterase present in the post synaptic membrane. The membrane again becomes polarized, so another impulse must come down the axon and release more acetylcholine for the transmission of another impulse.

Question 2.
Give three-three functions of sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system.
Answer:
Functions of Sympathetic Nervous System :

1. Sympathetic nervous system maintains the physical balance during distress conditions.
2. It stimulates the adrenal glands to secrete adrenalin. Thus, sympathetic nerves function with the adrenal glands as a well-integrated sympathetic-adrenal system having widespread effects.
3. This system is responsible for the increase in the rate of heartbeat and blood pressure.
4. It reduces the peristaltic movement of alimentary canal.
5. It brings about the extension of pupil.
6. It contracts the sphincter muscles of urinary bladder.
7. It increases the sugar level in blood.
8. It increases the number of RBCs in blood.

Functions of Parasympathetic Nervous System :

• Parasympathetic nervous system opposes the effects of the sympathetic autonomic system.
• It decreases rate of heartbeat.
• It decreases blood pressure.
• The nerve ending of this system secrete acetylcholine.
• It constricts pupil of the eyes.
• It relaxes the muscles of root hairs.
• It contracts the muscles of ureter.
• It increases the secretion of saliva and digestive juices.

Question 3.
Name the regulating centre of following in brain :
(a) Temperature,
(b) Hunger,
(c) Respiration,
(d) Water balance,
(e) Vision,
(f) Hearing,
(g) Menstrual cycle,
(h) Learning, (i) Pituitary gland,
(j) Coordination and equilibrium,
(k) Transport,
(l) Sleep,
(m) Heartbeat.
Answer:
(a) Temperature – Thalamus
(b) Hunger – Hypothalamus
(c) Respiration – Medulla oblongata
(d) Water balance – Hypothalamus
(e) Vision – Cerebral cortex
(f) Hearing – Cerebral cortex
(g) Menstrual cycle – Hypothalamus
(h) Learning – Cerebral cortex
(i) Pituitary gland – Hypothalamus
(j) Equilibrium and Coordination – Cerebellum
(k) Transport – Medulla oblongata
(l) Sleep – Cerebral cortex
(m) Heartbeat – Medulla oblongata.

Question 4.
Describe following structures in breif. (NCERT)
(A) Brain,
(B) Eye,
(C) Ear.
Answer:
(A) Brain: Mammalian brain is divisible into three parts :
1. Fore-brain or prosencephalon consists of cerebrum (telencephalon), olfactory lobes (rhinencephalon) and diencephalon (thalamencephalon).
2. Mid-brain or mesencephalon consists of optic lobes (corpora quadrigemina) and cerebral peduncle.
3. Hind-brain or rhombencephalon formed of cerebellum (metencephalon), medulla oblongata (myelencephalon) and pons varoli.

(1) Forebrain :

(i) Olfactory lobe : In mammals the olfactory lobes are located at the anterior end of brain, ventral in position. They are reduced and covered by cerebral hemisphere. Each lobe is further differentiated into olfactory bulb and olfactory tract. The olfactory tract ends in a rounded elevation, the tuberculum olfactory. But in human brain due to the over-development of cerebrum the olfactory lobes get incorporated with the cerebrum and are visible only in the ventral view. Olfactory lobes are concerned with the sense of smell. The nature of the nerve arising from the olfactory lobes are purely sensory.

(ii) Cerebrum: Cerebrum is the largest part of the brain. It is made up of two halves, the right and the left cerebral hemispheres. A deep median longitudinal groove is the demarkation between two halves. The two halves are connected by means of a broad transverse band of white matter called corpus callosum or cerebri.

Deep furrows divide each cerebral hemisphere into frontal lobe, temporal lobe, occipital lobe and a small lobe called insula. Insula is a triangular eminence lying deeply in lateral fissure of temporal lobe. The other lobes are named according to the position they occupy. The surface of cerebrum is folded, having elevation and depressions called sulci and gyri that increases surface area.

(iii) Diencephalon: It is a small area, it remains covered with cerebrum. It consists of following:
(a) Epithalamus: It forms the roof of diencephalon having anterior choroid plexus concerned with supply of nutrition of brain and vestigial pineal body.

(b) Optic thalami: These forms lateral walls of diencephalon and contain optic fibres which go towards cerebrum.
(iv) Hypothalamus : The base of the brain constitutes the hypothalamus. It forms the floor of diencephalon. It has a hypophysis or master gland or pituitary gland, which is an endocrine gland. Anterior to it is a geniculate body which relay optic impulses to cerebrum. An optic chiasma is formed by the crossing of optic fibres. The hypothalamus, consists of large amount of grey matter present within the white matter. It contains the nerve centres for control of temperature, hunger, thirst and emotions, sleep and sexual activities. It also produces various neurohormones that control the secretion of anterior pituitary. Hormones of posterior pituitary are produced in hypothalamus which reach the pituitary by hypophyseal portal vessels.

2. Mid-brain: The mid-brain or mesencephalon joins the cerebrum with the cerebellum. It consists of four lobes called quadrigemina. Anterior pair of lobes is concerned with vision and posterior ones with hearing. It has large number of nerve cells scattered within the white matter. These nerve cells are involved in controlling the voluntary muscle activities and also act as centres for auditory and visual reflexes. It can modify some motor activities initiated by cortex.

3. Hind-brain: The hind brain or rhombencephalon consists of cerebellum, pons and medulla and many visceral functions forms its major part and is a large reflex centre for the co-ordination of activities of voluntary muscles.
The brain-stem consists of pons varoli in front of cerebellum and behind it medulla oblongata is present. Pons varoli runs transversely and carries impulses from one portion of cerebellum to another. The medulla oblongata lies in between the pons varoli and spinal cord and controls various reflexes like breathing, swallowing, salivation, chewing, coughing, sneezing etc.

(B) Human Eye: L.S. of human eye : Human eye is a spherical ball like structure filled with a vitreous liquid. It is covered by upper and lower eyelids. The eyeball of human beings is made up of from the following three layers :

1. Sclerotic layer: It is the outermost layer of eye. Their 1/3 transparent part is called as cornea. Covering of cornea is a thin transparent membrane called conjunctiva. Cornea permits light to enter the eye.

2. Choroid layer: It is an extensive plexus of small blood vessels embedded in loose connective tissue. At the anterior margin of the choroid a greatly thickened structure projects immediately into the eyeball towards the margin of the lens.

This portion of the choroid is called as ciliary body. Anterior to the ciliary body the vascular tunic is thin and constitute the iris of the eye; in the middle of the iris is a round opening called the pupil. A lens (biconcave) is present below the iris which is encased in a strong fibrous lens capsule and containing a high concentration of protein.

3. Retina: It is the innermost part of the eye which lines the inside surface of the posterior two third of the eyeball and lies on the inner surface of the choroid. The retina containing light sensitive cells called rods and cones that detect light and colour and then send appropriate signals to the brain to cause vision.
Two functions of rods and cones are :

1. The photoreceptor, rod cells of retina contain rhodopsin. They function in dim light and enable us to see in darkness at night.
2. The photoreceptor, cone cells of retina contain iodopsin. They function in day light and artificial bright light. They are associated with perception of colours

Note: For

(C) Ear: Human ear is highly developed. It can be divided into three parts :

1. External ear: It consists of flap like structure called pinna which collects sound and pass it to the auditory canal, at the end of which tympanic membrane is found.

2. Middle ear: It consists of tympanic cavity which is present between the tympanic membrane and the internal ear. Three small bones called ear ossicles are found in the middle ear. The first bone, which is club-shaped and is attached at one end to the tympanic membrane is called malleus.
Its other end is attached to an anvil-shaped bone called incus. The narrow end of incus is attached to the bone called stapes which is stirrup-shaped and has an aperture in it.

The other end of stapes is fixed to the membrane on the fenestra ovalis. In mammals, all these three bones originate from the bones of the jaws, malleus from articular, incus from quadrate and stapes from hyomandibular. The tympanic cavity is connected with the pharynx by means of eustachian tube.

3. Internal ear: The membranou s labyrinth of internal ear consists of two chambers : utriculus and sacculus. These chambers are connected with each other by a narrow canal called saccularicular canal. Three semicircular canals arise from the utriculus. According to their position, they are known as anterior, posterior and external or horizontal semicircular canals. The anterior and posterior semicircular canals arise together and run for a short distance and then separate. After taking a curved course, their other ends again open into the utriculus where each of them enlarges to form an ampulla. Each ampulla contains a sensory crista which is formed of ciliated and supporting cells.

Two such cristae maculae are present in sacculus and one in the utriculus. The hind part of sacculus is coiled like a spring and is known as cochlear duct. Utriculus, ampullae, semicircular canals, sacculus and cochlear duct are all filled with a thick fluid called endolymph which contains minute particles of calcium carbonate known
as otoliths.

The internal ear is situated in the temporal region of the skull within the periotic bones which take the shape of the internal ear. Thus the whole internal ear, i.e., membranous labyrinth is enclosed in a bony labyrinth.
The space between these two is filled with a fluid called perilymph. The cochlea is associated with hearing. It is a bony tube coiled like a conch shell. It is wound around a bony cone of bone, known as central pillar or modiolus. The cochlear nerve passes through the modiolus. The scala media remains separated from the vestibular canal of the bony labyrinth by a vestibular membrane or resisters membrane. It is also separated from the underlying tympanic canal by a basilar membrane.

The basilar membrane possesses several rows of hair cells serving as auditory receptors all along its coiled course. This structure is known as Organ of Corti which is the organ of hearing. It is composed of several specialized cells. Corti’s rods are double row of arching rods based on basilar membrane and ‘forming the spiral tunnel of Corti. Hair cells are the sensory organ of Corti’s organ. Dieters cells are the supporting cells between rows of outer hair cells in organ of Corti. A tectorial membrane lies in contact with the hair cells.

Question 5.
Draw labelled diagrams of following :
(a) Neuron,
(b) Brain,
(c) Eye,
(d) Ear. (NCERT)
Answer:
(a) Neuron :

(b) Brain:

(A) Brain: Mammalian brain is divisible into three parts :
1. Fore-brain or prosencephalon consists of cerebrum (telencephalon), olfactory lobes (rhinencephalon) and diencephalon (thalamencephalon).
2. Mid-brain or mesencephalon consists of optic lobes (corpora quadrigemina) and cerebral peduncle.
3. Hind-brain or rhombencephalon formed of cerebellum (metencephalon), medulla oblongata (myelencephalon) and pons varoli.

(1) Forebrain :

(i) Olfactory lobe : In mammals the olfactory lobes are located at the anterior end of brain, ventral in position. They are reduced and covered by cerebral hemisphere. Each lobe is further differentiated into olfactory bulb and olfactory tract. The olfactory tract ends in a rounded elevation, the tuberculum olfactorium. But in human brain due to the over development of cerebrum the olfactory lobes get incorporated with the cerebrum and are visible only in the ventral view. Olfactory lobes are concerned with the sense of smell. The nature of the nerve arising from the olfactory lobes are purely sensory.

(ii) Cerebrum: Cerebrum is the largest part of the brain. It is made up of two halves, the right and the left cerebral hemispheres. A deep median longitudinal groove is the demarkation between two halves. The two halves are connected by means of a broad transverse band of white matter called corpus callosum or cerebri.

Deep furrows divide each cerebral hemisphere into frontal lobe, temporal lobe, occipital lobe and a small lobe called insula. Insula is a triangular eminence lying deeply in lateral fissure of temporal lobe. The other lobes are named according to the position they occupy. The surface of cerebrum is folded, having elevation and depressions called sulci and gyri that increases surface area.

(iii) Diencephalon: It is a small area, it remains covered with cerebrum. It consists of following:
(a) Epithalamus: It forms the roof of diencephalon having anterior choroid plexus concerned with supply of nutrition of brain and vestigial pineal body.

(b) Optic thalami: These forms lateral walls of diencephalon and contain optic fibres which go towards cerebrum.
(iv) Hypothalamus : The base of the brain constitutes the hypothalamus. It forms the floor of diencephalon. It has a hypophysis or master gland or pituitary gland, which is an endocrine gland. Anterior to it is a geniculate body which relay optic impulses to cerebrum.

An optic chiasma is formed by the crossing of optic fibres. The hypothalamus, consists of large amount of grey matter present within the white matter. It contains the nerve centres for control of temperature, hunger, thirst and emotions, sleep and sexual activities. It also produces various neurohormones that control the secretion of anterior pituitary. Hormones of posterior pituitary are produced in hypothalamus which reach the pituitary by hypophyseal portal vessels.

2. Mid-brain: The mid-brain or mesencephalon joins the cerebrum with the cerebellum. It consists of four lobes called quadrigeminal. Anterior pair of lobes is concerned with vision and posterior ones with hearing. It has large number of nerve cells scattered within the white matter. These nerve cells are involved in controlling the voluntary muscle activities and also act as centres for auditory and visual reflexes. It can modify some motor activities initiated by cortex.

3. Hind-brain: The hind brain or rhombencephalon consists of cerebellum, pons and medulla and many visceral functions forms its major part and is a large reflex centre for the co-ordination of activities of voluntary muscles.

The brain-stem consists of pons varoli in front of cerebellum and behind it medulla oblongata is present. Pons varoli runs transversely and carries impulses from one portion of cerebellum to another. The medulla oblongata lies in between the pons varoli and spinal cord and controls various reflexes like breathing, swallowing, salivation, chewing, coughing, sneezing etc.

(C) Ear:

Human ear is highly developed. It can be divided into three parts :

1. External ear: It consists of flap like structure called pinna which collects sound and pass it to the auditory canal, at the end of which tympanic membrane is found.

2. Middle ear: It consists of tympanic cavity which is present between the tympanic membrane and the internal ear. Three small bones called ear ossicles are found in the middle ear. The first bone, which is club-shaped and is attached at one end to the tympanic membrane is called malleus.
Its other end is attached to an anvil-shaped bone called incus. The narrow end of incus is attached to the bone called stapes which is stirrup-shaped and has an aperture in it.

The other end of stapes is fixed to the membrane on the fenestra ovalis. In mammals, all these three bones originate from the bones of the jaws, malleus from articular, incus from quadrate and stapes from hyomandibular. The tympanic cavity is connected with the pharynx by means of eustachian tube.

3. Internal ear: The membranou s labyrinth of internal ear consists of two chambers : utriculus and sacculus. These chambers are connected with each other by a narrow canal called saccularicular canal. Three semicircular canals arise from the utriculus. According to their position, they are known as anterior, posterior and external or horizontal semicircular canals. The anterior and posterior semicircular canals arise together and run for a short distance and then separate. After taking a curved course, their other ends again open into the utriculus where each of them enlarges to form an ampulla. Each ampulla contains a sensory crista which is formed of ciliated and supporting cells.

Two such cristae maculae are present in sacculus and one in the utriculus. The hind part of sacculus is coiled like a spring and is known as cochlear duct. Utriculus, ampullae, semicircular canals, sacculus and cochlear duct are all filled with a thick fluid called endolymph which contains minute particles of calcium carbonate known
as otoliths.

The internal ear is situated in the temporal region of the skull within the periotic bones which take the shape of the internal ear. Thus the whole internal ear, i.e., membranous labyrinth is enclosed in a bony labyrinth.
The space between these two is filled with a fluid called perilymph. The cochlea is associated with hearing. It is a bony tube coiled like a conch shell. It is wound around a bony cone of bone, known as central pillar or modiolus. The cochlear nerve passes through the modiolus. The scala media remains separated from the vestibular canal of the bony labyrinth by a vestibular membrane or reissners membrane. It is also separated from the underlying tympanic canal by a basilar membrane.

The basilar membrane possesses several rows of hair cells serving as auditory receptors all along its coiled course. This structure is known as Organ of Corti which is the organ of hearing. It is composed of several specialized cells. Corti’s rods are double row of arching rods based on basilar membrane and ‘forming the spiral tunnel of Corti. Hair cells are the sensory organ of Corti’s organ. Dieters cells are the supporting cells between rows of outer hair cells in organ of Corti. A tectorial membrane lies in contact with the hair cells.

(c) Eye :

Note: For

(d) Ear :

Human ear is highly developed. It can be divided into three parts :

1. External ear: It consists of flap like structure called pinna which collects sound and pass it to the auditory canal, at the end of which tympanic membrane is found.

2. Middle ear: It consists of tympanic cavity which is present between the tympanic membrane and the internal ear. Three small bones called ear ossicles are found in the middle ear. The first bone, which is club-shaped and is attached at one end to the tympanic membrane is called malleus.
Its other end is attached to an anvil-shaped bone called incus. The narrow end of incus is attached to the bone called stapes which is stirrup-shaped and has an aperture in it.

The other end of stapes is fixed to the membrane on the fenestra ovalis. In mammals, all these three bones originate from the bones of the jaws, malleus from articular, incus from quadrate and stapes from hyomandibular. The tympanic cavity is connected with the pharynx by means of eustachian tube.

3. Internal ear: The membranou s labyrinth of internal ear consists of two chambers : utriculus and sacculus. These chambers are connected with each other by a narrow canal called saccularicular canal. Three semicircular canals arise from the utriculus. According to their position, they are known as anterior, posterior and external or horizontal semicircular canals. The anterior and posterior semicircular canals arise together and run for a short distance and then separate. After taking a curved course, their other ends again open into the utriculus where each of them enlarges to form an ampulla. Each ampulla contains a sensory crista which is formed of ciliated and supporting cells.

Two such cristae maculae are present in sacculus and one in the utriculus. The hind part of sacculus is coiled like a spring and is known as cochlear duct. Utriculus, ampullae, semicircular canals, sacculus and cochlear duct are all filled with a thick fluid called endolymph which contains minute particles of calcium carbonate known
as otoliths.

The internal ear is situated in the temporal region of the skull within the periotic bones which take the shape of the internal ear. Thus the whole internal ear, i.e., membranous labyrinth is enclosed in a bony labyrinth.
The space between these two is filled with a fluid called perilymph. The cochlea is associated with hearing. It is a bony tube coiled like a conch shell. It is wound around a bony cone of bone, known as central pillar or modiolus. The cochlear nerve passes through the modiolus. The scala media remains separated from the vestibular canal of the bony labyrinth by a vestibular membrane or reissners membrane. It is also separated from the underlying tympanic canal by a basilar membrane.

The basilar membrane possesses several rows of hair cells serving as auditory receptors all along its coiled course. This structure is known as Organ of Corti which is the organ of hearing. It is composed of several specialized cells. Corti’s rods are double row of arching rods based on basilar membrane and ‘forming the spiral tunnel of Corti. Hair cells are the sensory organ of Corti’s organ. Dieters cells are the supporting cells between rows of outer hair cells in organ of Corti. A tectorial membrane lies in contact with the hair cells.

Question 6.
Write short notes on following : (NCERT)
(a) Mechanism of synaptic conduction.
(b) Mechanism of vision.
(c) Mechanism of hearing.
Answer:
(a) Mechanism of synaptic conduction:
Nerve impulse: The sum total of the physical and chemical reactions which take place in the propagation of the wave of physiological activity along the nerve fibre is called as nerve impulse.

Propagation of Nerve impulse :

1. Depolarization: When a stimulus of any kind electrical, mechanical or chemical acts on the nerve fibre momentarily, a local increase occurs in the permeability of membrane by opening sodium gate at the site of stimulus. This suddenly brings sodium ions influx into the cell, carrying enough positive charges to the inside to cause complete disappearance of the normal resting potential and usually enough charges to develop a positive state inside the fibre. This positive state of the fibre is called reverse potential. It results in the depolarization of the membrane.

2. Action potential: The changed electrical potential of the plasma membrane of neuron is called action potential. The initial change produces an ionic imbalance across the membrane on either side of the points of stimulus producing local electrical current. These areas of negative depolarization in turn initiate changes in the membrane adjacent to them. A wave of electric charges or depolarization along the length of the nerve fibre or axon is called nerve impulse.

3. Repolarization: With the increase of positive charge inside further entry of Na⁺ is prevented and the permeability of membrane decreases. Na⁺ ions are pushed out which transfer large number of positive charge outside, once again creating negativity inside the membrane which restores the original resting potential. This is known as repolarization. The repolarization starts exactly on the same spot where depolarization had started and then continues to advance ahead. The entire process of repolarization requires some time during which the nerve cannot be stimulated again. It is known as refractory period.

Theories of nerve impulse conduction or Transmission :

1. Saltatory conduction or through nerve fibre : Myelin sheath acts as insulator in the medullated nerve fibres. It is almost impermeable to the ions. The membrane at the nodes of Ranvier is 500 times more permeable. The nerve impulse in these fibres passes from node to node along the entire length of nerve fibre rather than continuously along the entire fibre as occurs in unmyelinated fibre.

This process is called saltatory conduction. It is of dual value. First by causing the depolarization process to jump along nodes of Ranvier on the axis of the nerve fibre increases greatly the speed of impulse travel and secondly saltatory conduction conserves energy for the axon because only the nodes depolarize.
The velocity of conduction in nerve fibre varies from 5 metres per second in a small unmyelinated fibres to as high as 130 metres per second in large myelinated fibres.

Transmission of impulse across synapse (synaptic transmission): The area where the dendrite of one neuron is in close proximity with the axon of another is known as the synapse. The space between the axon and dendrite is called the synaptic cleft.

When the impulse reaches the tip of axon it stimulates the synaptic vehicles which move towards the synaptic cleft and discharge the neurotransmitter or neurohormones.
They then return the knob and become recharged. This chemical neurotransmitter substance has been identified as acetylcholine. Once released the neurotransmitter diffuses across the synaptic cleft and becomes attached to chemo- receptors present on the dendrites of the next neuron.

This attachment triggers the depolarization of the membrane and initiates action potential which travels across the next neuron. Thus, the actual transmission of the impulse across the synapse is by means of specific chemicals. Just after the transmission of impulse through the synapse, acetylcholine is hydrolyzed into acetic-acid and choline by the enzyme acetylcholinesterase present in the post synaptic membrane. The membrane again becomes polarized, so another impulse must come down the axon and release more acetylcholine for the transmission of another impulse.

(b) Mechanism of vision: For seeing clear distant object it is essential that image must be focussed on the retina so that photoreceptor rods and cones are stimulated. Rays of light from the object fall on the biconvex lens after passing through the conjunctiva, cornea and pupil. The size of the pupil regulates the amount of light entering the eyeball. Thus, an inverted image of the object is formed on the retina which is conveyed to the brain by the optic nerve. The image is then reinverted by the brain.

The eyes have got the property to form image of both far and near objects on retina by changing the convexity of the lens. This is called power of accommodation.

(c) Mechanism of hearing: The sound waves first strike the pinna which keeps on moving to direct the sound waves into tympanic cavity. These waves then strike the tympanic membrane which starts vibrating due to which the ear ossicles are vibrated.

Thus it is transmitted the membrane over the fenestra ovalis into scala vestibule of the cochlea. In this way, the perilymph filled in it also gets vibrated due to which Reissner’s and basilar membranes start vibrating. By the vibration of these membranes, the endolymph of scala media also vibrates as well as the tectorial membrane.

Because of the vibration of endolymph of scala media, the sensory hairs of the receptor cells of the organ of Corti are stretched and bent due to which the receptor cells gets stimulated and send the impulses to the brain through cochlear nerve. In the manner the sound is heard.

Question 7.
(a) Decribe role of Na⁺ in production of action potential.
(b) Describe role of Ca⁺⁺ in discharge of neurotransmitter at svnapse.
(c) Explain mechanism of production of impulse on the retina by light.
(d) Explain mechanism of production of nerve impulse by sound in the internal ear.
Answer:
(a)

Nerve impulse: The sum total of the physical and chemical reactions which take place in the propagation of the wave of physiological activity along the nerve fibre is called as nerve impulse.
Propagation of Nerve impulse :
1. Depolarization: When a stimulus of any kind electrical, mechanical or chemical acts on the nerve fibre momentarily, a local increase occurs in the permeability of membrane by opening sodium gate at the site of stimulus. This suddenly brings sodium ions influx into the cell, carrying enough positive charges to the inside to cause complete disappearance of the normal resting potential and usually enough charges to develop a positive state inside the fibre. This positive state of the fibre is called reverse potential. It results in the depolarization of the membrane.

