Category: Class 12

MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 7 Issue and Redemption of Debentures

Issue and Redemption of Debentures Important Questions

Issue and Redemption of Debentures Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
X Ltd. bought assets worth Rs. 28,80,000. It issued debentures of Rs. 100 each at 4 % discount as purchase consideration. Number of debentures to be issued:
(a) 30,000
(b) 28,800
(c) 32,000
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) 30,000

Question 2.
Convertible debentures cannot be issued at discount if:
(a) They are to be converted immediately
(b) They are not to be converted immediately
(c) None of these.
Answer:
(a) They are to be converted immediately

Question 3.
Discount on issue of debentures will be shown in balance sheet under the heading:
(a) Profit / Loss statement
(b) Other non-current Assets
(c) Debenture Account
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Other non-current Assets

Question 4.
Excess of assets over liabilities at the time of purchasing a business is transferred to:
(a) General Reserve
(b) Capital Reserve
(c) Seller’s Account
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Capital Reserve

Question 5.
Own debentures means those debentures which the company:
(a) Issue to its promoters
(b) Issue to its director
(c) Purchase in open market as investment
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Purchase in open market as investment

Question 6.
Profit on cancellation of owned debentures is transferred to:
(a) Profit & Loss statement
(b) Debenture Redemption Reserve
(c) Capital Fund
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Capital Fund

Question 7.
When debentures are redeemed out of profit, then an equal amount is transferred to:
(a) General Reserve
(b) Debenture Redemption Reserve
(c) Capital Fund
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Debenture Redemption Reserve

Question 8.
In Debenture Redemption Reserve, Profit on the sale of Investment is credited to :
(a) Profit & loss statement
(b) Debenture Redemption Reserve Account
(c) General Reserve Account
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Profit & loss statement

Question 9.
Debentures can be redeemed by:
(a) Purchase in market
(b) Conversion into shares
(c) Change in Debenture
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 10.
Interest allowed on debenture is:
(a) Fixed
(b) Conversion into shares
(c) Accumulating
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Fixed

Question 11.
Balance of Debenture Redemption Reserve account is transferred after the redemption of all the debentures:
(a) Capital Reserve
(b) General Reserve
(c) Profit & Loss Appropriation A/c
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) General Reserve

Question 12.
Debenture holders come under the category of: (MP 2010,13,15)
(a) Owners
(b) Creditors
(c) Debtors
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Creditors

Question 13.
Debentures which may be transferred by more delivery:
(a) Secured
(b) Bearer
(c) Ordinary
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Bearer

Question 14.
The unpaid calls of debentures is called as:
(a) Calls in arrears
(b) Calls in advance
(c) Prepaid calls
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Calls in arrears

Question 15.
The fixed liability of a company is to pay to debenture:
(a) Profit
(b) Interest
(c) rent
(d) Commission.
Answer:
(b) Interest

Question 16.
Income from debentures is:
(a) Fixed
(b) Not fixed
(c) More
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Fixed

Question 17.
For the company, discount on issue of debenture is a: (MP 2009 Set A)
(a) Fictitious asset
(b) Liabilities
(c) Loss
(d) Real asset.
Answer:
(a) Fictitious asset

Question 18.
Kinds of debentures is/are :
(a) One
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Two
Answer:
(c) Four

Question 19.
Period of payment of internet on debenture is:
(a) 3 months
(b) 6 months
(c) 1 years
(d) Any time
Answer:
(b) 6 months

Question 20.
The amount of discount on issue of debenture is:
(a) Capital loss
(b) Revenue loss
(c) Capital expenditure
(d) Revenue expenditure.
Answer:
(a) Capital loss

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. Payment to debentures is done in the of company.
2. The debentures which are redeemed first before paying any other type of debentures
   are called
3. Debenture holders does not interfere in of company. (MP 2013, IS, 17)
4. Debentures are generally issued for
5. Generally interest on debenture is paid after expiry of a period of months. (MP 2009 A)
6. Redemption of debenture means of the amount of debenture by the company.
7. Creditors are company’s
8. Debentures which can be changed into shares are called (MP 2014)
9. Debentures is a written of debt. (MP 2016)

Answer:

1. life time
2. first debentures
3. management
4. cash
5. six
6. payment or redemption
7. first debentures
8. convertible debentures
9. acknowledgement.

Question 3.
Match the following

Answer:

1. (e) Registered debentures
2. (d) Secured debentures (MP 2013)
3. (c) Convertible debentures (MP 2013)
4. (b) Redeemable debentures (MP 2014)
5. (a) Preferred
6. (f) Debenture. (MP 2011)

Answer:

1. (e) Creditors of a company (MP 2017)
2. (g) Fictitions assets.
3. (b) Capital received
4. (a) 10%
5. (c) Secured loan

Question 4.
Write true or false:

1. A debenture is a written document issued with the company’s seal acknowledging a debt.
2. Debentures are part of owner’s equity.
3. Interest paid on debentures is paid out of the company’s profit.
4. Debentures cannot be issued at discount more than 10% of its face value.
5. Redeemable debentures are those debentures which are paid after a specific period.
6. Fixed debentures are also known as irredeemable debentures.
7.  Debentures cannot be converted into shares.
8. Debentures cannot be issued at premium.
9. A pledged security is an assistance security.
10. Loss on issue of debenture is a revenue loss.
11. Debenture holders are the owners of a company.
12. Debenture holders received interest at a fixed rate.
13.  When calls amount is not received in debentures, then it is forfeited.
14. Debentures are also issued for other consideration apart from cash. (MP 2013)
15. Company’s debenture is generally transferable. (MP 2009 Set A)
16. Debenture holders get dividend at fixed rate. (MP 2010)
17. Interest is paid on debentures only in case of profit.
18. Debenture holders are called share holders of a company. (MP 2011,15)
19. Mortgaged debentures are called secured debentures. (MP 2016)
20. The nature of debentures is that of short period loan. (MP 2016)
21. Debenture can be redeemed on premium. (MP 2017)

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4.  True
5. True
6. True
7. False
8. False
9. True
10. False
11. False
12. True
13. False
14. True
15. True
16. False
17. False
18. False
19. True
20. False
21. True.

Question 5.
Write the answer in one word/sentence:

1. Name the document which either creates a debt or acknowledges it.
2. Name the debentures which may be redeemed only at the time of winding up. (MP 2010)
3.  Purchase consideration – Net Assets = ?
4. Issue of debentures of Rs. 100 at Rs. 125 and the difference 25 is called as.
5. What are those debentures called whose name are registered in the company’s register? (MP 2009 Set A)
6. Name the debentures which can be converted into shares. (MP 2010)
7. What are those debentures called which are transferred by more delivery.
8. How many debenture will be issued @ Rs. 100 each when a company purchased a building at a cost of 5 lakhs ? (MP 2011)
9. Issue of debentures of Rs. 100 at Rs. 95 and the differences of Rs. 5 is called as. (MP 2013)
10. Documents issued for long-term loan are called.

Answer:

1. Debentures
2. Irredeemable debentures
3. Goodwill
4. Premium
5. Registered debentures
6. Convertible debentures
7. Bearer debentures
8. 5000 debentures
9. Discount
10. Debenture.

Issue and Redemption of Debentures Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by debenture ?
Answer:
Debenture is a written certificate for taking loan from the public by the company on which the company put its seal and interest is paid at a predetermined rate on a fixed date.

Question 2.
What do you mean by bearer debentures ?
Answer:
The debentures which are transferable by simply delivery are called bearer debentures. The payment of it is made to the holder of it. No provision is maintained for the issue of such debentures.

Question 3.
What do you mean by Redeemable debentures ?
Answer:
The debentures which are repayable after a stipulated period or after a fixed date is called redeemable debentures.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Irredeemable debentures ?
Answer:
The debentures which are not redeemable during the lifetime of the company are called irredeemable debentures.

Question 5.
What do you mean by Secured debentures ?
Answer:
The debentures that are issued against the security, some specific assets or all the assets of the company are known as secured debentures. The assets undercharged cannot be sold without the consent of the debenture holders or till the time such debentures are re¬deemed completely.

Issue and Redemption of Debentures Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by debentures ? When can debentures be issued ?
Answer:
The word debenture is derived from the Latin word ‘Debere’ which means to owe. The term debenture is used to signify the acknowledgement of a debt given under the seal of the company and containing a contract for the repayment of the principal sum at a specified date and for the payment of interest at a fixed rate until the principal sum is repaid.

Whenever a company needs funds for a long period it can issue, debenture on the security of its assets, as an acknowledgement of debt from the public. It can be done in open market and applications can be invited. The person who buys debentures is called debenture holder.

Question 2.
Explain advantages of debentures to the company.
Answer:
Following are the advantages of issuing debenture :

1. Sufficient funds are raised : At the event of need of additional capital, a company may raise sufficient fund through issuing of debentures to the public.

2. No intervention in management: A debenture holder has no right to intervene in the management of the company since they do not enjoy voting right.

3. Fixed rate of interest: The rate of interest to be allowed on debentures is fixed at the time of issuing debentures. Hence, a company may make appropriate arrangement to pay interest in advance.

4. More dividends to shareholders : Due to issuing of debentures to full fill the need of additional capital, the shareholders may get more dividend since paying of interest to debenture holders costs cheaper than paying dividend, had the company issued additional shares to cater the need of additional capital.