2. Action potential: The changed electrical potential of the plasma membrane of neuron is called action potential. The initial change produces an ionic imbalance across the membrane on either side of the points of stimulus producing local electrical current. These areas of negative depolarization in turn initiate changes in the membrane adjacent to them. A wave of electric charges or depolarization along the length of the nerve fibre or axon is called nerve impulse.

3. Repolarization: With the increase of positive charge inside further entry of Na⁺ is prevented and the permeability of membrane decreases. Na⁺ ions are pushed out which transfer large number of positive charge outside, once again creating negativity inside the membrane which restores the original resting potential. This is known as repolarization. The repolarization starts exactly on the same spot where depolarization had started and then continues to advance ahead. The entire process of repolarization requires some time during which the nerve cannot be stimulated again. It is known as refractory period.

Theories of nerve impulse conduction or Transmission :

1. Saltatory conduction or through nerve fibre : Myelin sheath acts as insulator in the medullated nerve fibres. It is almost impermeable to the ions. The membrane at the nodes of Ranvier is 500 times more permeable. The nerve impulse in these fibres passes from node to node along the entire length of nerve fibre rather than continuously along the entire fibre as occurs in unmyelinated fibre.

This process is called saltatory conduction. It is of dual value. First by causing the depolarization process to jump along nodes of Ranvier on the axis of the nerve fibre increases greatly the speed of impulse travel and secondly saltatory conduction conserves energy for the axon because only the nodes depolarize.
The velocity of conduction in nerve fibre varies from 5 metres per second in a small unmyelinated fibres to as high as 130 metres per second in large myelinated fibres.

Transmission of impulse across synapse (synaptic transmission): The area where the dendrite of one neuron is in close proximity with the axon of another is known as the synapse. The space between the axon and dendrite is called the synaptic cleft.

When the impulse reaches the tip of axon it stimulates the synaptic vehicles which move towards the synaptic cleft and discharge the neurotransmitter or neurohormones.
They then return the knob and become recharged. This chemical neurotransmitter substance has been identified as acetylcholine. Once released the neurotransmitter diffuses across the synaptic cleft and becomes attached to chemo- receptors present on the dendrites of the next neuron.

This attachment triggers the depolarization of the membrane and initiates action potential which travels across the next neuron. Thus, the actual transmission of the impulse across the synapse is by means of specific chemicals. Just after the transmission of impulse through the synapse, acetylcholine is hydrolyzed into acetic-acid and choline by the enzyme acetylcholinesterase present in the post synaptic membrane. The membrane again becomes polarized, so another impulse must come down the axon and release more acetylcholine for the transmission of another impulse.

(b)

(a)

Nerve impulse: The sum total of the physical and chemical reactions which take place in the propagation of the wave of physiological activity along the nerve fibre is called as nerve impulse.
Propagation of Nerve impulse :
1. Depolarization: When a stimulus of any kind electrical, mechanical or chemical acts on the nerve fibre momentarily, a local increase occurs in the permeability of membrane by opening sodium gate at the site of stimulus. This suddenly brings sodium ions influx into the cell, carrying enough positive charges to the inside to cause complete disappearance of the normal resting potential and usually enough charges to develop a positive state inside the fibre. This positive state of the fibre is called reverse potential. It results in the depolarization of the membrane.

2. Action potential: The changed electrical potential of the plasma membrane of neuron is called action potential. The initial change produces an ionic imbalance across the membrane on either side of the points of stimulus producing local electrical current. These areas of negative depolarization in turn initiate changes in the membrane adjacent to them. A wave of electric charges or depolarization along the length of the nerve fibre or axon is called nerve impulse.

3. Repolarization: With the increase of positive charge inside further entry of Na⁺ is prevented and the permeability of membrane decreases. Na⁺ ions are pushed out which transfer large number of positive charge outside, once again creating negativity inside the membrane which restores the original resting potential. This is known as repolarization. The repolarization starts exactly on the same spot where depolarization had started and then continues to advance ahead. The entire process of repolarization requires some time during which the nerve cannot be stimulated again. It is known as refractory period.

Theories of nerve impulse conduction or Transmission :

1. Saltatory conduction or through nerve fibre : Myelin sheath acts as insulator in the medullated nerve fibres. It is almost impermeable to the ions. The membrane at the nodes of Ranvier is 500 times more permeable. The nerve impulse in these fibres passes from node to node along the entire length of nerve fibre rather than continuously along the entire fibre as occurs in unmyelinated fibre.

This process is called saltatory conduction. It is of dual value. First by causing the depolarization process to jump along nodes of Ranvier on the axis of the nerve fibre increases greatly the speed of impulse travel and secondly saltatory conduction conserves energy for the axon because only the nodes depolarize.
The velocity of conduction in nerve fibre varies from 5 metres per second in a small unmyelinated fibres to as high as 130 metres per second in large myelinated fibres.

Transmission of impulse across synapse (synaptic transmission): The area where the dendrite of one neuron is in close proximity with the axon of another is known as the synapse. The space between the axon and dendrite is called the synaptic cleft.

When the impulse reaches the tip of axon it stimulates the synaptic vehicles which move towards the synaptic cleft and discharge the neurotransmitter or neurohormones.
They then return the knob and become recharged. This chemical neurotransmitter substance has been identified as acetylcholine. Once released the neurotransmitter diffuses across the synaptic cleft and becomes attached to chemo- receptors present on the dendrites of the next neuron.

This attachment triggers the depolarization of the membrane and initiates action potential which travels across the next neuron. Thus, the actual transmission of the impulse across the synapse is by means of specific chemicals. Just after the transmission of impulse through the synapse, acetylcholine is hydrolyzed into acetic-acid and choline by the enzyme acetylcholinesterase present in the post synaptic membrane. The membrane again becomes polarized, so another impulse must come down the axon and release more acetylcholine for the transmission of another impulse.

(c)

(a) Mechanism of synaptic conduction:
Nerve impulse: The sum total of the physical and chemical reactions which take place in the propagation of the wave of physiological activity along the nerve fibre is called as nerve impulse.

Propagation of Nerve impulse :

1. Depolarization: When a stimulus of any kind electrical, mechanical or chemical acts on the nerve fibre momentarily, a local increase occurs in the permeability of membrane by opening sodium gate at the site of stimulus. This suddenly brings sodium ions influx into the cell, carrying enough positive charges to the inside to cause complete disappearance of the normal resting potential and usually enough charges to develop a positive state inside the fibre. This positive state of the fibre is called reverse potential. It results in the depolarization of the membrane.

2. Action potential: The changed electrical potential of the plasma membrane of neuron is called action potential. The initial change produces an ionic imbalance across the membrane on either side of the points of stimulus producing local electrical current. These areas of negative depolarization in turn initiate changes in the membrane adjacent to them. A wave of electric charges or depolarization along the length of the nerve fibre or axon is called nerve impulse.

3. Repolarization: With the increase of positive charge inside further entry of Na⁺ is prevented and the permeability of membrane decreases. Na⁺ ions are pushed out which transfer large number of positive charge outside, once again creating negativity inside the membrane which restores the original resting potential. This is known as repolarization. The repolarization starts exactly on the same spot where depolarization had started and then continues to advance ahead. The entire process of repolarization requires some time during which the nerve cannot be stimulated again. It is known as refractory period.

Theories of nerve impulse conduction or Transmission :

1. Saltatory conduction or through nerve fibre : Myelin sheath acts as insulator in the medullated nerve fibres. It is almost impermeable to the ions. The membrane at the nodes of Ranvier is 500 times more permeable. The nerve impulse in these fibres passes from node to node along the entire length of nerve fibre rather than continuously along the entire fibre as occurs in unmyelinated fibre.

This process is called saltatory conduction. It is of dual value. First by causing the depolarization process to jump along nodes of Ranvier on the axis of the nerve fibre increases greatly the speed of impulse travel and secondly saltatory conduction conserves energy for the axon because only the nodes depolarize.
The velocity of conduction in nerve fibre varies from 5 metres per second in a small unmyelinated fibres to as high as 130 metres per second in large myelinated fibres.

Transmission of impulse across synapse (synaptic transmission): The area where the dendrite of one neuron is in close proximity with the axon of another is known as the synapse. The space between the axon and dendrite is called the synaptic cleft.

When the impulse reaches the tip of axon it stimulates the synaptic vehicles which move towards the synaptic cleft and discharge the neurotransmitter or neurohormones.
They then return the knob and become recharged. This chemical neurotransmitter substance has been identified as acetylcholine. Once released the neurotransmitter diffuses across the synaptic cleft and becomes attached to chemo- receptors present on the dendrites of the next neuron.

This attachment triggers the depolarization of the membrane and initiates action potential which travels across the next neuron. Thus, the actual transmission of the impulse across the synapse is by means of specific chemicals. Just after the transmission of impulse through the synapse, acetylcholine is hydrolyzed into acetic-acid and choline by the enzyme acetylcholinesterase present in the post synaptic membrane. The membrane again becomes polarized, so another impulse must come down the axon and release more acetylcholine for the transmission of another impulse.

(b) Mechanism of vision: For seeing clear distant object it is essential that image must be focussed on the retina so that photoreceptor rods and cones are stimulated. Rays of light from the object fall on the biconvex lens after passing through the conjunctiva, cornea and pupil. The size of the pupil regulates the amount of light entering the eyeball. Thus, an inverted image of the object is formed on the retina which is conveyed to the brain by the optic nerve. The image is then reinverted by the brain.

The eyes have got the property to form image of both far and near objects on retina by changing the convexity of the lens. This is called power of accommodation.

(c) Mechanism of hearing: The sound waves first strike the pinna which keeps on moving to direct the sound waves into tympanic cavity. These waves then strike the tympanic membrane which starts vibrating due to which the ear ossicles are vibrated.

Thus it is transmitted the membrane over the fenestra ovalis into scala vestibule of the cochlea. In this way, the perilymph filled in it also gets vibrated due to which Reissner’s and basilar membranes start vibrating. By the vibration of these membranes, the endolymph of scala media also vibrates as well as the tectorial membrane.

Because of the vibration of endolymph of scala media, the sensory hairs of the receptor cells of the organ of Corti are stretched and bent due to which the receptor cells gets stimulated and send the impulses to the brain through cochlear nerve. In the manner the sound is heard.

(d)

(a) Mechanism of synaptic conduction:
Nerve impulse: The sum total of the physical and chemical reactions which take place in the propagation of the wave of physiological activity along the nerve fibre is called as nerve impulse.

Propagation of Nerve impulse :

1. Depolarization: When a stimulus of any kind electrical, mechanical or chemical acts on the nerve fibre momentarily, a local increase occurs in the permeability of membrane by opening sodium gate at the site of stimulus. This suddenly brings sodium ions influx into the cell, carrying enough positive charges to the inside to cause complete disappearance of the normal resting potential and usually enough charges to develop a positive state inside the fibre. This positive state of the fibre is called reverse potential. It results in the depolarization of the membrane.

2. Action potential: The changed electrical potential of the plasma membrane of neuron is called action potential. The initial change produces an ionic imbalance across the membrane on either side of the points of stimulus producing local electrical current. These areas of negative depolarization in turn initiate changes in the membrane adjacent to them. A wave of electric charges or depolarization along the length of the nerve fibre or axon is called nerve impulse.

3. Repolarization: With the increase of positive charge inside further entry of Na⁺ is prevented and the permeability of membrane decreases. Na⁺ ions are pushed out which transfer large number of positive charge outside, once again creating negativity inside the membrane which restores the original resting potential. This is known as repolarization. The repolarization starts exactly on the same spot where depolarization had started and then continues to advance ahead. The entire process of repolarization requires some time during which the nerve cannot be stimulated again. It is known as refractory period.

Theories of nerve impulse conduction or Transmission :

1. Saltatory conduction or through nerve fibre : Myelin sheath acts as insulator in the medullated nerve fibres. It is almost impermeable to the ions. The membrane at the nodes of Ranvier is 500 times more permeable. The nerve impulse in these fibres passes from node to node along the entire length of nerve fibre rather than continuously along the entire fibre as occurs in unmyelinated fibre.

This process is called saltatory conduction. It is of dual value. First by causing the depolarization process to jump along nodes of Ranvier on the axis of the nerve fibre increases greatly the speed of impulse travel and secondly saltatory conduction conserves energy for the axon because only the nodes depolarize.
The velocity of conduction in nerve fibre varies from 5 metres per second in a small unmyelinated fibres to as high as 130 metres per second in large myelinated fibres.

Transmission of impulse across synapse (synaptic transmission): The area where the dendrite of one neuron is in close proximity with the axon of another is known as the synapse. The space between the axon and dendrite is called the synaptic cleft.

When the impulse reaches the tip of axon it stimulates the synaptic vehicles which move towards the synaptic cleft and discharge the neurotransmitter or neurohormones.
They then return the knob and become recharged. This chemical neurotransmitter substance has been identified as acetylcholine. Once released the neurotransmitter diffuses across the synaptic cleft and becomes attached to chemo- receptors present on the dendrites of the next neuron.

This attachment triggers the depolarization of the membrane and initiates action potential which travels across the next neuron. Thus, the actual transmission of the impulse across the synapse is by means of specific chemicals. Just after the transmission of impulse through the synapse, acetylcholine is hydrolyzed into acetic-acid and choline by the enzyme acetylcholinesterase present in the post synaptic membrane. The membrane again becomes polarized, so another impulse must come down the axon and release more acetylcholine for the transmission of another impulse.

(b) Mechanism of vision: For seeing clear distant object it is essential that image must be focussed on the retina so that photoreceptor rods and cones are stimulated. Rays of light from the object fall on the biconvex lens after passing through the conjunctiva, cornea and pupil. The size of the pupil regulates the amount of light entering the eyeball. Thus, an inverted image of the object is formed on the retina which is conveyed to the brain by the optic nerve. The image is then reinverted by the brain.

The eyes have got the property to form image of both far and near objects on retina by changing the convexity of the lens. This is called power of accommodation.

(c) Mechanism of hearing: The sound waves first strike the pinna which keeps on moving to direct the sound waves into tympanic cavity. These waves then strike the tympanic membrane which starts vibrating due to which the ear ossicles are vibrated.

Thus it is transmitted the membrane over the fenestra ovalis into scala vestibule of the cochlea. In this way, the perilymph filled in it also gets vibrated due to which Reissner’s and basilar membranes start vibrating. By the vibration of these membranes, the endolymph of scala media also vibrates as well as the tectorial membrane.

Because of the vibration of endolymph of scala media, the sensory hairs of the receptor cells of the organ of Corti are stretched and bent due to which the receptor cells gets stimulated and send the impulses to the brain through cochlear nerve. In the manner the sound is heard.

Question 8.
(a) How do you see colour of any object?
(b) Which part of our body helps to maintain equilibrium (balance) of the body?
(c) How does eyes regulate light which falls into the retina.
Answer:
(a) Retina contain two types of light receptor cells: Rods and cones. In the presence of light rods perceive light, whereas the cones are colour receptors, containing adoption or visual violet. They function in strong light and are meant for scotopic vision (colour vision), that is why we can not see colour in dim light or dark.

On the basis of pigments there are three types of cones :

1. Cones respond to red light due to presence of erythroblast pigment.
2. Cones respond to green light due to presence of chlorolabe pigment.
3. Cones respond to blue light due to presence of cyanolabe pigment.
   The colour that we see results from a mixture of impulses of the above types of cone
   types.

(b) Ears play an important role in hearing and the maintenance of equilibrium and orientation of body, hence are called as balancing organ. Sensory cells are present in the ampullae of the semilunar canals and utriculus. Several particles of calcium carbonate or otoliths are scattered around the cilia of these cells. When the equilibrium of the body disturbed, the otoliths move and press upon the cilia or sensory cells which get stimulated and send the impulse to the brain. Thus brain receives the information and sends instructions to different organs to set right the equilibrium of body.

(c)

(a) Mechanism of synaptic conduction:
Nerve impulse: The sum total of the physical and chemical reactions which take place in the propagation of the wave of physiological activity along the nerve fibre is called as nerve impulse.

Propagation of Nerve impulse :

1. Depolarization: When a stimulus of any kind electrical, mechanical or chemical acts on the nerve fibre momentarily, a local increase occurs in the permeability of membrane by opening sodium gate at the site of stimulus. This suddenly brings sodium ions influx into the cell, carrying enough positive charges to the inside to cause complete disappearance of the normal resting potential and usually enough charges to develop a positive state inside the fibre. This positive state of the fibre is called reverse potential. It results in the depolarization of the membrane.

2. Action potential: The changed electrical potential of the plasma membrane of neuron is called action potential. The initial change produces an ionic imbalance across the membrane on either side of the points of stimulus producing local electrical current. These areas of negative depolarization in turn initiate changes in the membrane adjacent to them. A wave of electric charges or depolarization along the length of the nerve fibre or axon is called nerve impulse.

3. Repolarization: With the increase of positive charge inside further entry of Na⁺ is prevented and the permeability of membrane decreases. Na⁺ ions are pushed out which transfer large number of positive charge outside, once again creating negativity inside the membrane which restores the original resting potential. This is known as repolarization. The repolarization starts exactly on the same spot where depolarization had started and then continues to advance ahead. The entire process of repolarization requires some time during which the nerve cannot be stimulated again. It is known as refractory period.

Theories of nerve impulse conduction or Transmission :

1. Saltatory conduction or through nerve fibre : Myelin sheath acts as insulator in the medullated nerve fibres. It is almost impermeable to the ions. The membrane at the nodes of Ranvier is 500 times more permeable. The nerve impulse in these fibres passes from node to node along the entire length of nerve fibre rather than continuously along the entire fibre as occurs in unmyelinated fibre.

This process is called saltatory conduction. It is of dual value. First by causing the depolarization process to jump along nodes of Ranvier on the axis of the nerve fibre increases greatly the speed of impulse travel and secondly saltatory conduction conserves energy for the axon because only the nodes depolarize.
The velocity of conduction in nerve fibre varies from 5 metres per second in a small unmyelinated fibres to as high as 130 metres per second in large myelinated fibres.

Transmission of impulse across synapse (synaptic transmission): The area where the dendrite of one neuron is in close proximity with the axon of another is known as the synapse. The space between the axon and dendrite is called the synaptic cleft.

When the impulse reaches the tip of axon it stimulates the synaptic vehicles which move towards the synaptic cleft and discharge the neurotransmitter or neurohormones.
They then return the knob and become recharged. This chemical neurotransmitter substance has been identified as acetylcholine. Once released the neurotransmitter diffuses across the synaptic cleft and becomes attached to chemo- receptors present on the dendrites of the next neuron.

This attachment triggers the depolarization of the membrane and initiates action potential which travels across the next neuron. Thus, the actual transmission of the impulse across the synapse is by means of specific chemicals. Just after the transmission of impulse through the synapse, acetylcholine is hydrolyzed into acetic-acid and choline by the enzyme acetylcholinesterase present in the post synaptic membrane. The membrane again becomes polarized, so another impulse must come down the axon and release more acetylcholine for the transmission of another impulse.

(b) Mechanism of vision: For seeing clear distant object it is essential that image must be focussed on the retina so that photoreceptor rods and cones are stimulated. Rays of light from the object fall on the biconvex lens after passing through the conjunctiva, cornea and pupil. The size of the pupil regulates the amount of light entering the eyeball. Thus, an inverted image of the object is formed on the retina which is conveyed to the brain by the optic nerve. The image is then reinverted by the brain.

The eyes have got the property to form image of both far and near objects on retina by changing the convexity of the lens. This is called power of accommodation.

(c) Mechanism of hearing: The sound waves first strike the pinna which keeps on moving to direct the sound waves into tympanic cavity. These waves then strike the tympanic membrane which starts vibrating due to which the ear ossicles are vibrated.

Thus it is transmitted the membrane over the fenestra ovalis into scala vestibule of the cochlea. In this way, the perilymph filled in it also gets vibrated due to which Reissner’s and basilar membranes start vibrating. By the vibration of these membranes, the endolymph of scala media also vibrates as well as the tectorial membrane.

Because of the vibration of endolymph of scala media, the sensory hairs of the receptor cells of the organ of Corti are stretched and bent due to which the receptor cells gets stimulated and send the impulses to the brain through cochlear nerve. In the manner the sound is heard.

Question 9.
Describe functions of various parts of brain.
Answer:
Functions of different parts of brain :
Human brain consists of three parts :

1. Fore-brain,
2. Mid-brain,
3. Hind-brain.

Their functions are as follows :
1. Fore-brain:

(A) Cerebrum :

• It is the center of intelligence and reasoning.
• It is the centre of memory.
• It regulates feeling.
• Different area of this part is responsible for specific function.

(B) Olfactory lobe: It is the centre of reflex action.
(C) Diencephalon :

• It recognizes the sensation such as heat, cold and pain.
• It regulates metabolism of carbohydrates and fats.
• It regulates blood pressure.
• It also regulates hunger, thirst, sleep, temperature, tiredness, hate and satisfaction feeling by autonomic nervous system present in it.

2. Mid-brain : It helps to receive stimuli of vision and hearing. ‘
3. Hind-brain :
(A) Cerebellum :

• It regulates contraction and relaxation of muscles.
• Regulates balance of the body.

(B) Medulla oblongata :

• Regulates all involuntary functions such as heartbeat, rate of respiration and contraction of alimentary canal.
• It regulates swallowing, vomiting, sneezing etc.

Question 10.
Write differences between following :
(a) Myelinated and Non-myelinated nerve fibre.
(b) Dendrites and Axon.
(c) Rods and Cones.
(d) Thalamus and Hypothalamus.
(e) Cerebrum and Cerebellum.
Answer:
(a) Differences between Myelinated and Nonmyelinated nerve fibre

Myelinated nerve fibre	Non-myelinated nerve fibre
1. The nerve fibre in which myelin sheath is found called as myelinated nerve fibre. 2. This type of nerve fibres are found in the spinal and cranial nerves.	The nerve fibre in which myelin sheath is not found called as non-myelinated nerve fibre. This type of nerve fibres are found in the autonomous and somatic nerve fibres.

(b) Differences between Dendrites and Axon

Dendrites	Axon
1. Smaller processes arise from the cyton of neurons are called as dendrons, whichare further divided into branches called as dendrites. 2. Dendrites are responsible for receiving impulse from the receptors and conduct it to the cyton.	It is the longest process of the neuron. It conducts impulses from the cyton to the nerve endings.

(c) Differences between Rods and Cones

Rods	Cones
1. It consists of Rhodopsin pigment, which is formed by vitamin A. 2. It perceives light. 3. In less intensity of light white and dark brown colour can be identified. 4. Deficiency of rods or its pigments causes night blindness disease.	It consists of three different pigments. It differentiates colour. In more intensity of light red, green and blue Colour can be identified. Lack of cones causes colour blindness disease.

(d) Differences between Thalamus and Hypothalamus

Thalamus	Hypothalamus
1. It consists of two round masses of grey matter bulging in the third ventricle. 2. Thalamus serves as a relay centre for sensory and motor impulses from spinalcord and brain stem to various parts of the cerebrum. 3. It regulates emotions and recognizes heat, cold and pain.	It forms the floor of diocoel and consists of patches of grey matter of neurosensory cells in the white matter. Hypothalamus links nervous system with endocrine system. It regulate endocrine system by secretion of neurohormones. It regulates carbohydrates and fat metabolism, blood pressure, water balance, temperature, hunger, thirst and emotions.

(e) Differences between Cerebrum and Cerebellum

Cerebrum	Cerebellum
1. It is part of fore brain. 2. It is divided into two lobes called as cerebral hemispheres by a fissure. 3. It is the centre of intelligence, memory and reasoning.	It is part of hind brain. It is narrow towards the back side and connected with medulla oblongata. It is related to involuntary functions and body equilibrium.

Question 11.
Write differences between following. (NCERT)
(a) Afferent neuron and Efferent neuron.
(b) Impulse conduction in Myelinated and Non-myelinated nerve fibres.
(c) Yellow spot and Blind spot.
(d) Aqueous humour and Vitreous humour.
(e) Cranial nerves and Spinal nerves.
Answer:
(a) Differences between Afferent neurons and Efferent neurons

Afferent Neuron	Efferent Neurons
1. They are found in dorsal root of spinal nerve. 2. They conduct the sensory impulse from receptor organ to central nervous system. 3. It is called as sensory nerve.	They are found in ventral root of spinal nerve. It passes the impulse from central nervous system to the effector organ. It is called as motor nerve.