5. Convenience in repayment: A company may conveniently arrange for the repayment of debentures to be made after a specific period of time.

Question 3.
How many types of debentures are there ? Any four.
Answer:
The following are the types of debentures :

1. Redeemable debenture
2. Irredeemable debenture
3. Bearer debenture
4. Registered debenture
5. Mortgaged debenture
6. Unsecured debenture
7.  Convertible debenture
8. Non-convertible debenture.

Question 4.
Differentiate between a shareholder and a debenture holder.
Answer:
The differences between a shareholder and a debenture holder:

Question 5.
Explain secured and unsecured debentures.
Answer:
1. Secured debentures:
The debentures that are issued against the security, some specific or all the assets of the company are known as secured debentures. In other words, such debentures create charge on the assets of the company. Sometimes such charge may be a floating charge on all assets of the company. The assets undercharge cannot be sold without the consent of the debenture holders or till the time such debentures are redeemed completely.

2. Simple, naked or unsecured debentures:
Such debentures are not issued against the security of the assets of the company. Since, no security is placed for issuing such debentures, they are known as simple, naked or unsecured debentures. The holders of unsecured debentures come under the category of unsecured creditors. From the point of view of security, such debentures are very risky since on such debentures the company gives mere promise to pay the interest and to repay the principal sum when it is matured.

Question 6.
What do you mean by convertible and non-convertible debentures ?
Answer:
From Convertibility Point of View :
1. Convertible debentures:
The debentures for which the holders are given option to convert them into preference or equity shares within a stipulated period at a prescribed rate of exchange are called convertible debentures. Such debentures are popular among the companies because it may provide a permanent important source of capital.

2. Non-convertible debentures:
The debentures for which the holders have no option to convert into preference or equity shares are known as non convertible debentures. Generally, high rate of interest is allowed on such debentures. Such debentures are entirely redeemed on the date of their maturity.

Question 7.
Explain the methods of redemption of debentures.
Answer:
The method of redemption of debentures are as follows :

1. Lump sum Payment method
2. Annual installment payment method
3. Purchase in the open market.
4. Conversion method
5. Under the below mentioned condition, these rules are not applicable.
   • Where the maturity period of debentures is not more than 18 months
   • Where the debentures are issued to the authorized company.

Question 8.
Explain the essential characteristics of debentures.
Answer:
The essential characteristics of debentures are :

1. A debenture is a certificate of debt.
2. The company acknowledges the debt to the holders of the debentures by issuing debenture certificate.
3. Debenture is a convenient means of external borrowings.
4. A debenture includes debenture, stock, bonds or any of the security.
5. A debenture contains the provision for payment of interest at regular intervals on fixed dates.
6. A debenture contains the provision for repayment of the principal sum on due date.

Question 9.
What are the things kept in mind while redemption of debenture.
Answer:
Following things are kept in mind while redeeming the debenture :

• Redemption fund should be made.
• The amount of that fund utilize only that way what ever is redemption fund is created for.
• It is compulsory for each and every company to deposit 50% amount issued amt.
• Time of redemption amount should be arranged.

Question 10.
State the meaning of ‘Debentures issued as a collateral security’.
Answer:
The term collateral security means additional or secondary security in addition to the primary security. Sometimes, when a company takes loan from a financial institution, then besides the primary security, the company may issue debenture for additional security (as collateral security). The under who receives debenture as collateral security debenture is not entitled for interest on these debentures.

If any default is made by the company in paying back the principal amount or in interest on the loan, then the lender has the right to recover his dues from the amount the sale of primary security. But, if the primary security is not sufficient to recover the amount of the debt, then the debentures issued as collateral may be used for recovery of the remaining amount.

Question 11.
What do you mean by issue of debentures on discount and redemption on premium ?
Answer:
In this situation the company issue debentures at lesser than its face value but redeems them at higher than its face value. In this case company incurs loss both at the time of issue and at the time of redemption. The entries are as follows:

Bank A/c – Dr.
Discount on Issue of Debenture A/c – Dr.
Loss on issue of Debenture A/c
To Debenture A/c
To premium on Redemption of deb. A/c (Being issue of Debenture at discount and repayable at premium).

Issue and Redemption of Debentures Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
State the types of debentures. Explain any five.
Answer:
A company may issue following types of debentures:

1. Redeemable debentures.
2. Irredeemable debentures
3. Registered debentures
4. Simple debentures
5. Bearer debentures
6. Mortgaged or Secured debentures
7. Convertible debentures
8. Collateral debentures
9. Right debentures.

1. Registered Debentures:
The debentures which are entered in the register of the company and are payable only to the registered holders are known as registered debentures. The interest on these debentures is payable to the registered holder. Such debentures cannot be transferred by mere delivery.

2. Bearer Debentures:
Such debentures can be transferred merely by delivery with-out any legal formalities. There are payable to the bearer or holder.

3. Redeemable Debentures:
The debentures which are repayable after a fixed period are called redeemable debentures.

4. Simple or Naked Debentures:
The debentures which have no security of payment of the principal and interest are called simple or naked debentures.

5. Right Debentures:
If a company issues debentures after 2nd August, 1979, first of all the existing shareholders have a right to subscribe. Such debentures are known as right debentures.

Question 2.
Differentiate between debenture and share.
Answer:
Differences between share and debenture:

Question 3.
Mention the advantages of issue of debentures to the company.
Answer:
Following are the advantages of issuing debentures:

1. Sufficient funds are raised:
At the event of need of additional capital a company may raise sufficient fund through issuing of debentures to the public.

2. No intervention in management:
A debenture holder has no right to intervene in the management of the company since they do not enjoy voting right.

3. Fixed rate of interest:
The rate of interest to be allowed on debentures is fixed at the time of issuing debentures. Hence, a company may make appropriate management to pay interest in advance.

4. More dividends to shareholders:
Due to issuing of debentures to full fill the need of additional capital, the shareholders may get more dividend since paying of interest to debenture holders costs cheaper than paying dividend, had the company issued additional shares to cater the need of additional capital.

5. Convenience in repayment:
A company may conveniently arrange for the repayment of debentures to be made after a specific period of time.

Question 4.
What is issue of debentures at par, at premium or at discount? Show the journal entries in each case.
Answer:
1. Issue of debentures at par:
When the debentures are issued at the face value of the debenture, it is called issue of debentures at par. For example, debenture of Rs. 100 is issued at the same value.

Journal Entry
Bank Account – Dr.
To Debenture Account
(Being cash received on debenture issue)

2. Issue of debentures at premium:
When the debentures are issued more than its face value, it is said to be issue of debentures at premium. For Example, Debentures of Rs. 100 is issued for Rs. 120. Here, Rs. 20 is premium. Generally the premium amount is collected along with allotment.

Journal Entry
Debenture Allotment A/c – Dr.
To Debenture A/c To Debenture Premium A/c (Being the debenture issued at premium)

3. Issue of debentures at discount:
When the debentures are issued less than its face value is called issue of debentures at a discount, e.g., Debenture of Rs. 100, issued for Rs. 90. Here, Rs. 10 is discount.

Journal Entry
Debenture Allotment A/c – Dr.
Debenture Discount A/c – Dr.
To Debenture A/c
(Being the debenture issued at discount)

MP Board Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions

MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids

Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids NCERT Intext Exercises

Question 1.
Write the structures of the following compounds:
(i) a-Methoxypropionaldehyde
(ii) 3-HydroxybutanaI
(iii) 2-Hydroxycyclopentane carbaldehyde
(iv) 4-Oxopentanal
(v) Di -sec. butyl ketone
(vi) 4-Fluoroacetophenone.
Answer:

Question 2.
Write the structures of products of the following reactions :

Answer:

Question 3.
Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their boiling points:
CH₃CHO,CH₃CH₂OH, CH₃OCH₃, CH₃CH₂CH₃.
Answer:
CH₃CH₂CH₃ < CH₃OCH₃ < CH₃CHO < CH₃CH₂OH.
This order can be predicted on the basis of inter-molecular force operating between them, these are having comparable molecular mass. CH₃CH₂OH undergoes the strongest H- bonding. In CH₃OCH₃ and CH₃CHO dipole-dipole attraction is more in CH₃CHO, since CH₃CHO is more polar than CH₃OCH₃ therefore its boiling point is more than CH₃—O—CH₃. Propane being non-polar therefore, weak van der Waals’ forces exist between them.

Question 4.
Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their reactivity in nucleophilic addition reactions :
(i) Ethanal, Propanal, Propanone, Butanone.
(ii) Benzaldehyde, p-Tolualdehyde, p-Nitrobenzaldehyde, Acetophenone.
Hint: Consider steric effect and electronic effect.
Answer:
(i) Butanone < Propanone < Propanal < Ethanal.
This order is predicted on the basis of two factor : (a) + I effect (Electron releasing effect) and (b) Steric effect.

(ii) Acetophenone < p-tolualdehyde < Benzaldehyde < p-nitrobenzaldehyde.
This order is predicted on the basis of inductives, resonance and hyperconjugation effect.