(b) Differences between Impulse conduction in Myelinated and Nonmyelinated nerve fibres

Impulse conduction through Myelinated nerve fibres	Impulse conduction through Non-myelinated nerve fibres
1. Myelinated nerve fibre is impermeable to ions. 2. The velocity of conduction in nerve fibre is 130meters per second 3. The nerve impulse in these fibres 4. Depolarisation occurs at the node.	Non-myelinated nerve fibre is permeable to ions. The velocity of conduction in nerve fibre is 5 meters per second. Conduction of impulse occurs along the entire fibre. Depolarisation occurs along the entire length of the member of the nerve fibre.

(c) Differences between Yellow spot and Blind spot

Yellow spot	Blind spot
1. Posterior part of retina has yellow pigment. It is called yellow spot. 2. In yellow spot, rod and cones are present.	There is a point in retina where the optic nerve fibre leave the retina. This point is called blind spot In blind spot, rod and cones are absent.

(d) Differences between Aqueous humour and Vitreous humour

Aqueous humour	Vitreous humour
1. Space between cornea and lens of the eye is called as Aqueous Chamber. 2. The aqueous chamber is filled with watery aqueous humour.	Space between lens and retina of the eye is called as vitreous chamber. The vitreous chamber is filled with gelatinous vitreous humour.

(e) Differences between Cranial nerves and Spinal nerves

Cranial nerves	Spinal nerves
1. The nerves originating from brain are called as cranial nerves. 2. There are 12 pairs of cranial nerves. 3. Cranial nerves may be sensory, motor or mixed type in nature.	The nerves originate from spinalcord are called as spinal nerves. There are 31 pairs of spinal nerves. All spinal nerves are mixed nerves.

Question 12.
How many cranial nerves are found in human? Give their name, nature, distribution and functions.
Answer:
Cranial nerves: In human 12 pairs of cranial nerves are found. Their name, nature, distribution and functions are as follows:

Question 13.
What is reflex action? Give its types. Describe mechanism of reflex action and give its importance.
Or,
What is reflex action? Draw well-labelled diagram of reflex action. Also explain the process of reflex action along with suitable example.
Answer:
Reflex action: The reflex actions are involuntary or unconscious response to a stimulus. They are brought about by reflex arc when a receptor is stimulated.

There are two types of reflexes :

1. Unconditional reflex: These are inborn reflexes and the nerve paths are the reflex arc fixed from the birth of the organism. They do not involve any thinking of brain, e.g. salivation of mouth, blinking of eye, knee jerk, etc. Complex in bom reflexes are called as instincts e.g. reproductive behaviour.

2. Conditional reflex: These are not inborn, but they can be acquired through practice or past experience.
Ventral fissure

Mechanism of reflex action: A reflex arc comprises of some specific receptors, afferent neurons, connector or intermediate neurons, efferent neuron and effector organ. The impulses from the receptors pass on to the CNS through the afferent fibres whose axons terminate in the grey matter of either brain or spinal cord. In the grey matter these impulses are transferred to the motor neurons to carry out the specific action directly without any association neuron or they may be passed through one or many intermediate neurons to the effector organ. If a synapse is formed between the afferent and efferent fibres without a intermediate neuron it is known as mono synaptic reflex arc.

When there are two synapses, one between the afferent fibre and intermediate neuron and the other between the intermediate neuron and efferent fibre, it is known as bisynaptic reflex arc. The involvement of more than two intermediate neurons form a polysynaptic reflex arc. The involvement of more than two intermediate neurons form a polysynaptic reflex arc.

Some simple reflex actions:
1. Knee jerk: When patellar tendon is tapped, a quick jerk of the leg occurs.
2. Coughing or sneezing all of a sudden.
3. Withdrawal of hand or leg when it is pricked with a needle.
4. Blinking of eyelids when some object approaches the eye.
5. The quick recovery of balance of body after a sleep.

Importance of reflex action:
1. It takes less time as the process is regulated by spinal cord thus protect the body from accident.
2. Body of organism is protected all of a sudden.
3. Brain get more time to control other functions as reflex action is regulated by spinal cord.

Neural Control and Coordination Class 11 Important Questions Objective Type

1. Choose the correct answers:

Question 1.
Which of the following is the immediate covering of a nerve fibre :
(a) Sarcoplasm
(b) Perineurium
(c) Epineurium
(d) Endoneurium.
Answer:
(d) Endoneurium.

Question 2.
In humans, one of the following cranial nerves is associated with the sense of body balance:
(a) VI
(b) VII
(c) VIII
(d) IX.
Answer:
(c) VIII

Question 3.
If a person has lost his memory in an accident, the following part of the brain have got injured :
(a) Diencephalon
(b) Medulla oblongata
(c) Cerebellum
(d) Cerebrum.
Answer:
(d) Cerebrum.

Question 4.
Parasympathetic nervous system :
(a) Increases heartbeat
(b) Decreases heartbeat
(c) Originates heartbeat
(d) Has no effect upon heartbeat.
Answer:
(b) Decreases heartbeat

Question 5.
Brain is:
(a) Ectodermal
(b) Mesodermal
(c) Endodermal
(d) Mesoendodermal.
Answer:
(a) Ectodermal

Question 6.
The nervous strip connecting both the cerebral hemispheres in the rabbit is:
(a) Corpus callosum
(b) Corpus Albicans
(c) Corpus striatum
(d) Corpus spongiosum.
Answer:
(a) Corpus callosum

Question 7.
The thermoregulatory centre is situated in :
(a) Spinal cord
(b) Pituitary body
(c) Cerebellum
(d) Hypothalamus.
Answer:
(d) Hypothalamus.

Question 8.
The neurotransmitter which communicates between two neurons or between a neuron and a muscle is :
(a) Acetylcholine
(b) Globulin
(c) Rennin
(d) ATP.
Answer:
(a) Acetylcholine

Question 9.
What is found in the periphery of spinal cord :
(a) Grey matter
(b) Myelinated nerve
(c) White matter
(d) Notochord.
Answer:
(c) White matter

Question 10.
Which is correct about human brain :
(a) It is covered by two membranes
(b) There is no blood-brain barrier
(c) Largest number of cranial nerves originate from cerebral hemisphere
(d) Cerebral cortex is highly developed.
Answer:
(d) Cerebral cortex is highly developed.

Question 11.
Heart is innervated by :
(a) Trigeminal
(b) Vagus
(c) Glossopharyngeal
(d) Facial.
Answer:
(b) Vagus

Question 12.
Parotid gland located at the base of ear secretes :
(a) Wax
(b) Saliva
(c) Hormone
(d) Enzyme.
Answer:
(a) Wax

Question 13.
Tongue is controlled by :
(a) Trigeminal nerve
(b) Facial nerve
(c) Glossopharyngeal nerve
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Facial nerve
(c) Glossopharyngeal nerve

Question 14.
The co-ordination system of the body is :
(a) Blood vascular system
(b) Nervous system
(c) Endocrine system
(d) Nervous and Endocrine system.
Answer:
(d) Nervous and Endocrine system.

Question 15.
Synapse occurs in between :
(a) Nerve and muscles
(b) Two nerves
(c) Two nerve fibres
(d) One nerve fibre and neuron.
Answer:
(b) Two nerves

Question 16.
Which part out of the following is found covered with fatty covering :
(a) Axon
(b) Cyton
(c) Dendrite
(d) Node of Ranvier.
Answer:
(a) Axon

Question 17.
Sequence of ear ossicles is :
(a) Incus Malleus stapes
(b) Stapes incus malleus
(c) Malleus incus stapes
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Malleus incus stapes

Question 18.
Part of the eye of vertebrate from where optic nerve comes out: (NCERT)
(a) Phobia
(b) Iris
(c) Blind spot
(d) Optic chiasma.
Answer:
(c) Blind spot

2. Fill in the blanks:

1. The junction present between two neurons is called ……………… .
Answer:
Synapsis,

2. Acetyl, choline is a ……………… .
Answer:
Neurotransmitter,

3. In human being ……………… pairs of spinal nerves and ……………… pairs of cranial nerves are found.
Answer:
31, 12,

4 ……………… is originated from optic nerve.
Answer:
Blindspot,

5. The cones of light are sensitive to only ……………… light.
Answer:
Bright,

6. All the nerves coming out of the spinal cord are ……………… nerves.
Answer:
Mixed,

7. Internal ear is made up of ……………… labirynth and ……………… labirynth.
Answer:
Bony, Membranous,

8. The eyes of nocturnal animals contain only ……………… .
Answer:
Rods,

9. Eustachian tube is found in the ……………… .
Answer:
Middle ear,

10. Corpus callosum is found in the ……………… .
Answer:
Human brain

3. Match the following:

(A)

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Meninges	(a) Respiratory centre
2. Organs of corti	(b) Reflex action
3. Cerebralhemisphere	(c) Brain
4. Spinal cord	(d) Choclea
5. Medulla oblongata	(e) Thinking.

Answer:
1.  (c) Brain,
2. (d) Choclea
3. (e) Thinking.
4.  (b) Reflex action
5.  (a) Respiratory centre

(B)

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Statolith	(a) Colour
2. Cone	(b) Internal ear
3. Jacobson organ	(c) Balance
4. Endolymph	(d) Duramater
5. Brain	(e) Smell.

Answer:
1.  (c) Balance
2. (a) Colour
3. (e) Smell.
4. (b) Internal ear
5. (d) Duramater.

4. Write true or false :

1. Name the part of retina which contains only cones.
Answer:
Yellow spot,

2. Give an example of general reflex action.
Answer:
Blinking of eyes,

3. Write the name of fluid present in eye.
Answer:
Aqueous and vitreous humous,

4. Write the name of nerve responsible for the movement of tongue.
Answer:
Hypoglacel nerve,

5. Write the name of smallest bone of human ear.
Answer:
Stapes,

6. Write the number of cranial and spinal nerves found in a human.
Answer:
12 pairs, 31 pairs,

7. Name the pigment which is helpful in vision during night.
Answer:
Rhodopsin, [photopic vision (black and white)]

8. Name the pigment present in the skin.
Answer:
Melanin,

9. The black colour of elephant indicates which place it lives.
Answer:
9. Hot places.

Students get through the MP Board Class 11th Biology Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification which are most likely to be asked in the exam.

MP Board Class 11th Biology Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

Biological Classification Class 11 Important Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Name one bacterial disease of human and give name of the causal organism.
Answer:
A bacterial disease of human is Typhoid. It is caused by Salmonella typhi.

Question 2.
Name any two Nitrogen fixing bacterias.
Answer:
Two Nitrogen fixing bacterias are :

1. Azobactor,
2. Rhizobium.

Question 3.
Give one example of each :

1. Gram positive bacteria,
2. Gram negative bacteria,
3. Sulphur bacteria,
4. Iron bacteria,
5. Nitrifying bacteria,
6. One mycoplasm,
7. One Cyanobacteria,
8. Bacteria used for making curd from milk,
9. One antibiotic bacteria.

Answer:

1. 1. Gram positive bacteria : e.g., Diplococcuspneumonae,
   2. Gram negative bacteria : e.g., E. coli,
   3. Sulphur bacteria : e.g., Thiobacillus,
   4. Iron bacteria : e.g., Ferrobacillus,
   5. Nitrifying bacteria : e.g., Nitrosomonas,
   6. One Mycoplasm : e.g., E. coli plasma,
   7. One Cyanobacteria : e.g., Nostoc,
   8. Bacteria used for making curd from milk: e.g., Lactobacillus,
   9. One antibiotic bacteria : e.g., Streptomyces.

Question 4.
What are archaebacteria?
Answer:
Archaebacteria:
Archaebacteria is a group of primitive bacteria, the cell wall of which is made up of polysaccharide and proteins and its cell membrane contains branched chains. This type of cell membrane protects bacteria from abnormal temperature and pH and thus it can survive in abnormal environmental conditions, hence it is called the organism of abnormal conditions. They can live in those places and under conditions where other organisms are unable to survive. These bacteria are a type of primitive organism that are also found today in its old or primitive atmospheric conditions only hence they are called as ‘living fossils’.

Question 5.
What are cyanobacteria?
Answer:
Cyanobacteria are the filamentous gram-negative blue-green bacteria which contains chlorophyll-a, chlorophyll-c, c-phycocyanin, c-phycoerythrin and carotenoids. Their cells exhibit prokaryotic cell structure, e.g., Nostoc, Anabaena, Rivularia, etc.

Question 6.
What do you mean by sulphur bacteria?
Answer:
Those bacteria which depend upon inorganic substance or H2S to obtain energy is known as sulphur bacteria. Thiobacillus thioxidans, oxidises Sulphur to Sulphate state in order to obtain energy. These bacteria can bear strong acidic medium.

Question 7.
What are plasmid and episomes?
Answer:
The cytoplasm of the bacterial cells also contains some extranuclear hereditary units (DNA) other than nuclear DNA. These extranuclear or extrachromosomal units are called as plasmids. When these plasmids get associated with bacterial genome, it is called episome. These hereditary units participate in genetic transmission and genetic recombination.

Question 8.
Write any three important features of mycoplasma.
Answer:

1. They are ultramicroscopic, parasitic and pleuromorphic organisms.
2. It is a cell wall less prokaryotic organism.
3. Movement and locomotion is absent and they may be globular to branched.

Question 9.
Which characteristics of fungi are similar to man?
Answer:
Fungi are heterotrophs like human and stored food in them is glycogen like human.

Question 10.
What do you understand by symbiotic plants?
Answer:
Symbiotic plants: Plants of two different species which lives together throughout the whole life to benifit each other are called as Symbiotic plants.
e.g., Lichen, which is an association of algae and fungi. Algae provide prepared food to fungi and fungi provide absorbed minerals and water to the algae.

Question 11.
Give full form of LSD. Name the fungi from which it is obtained.
Answer:
Full form of LSD is Lysergic acid Dimethyl Amide. It is obtained from a fungi called as Claviceps. It is a harmful drug.

Question 12.
Name the genera of fungi from which Penicillin antibiotic is obtained.
Answer:
From Genera Penicillum of fungi Penicilium notatum, antibiotic penicilin is obtained.

Question 13.
What are the components of Lichen?
Answer:
Lichen is an association of algae and fungi. Algae partner is called as Phycobiont which belongs to Chlorophyta and fungi partner is called as Mycobiont which belongs to Ascomycetes or Basidiomycetes.

Question 14.
Give characteristics of cell wall of fungi.
Answer:
Cell wall of fungi is made up of a nitrogen containing polysaccharide called as Chitin.

Question 15.
How Lichen is useful in formation of soil?
Answer:
Lichen is able to invade the bare rocks and help to break it and help for formation of soil. It makes the environment suitable for other forms of life also. They play important role in xerophytic plant succession.

Question 16.
Fungi of which class are called as Algal fungi?
Answer:
Fungi of Phycomycetes class are called as Algal fungi.

Question 17.
Which fungi are called as Moulds?
Answer:
Fungi belongs to Phycomycetes and Ascomycetes are called as Moulds.
e.g., Mucor, Aspergillus, Penicillium.

The Biological Classification Class 11 Important Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Draw a well labelled diagram of a bacterial cell.
Answer:

Question 2.
Describe two living and non-living characters of viruses.
Answer:
Living characters of viruses :

• Viruses possess the capacity of growth, reproduction and adaptation.
• Found in living host as parasites and multiply within living host only and contain nucleic acids.

Non-living characters of viruses :

• They do not have protoplasm and enzyme system, hence metabolic activities absent. “
• They can be crystallized.

Question 3.
Draw a well labelled diagram of Cyanobacteria.
Answer:

Question 4.
Write down any five characteristic features of kingdom monera.
Answer:
Characteristic features of kingdom monera :

• The cells of organism of this kingdom are prokaryotic.
• Bilayered membranous organelles are absent.
• They reproduce asexually but protosexual process is formed in the form of gene recombination.
• A hard cell wall is present around cells.
• They can easily survive in unfavourable conditions.

Question 5.
Describe the types of archaebacteria on the basis of their survival in unfavourable conditions.
Answer:
Archaebacteria are of following three types on the basis of their survival in unfavourable conditions :

1. Methanogens :
   Anaerobic bacteria that produce methane from C02 and Formic acid are called as methanogenic bacteria.
2. Halophytes:
   These bacterias are found in concentrated salt solution. Methanogens and halopuyles are obligate anaerobes and form together anaerobic group of archaebacteria.
3. Thermoacidophyles :
   These are a type of aerobic or anaerobic archaebacteria that are found in sulphur containing hot water falls. They convert Sulphur into Sulphuric acid (H₂SO₄) in aerobic co ditions while into H₂S in anaerobic conditions.

Question 6.
Give the difference between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria.
Answer:
Differences between Gram-positive and Gram-negative Bacteria

Gram-positive Bacteria	Gram-negative Bacteria
1. Higher amount of peptidoglycan is present in the cell wall.	Relatively less amount of peptidoglycan is present in the cell wall.
2. Cell wall contains about 8 amino acids only.	Cell wall contains about 20 amino acids.
3. Less amount (2-4%) of lipid is present in the cell wall but the amount of mucocomplexes is present.	Higher amount (20%) of lipids is present in the cell wall.
4. Tichoic acid is present in the cell wall.	Tichoic acid is absent.
5. Thickness of cell wall is about 100-200 Å	Thickness of cell wall is about 70-120 Å.

Question 7.
Explain the Role of Monera in Cycling of Matters.
Answer:
Role of Monera in Cycling of Matters : Cycling of matter through living organisms and environment is a continuous process. Elements or matters are renewed in the nature due to cycling of matter.

All the living organisms use different elements such as : C, H2, N2, S, 02, etc. from nature to perform its life activities. Carbon cycle, oxygen cycle, nitrogen cycle, sulphur cycle are natural processes involving producers, consumers and decomposers. Decomposers of kingdom Monera and Fungi play an important role in cyclic transformation of matters. Majority of the decomposers are bacteria which are Monerans. They decompose the organic matter of dead bodies by enzymatic action and release the constituent inorganic elements, which are again used up by plants thus cycling of matter continues.

Question 8.
Write the names of any five pathogenic bacteria form and diseases caused by them.
Answer:
Bacterial diseases of Man

Name of disease	Name of bacteria
1. Tuberculosis (T.B.)	Mycobacterium tuberculosis
2. Typhoid	Salmonella typhi
3. Diphtheria	Corynebacterium dephtheri
4. Tetanus	Clostridium tetani
5. Leprosy	Mycobacterium leprae.

Question 9.
List the names of any five pathogenic bacteria for plants and diseases caused by them.
Answer:
Bacterial diseases of Plants

Name of disease	Name of bacteria
1. Citrus canker	Xanthomonas citri
2. Angular leaf of cotton	Xanthomonas malvaceamm
3. Potato scab	Streptomyces scabes
4. Bean blight	Xanthomonas phaseoli
5. Blast of rice	Xanthomonas oryzae.

Question 10.
Classify bacteria on the basis of nutrition. Write only names.
Answer:
Bacteria are classified into following three groups on the basis of nutrition :
1. Autotrophic bacteria:
(a) Photoautotrophic bacteria.
(b) Chemoautotrophic bacteria:

• Sulphur bacteria,
• Iron bacteria,
• Nitrifying bacteria,
• Hydrogen bacteria.

2. Heterotrophic bacteria :
(a) Obligate parasite.
(b) Facultative parasites.
(c) Saprophytic bacteria.
(d) Facultative saprophytic bacteria.

3. Symbiotic bacteria.

Question 11.
Draw well-labelled diagram of bacteriophage.
Answer:

Question 12.
According to shape; how many types of bacteria are there, name them ?
Answer:
According to shape, bacteria are of following types :
(A) Cocci (Sperical or Oval shape): It is of following types :

1. Diplococcus,
2. Tetracoccus,
3. Staphylococcus,
4. Streptococcus, (5) Sarcina.

(B) Bacilli or Bacillus (Rod shaped) :

1. Diplobacillus,
2. Streptobacillus,
3. Bacillus,
4. Palisade bacillus.

(C) Spirillum :

1. (1) Vibrio,
2. Hellical,
3. Comma.

Question 13.
Write down the difference between Plant virus and Animal virus.
Answer:
Differences between Plant and Animal Virus

Plant Virus	Animal Virus
1. Plant viruses do not have envelope.	Animal viruses are usually provided with an envelope
2. Plant viruses usually contain RNA as genetic material.	Animal viruses usually contain DNA as genetic material, Some animal viruses also contain RNA.

Question 14.
Name some antibiotics produced by bacteria.
Answer:
Antibiotics produced by bacteria

Name of antibiotic	Name of bacteria from which it is obtained
1. Streptomycin	Streptomyces gresius
2 Chloromycetin	Streptomyces venzuelae
3. Terramycin	Streptomyces remosus
4. Auriomycin	Streptomyces auriofaciens.

Question 15.
What are viruses? Explain their significance in brief.
Answer:
Viruses :
Viruses are the ultramicroscopic prokaryotic organisms, made up of nucleoproteins and are visible only under electron microscope. They are living and non-living both. When they come into contact of living host they behave as a living matter.

Economic importance of viruses:
Viruses are very harmful organisms as these cause various diseases in plants and animals.
(a) Plant diseases :

• Tobacco mosaic disease,
• Greening of banana,
• Leaf curl disease of papaya,

(b) Human diseases :

• Polio,
• Measles,
• AIDS,
• Influenza.

(c) It is used to prove the organic evolution as it is the connecting link of living and non-living things.

(d) Cyanophases are responsible for the sanitation of blue-green algae.

(e) Harmful bacteria can be killed by bacteriophages.

Question 16.
What is Herbarium ? Write its importance.
Answer:
Herbarium is the group of plants in which flowers, leaves are spread and kept inside the paper, as paper absorbs the water molecules and make it dry, so that it can be arranged serially and studied with reference.

Importances : Importance of herbarium are :

• Due to herbarium, it become easy to identify the plants.
• Due to herbarium, we are able to get seasonal plants to study.
• Due to herbarium, by monographics phytogeographic, we are able to study the plant.
• Due to herbarium we get the preserved plants to study.

Question 17.
Give some harmful activities of bacteria.
Answer:
Some harmful activities of bacteria are as follow :

• Disease :
  Bacteria cause many dangerous diseases in human beings, animals and plants.
• Denitrification :
  Denitrification is a process in which nitrogenous compounds are converted into free nitrogen by the activity of Pseudomonas bacteria.
• Food poisoning:
  Some bacteria cause food poisoining. e.g., Clostridium botulinum.

Question 18.
Write differences between Virus and Viroids.
Answer:
Differences between Virus and Viroids

Virus	Viroids
1. They are smaller then bacteria.	They are smaller than viruses.
2. They contain either DNA or RNA.	They contain only RNA.
3. Protein coat is found.	Protien coat is absent.
4. They may cause diseases in plants and animals.	They cause diseases in plants.

Question 19.
Give characteristics of cell wail of Diatoms.
Answer:
Diatoms have a cellulose cell wall impregnated with glass like silica. The cell wall consists of two overlapping halves that fit together like a soap box.
When diatoms die their siliceous cell walls accumulate at the bottom of the ocean forming diposists of fossil diatoms known as diatomaceous earth. The powdered diatomaceous earth is used as materials for polishing silver and filtration to clarify oils, syrups etc.

Question 20.
What are Algal Bloom and Red tides.
Answer:
Algal Bloom :
Sometime algae like Caulepra, Spirogyra etc. grows in large number in water and makes it green coloured. In such condition it is called as Algal Bloom.

Red tides :
Red coloured dianoflagellates like desmids are found in fresh and salty water. Sometime they grows in large number in the sea water due to which the sea appears red coloured. Thus tides appears red and it is called as Red tides.

Question 21.
Give Two economic importance of:
(a) Eubacteria and
(b) Archaebacteria.
Answer:
(a) Eubacteria :

• Nitrogen fixation : Some free living bacteria like Clostridium, Azobactor and Symbiotic bacteria like Rhizobium help for Nitrogen fixation.
• Nitrifying bacteria : Some bacteria like Nitrosomonas convert ammonia into nitrite and Nitrobactor converts nitrite into nitrate.
• Decomposition of Dead organism : Some bacteria increase soil fertility by the decomposition of dead organic matter.
• In dairy industry : Bacteria also converts the lactose sugar of milk into curd or lactic acid.
• Medicine industry : Various types of antibiotics and enzymes are obtained from bacteria, e.g., Streptomycin.