Question 5.
Predict the products of the following reactions:

Answer:

Question 6.
Give the IUPAC names of the following compounds:

Answer:
(i) 3-Phenylpropanoic acid
(ii) 3-Methylbut-2-en-l-oic acid
(iii) 2-Methylcyclopentanecarboxylic acid
(iv) 2,4,6-Trinitrobenzoic acid or 2,4,6-Trinitrobenzenecarboxylic acid.

Question 7.
Show how each of the following compounds can be converted to benzoic acid:
(i) Ethylbenzene
(ii) Acetophenone
(iii) Bromobenzene and
(iv) Phenylethene (Styrene).
Answer:

Question 8.
Which acid of each pair shown here would you expect to be stronger ?
(i) CH₃CO₂H or CH₂FCO₂H
(ii) CH₂FCO₂H or CH₂ClCO₂H
(iii) CH₂FCH₂CH₂CO₂H or CH₃CHFCH₂CO₂H

Answer:
(i) FCH₂COOH (due to -I effect of F)
(ii) FCH₂CO₂H (due to much stronger -I effect of F over Cl)
(iii) CH₃CHFCH₂COOH (Inductive effect decreases with distance i. e. 3-fluorobutanoic acid is stronger than 4-fluorobutanoic acid)

Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids NCERT Textbook Exercises

Question 1.
What is meant by the following terms ? Give an example of the reaction in each case:
(i) Cyanohydrin
(ii) Acetal
(iii) Semicarbazone
(iv) Aldol
(v) Hemiacetal
(vi) Oxime
(vii) Ketal
(vii) Imine
(ix) 2,4-DNP-derivative
(x) Schiff’s base.
Answer:
(i) Cyanohydrin: Cyanohydrins are organic compounds having the formula RR’C(OH)CN, where R and R’ can be alkyl or aryl groups.

Aldehydes and ketones react with hydrogen cyanide (HCN) in the presence of excess sodium cyanide (NaCN) as a catalyst to field cyanohydrin. These reactions are known as cyanohydrin reactions.

Cyanohydrins are useful synthetic intermediates.

(ii) Acetal: Acetals are gem-dialkoxy alkanes two alkoxy groups are present on the terminal carbon atom. One bond is connected to an alky l General structure group while the other is connected to a hydrogen atom.

When aldehydes are treated with two equivalents of a monohydric alcohol in the presence of dry HCl gas, hemiacetals are produced that further react with one more molecule of alcohol to yield acetal.

(iii) Semicarbazone : Semicarbazones are derivatives of aldehydes and ketones pro¬duced by the condensation reaction between a ketone or aldehyde and semicarbazide.

Semicabazones are useful for identification and characterisation of aldehydes and ktones.

(iv) Aldol condensation : Two same or different molecules of carbonyl compounds containing a-hydrogen atom in presence of dilute alkali like NaOH, Ba(OH)₂, combined to form an addition compound which exhibits properties of aldehyde and ketone both. This reaction is called aldol condensation.

For example, in presence of dilute alkali NaOH or potassium carbonate, two molecules of acetaldehyde condensed and form β-hydroxybutanaldehyde or ‘aldol’.

(v) Hemiacetal: Hemiacetals are a-alkoxyalcohols.

Aldehyde reacts with one molecule of a monohydric alcohol in the presence of dry HCl gas.

(vi) Oxime: Oximes are a class of organic compounds having the general formula RR’CNOH, where R is an organic side chain and R’ is either hydrogen or an organic side chain, If R’ is H, then it is known as aldoxime and if R’ is an organic side chain, it is known as ketoxime.

On treatment with hydroxylamine in a weakly acidic medium, aldehydes or ketones formaximes.

(vii) Ketal: Ketals are gem-dialkoxyalkanes in which two alkoxy groups are present on the same carbon atom within the chain. The other two bonds of the carbon atom are connected to two alkyl groups.

Ketones react with ethylene glycol in the presence of dry HCl gas to give a cyclic product known as ethylene glycol ketals.

(viii) Inline : Imines are chemical compounds containing a carbon nitrogen double bond.

Imines are produced when aldehydes and ketones react with ammonia and its derivatives.

(ix) 2,4-DNP-derivative: 2,4-dinitrophenyIhydrazones are 2,4- DNP- derivatives, which are produced when aldehydes or ketones react with 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine in a weakly acidic medium.

To identify and characterize aldehydes and ketones, 2,4-DNP derivatives are used.

(x) Schiff’s base : SchifFs base (or azomethine) is a chemical compound containing a carbon-nitrogen double bond with the nitrogen atom connected to an aryl or alkyl group but not hydrogen. They have the general formul R₁R₂C = NR₃. Hence, it is an imine. It is named after a scientist, Hugo Schiff.

Aldehydes and ketones on treatment with primary aliphatic or aromatic amines in the presence of trace of an acid yields a Schiff’s base.