(b) Archaeobacteria:

• Methanogenes : These are anaerobic bacteria. They form methane (CH4) from CO₂ or formic acid.
• Halophiles : These are anaerobic bacteria, found in brine called as halophiles.
• Themoacidophiles: They are aerobic bacteria, can leave at very high temperature (80°C). They oxidise Sulphur to Sulphuric acid and make the environment highly acidic (pH-2). Under anaerobic conditions some forms can reduce Sulphur to Hydrogen Sulphide.

Question 22.
What do you mean by Phycobiont and Mycobiont?
Answer:
In Lichen, Algae partner is called as Phycobiont which are autotrophs and provides food to fungi partner. Fungi partner is called as Mycobiont which are heterotrophs. They provide absorbed minerals and water to the phycobiont.
An association of algae and fungi is called as Lichen.

Question 23.
Give comparative description of divisions of Kingdom fungi under following
points
(a) Method of Nutrition,
(b) Method of reproduction.
Answer:

Division of Fungi	Method of Nutrition	Method of Reproduction
1. Myxomycetes	Mainly saprophytic	Asexual and sexual reproduction.
2. Phycomycetes	Mainly parasitic	Asexual and sexual reproduction.
3. Zygomycetes	Mainly saprophytic	Asexual and sexual reproduction.
4. Ascomycetes	Saprophytic or Parasitic	Asexual and sexual reproduction.
5. Basidiomycetes	Saprophytic or Parasitic	Asexual and sexual reproduction.
6. Deuteromycetes	Saprophytic or Parasitic	Only asexual reproduction.

Question 24.
Give characteristic features of Euglenoids.
Answer:
Characteristics of Euglenoids :

• They are fresh water organisms.
• Cell wall is not found in them.
• Outer membrane is called as Pellicle.
• They have a whip like flagellum.
• They contain chlorophyll, thus can prepare food by photosynthesis process but in absence of light they shows holozoic nutrition. e.g., Euglena.

Biological Classification Class 11 Important Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Explain the process of asexual reproduction in bacteria with suitable diagrams.
Answer:
Asexual reproduction in bacteria : In bacteria asexual reproduction is accompanied by the following methods :
(i) By endospores :
Endospores are formed during unfavourable conditions. At the time of endospore formation the cytoplasm of bacteria cell contracts to become rounded and a thick protective layer is formed around it. This structure is called endospore. On return of favourable conditions they germinate to produce a new bacterial cell.

(ii) By zoospores:
This type of asexual spore is formed by the division of cytoplasm.
Cytoplasm of bacterial cell divides to form many zoospores. On rupturing cell wall these zoospores are liberated and germinate to form Zoospores formation
a new bacterial cell.

(iii) By conidia:
Few filamentous bacteria produce conidia. On germination they form a new bacterial cell.

Question 2.
Describe any seven useful activities of bacteria along with examples.
Or
Write five useful activities of bacteria.
Answer:
Useful activities of bacteria :

• N₂ fixation : Some bacteria play an important role in nitrogen fixation. e.g.,Azoto- bactor, Clostridium, Rhizobium. These bacteria increase the fertility of soil by the fixation of atmospheric nitrogen.
• Lactic acid synthesis : Lactobacillus lacti converts the milk sugar into lactic acid.
• Acetic acid synthesis : Acetobactor acetii takes part in synthesis of acetic acid or vinegar.
• Rating of fibres : Isolation of wood fibres from the stem of plants is called rating. Clostridium butyricum is used in rating of fibres.
• Tobacco and tea industry : Some bacterias like Micococcus candisens is used to increase the flavour of the leaves of tobacco and tea. This process is called as seasoning.
• Medicine production : Bacteria are the chief source of antibiotics, hence they are used to extract antibiotics, e.g., Streptomyces gresius (Streptomycin).
• As symbionts: Bacteria present in our body help in the various metabolic reactions. e.g., E. coli.

Question 3.
Describe the economic importance of bacteria.
Or
Write an essay on economic importance of bacteria.
Or
Justify the statement that “bacteria are our friend as well as enemy”.
Answer:
Bacteria are of great economic value in our daily life. They are useful as well as harmful. A large number of bacteria are employed in the manufacture of various industrial products. Many bacteria are harmful to human affairs in many ways because they produce many dangerous diseases in human beings and animals. Thus bacteria are our friend as well as enemy.

Useful activities :

• They increase the fertility of soil by N₂ fixation.
• They help in the formation of curd from milk.
• They play an important role in vinegar industry, tobacco industry, leather and medicine industry.
• They help in the obtaining of stem fibres and are found as symbionts in our body.

Harmful activities :

• They produce various types of diseases in men, animals and plants.
• They reduce the fertility of soil by denitrification.
• They destroy the food and make them toxic.

Question 4.
Describe viruses on the basis of their structure and the genetic material found in them. Give names of four diseases caused by viruses.
Answer:
Structure of viruses :
Virus, a Latin word which means poison was discovered by Iwanowsky (1892). Viruses are intercellular parasites with protein and nucleic acid in their structure. They are ultramicroscopic structure ranging from 10µ to 300µ in size.

Structurally viruses are made up of the following two parts :

• Proteinaceous capsids and
• Nucleic acid.

The size of TMV is about 15× 300µ( 150 x 3000Å) which is made up of protein and RNA. The outer covering of TMV is made up of proteins which is known as capsid. Each capsid is made up of many smaller proteins.

Types of viruses: Viruses are classified on the basis of:

1. Type of host,
2. Type of disease,
3. Type of nucleic acids.

Viruses are of following 4 types on the basis of their host or parasitism :
1. Animal viruses (Zoophagineae) : They infect animals and humans. They have mostly DNA as genetic material.
2. Plant viruses (Phytophagineae): They infect plants only. They have mostly RNA as genetic material which is single or double-stranded.

Diseases caused by viruses :
1. Plant diseases :

• Tobacco Mosaic disease,
• Green disease in banana.

2. Diseases in human :

• Polio,
• Measles,
• Influenza.

Question 5.
Write down the symbiotic forms of Monera.
Answer:
Symbiotic Forms:
Organisms living together with mutual beneficial association are called Symbionts and this phenomenon is known a Symbiosis. There are following forms of Symbionts:
1. Mutualism :
When two or more organism living together with beneficial associa-tion it is called mutualism, e.g., Lichens. The body of lichens is made up of a fungus and a cyanobacteria. Cyanobacteria manufacture food for fungi and fungi absorb water and min¬erals for cyanobacteria.

2. Symbiotic:
When two organism living together in such way that only one organism take benefits from other, e.g., Symbiotic association of yeast and bacteria during the fermentation of vinegar or acetic acid. Here yeast cells ferment sugar into alcohol and bacteria ferment alcohol into acetic acid. Thus, bacteria take benefits from yeast cells.

3. Symbiosis :
When two organisms living together with beneficial association but both survive separately also, e.g., symbiosis between Rhizobium leguminosarum and roots of leguminous plants.

The members of Monera exhibit symbiosis with both the plants and animals. Few examples are given below :

• All insects sucking juice of plants and blood contain symbiotic bacteria.
• Micrococcus cerolyticcus and Candida albicans bacteria are found in the alimentary canal of birds eating wax of honey-bee comb. These bacteria decompose wax into simple organic compounds.
• E. coli is found in the intestine of human beings, it helps in digestion.

Question 6.
Explain the autotrophic bacteria.
Answer:
Some bacteria are able to synthesize their food so they are autotrophic in their mode of nutrition. On the basis of sources of energy these are of two types :
1. Photoautotrophic bacteria:
These anaerobic photosynthetic bacteria may be rods, cocci or spirilla depending upon their colouration. They are known as green or purple bacteria. They use sunlight as source of energy for photosynthesis but like other eukaryotic cells they do not split water to transfer the energy or to obtain reducing power.

Thus, no oxygen is evolved by them. This process is, therefore, called anoxygenic (without producing oxygen) photosynthesis. In place of water these bacteria obtain reducing power from hydrogen sulphide, thiosulphate, hydrogen or even some organic compound. The photoautotrophic bacteria are further classified into two categories on the basis of hydrogen donor.

(a) Photolithotrops :
Here hydrogen donor is an inorganic substance.
Examples :
(i) Green sulphur bacteria :
These bacteria utilize H2S as hydrogen donor. They possess a chlorophyll called chlorobium chlorophyll. They synthesise their food in presence of light, e.g., Chlorobium.

(ii) Purple sulphur bacteria :
These bacteria utilize sulphur compounds as hydrogen donor. They contain a chlorophyll called bacteriochlorophyll. They synthesise their food in presence of light.

(b) Photo-organolithotrophs :
These bacteria use non-sulphur compounds as organic acids and alcohol as hydrogen donor, e.g., purple non-sulphur bacteria like Rhodospirillum.

2. Chemoautotrophic bacteria :
Chemoautotrophs are the organisms which oxidize inorganic substances with molecular oxygen to obtain the energy in the form of ATP. As they do not have pigment they cannot make use of light energy. The energy of ATP is utilized to reduce carbon dioxide to organic matter, so the source of carbon for these organisms is carbon dioxide, hence they do not need any organic compound as their food material.

They are also of two types :
(a) Chemolithotrophs :
These bacteria utilize the energy released by oxidation of inorganic substances. They are of following kinds :
(i) Sulphur bacteria : Thiobacillus thioxidans oxidises sulphur to sulphate state in order to obtain energy.

(ii) Nitrifying bacteria:
They oxidize ammonia to nitrites and then into nitrates, e.g., Nitrosomonas, Nitrobactor, etc.

(iii) Iron bacteria:
They oxidize ferrous compound to ferric forms, e.g., Ferrobacillus, Ferroxidans.

(iv) Hydrogen bacteria :
They oxidize hydrogen to water. e.g., Bacillus pentotrophous.

(b) Chemo-organotrophs : These bacteria oxidize organic substance and utilize energy released during reaction. e.g., Methane bacteria like Methanococcus. This bacteria oxidize methane into CO₂ and H₂O.

Question 7.
Write short note on :
(a) Transformation,
(b) Transduction.
Answer:
(a) Transformation :
Diplococcus pneumoniae could transfer their characteristics of its strain to non-virulent strain of living bacterial. It was observed that it is due to transfer of genetic material (DNA) from dead bacteria to living bacteria. And thereby a virulent type acquires the virulent nature. When donor cells break apart then explosive release and fragmentation of DNA takes place. Some of these DNA enters the recipient cells and become a part of recipient DNA. Such type of migration of genetic material is called transformation.

(b) Transduction :
It is discovered by Zinder and Lederberg in 1952 in Salmonella typhimurium. Bacteriophages transfer genetic material from one bacterium to another. This type of genetic migration from one bacterium to another takes place through the agency of bacteriophage is called transduction.

Transduction like transformation involves the transfer of only small segment of bacterial DNA from donor to recipient. In transformation DNA transferred is naked but in transduction it is passed to recipient cell as a packet surrounded by the coat of bacteriophage. When a bacteriophage particle is formed inside a bacterium, it may have a piece of bacterial DNA into its head in place of its own DNA. The bacteriophage particle is released when the parent bacterial cell undergoes lysogeny. These released bacteriophages may infect new bacteria cell carrying into it, some of the genes of bacteria, thus unknowingly transfer the gene.

Question 8.
Explain the process of respiration in bacteria.
Answer:
Respiration in Bacteria : Bacteria are known to occur in every type of environment. Like all other organisms they also respire to obtain energy. Depending upon the requirement of oxygen for respiration, there are two types of bacteria :
1. Aerobic bacteria :
Some bacteria can respire only in the presence of oxygen and are called as aerobic bacteria. They cannot live without oxygen. Thus, they are also called as obligate aerobes, e.g., Bacillus subtilis.

2. Anaerobic bacteria:
Some bacteria respire in absence of oxygen and are called as anaerobic bacteria. They can live in absence of oxygen but cannot live in the presence of oxygen and thus they are called as obligate anaerobes, e.g., Clostridium botulinum.
Some bacteria can live in both, i.e., in presence or absence of oxygen and so are called as facultative bacteria.

Question 9.
Write down the difference between Bacteria and Cyanobacteria.
Answer:
Differences between Bacteria and Cyanobacteria

Bacteria	Cyanobacteria
1. They are comparatively smaller in size.	They are comparatively larger in size.
2. They may bear tiagella.	They do not bear flagella.
3. They may be autotrophic or heterotrophic.	Cyanobactena are always autotrophic.
4. Photosynthetic pigments are bacteriochlo rophyll and chiorobium chlorophyll.	Photosynthetic pigment is chlorophyll-a.
5. Accessory pigments are absent.	They contain accessory pigments like C-phycocyanin and C-phycocerythrin.
6. During photosynthesis hydrogen donor is H2	During photosynthesis hydrogen donor is water.
7. Sulphur is evolved during photosynthesis.	Oxygen is evolved during photosynthesis.
8. Reserve food is glycogen.	Reserve food is cyanophycean starch.

Question 10.
Explain the uses and types of virus.
Answer:
Uses of Viruses :

• As it forms a link between non-living and living thus it help us to understand organic evolution,
• Cyanophage (Blue-green algae viruses) are used to destroy blue-green algae grown in different areas.
• Bacteriophages are used as biocides to destroy many harmful bacterias present in polluted area.

For example :
Water of the river Ganga always remain pure and clean in bottles year after year due to presence of bacteriophage in it.
Nucleic acids of viruses : Viruses generally contain only one type of nucleic acid DNA or RNA. DNA is found in animal viruses, whereas RNA is found in plant viruses.

Human Immuno Virus (HIV):
It causes AIDS disease in human. Full form of AIDS is Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome. This virus destroys immune system of the body, thus the patient of AIDS suffers from number of diseases at a time and at last he dies.
This virus is found surrounded by protein and a ring of RNA is found at the centre. Whole body of virus is surrounded by a covering of glycoprotein.

Type of Viruses : On the basis of host infected, viruses are grouped into following four groups :

1. Animal viruses : Viruses which infect animals are called animal viruses. These viruses contain DNA as genetic material.
2. Plant viruses : Viruses which infect plants are called plant viruses. These viruses contain RNA as genetic material.
3. Cyanophages : Viruses that infect blue-green algae are called cyanophages. These viruses contain RNA as genetic material.
4. Bacterial viruses or Bacteriophages : Viruses that infect bacteria are called as bacteriophages. They contain DNA as genetic materials.

Question 11.
Describe the process of reproduction in bacteriophages along with labelled diagrams.
Or
Explain the process of reproduction in viruses with the help of diagrams.
Answer:
Bacteriophages can reproduce only inside the host cells. During multiplication they infect bacterial cells (host). Their DNA enters the cell and then gets replicated. Multiplication involves the following steps :

• Infection : First of all bacteriophage infects bacterial cells and attaches on the surface of bacterial cell wall with the help of their tail fibres.
• Penetration : The bacterial cell wall present at the attachment site is dissolved to fonn a hole, through which genetic material (DNA) of the bacteriophage enters the bacterial cell.
• Biochemical multiplication : After reaching the nucleoid, the DNA of phage synthesizing mRNA. In turn this mRN A synthesizes viral protein in the cytoplasm of bacterial cell.
• Organization of virus : Proteins formed from /wRNA form the viral sheath and thus many bacteriophages are formed.

• Release : New bacteriophages formed inside the cell are then liberated due to the lysis of bacterial cell wall.

Question 12.
Explain changes in the system of classification with time.
Answer:
In different time different naturalists and philosophers provided different system of classification of organisms, which are as follows :
1. Linnaeus classification :
A Swedish biologist Carolus Linnaeus (1707-1778) classified all the living organisms into main kingdoms (Two kingdom classification) :

1. Kingdom Plantae and
2. Kingdom Animalia.

He also proposed Binomial nomenclature for giving scientific names to the organisms. In his book ‘Systema Naturae’ scientific names of 4378 organisms are given.

2. Artificial System of Classification :
Pliny adopted artificial system of classification for the first time in the first century AD. According to this system organisms are recognised on the basis of one or few superficial characters only. The characters were arbitraruy selected.
Pliny classified animals into two major groups :

1. Animals which are abie to fly and
2. Animals which can not fly.

On the basis of which butterfly, bats and birds came under same group. In the same way he classified Plants into four groups :

1. Herbs,
2. Under shrubs,
3. Shrubs and
4. Trees.

3. Natural System of classification :
This system was proposed by George Benthom (1800-1844) and Joseph Dalton Hooker (1817-1911). Natural system was based on many features of the organisms, so that its exact position and relationship with the c.’her organisms is properly established. Therefore a modem taxonomist uses many criteria to determine the position of organism in the plan of classification.
The main object of this classification is to establish homology, i.e., relationship of comparable structure in different organisms.

4. Phylogenic system of classification :
It was proposed by A. Engier Karl, A. F. Prantle and John Hutchinson. This system is mainly based on the evolutionary and genetic relationships of the plants. It helps to find out the ancestors ‘r derivatives of any taxon.

Question 13.
Describe four classes of Phylum Protozoa.
Answer:
On the basis of locomotary organs Phylum protozoa is classified mto four classes, which are as follows:

1. Zooflagellates,
2. Sarcodina,
3. Sporozoa,
4. Ciliata.

1. Zooflagellata :

• Body is covered by pellicle,
• Body has definite shape,
• Locomotary organ is flagella,
• Generally uninucleate but soir, _ time multinucleate, e.g., Giardia, Trypanosoma.

2. Sarcodina or Rhizopoda:

• They are irreguk in shape,
• Locomotion by means of pseudopodia,
• They show holozoic nutrition,
• Uninucleate organism, e.g.,Ar. oebas.

3. Sporozoa :

• They are endoparasites,
• Pellicle is found surrounding the body,
• Locomotary organs are not found in them,
• motion of generation is found in them,
• They causes diseases.
  e.g., Plasmodium, Monocystis.

4. Ciliata :

• Body is covered by pellicle,
• Cilia are found 11 over the surface of tin ody and help for locomotion,
• Two nuclei are found in them. A large macronuclei and a small micronuclei,
• They show holozoic nutrition,
• Can reproduce asexually as sexually.
  e.g., Paramoecium.

Question 14.
Discuss about the topics in your class “Viruses are Living or non-living”.
Answer:
Viruses are the first organisms of the earth forming a connecting link between living and non-living as they posses characteristics of both living and non-living.
Living characters of Viruses :

• Growth and reproduction occurs in them,
• It contains nucleic acid (RNA or DNA),
• They show mutation,
• They cause diseases in plants and animals,
• They exhibit adaptation,
• They are parasitic in nature,
• They possess sensitivity.

Non-living characters of Viruses :

• Cells are absent,
• Cytoplasm is absent,
• They can be crystallized,
• Nutrition and metabolism is not found in them,
• They can not grow and reproduce out of the host cell,
• They lack enzymes.

Biological Classification Class 11 Important Questions Objective Type

1. Choose the correct answers:

Question 1.
Term ‘Species’ is coined by :
(a) John Ray
(b) Linnaeus
(c) Aristotle
(d) Charak
Answer:
(a) John Ray

Question 2.
Author of ‘Systema Naturae’ is :
(a) Bentham
(b) Hooker
(c) Linnaeus
(d) Engler.
Answer:
(c) Linnaeus

Question 3.
Author of ‘Species Plantarum’ is :
(a) Lamarck
(b) Linnaeus
(c) Theophrastus
(d) Yen.
Answer:
(b) Linnaeus

Question 4.
Five kingdom classification was proposed by :
(a) Aristotle
(b) Tippoa
(c) Birbal Sahni
(d) Whittakar.
Answer:
(d) Whittakar.

Question 5.
Who crystallized viruses for the first time :
(a) Stanley
(b) Guirer
(c) Whittakar
(d) Vigemic.
Answer:
(a) Stanley

Question 6.
Hereditary material of viruses is :
(a) DNA and RNA
(b) DNA or RNA
(c) Chromosome
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) DNA or RNA

Question 7.
Basic unit of classification is ;
(a) Class
(b) Species
(c) Genus
(d) Kingdom.
Answer:
(b) Species

Question 8.
Highest taxon of the classification is :
(a) Class
(b) Phylum
(c) Genus
(d) Species.
Answer:
(b) Phylum

Question 9.
Homo sapiens is the classification of:
(a) Man
(b) Bull
(c) Leech
(d) Frog.
Answer:
(a) Man

Question 10.
Hybrid organism produced from the cross between female horse and male donkey is :
(a) Monkey
(b) Rat
(c) Mule
(d) Horse.
Answer:
(c) Mule

Question 11.
Unit of classification is :
(a) Species
(b) Genus
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Species

Question 12.
Binomial nomenclature system was proposed by :
(a) Darwin
(b) Carolus Linnaeus
(c) Hugo deVries
(d) Mendel.
Answer:
(b) Carolus Linnaeus

Question 13.
Author of ‘Genera Plantarum’ is :
(a) Bentham and Hooker
(b) Linnaeus
(c) Engler
(d) Prantle.
Answer:
(a) Bentham and Hooker

Question 14.
Naked seeds are formed in :
(a) Algae
(b) Pteridophytes
(c) Gymnosperm
(d) Angiosperm
Answer:
(c) Gymnosperm

Question 15.
Which of the following is most primitive vascular plant:
(a) Red algae
(b) Fem
(c) Brown algae
(d) Lichens
Answer:
(b) Fem

Question 16.
Basic unit of modern classification is :
(a) Species
(b) Genus
(c) Both
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Species

Question 17.
Classification given by Linnaeus was artificial because :
(a) It is based on evolutionary tradition
(b) Similarity and dissimilarity in floral and other morphological characters are taken
(c) It is based on functional characters
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Similarity and dissimilarity in floral and other morphological characters are taken

Question 18.
Phylogenetic classification is given on the basis of:
(a) Developmental history
(b) Floral similarities
(c) All morphological characters
(d) Increasing complexity.
Answer:
(a) Developmental history

Question 19.
First botanist of taxonomy is ;
(a) J. D. Hooker
(b) Engler
(c) Linnaeus
(d) Aristotle.
Answer:
(c) Linnaeus

Question 20.
Genus is the group of interrelated
(a) Families
(b) Species
(e) Order
(d) Genera.
Answer:
(b) Species

Question 21.
Basis of artificial classification is :
(a) One or two or more characters
(b) All possible characters
(c) Phylogenetic characteristics .
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) One or two or more characters

Question 22.
Objective of classification is :
(a) Collection of organisms
(b) Identification of organisms
(c) Discovery of animal
(d) Discovery, identification, nomenclature of organism and divide them into groups.
Answer:
(d) Discovery, identification, nomenclature of organism and divide them into groups.

Question 23.
Binomial nomenclature means writing name of organism in two words. These are :
(a) Type and species
(b) Order and species
(c) Type and variation
(d) Order and family.
Answer:
(a) Type and species

Question 24.
Who is known as father of classification :
(a) C. Darwin
(b) Lamarck
(c) Carolus Linnaeus
(d) Bentham and Hooker.
Answer:
(c) Carolus Linnaeus

Question 25.
A species can be defined as population of interbreeding individuals which are reproductively isolated from other species. Above statement was given by :
(a) Carolus Linnaeus
(b) Mayer
(c) J. B. Lamarck
(d) Charles Darwin.
Answer:
(b) Mayer

Question 26.
According to binomial system of nomenclature name of any plant consists of
how many words
(a) Three
(b) Two
(c) Five
(d) One
Answer:
(b) Two

Question 27.
Plant viruses have:
(a) DNA
(b) RNA
(c) DNA and RNA
(d) Coiled nuclear
Answer:
(b) RNA

Question 28.
Viruses contain:
(a) DNA
(b) RNA
(c) DNA or RNA
(d) Both DNA and RNA.
Answer:
(c) DNA or RNA

Question 29.
The viral capsid is made up of:
(a) Nucleic acids
(b) Proteins
(c) Lipids
(d) Carbohydrates.
Answer:
(a) Nucleic acids

Question 30.
In which plastids are not found :
(a) Blue-green algae
(b) Bacteria
(c) Fungi
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 31.
Sexual reproduction is absent in :
(a) Cyanobacteria
(b) Bacteria
(c) Eukaryote
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(a) Cyanobacteria

Question 32.
The viral capsid is made up of:
(a) Nucleic acid
(b) Proteins
(c) Lipids
(d) Carbohydrates.
Answer:
(b) Proteins

Question 33.
Which of the following disease is caused by bacteria
(a) T.B.
(b) Measles
(c) Small pox
(d) Polio
Answer:
(a) T.B.

Question 34.
Bacteria cell wall is made up of:
(a) Protein and cellulose
(b) Cellulose and fat
(c) Fat and protein
(d) Chitin and cellulose.
Answer:
(b) Cellulose and fat

Question 35.
Nostoc is a :
(a) Green algae
(b) Yellow-green algae
(c) Blue green algae
(d) Red algae.
Answer:
(c) Blue green algae

Question 36.
Transfer of DNA molecule by bacteriophage from one cell to another cell is called :
(a) Transformation
(b) Conjugation
(c) Mutation
(d) Transduction.
Answer:
(d) Transduction.

Question 37.
The amount of mucopeptides in the cell wall is highest in :
(a) Gram-positive bacteria
(b) Gram-negative bacteria
(c) Cyanobacteria
(d) Bacteriophages.
Answer:
(a) Gram-positive bacteria

Question 38.
Example of iron bacteria is :
(a) Beggiatoa
(b) Geobacillus
(c) Thiobacillus
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(d) None of these.

Question 39.
The causal organism of diphtheria is :
(a) Virus
(b) Eukaryotes
(c) Mycoplasma
(d) Bacteria.
Answer:
(d) Bacteria.

Question 40.
Which of the following statement is true for Mycoplasma :
(a) Absence of cell wall
(b) Presence of nucleus
(c) Presence of cell wall
(d) Definite shape.
Answer:
(a) Absence of cell wall

Question 41.
Nostoc is a:
(a) Cyanobacteria
(b) Beaded bacteria
(c) Bacteriophage
(d) Parasite.
Answer:
(a) Cyanobacteria

Question 42.
Leaf curl disease of potato is caused by :
(a) Mycoplasma
(b) Virus
(c) Microspore
(d) Bacteria.
Answer:
(a) Mycoplasma

Question 43.
Round bacteria is :
(a) Bacillus
(b) Cocci
(c) Spirillum
(d) Comma.
Answer:
(b) Cocci

2. Fill in the blanks:

1. …………………… is called as Father of Taxonomy.
Answer:
Carolus Linnaeus

2. The basic unit of classification is ………………..
Answer:
Species

3. Viruses are made up of protein and nucleic acid …………….. or ……………..
Answer:
DNA, RNA

4. The evolutionary history of any organism is called as …………………
Answer:
Phytogeny

5. Binomial nomenclature was proposed by ………………..
Answer:
Carolus Linnaeus

6. An association of algae and fungi is called as …………………..
Answer:
Lichen

7. …………………. proposed Five Kingdom classification.
Answer:
R.H. Whittakar

8. Connecting link organism between reptiles and birds is called as ………………..
Answer:
Archaeopteryx

9. Scientific name of man is ………………
Answer:
Homo sapiens

10. ……………. and ………………. tried for the first time to classify the organisms systematically.
Answer:
Hippocrates, Aristotle

11. …………………… described for the first time the Natural System of classification.
Answer:
John Ray

12. ……………… are the connecting link of living and non-living things.
Answer:
Viruses

13. Cell wall of fungi is made up of ……………..
Answer:
Chitin

14. ……………….. are called as living fossils.
Answer:
Archaebacteria

15. Stored food in fungi is ……………..
Answer:
Glycogen

16. Genetic material of Monerans is ………………..
Answer:
DNA

17. Minute prokaryotic structure is found in …………………
Answer:
Mycoplasma

18. Nitrifying bacteria are ……………….
Answer:
Saprophytic

19. Bacteria is discovered by ………………………
Answer:
Antony Van Leeuwenhoek

20. Bacteria, which are founds in human intestine is ………………..
Answer:
E. coli

21. The disease pneumonia is caused by ………………….
Answer:
Diplococcuspneumonae (Bacteria)

22. AIDS is caused by ………………. virus.
Answer:
Human immunodeficiency vims or HIV

23. ……………… are the extranuclear, circular DNA found in the bacterical cell.
Answer:
Plasmids

24. ………………. type of ribosomes are found in bacterial cells.
Answer:
70S

25. …………………………. bacteria are found in the root nodules of lenguminous plants, which help for N₂ fixation.
Answer:
Rhizobium

3. Match the following:

Match the following : (A)

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Father of Ayurveda	(a) Copland
2. Three kingdom classification	(b) John Ray
3. Five kingdom classification	(c) Heckle
4. Natural classification	(d) Charak
5. Four kingdom classification	(e) R.H. Whittakar
6. Binomial nomenclature	(f) Carolus Linnaeus.

Answer:
1. (d) Charak
2. (c) Heckle
3. (e) R.H. Whittakar
4. (b) John Ray
5. (a) Copland
6. (f) Carolus Linnaeus.

(B)

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Bacillus	(a) A chain of cells like strand of beads
2. Spirillum	(b) Spherical or oval shape
3. Coccus	(c) Twisted like a screw
4.Streptococcus	(d) Prokaryotic multicellular
5. Monera	(e) Occurs singly.

Answer:
1. (e) Occurs singly.
2. (c) Twisted like a screw
3. (b) Spherical or oval shape
4. (a) A chain of cells like strand of beads
5. (d) Prokaryotic multicellular

4. Write true or false:

1. Most of bacteria are heterotrophic due to absence of chlorophyll but some are photoautotrophic.
Answer:
True

2. Excess amount of sugar and salt destroys the substances present in Pickles and jelly.
Answer:
False

3. Bacteria found in human intestine is E. coli.
Answer:
True

4. Vims that infect blue-green algae are called animal vims.
Answer:
False

5. Vims is a link between living and non-living.
Answer:
True

6. Collection of plants specimens arranged in the sequence of an accepted classification is called as Herbarium.
Answer:
True

7. Addition of salt and sugar decay pickles.
Answer:
False

8. Multicellular organisms grows by mitosis cell division whereas Unicellular organisms multiply by this.
Answer:
True

9. Vimses can reproduce both in living and non-living.
Answer:
False

10. Tme nucleus is not found in Moneran.
Answer:
True

5. Answer in one word:

1. Name the organism possesses characteristics of living as well as non-living.
Answer:
Virus

2. Who proposed Five Kingdom classification?
Answer:
R.H.Whittakar

3. Branch of biology which help to know about correct position of living organism.
Answer:
Taxonomy

4. What helps to understand life of the living organisms lived in past.
Answer:
Fossils

5. Name the missing connecting link between Reptiles and Birds.
Answer:
Archaeopteryx

6. Bacteria helps for nitrogen fixation.
Answer:
Rhizobium

7. Name the causal organism of Diphtheria.
Answer:
Coryne bacterium diphtheria

8. Name the causal organism of disease Pneumonia.
Answer:
Diplococcus pneumoniae

9. Living fossil is?
Answer:
Archaebacteria

10. Bacteria which obtain energy from H2S or S is called as.
Answer:
Sulphur bacteria

Students get through the MP Board Class 11th Biology Important Questions Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination and Integration which are most likely to be asked in the exam.

MP Board Class 11th Biology Important Questions Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination and Integration

Chemical Coordination and Integration Class 11 Important Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Which hormone is known as emergency hormone? It is secreted by which gland?
Answer:
Adrenal medulla secretes adrenaline epinephrine which is known as emergency hormone, as it has the capacity to stand in acute emergencies.

Question 2.
Name the diseases caused by hyposecretion of thyroxin.
Answer:
Cretinism, Goitre, Hashimoto’s disease, Myxedema.

Question 3.
Give chemical nature of hormones.
Answer:
Hormones can be divided into three categories :

1. Steroid hormones : Aldosterone, Cortisone, Progesterone, Testosterone.
2. Amino acid: Thyroxine and Epinephrin.
3. Peptide and Protein hormone: Calcitonin, Parathormone, Insulin, Glucagon.

Question 4.
Name the two hormones secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland.
Answer:

1.  Thyroid-stimulating hormones (T.S.H.)
2. Growth stimulating hormone (G.S.H.)

Question 5.
Name the endocrine part of pancreas and also name the hormone secreted by them.
Answer:
The endocrine part of the pancreas is islets of Langerhans, this part secretes a hormone known as insulin.

Question 6.
Which hormone is known as delivery hormone and why?
Answer:
The hormone oxytocin is known as delivery hormone it helps in the delivery by contracting unstriated muscles of the uterus and bring it in normal position after delivery.

Question 7.
Name the endocrine glands found in mammal.
Answer:
Following endocrine glands are found in human :

• Pituitary,
• Thyroid,
• Parathyroid,
• Adrenalin,
• Thymus,
• Pancreas,
• Gonads.

Question 8.
Where are the progesterone and relaxin hormones formed? Give their function.
Answer:
Progesterone hormone is produced by the corpus luteum. It helps in development of mammary gland and attachment of embryo to the wall of uterus.Placenta of the embryo secretes relaxin during pregnancy. At the time of childbirth, it relaxes the muscles of pelvis so that the vaginal passage may widen and the child may come out easily.

Question 9.
Name the hormone responsible for growth in human.
Answer:
Somatotrophic hormone (STH) secreted by the anterior lobe of pituitary gland is responsible for growth in human. It is also called as growth hormone.

Question 10.
Explain function of FSH in brief. (NCERT)
Answer:
Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) stimulates the growth of the graffian follicle and secretion of estrogen hormone by the follicle cells in female, where as in male it stimulates the process of spermatogenesis. Due to its action on both the male and female gametes formation, F.S.H. is also referred as gametokinetic factor.

Question 11.
What is osteitis fibrosa cystic?
Answer:
Hypersecretion of parathormone causes Osteitis fibrosa cystica disease. Quantity of Ca⁺⁺ increases in the blood and urine. More calcium collection occurs in the bones.

Chemical Coordination and Integration Class 11 Important Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Name the glands secreting the following hormones :
(i) Thyroxine,
(ii) Insulin,
(iii) Adrenalin and
(iv) Oestrogen,
(v) Oxytocin.
Or,
Give the source and functions of the following hormones :
(i) Thyroxine,
(ii) Insulin,
(iii) Adrenalin,
(iv) Oestrogen,
(v) Oxytocin.
Answer:

Hormone	Name of gland	Functions
(i) Thyroxine	Thyroid Somatotrophic	Controling metabolic activities.
(ii) Insulin	islets of langerhans (Pancreas)	Control the metabolism of glucose.
(iii) Adrenalin	Adrenal gland	Improve immune power.
(iv) Oestrogen	Ovary	Improve the development of secondarysexual characteristics in female.
(v) Oxytocin	Pituitary gland	Contraction of uterine muscle at the time of child birth. It also induces mammary gland to secrete milk.

Question 2.
Show the effect of hyperactivity of thyroid hormone on human beings.
Answer:
Following are the symptoms of hyperactivity :
(i) Increased metabolic rate, i.e., higher body temperature and high heart rate and restlessness.
(ii) Excessive loss of Ca⁺⁺ and phosphorus from bones or osteoporosis.
(iii) Protruding eyeballs.
(iv) Excessive perspiration.
(v) Excessive hunger but loss of weight.
(vi) Man becomes irritative in nature.

Question 3.
Describe the mechanism of hormone action.
Answer:
Action of hormones takes place by the following two methods :
1. At plasma membrane level: Most of the hormones (proteins) are binded with cell membrane and induce the activity of adenyl cyclase enzyme. This enzyme hydrolyses ATP molecules of the cytoplasm. Hydrolysis of ATP affects cellular metabolism in many ways.

2. At gene level after synthesizing protein: Few hormone (steroids) after reaching the nucleus of the target cell activate the inactive genes or inactivate the active genes. This activity of hormones also affects mRNA synthesis. This mRNA is responsible for the synthesis of proteins and enzyme and thus affects the metabolic activities and growth, structure and development of cell.

Question 4.
Describe the name and significance of hormones secreted by parathyroid gland.
Answer:
Parathyroid gland secretes a hormone known as parathormone.
Significance :
(i) This hormone increases the absorption of Ca⁺⁺ in the walls of intestine and renal tubules.

(ii) It helps in muscle contraction, heart beating and formation of bones.
The deficient secretion of parathormone will cause parathyroid tetany. The deficiency of parathormone during childhood causes stunted growth of teeth, bones and brain. The hypersecretion of this hormone causes osteoporosis, hypercalcaemia and kidney stone like diseases.

Question 5.
Write the name of cells that secrete insulin. Also write the functions of insulin hormone.
Answer:
Insulin is proteinaceous hormone which is secreted by β- cells of islet of langerhans in response to higher levels of glucose and amino acids in the blood.
The chief functions of this hormone are as follows :

1. It controls the amount of sugar in blood and converts glucose into glycogen in liver cells.
2. Conversion of glucose to fatty acids and formation of adipose tissue.
3. Reduction, in the breakdown and oxidation of fat.
4. Absorption of amino acids by the cells and synthesis of proteins from them.

Question 6.
Define following : (NCERT)
(a) Exocrine gland,
(b) Endocrine gland,
(c) Hormone.
Answer:
(a) Exocrine glands: The glands which are duct containing and secrete their secretion into the duct, which cany them to the body surface or on the cavities of the body part are called as exocrine glands, e.g., salivary glands, sweat glands etc.

(b) Endocrine glands: Ductless glands are called as endocrine glands. They secrete their secretion directly into the blood, e.g., Thyroid, Pituitary gland.

(c) Hormones: Hormones are chemically proteins or steroids secreted by the endocrine glands in limited quantity directly into the blood and transferred to some other parts where their physiological effect is observed.

Question 7.
What is pheromones?
Answer:
The term pheromones is used for the first time by Karlson and Butenandt in 1959. It is a chemical secreted by exocrine gland similar to that of hormones. It is also known as ectohormone e.g., female silk insect secretes a pheromone known as bombykol or gyplure which is meant for attraction of male silk insects. Social insects like ant, termite and honeybees are collected on a place due to these pheromones. Pheromones can transmit informations very fastly and distantly.

Question 8.
What are sex hormones? Describe about any two sex hormones.
Answer:
Sex hormones: Hormones which are responsible for sexual activities and regu¬lates the development of secondary sex characters are called as sex hormones. Androgen is the male and oestrogen, progesterone and relaxin are the female hormones.

1. Oestrogen hormone: It is secreted by ovary. Small quantities of this hormone is also secreted by adrenal glands and placenta. This hormone is responsible for development of secondary sexual characters. It stimulates the development of secondary sex organs like uterus, fallopian tubes, ducts of mammary glands and external sex characters like high pitch voice, pattern of distribution of body hairs in the female during puberty.

2. Testosterone: It is a steroid hormone secreted by interstitial cells of Leydig’s cell and also from Sertoli cells. Interstitial cells are not present in the testes of a child but they are present in the testes of newborn infants and also in the testes of adults after puberty. Its production dwindles rapidly beyond the age of 40 and almost zero by the age of 80.

Question 9.
Give examples of following : (NCERT)
(a) Hyperglycemic and Hypoglycemic hormone.
(b) Hypercalcemic hormone.
(c) Gonadotrophic hormone.
(d) Progestational hormone.
(e) Blood pressure lowering hormone.
(f) Androgen and Estrogen.
Answer:
(a) Glucagon and insulin.
(b) Parathormone.
(c) Luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone.
(d) Progesteron.
(e) Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF).
(f) Testosterone and androsterone are collectively called as androgen. Estrogen is secreted by the ovary.

Question 10.
What do you understand by suiciding of thyroid gland (Hashimoto’s disease)?
Answer:
Hashimoto’s disease : When medicines are provided for removing the effects produced due to the deficiency of thyroxine hormone, functioning like a foreign substance, then antibodies are synthesized in the body. These antibodies destroys the thyroid gland. The disease produced due to this condition is called as Hashimoto’s disease. It is also called as the suicide of thyroid gland as it is destroyed.

Question 11.
Write differences between following :
(a) Hormone and Enzyme.
(b) Nervous and Endocrinal.
Answer:
(a) Differences between Hormone and Enzyme

Hormones	Enzymes
1. These maybe steroids, catecholamines, proteins and amino acid derivatives.	These are proteins.
2. These have low molecular weights and often diffuse through cells membranes (exception protein hormones).	These have high molecular weights and are not diffusible.
3. They generally act slowly.	They act very fast.
4. Life span is short and destroyed.	They have long life span.
5. Hormones controlled actions are irreversible.	Enzymes controlled reactions are reversible.
6. These are secreted by ductless glands.	These are secreted by gland that have ducts.
7. These are poured directly into the blood and are carried to target organ.	These generally pass viaducts to act in some part of the body.
8. They act in low concentrations and their excess or deficiency causes physiological disorders.	Enzymes act in low concentration but their excess does not cause disease.

(b) Differences between Nervous and Endocrinal co-ordination

Nervous	Endocrine
1. In this, conduction of message through axon occurs in the form of electrical impulse and in synapse in the form of chemicals.	In this, conduction of message occurs in the form of chemical.
2. Message is conducted very fast in them.	Conduction of message occurs slowly.
3. Effect is seen for short period of time.	Effect remain for long period of time.
4. It effects a specific place.	It effects large area.

Question 12.
Describe various abnormalities of adrenal cortex in brief.
Answer:
Following are the abnormalities of adrenal cortex :
1. Addison’s disease: Insufficiency of glucocorticoid leads to Addison’s Disease characterised by shock, reduced blood pressure, muscular weakness, digestive disturbances, high level of urea in the blood and elevated body temperature. This disease may be also caused due to the deficiency of mineralocorticoids. Symptoms also include low blood sugar, low plasma sodium ions, high plasma potassium ions and increased urinary sodium ions.

2. Hypoglycemia: It is caused due to insufficiency of glucocorticoid. In this disease activities of brain, liver, and heart muscle decreases. Temperature of the body decreases.

3. Conn’s disease: It is caused due to insufficiency of mineralocorticoid. In this disease muscles fails to function due to defect in nerves, and patient dies.

4. Cushing syndrome: Hypersecretion of cortisol from the adrenal cortex due to a tumor of the gland leads to Cushing’s disease or Cushing’s syndrome characterized by hyperglycemia i.e. high blood sugar, increased deposition of glycogen in the liver, increased protein catabolism, appearance of sugar in the urine,’obesity, wasting of limb muscles, disorder of skin and bones, hypertension, rise in plasma Na⁺, fall in plasma K⁺ and retention of water and sodium chloride in the body.

5. Adrenal virilism: Sex steroids influence the functioning of sex organs and development of accessory sex characters. The over production of sex corticoids produces male-type secondary sexual characters such as growing of beards, moustaches and developing male voice in women. This disease is called adrenal virilism.

Question 13.
(1) Which cells of testis secrete male sex hormone?
(2) Why L.H. is called as interstitial stimulating hormone?
Answer:
1. Male sex hormone are produced by the Ley dig’s cells of the testis which are found surrounding the seminiferous tubules.
2. L.H. is called as I.C.S.H. because it induces Leydig’s cells or interstitial cells to secrete testosterone hormone.

Question 14.
Give important functions of testosterone hormone.
Answer:

• It induces development of secondary sexual character in male.
• It induces development of external sexual characters, such as growth of beard, moustaches and development of hairs in hand and legs. It also helps in development of heavy and low voice in man.
• It induces production of sperms in the testis.
• It effects development of tissues in the body.

Question 15.
Name the endocrine glands which secretes protein containing hormone.
Answer:
Following endocrine glands secrete protein containing hormones :

Endocrine gland	Hormone
1. Thyroid 2. Parathyroid 3. Pancreas 4. Anterior lobe of pituitary gland 5. Middle lobe of pituitary gland 6. Posterior lobe of pituitary gland	Thyroxine Parathormone Insulin, glucagon TSH, ACTH, FSH, LH, GH and prolactin M.S.H. Oxytocin.

Question 16.
Write the names of hormones related with the different functions like :
(i) Softening of pelvic ligaments at the time of child-birth.
(ii) Expulsion of milk from mammary glands, just after the child-birth.
(iii) Stimulates gametogenesis in male and female.
Answer:
(i) Relaxin.
(ii) Prolactin or Lactogenic or Luteio Tropic Hormone (LTH) and Oxytocin.
(iii) Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH).

Question 17.
Draw labelled diagram showing location of various endocrine glands in human body. (NCERT)
Answer:

Question 18.
What is emergency hormone ? How does it help us to protect ourself from emergency condition ?
Answer:
Adrenalin or Epinephrine hormone is secreted by the medulla part of the adrenal gland. Adrenalin hormone is a derivative of tyrosine. Chromaffin cells secrete about 80% adrenalin hormone. This hormone effects all the organs effected by autonomous nervous system.

It is also known as emergency hormone as it is used as heart stimulant in acute emergencies. It is secreted in proportional to the stimulus through the central nervous system. Under the conditions of stimulus such as cold, heat, drugs and emotional excitement, the secretion of adrenalin is greatly increased. In circumstances of great stress, strain and emotional upheaval, the body requires additional energy in hurry. Adrenalin accordingly increases the conversion of glycogen to glucose and thus provides quickly available energy.

As it also increases blood flow, the available glucose may quickly go where it is needed. It dilates the blood vessels in the heart and skeletal muscles, thus decreasing the peripheral resistance and permitting a copious flow of blood to meet the needs of fight and flight.

Question 19.
Name the Endocrine glands from which following hormones are secreted. Give functions of them :
1. Parathormone,
2. Cortisone,
3. Somatotropic hormone,
4. Melatonin.
Answer:

Hormone	Endocrine gland	Function
1. Parathormone	Parathyroid	It regulates muscular contraction, heart beat, bone formation.
2. Cortisone	Adrenal cortex	It regulates protein metabolism.
3. Somatotrophic hormone	Anterior lobe of  pituitary	Regulates general body growth.
4. Melatonin	Pineal body	It delays sexual development.

Chemical Coordination and Integration Class 11 Important Questions LongAnswer Type

Question 1.
Name the hormones secreted by following : (NCERT)
(a) Hypothalamus,
(b) Pituitary gland,
(c) Thyroid,
(d) Parathyroid,
(e) Adrenal gland,
(f) Pancreas,
(g) Testis,
(h) Ovary,
(i) Thymus,
(j) Atrium,
(k) Kidney,
(l) Gastrointestinal track.
Answer:
(a) Hypothalamus: Thyrotropin Releasing Hormone (TRH), Adrenocorticotro- phin Releasing Hormone (ARH), Gonadotrophin Releasing Hormone (GRH), Prolactin Re¬leasing Hormone (PRH), Somatotropin Releasing Hormone (SRH), Melanocyte Releasing Hormone (MRH).

(b) Pituitary gland: Somatotrophic hormone (STH), Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), Lactogenic hormone (LTH), Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH), Gonadotrophic hormone (FSH, LH Or ICSH), Melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH), Vasopressin, Oxytocin.

(c) Thyroid: Thyroxine, Thyrocalcitonin ‘
(d) Parathyroid: Parathormone
(e) Adrenal gland : Mineralocorticoid (aldosterone), Glucocorticoid, Sex hormones (Androgen, Estrogen), Adrenalin, Nor adrenalin.
(f) Pancreas : (islets of Langerhans): Insulin, Glucagon.
(g) Testis : Testosterone, Andosterone.
(h) Ovary : Estrogen, Progesterone.
(i) Thymus: Thymosin.
(j) Atrium : Atrial Netriuretic factor (ANF).
(k) Kidney: Renin, Erythrogenin.
(l) Gastrointestinal track : (Mucosa gland of alimentary canal): Gastrin, secretin, pancreozymins, cholecystokinin, enterocrinin, enterogastrone.

Question 2.
Write short note on functions of following hormones :
(a) Parathormone,
(b) Thyroxin hormone,
(c) Thymosin,
(d) Androgen,
(e) Estrogen,
(f) Insulin and glucagon.
Answer:
(a) Parathormone: Parathyroid gland secretes a hormone known as parathormone.
Significance :
(i) This hormone increases the absorption of Ca⁺⁺ in the walls of intestine and renal tubules.

(ii) It helps in muscle contraction, heart beating and formation of bones.
The deficient secretion of parathormone will cause parathyroid tetany. The deficiency of parathormone during childhood causes stunted growth of teeth, bones and brain. The hypersecretion of this hormone causes osteoporosis, hypercalcaemia and kidney stone like diseases.