Question 2.
Name the following compounds according to IUPAC system of nomenclature :

1. CH₃CH(CH₃)CH₂CH₂CHO
2. CH₃CH₂COCH(C₂H₅)CH₂Cl
3. CH₃CH=CHCHO
4. CH₃COCH₂COCH₃
5. CH₃CH(CH₃)CH₂C(CH₃)₂COCH₃
6. (CH₃)₃CCH₂COOH
7. OHCC₆H₄CHO-p.

Answer:

1. 4-Methylpentanal
2. 6-Chloro-4-ethylhexan-3-one
3. But-2-en-l-al
4. Pentan-2, 4-dione
5. 3,3,5-Trimethylhexan-2-one
6. 3,3-Dimethylbutanoic acid
7. Benzene-1,4-dicarbaldehyde.

Question 3.
Draw the structures of the following compounds :
(i) 3-MethylbutanaI
(ii) p-Nitropropiophenone
(iii) p-Methylbenzaldehyde
(iv) 4-Methylpent-3-en-2-one
(v) 4-Chloropentan-2-one
(vi) 3-Bromo-4-phenylpentanoic acid
(vii) p, p’-Dihydroxybenzophenone
(viii) Hex-2-en-4-ynoic acid.
Answer:

Question 4.
Write the IUPAC names of the following ketones and aldehydes. Wherever possible, give also common names :

Answer:

Question 5.
Draw structures of the following derivatives :
(i) The 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazone of benzaldehyde
(ii) Cyclopropanone oxime
(iii) Acetaldehydedimethylacetal
(iv) The semicarbazone of cyclobutanone
(v) The ethylene ketal of hexan-3-one
(vi) The methyl hemiacetal of formaldehyde.
Answer:

Question 6.
Predict the products formed when cyclohexanecarbaldehyde reacts with following reagents:
(i) PhMgBr and then H₃O⁺
(ii)Toilens’ reagent
(iii) Semicarbazide and weak acid
(iv) Excess ethanol and acid
(v) Zinc amalgam and dilute hydrochloric acid.
Answer:

Question 7.
Which of the following compounds would undergo aldol condensation, which the Cannizzaro reaction and which neither ? Write the structures of the expected products of aldol condensation and Cannizzaro reaction :
(i) Methanal
(ii) 2-MethyIpentanal
(iii) Benzaldehyde
(iv) Benzophenone
(v) Cyclohexanone
(vi) 1-Phenylpropanone
(vii) Phenylacetaldehyde
(viii) Butan-l-ol
(ix) 2,2-DimethylbutanaI.
Answer:
(A) (ii) 2-methylpentanal, (v) Cyclohexanone, (vi) 1-phenylpropanone and (vii) Phenylacetaldehyde have one or more a-hydrogen atoms and hence undergo aldol condensation.

(B) (i) Methanal, (iii) Benzaldehyde and (ix) 2,2-Dimethylbutanal do not contain a- hydrogen and hence undergo Cannizzaro’s reaction.

(C) (iv) Benzophenone is a ketone having no a-H.
(viii) Butan-l-ol is an alcohol.
Both of these neither undergo aldol Condensation nor Cannizzaro reaction.

Question 8.
How will you convert ethanal into the following compounds :
(i) Butane-1,3-diol
(ii) But-2-enal
(iii) But-2-enoic acid.
Answer:

Question 9.
Write structural formulae and names of four possible aldol condensation products from propanal and butanal. In each case, indicate which aldehyde acts as nucleophile and which as electrophile.
Answer:

Butanal acts both as electrophile as well as nucleophile.

Question 10.
An organic compound with the molecular formula C₉H₁₀O forms 2, 4- DNP derivative, reduces Tollens’ reagent and undergoes Cannizzaro reaction. On vig-orous oxidation, it gives 1,2-benzene-dicarboxylic acid. Identify the compound.
Answer:

Question 11.
An organic compound (A) (molecular formula C₈H₁₆O₂) was hydrolysed with dilute sulphuric acid to give a carboxylic acid (B) and an alcohol (C). Oxidation of (C) with chromic acid produced (B). (C) on dehydration gives but-1- ene. Write equations for the reactions involved.
Answer:

Question 12.
Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their property as indicated :
(i) Acetaldehyde, Acetone, Di-tert-butyl ketone, Methyl terf-butyl ketone (reactivity towards HCN)
(ii) CH₃CH₂CH(Br)COOH, CH₃CH(Br) CH₂COOH, (CH₃)₂CHCOOH, CH₃CH₂-CH₂COOH (acid strength)
(iii) Benzoic acid,’4-Nitrobenzoic acid, 3,4 Dinitrobenzoic acid, 4-Methoxybenzoic acid (acid strength).
Answer:
(i) The reactivity towards HCN addition decreases as the +1 effect of the alkyl groups increases.
Di-tert-butyl ketone < MethyL tert-butyl ketone < Acetone < Acetaldehyde.

(ii) +I effect decreases whereas —I effect increases the acidic strength of -COOH group. Further -I effect decreases with distance.
(CH₃)₂CHCOOH < CH₃CH₂CH₂COOH < CH₃-CH(Br)CH₂COOH < CH₃CH₂CH(Br)COOH.

(iii) Electron donating group decreases the acidic strength whereas electron withdrawing effect increases the acidic strength.
4-Methoxybenzoic acid < Benzoic acid < 4 Nitrobenzoic acid < 3,4-Dinitrobenzoic acid.

Question 13.
Give simple chemical tests to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds :
(i) Propanal and Propanone
(ii) Acetophenone and Benzophenone
(iii) Phenol and Benzoic acid
(iv) Benzoic acid and Ethyl benzoate
(v) Pentan-2-one and Pentan-3-one
(vi) Benzaldehyde and Acetophenone
(vii) Ethanal and Propanal.
Answer:
(i) Add Tollens’ reagent. Propanal will form silver mirror on heating, propanone will not react.
Alternative method : Add I₂ and NaOH propanone will give yellow ppt. due to iodoform whereas propanal will not react.

(ii) Add I₂ and NaOH. Acetophenone will give yellow ppt. of CHI₃ whereas benzophenone will not give.

(iii) Add neutral FeCl₃ to each of them separately. Phenol will give violet colour whereas benzoic acid will not react.
Alternative method : Add NaHCO₃ to each of them in aqueous solution. Benzoic acid will give brisk effervescence of CO₂ while phenol will not react.

(iv) Add NaHCO₃ solution to each of them. Benzoic acid will give brisk effervescence due to CO₂ whereas ethylbenzoate does not react.

(v) Add I₂ and NaOH each of them separately. Pentan-2-one will give yellow ppt. of CHI₃. Pen-tan-3-one will not.

(vi) Add Tollens’ reagent. Benzaldehyde will give silver mirror on heating, Acetophenone will not react.

(vii) Add I₂ and NaOH. Ethanal will give yellow precipitate of iodoform, whereas propanal does not.

Question 14.
How will you prepare the following compounds from benzene ? You may use any inorganic reagent and any organic reagent having not more than one carbon atom:
(i) Methyl benzoate
(ii) m-Nitrobenzoic acid
(iii) p-Nitrobenzoic acid
(iv) Phenylacetic acid
(v) p-Nitrobenzaldehyde.
Answer:

Question 15.
How will you bring about the following conversions in not more than two steps :
(i) Propanone to Propene
(ii) Benzoic acid to Benzaldehyde
(iii) Ethanol to 3-HydroxybutanaI
(iv) Benzene to m-Nitroacetophenone
(v) Benzaldehyde to Benzophenone
(vi) Bromobenzene to l-Phenylethanol
(vii) Benzaldehyde to 3-Phenylpropan-l-ol
(viii) Benazaldehyde to a-Hydroxy-phenylacetic acid
(ix) Benzoic acid to m-Nitrobenzyl alcohol.
Answer:

Question 16.
Describe the following :
(i) Acetylation
(ii) Cannizzaro
(iii) Cross-aldol condensation
(iv) Decarboxylation
Answer:
(i) Acetylation: The introduction of an acetyl functional group into an organic r compound is known as acetylation. It is usually carried out in the presence of a base such as pyridine, dimethylaniline, etc. This process involves the substitution of an acetyl group for an active hydrogen atom. Ecetyl chloride and acetic anhydride are commonly used as acetylating agents.

For example, acetylation of ethanol produces ethyl acetate.
CH₃CH₂OH + CH₃COCI → CH₃COOC₂H₅ + HCl

(ii) Cannizzaro reaction: Aldehydes which do not contain a-hydrogen like HCHO, C₆H₅CHO react with cone. NaOH solution to form methyl alcohol and formic acid. This reaction is called Cannizzaro reaction.

(iii) Cross-aldol condensation: When aldol condensation is carried out between different aldehydes or two different ketones or an aldehyde and a ketone, then the reaction is called a cross-aldol condensation. If both the reactants contain cr-hydrogens, four compounds are obtained as products.

(iv) Decarboxylation : Decarboxylation refers to the reaction in which carboxylic acids lose carbon dioxide to form hydrocarbons when their sodium salts are heated with soda-lime.

Decarboxylation also takes place when aqueous solutions of alkali metal salts of carboxylic acids are electrolysed. This electrolytic process is known as Kolbe’s electrolysis.