(b) Thyroxin hormone:
Thyroid Gland:
Origin: Thyroid gland develops from the endoderm of the embryo.

Location: Thyroid gland is the largest endocrine gland of the body which is located on the ventral side of the neck just below the larynx. It surrounds the front of the larynx and upper part of the trachea in the neck. It has two lobes on either side of trachea.

Structure: Thyroid gland is a pink coloured, H-shaped, bilobed gland, largest gland of the body. Their lobes are connected by an isthmus. In normal healthy person, its weight is about 25 gms, it is larger in female than in male. Thyroid is profusely supplied with blood vessels. The gland consists of large number of small closed follicles or acini of about 200 μ in diameter. Each follicle is lined by a secretory epithelium of cuboidal or low columnar type.

These follicles are held together by areolar tissue. Each follicle contains a clear viscid proteinaceous amber coloured colloid which normally comprises the greater part of the thyroid mass. The colloid consists mainly of iodinated thyroglobulin. In polybreeders like human beings the gland functions almost uniformly but in seasonal breeders the gland is active at one stage and inactive at the other.

Hormones of Thyroid Gland :
1. Thyroid gland secretes three hormones :

1. Thyroxin or tetraidothyronine (T4),
2. Triiodothyronine (T3) and
3. Thyrocalcitonin (TCT).

1. Thyroxine: Thyroxine hormone contains about 60% of iodine.
Functions of thyroxine:

• Thyroxine hormone regulates approximately all types of metabolic reactions of the body.
• It effects all energy releasing oxidation processes.
• It controls the temperature of the body.
• It controls the amount of intracellular substances of the tissue.
• It maintains the normal stimulus of the cardiac muscles.

2. Tri-iodothyronine: It functions like thyroxine but more rapidly.
3. Thyrocalcitonin: It regulates the amount of Ca in urine and blood.

(c) Thymosin: It stimulates the proliferation of lymphocytes and also restores cell-mediated immunological functions such as the ability to reject first or second set skin grafts.

(d) Androgen: It includes Testosterone and Androsterone. Both Androsterone and Testosterone are secreted by the interstitial cells. It induces development of secondary sexual characters in male human.

(e) Estrogen:
Sex hormones: Hormones which are responsible for sexual activities and regu¬lates the development of secondary sex characters are called as sex hormones. Androgen is the male and oestrogen, progesterone and relaxin are the female hormones.

1. Oestrogen hormone: It is secreted by ovary. Small quantities of this hormone is also secreted by adrenal glands and placenta. This hormone is responsible for development of secondary sexual characters. It stimulates the development of secondary sex organs like uterus, fallopian tubes, ducts of mammary glands and external sex characters like high pitch voice, pattern of distribution of body hairs in the female during puberty.

2. Testosterone: It is a steroid hormone secreted by interstitial cells of Leydig’s cell and also from Sertoli cells. Interstitial cells are not present in the testes of a child but they are present in the testes of newborn infants and also in the testes of adults after puberty. Its production dwindles rapidly beyond the age of 40 and almost zero by the age of 80.

(f) Insulin and Glucagon: Insulin hormone is secreted by the /?-cells of islets of Langerhans. Its main function is to regulated amount of glucose in the blood by converting excess glucose into glycogen by glycogenesis process in the liver for storage. Glucagon hormone is secreted by the a-cells of islets of Langerhans. It stimulates glycogenolysis, thus glucose is releases into the blood from the liver when there is low concentration of glucose in the blood.

Question 3.
Describe the structure and position of pituitary gland and write the name and functions of hormones secreted by them.
Or,
Where is pituitary gland situated? Write the name of two hormones secreted by posterior lobe of pituitary gland.
Or,
Why pituitary gland is called master gland? Write its structure and hormones.
Answer:
Pituitary gland: It is a small and rounded gland which is found on the dorsal surface of brain just behind the optic chiasma and is closed within the cavity of celatersica.
It is known as hypo-physis. It is attached by a stalk with the infundibulum on the mid part of dorsal surface of the brain. It is the regulatory centre of other glands hence, it is also called as the master gland of the body. It is made up of following three parts :

1. Fore lobe,
2. Mid lobe and
3. Hind lobe.

Hormones of fore lobe and their functions :
1. Somatotrophic hormones (STH): It controls the growth of the body. It is respon¬sible for the development of bones.

2. Thyrotrophic hormones (TSH): This hormone is responsible for the secre tion of thyroid gland.

3. Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH): It is secreted by the anterior lobe of pituitary gland to control the synthesis and secretion of hormones from adrenal cortex.

4. Follicle stimulating hormones (FSH): In male, FSH stimulates growth of the sperms in the testis and egg in the ovary of female.

5. Luteinizing hormones (LH): This hormone brings about ovulation, secretion of oestrogens and progesterone formation of corpus luteum in female and stimulates the interstitial cells of the testis to secrete testoster¬one in the male.

6. Prolactin or lactogenic or luteotrophic hormone (LTH): This hormone promotes mammary growth and lactation and maintains the corpus luteum and causes it to become actively secretory.
Neurotrophic hormone or hormones of posterior lobe :

• Vasopressin or antidiuretic hormone: It causes increased reabsorption of water in the kidney tubule also helps to maintain the arterial blood pressure within the normal range.
• Oxytocin hormone: It stimulates uterine contraction during childbirth and cause milk ejection from the mammary glands during sucking.

Question 4.
Describe the functions of hormones secreted by thyroid glands.
Or,
Write the position of thyroid gland. Write its function.
Answer: Thyroid Gland:
Origin: Thyroid gland develops from the endoderm of the embryo.

Location: Thyroid gland is the largest endocrine gland of the body which is located on the ventral side of the neck just below the larynx. It surrounds the front of the larynx and upper part of the trachea in the neck. It has two lobes on either side of trachea.

Structure: Thyroid gland is a pink coloured, H-shaped, bilobed gland, largest gland of the body. Their lobes are connected by an isthmus. In normal healthy person, its weight is about 25 gms, it is larger in female than in male. Thyroid is profusely supplied with blood vessels. The gland consists of large number of small closed follicles or acini of about 200 μ in diameter. Each follicle is lined by a secretory epithelium of cuboidal or low columnar type.

These follicles are held together by areolar tissue. Each follicle contains a clear viscid proteinaceous amber coloured colloid which normally comprises the greater part of the thyroid mass. The colloid consists mainly of iodinated thyroglobulin. In polybreeders like human beings the gland functions almost uniformly but in seasonal breeders the gland is active at one stage and inactive at the other.

Hormones of Thyroid Gland :
1. Thyroid gland secretes three hormones :

1. Thyroxin or tetraiodothyronine (T4),
2. Triiodothyronine (T3) and
3. Thyrocalcitonin (TCT).

1. Thyroxine: Thyroxine hormone contains about 60% of iodine.
Functions of thyroxine:

• Thyroxine hormone regulates approximately all types of metabolic reactions of the body.
• It effects all energy releasing oxidation processes.
• It controls the temperature of the body.
• It controls the amount of intracellular substances of the tissue.
• It maintains the normal stimulus of the cardiac muscles.

2. Tri-iodothyronine: It functions like thyroxine but more rapidly.
3. Thyrocalcitonin: It regulates the amount of Ca in urine and blood.

Question 5.
Write down the names and significance of parathyroid gland hormones.
Answer:
The hormones released by parathyroid are called parathormone.
Functions: It controls Ca²⁺ and PO₄^-3 ” in blood along with muscle contraction, heartbeat, bone formation, etc.
Hyposecretion: Due to its deficiency bones, teeth do not develop properly.
Hypersecretion: Due to its overproduction osteoporosis, hypercalcimia, stone in kidney, calcitonin diseases occur.

Question 6.
What are ductless glands? Describe Thyroid, Adrenal, Ovary and Pancreas.
Answer:
Ductless gland: The glands which secrete, their secretion directly into the blood circulatory system as they do not have duct are called as ductless endocrine glands. The substance secreted by them are called as hormones which are transported to required part of the body through blood.

1.Thyroid: This gland is a soft bibbed structure formed of glandular tissue. It is situated in front of trachea immediately below the larynx. The two lobes of the gland are connected with each other by a narrow connective tissue structure called isthmus. The hormone secreted by it is Thyroxine. It is a colloidal substance containing much iodine. The whole hormone is C₁₅H₁₀O₄N₁₄.

2. Adrenal: These glands are situated very close to the kidneys; therefore, they are called adrenal or suprarenal glands. The outer part of the glands is called cortex and inner medulla. The origin and function of both these parts are different.

(i) Cortex: It originates from mesodermal cells and is enclosed in a capsule. The secretion of cortex are very important for life. These substances control carbohydrate me¬tabolism, amount of salts in blood, regulate the volume of blood, control the sexual maturity and create the resistance from the diseases in the body of the animal.

It produces about 20 steroid compounds which are called cortisones, the important among which are following :
(a) Corticosterone or Glucocorticoid,
(b) Cortisone,
(c) Mineralocorticoid,
(d) Sex-hormone.

(ii) Medulla: It is present on the inner side of adrenal and surrounded by the cortex. It produces two hormones
(a) Adrenalin,
(b) Noradrenalin. Adrenalin is also called as emergency gland.
3. Ovary: In female one pair of ovaries are found. Three types of hormones are secreted by them :

1. Estrogen,
2. Progesterone,
3. Relaxin.

4. Pancreas: Pancreas functions both as exocrine and endocrine. The organ has certain specialized cells which are histologically different from the rest of the pancreatic tissue. These cells are endocrine in function and was discovered by Langerhans, therefore, they are known as islets of Langerhans. The islets of Langerhans in the pancreas secrete the polypeptide hormone, glucagon and the protein hormone, insulin.

They are concerned with the regulation of intermediary metabolism. Glucagon elevates the blood glucose by stimu-lating hepatic glycogenolysis. They maintain the blood glucose level during starvation.

Chemical Coordination and Integration Class 11 Important Questions Objective Type

1. Choose the correct answers:

Question 1.
Which one of the following pairs is the matching pair of the part and the hormone it secretes :
(a) Thyroid-Epinephrin
(b) Alpha cells of pancreas-Glucagon
(c) Anterior pituitary-Adrenalin
(d) Stomach epithelium-Secretin.
Answer:
(b) Alpha cells of pancreas-Glucagon

Question 2.
Failure of insulin production results in :
(a) Addison’s disease
(b) Cushing’s disease
(c) Diabetes insipidus
(d) Diabetes mellitus.
Answer:
(d) Diabetes mellitus.

Question 3.
Oestrogens are the hormones produced by :
(a) Testes
(b) Ovary
(c) Pituitary
(d) Adrenal cortex.
Answer:
(b) Ovary

Question 4.
Development of secondary sexual characters in females are controlled by:
(a) Oestrogen
(b) Oxytocin
(c) Progesterone
(d) Androgen.
Answer:
(a) Oestrogen

Question 5.
Which hormone is secreted more in dark condition:
(a) Insulin
(b) Adrenalin
(c) Thyroxine
(d) Melatonin.
Answer:
(d) Melatonin.

Question 6.
Continued secretion of milk is maintained by :
(a) Pituitary
(b) Thyroid
(c) Pancreas
(d) Adrenal.
Answer:
(a) Pituitary

Question 7.
Progesterone hormone is secreted by :
(a) Corpus luteum
(b) Corpus callosum
(c) Corpus uteri
(d) Corpus albicans.
Answer:
(a) Corpus luteum

Question 8.
If adrenal cortex function is impaired, it results in decreased concentration of one of the following in the blood: (MP PMT 1988)
(a) Ammonium salts
(b) Sodium salts
(c) Glucose
(d) Calcium salts.
Answer:
(b) Sodium salts

Question 9.
Diabetes insipidus is caused due to the deficiency of :
(a) Oxytocin
(b) Insulin
(c) Vasopressin
(d) Glucagon.
Answer:
(c) Vasopressin

Question 10.
Adrenal glands are found located in abdominal cavity in close association with:
(a) Testes
(b) Spleen
(c) Liver
(d) Kidneys.
Answer:
(d) Kidneys.

Question 11.
The male hormone, testosterone is secreted by:
(a) Sperms
(b) Seminiferous tubules
(c) Prostrate glands
(d) Interstitial cells of testes.
Answer:
(d) Interstitial cells of testes.

Question 12.
The name of hormone secreted by the ovary which facilitates growth of ovarian follicle is :
(a) Progesterone
(b) LH
(c) FSH
(d) Estradiol.
Answer:
(d) Estradiol.

Question 13.
Which of the endocrine gland is mainly concerned with immunity in human :
(a) Parathyroid gland
(b) Adrenal gland
(c) Thymus gland
(d) Posterior pituitary gland.

Answer:
(c) Thymus gland

Question 14.
Emergency hormone ¡s:
(a) Aldostrerone
(b) Pentathromone
(c) Adrenaline
(d) Thyroxin.
Answer:
(c) Adrenaline

2. Fill in the blanks:

(A)

1. Islets of langerhans are formed in ………….. It secrets ………….. hormone.
Answer:
Pancrease, insulin,

2. ………….. is an antidiuretic hormone.
Answer:
Vasopressin,

3. Hyposecretion of somatotropin results in ………….. whereas its hypersecretion results …………..
Answer:
Dwarfism, Gigantism,

4. Deficiency of insulin hormone causes ………….. disease.
Answer:
Diabetes,

5. Goitre disease is caused due to deficiency of ………….. .
Answer:
Iodine,

6. Progesterone hormone is secreted by ………….. .
Answer:
Corpus luteum,

7. Adrenalin hormone increases ………….. and ………….. .
Answer:
Heart beat, blood pressure

8. Melatonin hormone is secreted by ………….. .
Answer:
Pituitary gland,

9. Human became dwarf due to deficiency of ………….. hormone.
Answer:
Thyroxin.

(B)

Answer:
1. Pituitary gland,
2. Thyroid gland,
3. Adrenal gland,
4. Gonads (Testis or ovary),
5. Hypothalamus.

3. Match the following:

(A)

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. T4	(a) Hypothalamus
2. PTH	(b)Thyroid
3. Gonadotrophic releasing hormone	(c) Pituitary gland
4. Luteinizing hormone	(d) Parathyroid.

Answer:
1. (b)Thyroid
2. (d) Parathyroid.
3.  (a) Hypothalamus
4. (c) Pituitary gland.

(B)

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Hypothalamus	(a) Testosterone
2. Prolactin	(b) Somatotropin
3. Corpus luteum	(c) Thyroxin
4. Leydigs cells	(d) Milk secretion
5 . Anterior lobe of pituitary	(e) Progesterone.

Answer:
1. (c) Thyroxin
2. (d) Milk secretion
3. (e) Progesterone.
4. (a) Testosterone
5. (b) Somatotropin

(C)

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Oxytocin	(a) Delivery hormone
2. Relaxin	(b) Pituitary gland
3. Ca++ level	(c) LH.
4. Somatostatin	(d) Hypothalamus
5. Estrogen	(e) Thyroid.

Answer:
1. (b) Pituitary gland
2. (a) Delivery hormone
3. (e) Thyroid.
4. (d) Hypothalamus
5. (c) LH.

4. Answer in one word:

1. Name the part of brain in which pituitary gland is found.
Answer:
Thalamus,

2. Name the hormone which control the amount of Ca in blood.
Answer:
Parathyroid hormone,

3. Name the largest gland of our body.
Answer:
Pituitary gland,

4. Name the cell that secrets testosterone hormone.
Answer:
Interstitial cells,

5. Name the gland of man from which vasopressin hormone is secreted.
Answer:
Hypothalamus,

6. Name the hormone which stimulates the secretion of milk.
Answer:
Prolactin hormone,

7. Which hormone is known as delivery hormone.
Answer:
Relaxin,

8. Write the name of any two hormones secreted by the anterior part of pituitary gland.
Answer:
T.S.H. and S.T.H,

9. What we called the ratio of volume of air inspired and expired during respiration.
Answer:
Vital capacity.

Students get through the MP Board Class 11th Biology Important Questions Chapter 1 The Living World which are most likely to be asked in the exam.

MP Board Class 11th Biology Important Questions Chapter 1 The Living World

The Living World Class 11 Important Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Who is regarded as Father of taxonomy?
Answer:
Carolus Linnaeus is regarded as Father of taxonomy.

Question 2.
What are Autotrophs?
Answer:
Organisms which can produce own food by photosynthesis are called as Au-totrophs.

Question 3.
Who proposed five Kingdom classification?
Answer:
R. H. Whittakar (1969) proposed Five Kingdom classification.

Question 4.
What is species?
Answer:
Group of similar interbreeding organisms are called as species.

Question 5.
What is natural system of classification?
Answer:
System of classification based on morphological characters of the living organ-isms is called as natural system of classification.

Question 6.
What is artificial system of classification?
Answer:
Classification based on one or few characteristics of the organisms is called as Artificial system of classification.

Question 7.
Name two books written by Linnaeus and write his two contributions.
Answer:
Books written by Linnaeus :

• Species Plantarum,
• Systema Naturae.

Two contributions of Linnaeus :

1. Proposed two Kingdom classification,
2. Proposed Binomial nomenclature system for living organisms.

Question 8.
Define Taxa and Category.
Answer:

• Taxa :
  The taxa are the groups of animals, generally groups of species. e.g., Fishes, Birds, Mammals etc.
• Category :
  Each taxon is placed at some level is hierarchy. A category distinguishes rank or level in a hierarchic classification. Species is the basic unit or lowest category and kingdom is the highest category.

Question 9.
Give correct scientific name of mango out of following : Mangifera Indica; Mangifera indica.
Answer:
Mangifera indica is the correct scientific name of mango.

Question 10.
Identify correct sequence of classification :
(a) Species → Order → Phylum → Kingdom.
(b) Genus → Species → Order → Kingdom.
(c) Species → Genus → Order → Phylum.
Answer:
Correct sequence of classification is :
(c) Species → Genus → Order → Phylum.

The Living World Class 11 Important Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Why classification of living organisms is needed?
Answer:
In nature approximately 22,50,000 species are found. It is not possible for man to study all the plants and animals during his lifetime. Therefore, classification of all these organisms is necessary to make their study easy. In addition to it, classification also makes following easy:

• It helps to understand diversity in plants and animals.
• It helps us to establish the natural relationship among organisms.
• It helps us to identify the organism.
• It helps us to understand about origin of the organisms and their relationship.
• It gives us evidence for organic evolution, thus helps us to understand organic evolution.

Question 2.
Give Scientific names of following organisms :
1. Onion,
2. Man,
3. Elephant,
4. Tapeworm,
5. Frog,
6. Wheat,
7. Rice,
8. Mustard,
9. Pea,
10. Mango.
Answer:
Common name – Scientific name

1. Onion – Alium sepa
2. Man – Homo sapiens
3. Elephant – Elephas indicus
4. Tapeworm – Taenia solium
5. Frog – Rana tigrina
6. Wheat – Triticum aestivum
7. Rice – Oryza sativa
8. Mustard – Brassica compestris
9. Pea – Pisurn sativum
10. Mango – Mangifera indica.

Question 3.
Why classification changes time to time?
Answer:
Classification changes time to time due to evolution. Evolution causes formation of new species, which are then added to the old classification.

Question 4.
On the basis of which of the following you will like to classify the people you meet:
Dress, Mother tongue, State where they live, Economic standard etc.
Answer:
First of all we classify the people we meet on the basis of their mother tongue, then the state where they live, at the end their dress, religion, species and physical appearance is considered.

Question 5.
What Knowledge we gain by identification of Individual and Population?
(NCERT)
Answer:
By identification of individual and population we can understand about inter-relationship between all organisms. It helps to understand about similarity and dis-similarity between living organisms.
e.g., There are two different species of potato :
Genus – Species
Solarium – tuberosum
Solanum – nigrum.

Question 6.
Define Taxon. Give some examples of taxa in hierarchical classification.
Answer:
Taxon is a group of living organisms. Each taxa is placed at some level of hierarchy.
e.g., Insect represent a class of phylum Arthropoda. Presence of three pairs of jointed legs is the similar characteristic of insects.
Example of Taxa are various categories such as kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus and species, which altogether forms hierarchic classification.
Modern Taxa or Classification of Man :
Kingdom – Animalia
Phylum – Chordata
Class – Mammalia
Order – Primates
Family – Hominidae
Genus – Homo
Species – sapiens.

Question 7.
Write the basic characters of five kingdom classification.
Answer:
Five kingdom classification is proposed on the basis of:

1. Complexity of cell structure : Prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
2. Complexity of the body of the organism: Unicellular and multicellular.
3. Mode of nutrition : Autotrophs and heterotrophs.
4. Life style.
5. Phylogenetic relationship.

Question 8.
What do you understand by binomial nomenclature? Also write the scientific name of any two organisms on the basis of binomial nomenclature.
Answer:
Binomial nomenclature :
Nomenclature is the naming of plants or animals. Binomial nomenclature system is a system of naming plants and animals which was introduced by Carolus Linnaeus. According to this system every organism is given two names a generic name followed by a specific name or epithet. The generic name (i.e., name of genus) is a noun and the specific epithet is an adjective indicating which of the several members of the genus has been considered. Both the names are written in italics.

The generic name is always capitalized while specific name is written in small letters, e.g., the zoological name of frog on the basis of this system is Rana tigrina. Here Rana indicates generic name while tigrina indicates its specific name. Binomials when written should always be underlined and when printed they must be italicized.

Scientific name of two organisms :
General name – Scientific name

1. Frog – Rana tigrina
2. Man – Homo sapiens.

Question 9.
Explain phylogenic line.
Answer:
Phylogenic line :
The evolutionary history of an organism is called phylogeny and various species of phylogeny are called phylogenic line. Phylogenic line indicates the sequence of evolution of a species.

The body of well developed organism is formed from a single cell, various changes occur in the cell and finally it is developed into an organism. The first unicellular organism is evolved on the earth like that of above process, then various changes occurred according to environment thus, various species evolved. In this phylogenic line organisms of kingdom monera appeared for the first time, from which protists have evolved. The kingdom plantae, animalia and fungi evolved from kingdom protista in various lines.

Question 10.
Explain the utility of five kingdoms classification.
Answer:
Significance or utility of five kingdoms classification :

• Prokaryotic organisms are placed under separate kingdom in this classification.
• Unicellular and multicellular organisms are grouped separately.
• Fungi are placed in separate kingdom due to variation in their mode of nutrition.
• Photosynthetic and non-photosynthetic organisms are grouped separately.
• This classification is more natural than binomial classification.
• The basis of this classification is bio-organization and mode of nutrition, hence it shows the sequence of evolution.

Question 11.
Write the name at least two examples of five kingdoms of organism.
Answer:
Five kingdoms as proposed by Whittaker are as follows :

1. Kingdom Monera : e.g., (i) Rhizobium, (ii) Nostoc.
2. Kingdom Protista : e.g., (i) Amoeba, (ii) Euglena.
3. Kingdom Plantae : e.g., (i) Brassica compestris (Mustard), (ii) Mangifera indica (Mango).
4. Kingdom Fungi: e.g., (i) Rhizopus, (ii) Agaricus.
5. Kingdom Animalia : e.g., (i) Homo sapiens (Man), (ii) Ratus ratus (Rat).

Question 12.
Write down the utility of systematics.
Answer:
Utility of Systematics :

• Systematics provide us with a means to study a group of organisms and get a fair idea about the essential features of organisms belonging to that group.
• Systematics provide a tool to identify fossils and newly discovered organisms.
• Systematics is complementary to all branches of basic and applied biology. It is required for the identification of any organism of interest to us whether it be economically useful, harmful, dangerous, disease producing, a pest or a parasite.
• Systematics provide basic information required in many disciplines of agricultural, medical and veterinary science.
• Systematics allow us to know about diversity, relationships and evolutionary tendencies amongst organisms.

Question 13.
What is two kingdom classification? Write its utility.
Answer:
Carolus Linnaeus classified all the living organisms into two main kingdoms :

1. Plantae (including all plants),
2. Animalia (including all animals).

Utility of two kingdom classification are :

• It has put together the unicellular with multicellular organisms.
• It has put together eukcaryotes (organisms with true nucleus in their cells), with procaryotes (organisms without true nucleus).
• It has put together autotrophs and heterotrophs, such as non-photosynthesizing fungi with photosynthetic green plants.
• It has little regard for diversified form.
• Lichens is a peculiar group of dual organisms which are formed by an association between an algae and fungus. They have neither plant character, nor any animal character.
• Group of unicellular algae (e.g., euglenoids, diatoms and dianoflagellates) and Protozoa show sufficient degree of resemblance.

Question 14.
Differentiate between :
(a) Monera and Protista,
(b) Autotroph and Heterotrophs,
(c) Plantae and Fungi.
Answer:
(a) Differences between Monera and Protista

Monera	Protista
1. The cells of organism of this kingdom are Prokaryotic	The cells of organism of this kingdom are Eukaryotic.
2. Their flagella and cilia do not exhibit 9 + 2 arrangement	Their flagella and cilia exhibits 9 +2 arrangement.
3. Bilayered membranous organelles are absent.	Double membranous cell organelles are present.
4. They reproduce asexually but protosexual proprocess is found in gene recombination.	Sexual and asexual both types of reproduction is present.

(b) Differences between Autotroph and Heterotrophs

Autotroph	Heterotrophs
1. Autotrophs prepare their own food by themselves	Heterotrophs do not prepare their own food but depend upon others.
2. They contain chlorophyll.	They do not contain chlorophyll.
3. In this, all green plants are present.	In this, all animals and fungi are present.
4. In this O2 is released.	In this O2 is not released.

(c) Differences between Plantae and Fungi

Plantae	Fungi
1. These are Autotrophs.	These are Heterotrophs.
2. They store food in the form of starch.	They store food in the form of glycogen.
3. Chlorophyll are present in cell.	Fungi do not possess chlorophyll.
4. Cell wall is made up of cellulose.	Cell wall is made up of fungal cellulose or chitin.

Question 15.
Define the following :
(i) Systematics,
(ii) Taxonomy,
(iii) Classification,
(iv) Identification,
(v) Nomenclature.
Answer:
(i) Systematics : It is a discipline which deal with the kinds and diversity of all organism and the existing relationships among themselves.
(ii) Taxonomy : It is the study of all plants and animals, their identification and classification.
(iii) Classification : It is defined as a system of arrangement of organisms into groups showing relationships.
(iv) Identification : It refers to the determination of correct position by an organism in the plan of classification.
(v) Nomenclature: It is the process of giving scientific names to the plants and animals.

Question 16.
What do you understand by trinomial nomenclature?
Answer:
Trinomial nomenclature :
Sometimes organisms of same species differs from each other as they are adapted for different kinds of environment. In such cases species are again divided into subspecies. The scientific name of such organisms consists of three words. The first word indicates generic name and begins with first letter as capital. The second word is species name and begins with first letter as small and the third word is the subspecies name which also begins with first letter as small. The system of naming the organisms using three words is called as Trinomial nomenclature. For e.g., the species of crow of different places are named as follow :

• Indian crow – Corvus splendens splendens
• Burmese crow – Corvus splendens insolens
• Crow of Sri Lanka – Corvus splendens protagalus.

The Living World Class 11 Important Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
What is Hierarchial System of classification? Explain it briefly.
Answer:
The term ‘Hierarch’ means a series of succession of different ranks. In biological classification, hierarchy is a system of arrangement where taxonomic categories are placed in order of logical sequence. There are seven hierarchies of categories or group in ranks which are placed one upon another and any species can be traced to these seven basic categories.

Kingdom is the highest taxonomic category, species is the lowest category of hierarchy that is grouped into genus based on common characteristics. The similar genus are grouped into a family and the similar families into an order, similar orders into a class and similar classes into a phylum. The similar phyla are grouped into kingdom.

Question 2.
Write down the outline of Five Kingdom Classification giving two examples of each? Also give the advantages of it.
Or
Write the name and one important basic features of five kingdom which proposed by Whittaker.
Answer:
Five Kingdom classification : It is divided into five groups, they are :

1. Kingdom Monera : It includes prokaryotic and unicellular organisms e.g., (a) Rhizobium, (b) Nostoc.
2. Kingdom Protista : It includes eukaryotic and unicellular organisms e.g., (a) Amoeba, (b) Euglena.
3. Kingdom Plantae: It includes multicellular organisms with photosynthetic pigments in plastids are present, e.g., (a) Pitcher plant, (b) Sundew plant.
4. Kingdom Fungi: It includes eukaryotic, multicellular organisms with heterotrophic mode of nutrition, e.g., (a) Agaricus, (b) Mucor.
5. Kingdom Animalia: It includes multicellular, heterotrophic made up to Eukaryotic cell, e.g., (a) Rana tigrina (Frog), (b) Panthera leo (Lion).

Question 3.
Give basis and demerits of five kingdom classification.
Answer:
Five kingdom classification is proposed on the basis of:

1. Complexity of cell structure : Prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
2. Complexity of the body of the organism : Unicellular and multicellular.
3. Mode of nutrition : Autotrophs and heterotrophs.
4. Life style.
5. Phylogenetic relationship.

Demerits or disadvantages of five kingdom classification :
There are many advantages of five kingdom classification therefore it is very popular and accepted by all scientists but still there are some shortcomings.

1. Unicellular algae are kept in kingdom protista whereas algae like multicellular organisms are kept in kingdom plantae. But similar organisms must be put together.
2. There is diversity in kingdom protista. Dissimilar organisms must not be kept in same group.
3. All organisms other than Moneron show that they are polyphyletic in origin. It is a great shortcoming of this classification.
4. There is no place for viruses in this classification.
5. Similar organisms are kept far from each other. For example unicellular and multicellular algae.

Question 4.
Collect all modern meaning of word ‘Species’. Can you discuss with your teacher to know about species of higher category of plants, animals and bacteria ?
(NCERT)
Answer:
The ‘Species’ was used for the first time by John Ray. According to him, Species is a population of individual having common gene pool. According to Mayer (1942), Species is group of inbreeding population. According to modem concept, the group of individuals having the following characteristic features is called a species:

• All the members inbreed freely.
• All the individuals of a population have common gene pool.
• Adaptation and natural selection is continued in the group according to environment.
• All the members of this group possess the capacity to produce new species by organic evolution.

Examples of Species of higher category plants are :
Mangifera indica (Mango), Solarium tuberosum (Potato) and example of higher category animals are : Panthera leo (Lion), Panthera tigris (Tiger), Eliphas indicus (Elephant). First word of all above examples are Generic name whereas second word of all above scientific names are species name. Such as indica for mango, tigris for tiger.

Whereas bacteria are classified into different groups on the basis of their shapes such as : Coccus (Spherical), Bacillus (Rod shaped), Vibrio (Comma shaped), Spirillum (Spiral shaped).

Question 5.
How key is useful to identify and classify living organisms?
Answer:
Following classification and nomenclature a taxonomist constructs a key to make it possible for other biologists to identify the species. A Key is a device by which each type in a group of organisms can be identified. A key provides convenient way for easy identification of an organism by applying diagnostic characters. There are two types of keys: (i) Biforked key, (ii) Bracketed key. An example of a key to identify a fish, frog, snake, bird, bat and cat is given below:

• Does the organism have external pinna : Yes (go to 2); No (go to 3)
• Does it fly : Yes (Bat); No (Cat)
• Does it fly : Yes (Bird); No (go to 4)
• Does it have limbs : Yes (Frog); No (go to 5)
• Does it have gills : Yes (Fish); No (Snake).

Question 6.
Explain following terms and define them :
(i) Phylum,
(ii) Class,
(iii) Family,
(iv) Order,
(v) Genus.
Answer:
(i) Phylum :
A group of one or more classes having certain common diagnostic characters but differ from other classes of other phyla in some diagnostic characters is called as Phylum.
e.g., Phylum Chordata includes classes pisces, amphibia, reptilia, aves and mammalia.

(ii) Class :
It consists of one or more orders having certain common characters which differs from order of other classes in some characters is called as class.
e.g., Class Mammalia includes orders primates (gorilla, man), carnivora (dogs, cats, lions) etc.

(iii) Family :
It is the taxonomic category containing one or more related genera having certain common characters, which is separated from other related families having certain different characters.
e.g., Family Felidae includes lion, leopard, tiger etc.

(iv) Order :
It consists of one or more families having certain common characters which differ from families of other orders in some diagnostic characters.
e.g., the order carnivora includes the Families Felidae (lion, leopard, tiger) and Family Canidae (dogs, foxes).

(v) Genus:
It is the second category of classification. Genus is group of similar species.
e.g., Genus Panthera includes Lion, Leopard and Tiger etc.

Question 7.
Explain taxonomic hierarchy by giving examples of plants and animals.
Answer:
In classification plants and animals are placed in various smaller and large groups. These groups are called as taxon and category. Hierarchy is a system of arrangement for classification in which taxonomic categories are placed in a subsequent way on the basis of characteristics and evolution of the organisms.

The hierarchy of categories consists of a descending sequence of seven categories, which are Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus and Species.

Lowest taxonomic category is species and the highest taxonomic category is Kingdom. Ascending sequence of these categories are :
Organisms of lowest categcxy species shows similarity but as we go to higher level towards kingdom similar characters decrease and dis-similarities increase.

The Living World Class 11 Important Questions Objective Type

1. Choose the correct answers:

Question 1.
Binomial nomenclature system was proposed by:
(a) Darwin
(b) Carolus Linnaeus
(c) Hugo deVries
(d) Mendel.
Answer:
(b) Carolus Linnaeus

Question 2.
Author of ‘Genera Plantarum’ is :
(a) Bentham and Hooker
(b) Linnaeus
(c) Engler
(d) Prantle.
Answer:
(a) Bentham and Hooker

Question 3.
Naked seeds are formed in :
(a) Algae
(b) Pteridophytes
(c) Gymnosperm
(d) Angiosperm.
Answer:
(c) Gymnosperm

Question 4.
Which of the following is most primitive vascular plant:
(a) Red algae
(b) Fern
(c) Brown algae
(d) Lichens.
Answer:
(b) Fern

Question 5.
Basic unit of modern classification is :
(a) Species
(b) Genus
(c) Both
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Species

Question 6.
Classification given by Linnaeus was artificial because :
(a) It is based on evolutionary tradition
(b) Similarity and dissimilarity in floral and other morphological characters are taken
(c) It is based on functional characters
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Similarity and dissimilarity in floral and other morphological characters are taken

Question 7.
Phylogenetic classification is given on the basis of:
(a) Developmental history
(b) Floral similarities
(c) All morphological characters
(d) Increasing complexity.
Answer:
(a) Developmental history

Question 8.
Five kingdom classification was proposed by :
(a) Whittaker
(b) Hooker
(c) Bentham
(d) Linnaeus.
Answer:
(a) Whittaker

Question 9.
Where sample of plants are collected :
(a) Herbarium
(b) Museum
(c) Botanical garden
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Herbarium

Question 10.
Place where living plants are collected :
(a) Botanical garden
(b) Museum
(c) Herbarium
(d) Zoological park.
Answer:
(a) Botanical garden

Question 11.
Place where living animals are collected :
(a) Museum
(b) Zoological park
(c) Botanical garden
(d) Herbarium.
Answer:
(b) Zoological park

Question 12.
Two Kingdom classification was proposed by :
(a) Aristotle
(b) Linnaeus
(c) Birbal Sahni
(d) Whittakar.
Answer:
(b) Linnaeus

Question 13.
Viruses contain:
(a) DNA
(b) RNA
(c) DNA and RNA
(d)DNA or RNA.
Answer:
(d)DNA or RNA.

Question 14.
Genus is a group of interrelated :
(a) Families
(b) Species
(c) Order
(d) Genera.
Answer:
(b) Species

Question 15.
Organism represent connecting link between living and non-living organisms is:
(a) Protozoans
(b) Viruses
(c) Euglena
(d) Bacteria.
Answer:
(b) Viruses

Question 16.
Algae partner of Lichen is called as :
(a) Phycobiont
(b) Mycobiont
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Phycobiont

Question 17.
According to Binomial nomenclature name of any organism consists of:
(a) Three words
(b) Two words
(c) Five words
(d) One word.
Answer:
(b) Two words

Question 18.
Highest taxon of the classification is :
(a) Class
(b) Phylum
(c) Genus
(d) Species.
Answer:
(b) Phylum

2. Fill in the blanks:

(A)
1. The lowest taxonomic category is ………………
Answer:
Species

2. An intermediate category between genus and order is ………………
Answer:
Family

3. Linnaeus proposed the …………….. system of classification.
Answer:
Binomial

4. The scientific name of man is ……………..
Answer:
Homo sapiens

5. The artificial system of plant classification was proposed by ……………..
Answer:
Linnaeus

6. In biology the Binomial nomenclature were proposed by …………………..
Answer:
Carolus Linnaeus

7. Spiral chloroplast is characteristic feature of ……………. algae.
Answer:
Green

(B)

1. Hereditary material of viruses is …………………
Answer:
DNA or RNA

2. Genus is the group of interrelated ………………..
Answer:
Species

3. Basie unit of modem classification is ……………..
Answer:
Species

4. Who is known as father of classification ………………….
Answer:
Carolus Linnaeus

5. Naked seeds are found in …………………..
Answer:
Gymnosperm

6. Write the botanical name of Pea ………………….
Answer:
Pisum sativum

3. Match the following:

(A) Match the following :

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Five kingdom classification	(a) Evolutionary history
2. Species	(b) Carolus Linnaeus
3. Phylogeny	(c) Kinds and diversity of organism
4. Two kingdom classification	(d) R.N. Whittakar
5. Systematic	(e) Lowest taxonomic category.

Answer:
1. (d) R.N. Whittakar
2. (e) Lowest taxonomic category.
3. (a) Evolutionary history
4. (b) Carolus Linnaeus
5. (c) Kinds and diversity of organism

(B)

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Second category of classification	(a) Kingdom
2. Group of similar genus	(b) Phylum
3. Group of similar family	(c) Genus
4. Group of similar phylum	(d) Order
5. Group of similar classes	(e) Family.

Answer:
1. (c) Genus,
2. (e) Family.
3. (d) Order
4. (a) Kingdom
5. (b) Phylum

4. Write true or false:

1. Homo sapiens is the classification of cow.
Answer:
False

2. Basic unit of classification is species.
Answer:
True

3. Five kingdom classification was proposed by Aristotle.
Answer:
False

4. Plant vimses have RNA.
Answer:
True

5. Genus is the group of interrelated species.
Answer:
True

6. Human being belongs to class Insecta.
Answer:
False

7. Phylum is the group of similar classes.
Answer:
True

8. Scientific name of human is Mangifera indica.
Answer:
False

5. Answer in one word:

1. First word of scientific name.
Answer:
Generic name

2. The basic unit of classification.
Answer:
Species

3. Kingdom which includes all prokaryotic organisms.
Answer:
Kingdom-Monera

4. Kingdom which includes all unicellular organisms.
Answer:
Kingdom-Protista

5. Stored food in fungi.
Answer:
Glycogen

6. Connecting link of living and non-living organisms.
Answer:
Viruses

7. Study of evolutionary history of an organism.
Answer:
Phylogeny

8. Scientific name of human.
Answer:
Homo sapiens.

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Laxmi and the Doll Textual Questions and Answers

Word Power

A. Match the words under column A with the explanations given under B:
कॉलम A में दिए गए शब्दों से कॉलम B में दी गई व्याख्याओं से मिलान करो।।
Answer:
1 +8, 2+4,3+7,4+2,5+3,6 + 1,7+6,8+5.

B. Consult a dictionary and find out the synonyms of the given words:
किसी शब्दकोश में छोड़कर दिए गए शब्दों के समानार्थक शब्द ढूँदिए।
Answer:

1. clear, apparent
2. border, boundary
3. wealth, treasure,
4. grasped, embraced
5. assert, demand.

Comprehension

A. Answer the following questions in one or two sentences each.
नीचे दिये हुए प्रश्नों का एक या दो वाक्यों में उत्तर दीजिए।।

Question 1.
Where had Lakshmi’s husband gone ?
लक्ष्मी का पति कहाँ चला गया था ?
Answer:
He had gone to some foreign country.
वह किसी दूसरे देश में गया था।

Question 2.
How did she treat her mother-in-law ?
वह अपनी सास से कैसा व्यवहार करती थी ?
Answer:
She loved and respected her mother-in-law.
वह अपनी सास से प्यार करती थी और उनका सम्मान भी करती थी।

Question 3.
What did Lakshmi’s mother-in-law give her when she was dying? (2008)
मृत्यु के समय लक्ष्मी की सास ने उसे क्या दिया था ?
Answer:
Her mother-in-law gave her a wooden doll.
उसकी सास ने उसे एक लकड़ी की गुड़िया दी थी।

Question 4.
How did Lakshmi behave towards the doll? (2008, 10)
गुड़िया के प्रति लक्ष्मी का व्यवहार कैसा था ?
Answer:
She gave the same respect to it as she gave to her mother-in-law.
वह उसे वही सम्मान देती थी जो वह अपनी सास को देती थी।

Question 5.
Why did Lakshmi go to the jungle? (2009, 13, 15)
लक्ष्मी जंगल में क्यों गई थी ?
Answer:
She went to the jungle to collect firewood.
वह जंगल में जलाऊ लकड़ी लाने गई थी।

Question 6.
Why did she climb a tree?
वह पेड़ पर क्यों चढ़ी थी?
Answer:
She climbed the tree because it was safe to sit there during the night.
वह पेड़ पर इसलिए चढ़ी कि रात के समय वहाँ बैठना अधिक सुरक्षित था।

Question 7.
What did the robbers do under the tree that Lakshmi was sitting on ?
लक्ष्मी जिस पेड़ पर बैठी थी उसके नीचे डाकुओं ने क्या किया ?
Answer:
They sat under the tree and were dividing the loot.
वे पेड़ के नीचे बैठ कर लूट के माल का बंटवारा कर रहे थे।

Question 8.
Why did they argue ?
उनमें वाद-विवाद क्यों हुआ ?
Answer:
They argued because each one wanted a bigger share.
उनमें वाद-विवाद इस कारण हुआ क्योंकि प्रत्येक अधिक हिस्सा चाहता था।

Question 9.
Why did they flee?
वे क्यों भाग खड़े हुए ?
Answer:
When the doll struck the head of the leader of the group, they thought that they had been attacked.
जब गुड़िया दल के मुखिया के सिर पर गिरी तो वे समझे कि उन पर हमला हो गया है।

Question 10.
What happened to Lakshmi’s husband when he was returning home?
जब लक्ष्मी का पति वापस घर लौट रहा था तो उसके साथ क्या घटना घटी ?
Answer:
While he was passing through the jungle, three robbers looted his belongings.
जब वह जंगल से गुजर रहा था तो तीन डाकुओं ने उसका सारा सामान लूट लिया।

B. “True faith and devotion is the key to success.” Elaborate this statement keeping in view the story of Lakshmi. (2009, 12, 16)
लक्ष्मी की कहानी को ध्यान में रखते हुए इस कथन को सिद्ध करो-“सच्ची आस्था और समर्पण सफलता की कुंजी है।”
Answer:
Lakshmi had full faith in her mother-in-law. She was completely devoted to her and to the wooden doll given by her. The doll struck the head of the leader of the robbers at the right time. They got scared and ran away. This saved Lakshmi from being caught and harassed by them. Not only this, it was instrumental in retrieving her husband’s belongings which were looted by the robbers. Thus, we can say that true faith and devotion is the key to success.

लक्ष्मी को अपनी सास तथा उनके द्वारा दी गई गुड़िया पर पूरा भरोसा था और वह इनके प्रति पूर्णरूप से समर्पित थी। गुड़िया सही समय पर डाकुओं के मुखिया के सिर पर टकराई। इससे वे डर गये और भाग खड़े हुए। इसके कारण लक्ष्मी उनके द्वारा पकड़े जाने से बच गई। इतना ही नहीं, गुड़िया उसके पति का जो सामान डाकुओं ने लूट लिया था उसे वापस दिलाने का भी साधन बनी। अत: हम कह सकते हैं
कि सच्ची आस्था और समर्पण सफलता की कुंजी है।

Language Practice

इस खण्ड के मूल प्रश्न व तालिकाएँ अपनी पाठ्य-पुस्तक में से देखिए। यहाँ केवल उनके उत्तर दिए जा रहे हैं।

A. Change the following sentences into Future Continuous Tense.
निम्नलिखित वाक्यों को Future Continuous Tense में बदलो।।
Answer:

1. Vini will be coming on Sunday morning.
2. The train will be coming at 3p.m..
3. I shall be doing it in the afternoon.
4. Ravi will be going to school tomorrow.
5. Mikki will be playing with you in the evening.

B. Change the following sentences into Future Perfect Tense, using the
appropriate time adverbs. निम्नलिखित वाक्यों को Future Perfect Tense में बदलो।
Answer:

1. They will have done it.
2. Ravi will have flown it.
3. I shall have came there.
4. You will have made it.
5. They will have planned for this.

C. Complete the following sentences using the Future Perfect Continu ous form of the verb given in brackets.
निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में कोष्ठक में दी गई क्रिया को Future Perfect Continuous रूप भरकर पूरा करो।
Answer:

1. He will have been waiting for you for two hours.
2. They will have been watching television for an hour.
3. He will have been swimming all morning..
4. She will have been sleeping the whole night.
5. I will have been playing it for five days.

Laxmi and the Doll Summary in Hindi

लक्ष्मी तन्जौर के पास जंगल के किनारे एक छोटे से गाँव में अपनी सास के साथ रहती थी। कुछ वर्ष पूर्व उसका पति विदेश में अपना भाग्य आजमाने चला गया था। उस समय लक्ष्मी,बहुत दुखी हुई थी, लेकिन उसकी सास उसे बहुत चाहती थी। लक्ष्मी भी अपनी सास का बहुत सम्मान करती थी और उनकी आज्ञा के बिना कोई भी काम नहीं करती थी। वह छोटी-बड़ी सभी बातों के लिए उनकी स्वीकृति लेती थी। एक दिन लक्ष्मी की सास बीमार पड़ गई। लक्ष्मी ने उनकी खूब तीमारदारी की, किन्तु उनकी हालत बद से बदतर होती चली गई और लक्ष्मी समझ गई कि उनकी मृत्यु निकट है।

वह उनसे लिपट गई और रोते हुए बोली, “माँ, प्यारी माँ, मुझे छोड़कर मत जाओ।” इस पर लक्ष्मी की सास ने उसकी ओर देखा, उसे अपने समीप खींचा और प्यार किया फिर बोली, “तुम चिन्ता मत करो ‘यदि तुममें साहस हो तो तुम अपनी देखभाल भली प्रकार कर सकोगी। फिर तुम्हारे पति भी कुछ दिनों में आ जाएँगे और तुम उनके साथ सुख से रहेगी। मैं तुम्हारी मदद के लिए ये दिये जाती हूँ।” और उन्होंने अपने तकिए के नीचे से लकड़ी की एक गुड़िया निकाली और लक्ष्मी को दे दी, “अब से ये गुड़िया मेरा स्थान ग्रहण करेगी।”

कुछ समय पश्चात् लक्ष्मी की सास की मृत्यु हो गई और लक्ष्मी उनके द्वारा दी गई गुड़िया से भी वैसा ही व्यावहार करती रही जैसा अपनी सास से करती थी। हर काम करने से पूर्व वह गुड़िया से पूछती कि क्या वह अमुक काम कर सकती है और फिर अपने से ही कहती कि हाँ कर लो।
जब गुड़िया उसके पास होती थी तो वह आश्वस्त महसूस करती थी। इसी कारण वह उसे हमेशा अपने पास रखती थी।

एक दिन सन्ध्या के समय उसने देखा कि घर में चूल्हा जलाने के लिए लकड़ी नहीं है। तब उसने गुड़िया से पूछ, “माँ, क्या मैं लकड़ी लाने जंगल में जाऊँ।” ओर फिर उत्तर दिया, “हाँ, जाओ पर सतर्क रहना, रास्ता मत भूल जाना।” लक्ष्मी जंगल में गई और लकड़ी बीनते हुए जंगल में घूमती रही। अचानक आकाश में बादल छा गये, बिजली चमकने लगी, बादल गरजने लगे और पानी बरसना शुरू हो गया।

लक्ष्मी गुड़िया से पूछकर एक बड़े बरगद के पेड़ के नीचे बैठ गई। कुछ समय बाद बारिश बन्द हुई तो रात हो चुकी थी, सब ओर अन्धकार था। लक्ष्मी भयभीत हो गई। उसने गुड़िया से पूछा कि अन्धेरे में वह भटक सकती है, अत: क्या इस पेड़ पर चढ़कर वहीं रात बिताए तो गुड़िया ने उत्तर दिया कि हाँ, ऐसा ही करो, और वह पेड़ पर चढ़कर एक मोटी-सी डाल पर बैठ गई। आधी रात के समय कुछ लोग उस पेड़ के नीचे आकर बैठ गये। लक्ष्मी को डर लगा कि कहीं वे पेड़ पर तो नहीं चढ़ेंगे। इतने में उनमें से एक ने लालटेन जलायी और लक्ष्मी ने देखा कि वे तीन लोग हैं जो एक थैले में कुछ सामान लिए हैं। उन्होंने उस सारे सामान को जमीन पर डाला तो उसमें सोने-चांदी के आभूषण व सिक्के थे। स्पष्टतः वे लोग डाकू थे और यह लूट का माल था। उन्होंने उसका बँटवारा शुरू किया और विवाद में उलझ गये। उनमें से प्रत्येक ज्यादा हिस्से का दावा कर रहा था।

विवाद बढ़ा तो वे एक-दूसरे से लड़ने लगे। यह देखकर लक्ष्मी बहुत ज्यादा डर गई और काँपने लगी। उसने गुड़िया निकालकर पूछना चाहा कि अब वह क्या करे पर गुड़िया उसके हाथ से छूटकर नीचे बैठे डाकुओं के सरदार के सिर पर गिरी। वह जोर से चिल्लाया और उन तीनों ने समझा कि उन पर हमला हो गया है। वे डरकर सारा सामान वहीं छोड़कर भाग खड़े हुए। लक्ष्मी सारी रात पेड़ पर बैठी रही। सुबह हुई तो नीचे उतरकर अपनी गुड़िया ढूँढ़ने लगी। गुड़िया सिक्कों के ढेर में पड़ी मिली। लक्ष्मी ने उसे उठाया और उससे पूछा कि अब वह क्या करे ? क्या सारा सामान घर ले जाए तो गुड़िया ने उत्तर दिया कि हाँ वह सारा सामान घर ले जाए और उसे उसके मालिक को दे दे।

लक्ष्मी ने सारा सामान डाकुओं के थैले में भरा और लेकर घर पहुँची-उसे पता नहीं था कि उसका मालिक कौन है ? थोड़ी देर में किसी ने दरवाजे पर दस्तक दी। लक्ष्मी समझी कि उस सामान का मालिक उसे लेने आया है। उसने दरवाजा खोला तो देखा उसका पति सामने खड़ा था। पहले तो वह भौंचक-सी उसे देखती रही फिर झुककर उसके चरण छुए और बोली, “मैं तो डर गई थी कि उस सामान का मालिक शायद उसे लेने आया हैं।” इस पर पति ने पूछा, “कौन-सा सामान ?” इस पर लक्ष्मी ने उसे सारा सामान दिखाया। सामान देखते ही पति क्रोधित हो उठा।

उसे लगा कि उसकी पत्नी की उन डाकुओं से मिलीभगत है। वह घर छोड़कर जाने लगा। इस पर लक्ष्मी ने उसे रात का सारा किस्सा सुनाया। तब पति बोला कि जब वह घर लौट रहा था तब रात को रास्ते में तीन डाकुओं ते उससे वह सारा सामान लूट लिया था। इस पर लक्ष्मी ने कहा कि, “फिर यह सारा नसामान आपका है इस स्वीकार कीजिए।” पर पति बोला कि नहीं यह सारा सामान लक्ष्मी का है क्योंकि वह उसी के लिए तो इसे ला रहा था। और फिर उन्होंने अपना सारा जीवन सुखपूर्वक बिताया। -शंकर

Laxmi and the Doll Word Meanings of Difficult Words

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The Selfish Giant Textual Questions and Answers

Word Power

A Match the words in column A with their meanings in column B :
कॉलम A के शब्दों का कॉलम B में दिए गए अर्थों से मिलान करो।
Answer:
1+3,2+4,3+5,4+ 2,5 + 1.

B. Write down the opposite of the underlined words.
रेखांकित शब्दों के विलोम लिखो।
Answer:

1. hell
2. lost
3. walk fast
4. happy

Comprehension

A. Answer the following questions in one or two sentences each.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों का एक या दो वाक्यों में उत्तर दो।

Question 1.
When did the children play in the Giant’s garden? (2014)
दैत्य के बगीचे में बच्चे किस समय खेलते थे।
Answer:
The children played in the afternoon after coming from school.
बच्चे दोपहर बाद स्कूल से लौटने पर खेलते थे।

Question 2.
Why did the Giant build a high wall round his garden? (2010, 12, 13)
दैत्य ने अपने बगीचे के चारों ओर ऊँची दीवार क्यों बनाई ?
Answer:
The giant built a high wall round his garden to stop the children from entering it.
दैत्य ने अपने बगीचे के चारों ओर ऊंची दीवार इसलिए बनाई कि बच्चे उसमें प्रवेश न कर सकें।

Question 3.
Why was the little boy crying? (2009, 15)
छोटा बालक क्यों रो रहा था ?
Answer:
The little boy was crying because he was not able to climb up the tree.
छोटा बालक इसलिए रो रहा था क्योंकि वह पेड़ पर चढ़ने में समर्थ नहीं था।

Question 4.
Why was the Giant angry when he came near the child for the final time?
दैत्य जब अन्तिम बार उस छोटे बालक के समीप आया तो उसे गुस्सा क्यों आया था ?
Answer:
The giant became angry when he saw wounds on the palms and feet of the little boy.
दैत्य को जब बालक की हथेली और पंजों पर जख्म दिखाई दिये तो उसे गुस्सा आया था।

B. Answer the following questions in two to four sentences each.
निम्न प्रश्नों का दो से चार वाक्यों में उत्तर दीजिए।

Question 1.
Why is the Giant in the story called selfish ? (2008, 14, 16)
कहानी में दैत्य को स्वार्थी क्यों कहा गया है ?
Answer:
The giant is called selfish because he wanted the whole garden to himself. He did not allow the children to play in it. He even built a high wall in order to stop them from entering the garden.

दैत्य को स्वार्थी इसलिए कहा गया है क्योंकि वह पूरा बगीचा अपने लिए चाहता था। वह बच्चों को उसमें नहीं खेलने देता था। यहाँ तक कि उसने बगीचे के चारों ओर एक ऊँची दीवार भी बना दी जिससे बच्चे अन्दर आ सकें।

Question 2.
Why did spring not come to the Giant’s garden? (2008, 09) दैत्य के बगीचे में बसन्त क्यों नहीं आया ?
Answer:
Spring used to come to the giant’s garden when the children used to come and play there. When the children were stopped from coming and playing in the garden spring also decided not to come.

बसन्त बगीचे में उस समय आता था जब बच्चे वहाँ खेलने आया करते थे। जब बच्चों का बगीचे में आना और खेलना बन्द कर दिया गया तो बसन्त ने भी न आने का निर्णय कर लिया।

Question 3.
The Giant saw ‘a most wonderful sight’. Describe what he saw ?
दैत्य ने एक बहुत ही मनोहारी दृश्य देखा। वर्णन करिये कि उसने क्या देखा ?
Answer:
He saw that spring had come to his garden. The trees were in full blossom and there was no trace of snow and hail. He also saw children on every tree.

उसने देखा कि उसके बगीचे में बसन्त आ गया था। पेड़ फूलों से लद गये थे और बर्फ और ओलों का नामोनिशान नहीं था। उसे हर पेड़ पर बच्चे भी बैठे हुए दिखाई दिये।

Question 4.
Why did the Giant feel sad even when the children came regularly to play in his garden? (2011)
जब बच्चे उसके बगीचे में नियमित रूप से खेलने आने लगे तब भी दैत्य दुखी क्यों रहता था ?
Answer:
The giant felt sad because he could not find the small boy in their group. The giant loved him the most because he had put his small arms round his neck and had kissed him when he first saw him.

दैत्य इसलिए दुखी रहता था क्योंकि उनके बीच उसे वह नन्हा बालक नहीं दिखाई देता था। दैत्य उसे सबसे अधिक प्यार करता था क्योंकि जब दैत्य ने पहली बार उसे देखा था तो उसने दैत्य की गर्दन में अपनी बाँहें डालकर उसे चूम लिया था।

Question 5.
Who was the little boy ? Where did he take the Giant ? Why ? (2009, 15)
वह नन्हा बालक कौन था ? वह दैत्य को कहाँ ले गया ? क्यों ?
Answer:
The little boy was Jesus Christ himself. He took the giant to his garden, the paradise. He took the giant with him because the giant had anged completely. He wasn’t selfish any more and had started loving children and playing with them.

वह नन्हा बालक जीसस क्राइस्ट स्वयं थे। वे उस दैत्य को अपने बगीचे में ले गयेस्वर्ग में। वह दैत्य को अपने साथ इसलिए ले गये क्योंकि दैत्य पूरी तरह से बदल चुका था। वह अब बिलकुल स्वार्थी नहीं था और बच्चों से प्यार करने व उनके साथ खेलने लगा

C Explain what does the story teller mean by spring has forgotten this garden, the snow and the frost cried, “so we will live here all the year round.” (2009)
कहानीकार इस उक्ति से कि बर्फ और ओलों ने चिल्लाकर कहा कि बसन्त इस बगीचे को भूल गया है, अतः हम यहाँ पूरे साल रहेंगे क्या कहना चाहता है ? समझाइए।
Answer:
He means that when spring will not come to the garden there will be no change in the weather. Summer will not come because it follows – spring and autumn will not come because it follows summer. Hence, winter will remain all the year round. And so there will be snow and hail all the year round.

क्योंकि बसन्त उस बगीचे में नहीं आयेगा तो ऋतु में परिवर्तन भी नहीं होगा। ग्रीष्म ऋतु भी नहीं आयेगी क्योंकि वह तो बसन्त के बाद ही आती है और शरद ऋतु भी नहीं आयेगी क्योंकि वह ग्रीष्म के बाद आती है। अत: वहाँ बर्फ और ओले पूरे साल रहेंगे।

Language Practice

इस खण्ड के मूल प्रश्न व तालिकाएँ अपनी पाठ्य-पुस्तक में से देखिए। यहाँ केवल उनके उत्तर दिए जा रहे हैं।।

A. Apply the correct form of the verbs given in brackets.
कोष्ठक में दी गई क्रिया के उचित रूप भरो।
Answer:

1. speaks
2. cooks
3. work
4. go
5. tells
6. visits
7. goes
8. migrate
9. comes
10. get.

B.Frame questions using the words given in brackets.
दिए गए शब्दों में प्रश्न बनाओ।
Answer:

1. How often does Anita watch television ?
2. How often do you write to your parents ?
3. What time do you usually have dinner in the evening?
4. How often does this car breakdown ?

C. Fill in the blanks with the indefinite or continuous form of the present tense of the verbs given in brackets.
कोष्ठक में दी गई क्रियाओं के Present Indefinite या Present Continouns से खाली स्थान करो।
Answer:

1. rains
2. speaks, is speaking
3. is sleeping
4. is crying
5. is doing
6. is running
7. is repairing
8. points, wants
9. wake, have
10. is cooking.

D. Rearrange the words to make meaningful sentences.
शब्दों को व्यवस्थित करके उचित वाक्य बनाओ।
Answer:

1. They have left for Indore.
2. She has come.
3. They have seen a parrot in the garden.
4. He has passed in the examination.
5. You have insulted me.

E. Change the following sentences according to the instructions given in brackets.
कोष्ठक में दिए गए संकेतों के अनुसार वाक्य परिवर्तित करो।।
Answer:

1. He has not slept for five hours.
2. He has not built the bridge for several months.
3. Have they been playing since 4 o’clock ?
4. I have been doing my job for three years.

F. Rewrite the following putting the verbs into the present perfect continuous form.
निम्नलिखित में क्रियाओं को Present Perfect Continuous में लिखो।
Answer:

1. I have been living here since 1948.
2. I’m afraid you have been looking at the wrong one.
3. Have you been waiting long for me?
4. He has been working in the post office for twenty years.
5. Nobody has come to see us since we have been living in our new house.

The Selfish Giant Summary in Hindi

प्रतिदिन स्कल से आकर बच्चे एक दैत्य के बगीचे में खेला करते थे। वह बगीचा बहत बड़ा और सुन्दर था। उसमें बसन्त में खूब फूल खिलते थे, शरद में पेड़ फलों से लद जाया करते थे और चिड़ियाँ चहचहाती रहती थीं। बच्चे भी वहाँ बहुत खुश रहते थे। उस बगीचे का मालिक एक दैत्य था जो सात साल के लिए अपने नरभक्षी राक्षस मित्र के यहाँ गया था। एक दिन दैत्य वापस आया और बच्चों को बगीचे में खेलता हुआ पाया। इस पर वह बहुत क्रोधित हुआ। मेरा बगीचा मेरा अपना बगीचा है, वह मन ही मन बोला और उसने बगीचे के चारों ओर एक ऊँची दीवार खड़ी कर दी तथा बोर्ड लगा दिया-“अनधिकार प्रवेश करने वालों पर कानूनी कार्यवाही की जाएगी।” अब बेचारे बच्चे बहुत दु:खी रहने लगे। उन्हें खेलने के लिए कोई जगह नहीं थी। वे सोचते थे कि दैत्य के आने के पहले वे कितने सुखी थे।

कछ दिनों बाद सारे देश में बसन्त आया, फल खिले. चिड़ियाँ चहचहाने लगी लेकिन उस दैत्य के बगीचे में शीतकाल ही बना रहा। सारे बगीचे में बर्फ जमी रही और ओलों के तूफान आते रहे। उस साल बगीचे में न बर्फ पिघली, न फूल खिले और न चिड़ियाँ चहचहाई। दैत्य सोचने लगा, “बसन्त आने में इतनी देर क्यों हो रही है। शायद कुछ समय बाद मौसम बदलेगा।” लेकिन बसन्त नहीं आया, गरमी का मौसम भी नहीं आया-न बगीचे में फूल खिले न फल लगे।

ऐक दिन अचानक जब दैत्य अपने बिस्तर में पड़ा हुआ कुछ सोच रहा था कि उसे मधुर संगीत सुनाई दिया। एक छोटी-सी चिड़िया उसकी खिड़की के बाहर चहचहा रही थी। तभी उसे लगा कि उत्तर से आने वाली ठण्डी हवा रुक गई है, ओला वृष्टि थम गई है और खिड़की से मधुर-मधुर सुगन्ध आ रही है। दैत्य ने उठकर बाहर देखा-उसके सामने एक बहुत ही सुहावना दृश्य था। दीवार के भीतर बने एक छोटे से छेद से बच्चे बगीचे में आ गये थे। वे पेड़ों की शाखाओं पर चढ़कर बैठे थे। प्रत्येक पेड़ पर बच्चे दिख रहे थे और बच्चों को वापस पाकर पेड़ बहुत खुश थे-उन पर फूल खिल उठे थे, चिड़ियाँ चहचहाने लगी थी और हरी घास में भी फूल प्रस्फुटित हो उठे थे, किन्तु दूर के एक कोने में अभी भी बर्फ जमी थी। उसके नीचे एक नन्हा-सा बालक खड़ा था, वह पेड़ की शाखा तक नहीं पहुँच पा रहा था।

दैत्य इस सबको देखकर चकित था। उसके मन में अचानक विचार आया कि वह कितना स्वार्थी हो गया था। शायद बच्चों का बगीचे में आना बन्द कर देने से बसन्त ने भी वहाँ आने से इन्कार कर दिया था। जब उसकी समझ में यह बात आई तो वह बाहर निकलकर धीरे-धीरे बगीचे में गया। पर यह क्या ? बच्चों ने जैसे ही उसे देखा वे डरकर भाग गये और उनके जाते ही बगीचे में शीतकाल का मौसम लौट आया, किन्तु दूर कोने में वह नन्हा-सा बालक खड़ा रहा क्योंकि आँखों में भरे आँसुओं के कारण वह दैत्य को देख नहीं सका था। दैत्य चुपके-चुपके उसके पीछे पहुंचा और उसे उठाकर धीरे से पेड़ की शाखा पर बिठा दिया।

तभी पेड़ों पर बसन्त आ गया। चिड़ियाँ आकर उसकी शाखों पर बैठ गई और मधुर संगीत सुनाने लग। वह नन्हा-सा बालक भी अत्यधिक प्रसन्न हो उठा। उसने अपनी नन्हीं बर्हि दैत्य के गले में डाल दी और उसे चूम लिया। दूर खड़े बच्चों ने जब यह सब देखा तो उन्हें लगा कि दैत्य वास्तव में उतना दुष्ट नहीं है जितना वे सोचते थे। वे दौड़कर बगीचे में आ गये और उनके साथ ही लौट आया बसन्त भी। तब दैत्य बोला, “बच्चो अब से यह बगीचा तुम्हारा है।” और उसने दीवार गिरा दी। उधर से निकलने वाले लोग हैरत में थे दैत्य बच्चों के साथ खेल रहा था।

अब प्रतिदिन बच्चे आते, दैत्य के साथ खेलते और शाम को उससे विदा लेकर घर जाते। पर दैत्य को वह नन्हा बालक फिर नहीं दिखा। उसने बच्चों से पूछा तो उसे उत्तर मिला कि न तो उसे जानते हैं न ही उन्होंने उसे कभी देखा है। वर्ष बीतते गये और दैत्य बूढ़ा होकर कमजोर हो गया। अब वह बच्चों के साथ खेल पाने में असमर्थ था। अतः अपनी कुर्सी पर बैठा-बैठा उन्हें खेलता देख प्रसन्न होता रहता था। वह मन में सोचता “मेरे बगीचे में बहुत सुन्दर-सुन्दर फूल हैं पर सबसे सुन्दर फूल तो ये हँसते-खेलते बच्चे हैं।”

एक दिन शीतकाल के समय उसने अपनी खिड़की से बाहर देखा और जो उसने देखा उससे वह स्तब्ध रह गया। बगीचे में दूर एक कोने में फूल खिल रहे थे, फल लटक रहे थे और नीचे एक नन्हा बालक खड़ा था। वह जल्दी से बालक के पास गया और यह देखकर कि उसकी दोनों हथेलियों और पंजों पर कील ठोंकने के घाव और खून है गुस्से से आग-बबूला हो गया। उसने बालक से पूछा कि किसने उसे जख्मी करने की जुर्रत की है, जिसने यह किया है उसे वह मार डालेगा। नन्हें बालक ने उत्तर दिया, “नहीं, वह तो प्रेम के चिह हैं।

” यह सुनकर दैत्य को एक विचित्र से भय का अनुभव हुआ और वह उस बालक के सामने नतमस्तक हो गया। तब वह बालक मुस्कुराया और बोला, “एक दिन तुमने मुझे अपने बगीचे में खेलने दिया था, आज तुम मेरे बगीचे में चलोगे वह स्वर्ग है।” दोपहर बाद जब बच्चे बगीचे में खेलने पहुंचे तो उन्हें वह दैत्य मृत पड़ा हुआ मिला। -ऑस्कर वाइल्ड

The Selfish Giant Word Meanings of Difficult Words

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MP Board Class 11th English The Spectrum Solutions Chapter 4 The Shepherd

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The Shepherd Textual Questions and Answers

Word Power

A. Fill in the blanks with suitable words given.
[दिये गये खाली स्थानों में उचित शब्द भरो।।
Answer:

1. strays
2. tender
3. peace
4. nigh.

B. Write the opposites of the underlined words in the given sentences.
दिये गय वाक्यों में रेखांकित शब्दों के विलोम लिखो।
Answer:

1. sad
2. sorrow
3. awake
4. hates
5. grief.

Comprehension

A. Answer the following questions in one or two sentences each.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के एक या दो वाक्यों में उत्तर लिखो।।

Question 1.
What does the shepherd do all the day ? (2009, 12, 13)
गड़रिया दिन भर क्या करता है ?
Answer:
He follows his sheep.
वह अपनी भेड़ों का अनुगमन करता है।

Question 2.
When does he feel happy ?
वह कब आनन्द का अनुभव करता है ?
Answer:
He feels happy when the lamb calls and the ewe replies.
वह उस समय आनन्द का अनुभव करता है जब मेमना आवाज लगाता है और उसकी माँ उत्तर देती है।

Question 3.
When is the shepherd watchful ? (2009, 16)
गड़रिया कब सतर्क रहता है ?
Answer:
He is watchful when in the night, his sheep is resting in peace.
वह रात को सतर्क रहता है जब उसकी भेड़ शान्तिपूर्वक आराम कर रही होती हैं।

B. Answer the following questions in two to four sentences each.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों का दो से चार वाक्यों में उत्तर दो।

Question 1.
Why is the shepherd considered to be lucky? (2011)
गड़रिये को भाग्यशाली क्यों समझा गया ?
Answer:
The shepherd is considered to be lucky because he has got a sweet lot of sheep. Not only this, the sheep feel quite safe when under his charge.

गड़रिये को भाग्यशाली इसलिए कहा गया क्योंकि उसके पास एक प्यारा-सा भेड़ों का झुण्ड है। केवल यहीं नहीं, भेंड़ें भी उसके संरक्षण में पूर्ण रूप से सुरक्षित अनुभव करती है।

Question 2.
Why does he feel pleasure on hearing the lamb’s call and its mother’s response?’ (2009)
मेमने की आवाज और उसकी माँ के उत्तर को सुनकर वह आनन्द का अनुभव क्यों करता है ?
Answer:
He feels pleasure because the lamb’s call is very innocent. Moreover, the ewe’s reply is pretty tender.

वह इसलिए आनन्द का अनुभव करता है क्योंकि मेमने की आवाज अत्यन्त मासूमियत भरी होती है उसकी माँ का उत्तर प्यार भरा होता है।

Question 3.
Why is the lamb’s call described innocent?
मेमने की आवाज को मासूमियत भरी क्यों कहा गया है ?
Answer:
The lamb’s call is described as innocent because it is from a very young animal. At that age it is not supposed to be calculating. It is simply calling its mother.

मेमने की आवाज को इसलिए मासूमियत भरी कहा गया है क्योंकि वह एक बहुत छोटे से जानवर की आवाज है। इस आयु में उससे छल-कपट की आशा नहीं की जा सकती। वह तो मात्र अपनी माँ को पुकार रहा है।

Question 4.
What makes the mother’s response tender ?
उसकी माँ के उत्तर को स्नेहसिक्त क्यों कहा गया है ?
Answer:
The mother’s response is tender because she is responding to her offspring. She is expressing her love through it.

उसकी माँ के उत्तर को स्नेहसिक्त इसलिए कहा गया है क्योंकि वह अपनी सन्तान की पुकार का उत्तर दे रही है। उसके द्वारा वह अपना प्यार व्यक्त कर रही है।

Question 5.
Why does the sheep feel secure ? (2015)
भेड़ें सुरक्षित क्यों अनुभव करती हैं ?
Answer:
The sheep feel secure because their shepherd is near them. He is keeping a watchful eye and so they need not worry.

भेड़ें सुरक्षित इस कारण अनुभव करती हैं क्योंकि उनका गड़रिया उनके नजदीक है। वह उनकी रखवाली कर रहा है, इसलिए उन्हें भयभीत होने की कोई आवश्यकता नहीं है।

The Shepherd Hindi Translation

गड़रिये का शान्त समूह कितना आकर्षक है;
वह सुबह से शाम तक भ्रमण करता रहता है।
सारे दिन वह अपनी भेड़ों के पीछे चलता जाता है;
और उसके मुँह से सदा उनकी प्रशंसा ही निकलती है।
क्योंकि उसे भेड़ के बच्चे की मासूम पुकार सुनाई देती है;
और उसे उसकी माँ का सौम्य उत्तर भी सुनाई देता है।
वह सदैव सतर्क रहता है और वे चैन से बंधी रहती हैं।
क्योंकि वे जानती है कि उनका गड़रिया नजदीक ही है। -विलियम ब्लेक

The Shepherd Word Meanings of Difficult Words

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