Question 17.
Complete each synthesis by giving missing starting material, reagent or products:


Answer:

Question 18.
Give plausible explanation for each of the following :
(i) Cyclohexanone forms cyanohydrin in good yield but 2,2,6-trimethyIcycIohexa- none does not.
(ii) There are two-NH₂ groups in semicarbazide. However, only one is involved in the formation of semicarbazones.
(iii) During the preparation of esters from a carboxylic acid and an alcohol in the presence of an acid catalyst, the water or the ester should be removed as soon as it is formed.
Answer:
(i) In 2, 2, 6- trimethylcyclohexanone, there is steric hindrance of three methyl groups, therefore, it does not form cyanohydrin in good yield as compared to cyclohexanone which does not have steric hindrance.

(ii) The lone pair of electron on NH₂ attached to carbonyl group is involved in resonance and hence not available for donation.

(iii) It is done so that ester formed does not get hydrolysed.

Question 19.
An organic compound contains 69-77% carbon, 11-63% hydrogen and rest oxygen. The molecular mass of the compound is 86. It does not reduce Tollens’ reagent but forms an addition compound with sodium hydrogensulphite and give positive iodoform test. On vigorous oxidation it gives ethanoic and propanoic acid. Write the possible structure of the compound.
Answer:

It does not react with Tollens’ reagent, therefore it is not an aldehyde.
It forms addition compound with NaHSO₃, therefore it is a Ketone.
It gives Iodoform test therefore it is a methyl ketone.
On the basis of above the possible structure of compound is :

On vigrous oxidation it gives ethanoic acid and propanoic acid, therefore the com¬pound is pen-tan-2-one and not 3-methylbutan-2-one.

Question 20.
Although phenoxide ion has more number of resonating structures than carboxylate ion, carboxylic acid is a stronger acid than phenol. Why ?
Answer:

In carboxylate ion negative charge is delocalised over two oxygen atoms which are highly electronegative whereas in phenoxide ion negative charge is delocalised over only one oxygen atom. Carboxylate ion is more stable than phenoxide ion that is why carboxylic acid is more acidic than phenols.

Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Other Important Questions And Answers

Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
Formation of cyanohydrin by Ketone is an example of:
(a) Electrophilic addition
(b) Nucleophilic addition
(c) Nucleophilic substitution
(d) Electrophilic substitution.
Answer:
(b) Nucleophilic addition

Question 2.
Which of the following reaction gives Cannizzaro reaction with cone, alkali solution :
(a) Benzaldehyde
(b) Acetaldehyde
(c) Propanaldehyde
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(a) Benzaldehyde

Question 3.
Aldehydes and Ketones react with which of the following to form oxime :
(a) NH₃
(b) NH₂-NH₂
(c) NH₂OH
(d) NH₂CONH.NH₂.
Answer:
(c) NH₂OH

Question 4.
Aromatic aldehyde react with primary amines to give :
(a) Urea
(b) Amide
(c) SchifFs base
(d) Oxime.
Answer:
(c) SchifFs base

Question 5.
The reaction of acetaldehyde in basic medium is :
(a) Benzoin condensation
(b) Aldol condensation
(c) Polymerisation
(d) Cannizzaro reaction.
Answer:
(b) Aldol condensation

Question 6.
Which of the following does not give a yellow precipitate with I2 and NaOH :
(a) C₂H₅OH
(b) CH₃CHO
(c) CH₃—CO—CH₃
(d) HCHO.
Answer:
(d) HCHO.

Question 7.
IUPAC name of the compound of formula Cl₃—C—CH₂—CHO is :
(a) 3,3,3 trichloropropanol
(b) 1,1,1 trichloropropanol
(c) 2,2,2 trichloropropanol
(d) Chloral.
Answer:
(a) 3,3,3 trichloropropanol

Question 8.
The following precipitate is obtained by the reaction of Fehling solution with ethanol:
(a) Cu
(b) CHO
(c) Cu₂O
(d) Cu₂O + Cu₂O₃.
Answer:
(c) Cu₂O

Question 9.
Reduction of Aldehydes and Ketones to hydrocarbon occur in the presence of:
(a) Zn/Hg and HCl
(b) Pd/BaSO4
(c) Anhydrous AlCl3
(d) Ni/Pt.
Answer:
(a) Zn/Hg and HCl

Question 10.
Which of the following compound produce white precipitate with HgCl2 :
(a) HCOOH
(b) CH₃COOH
(c) C₂H₅COOH
(d) C₃H₇COOH.
Answer:
(a) HCOOH

Question 11.
Formic acid :
(a) Is immiscible with water
(b) Reduces ammoniacal silver nitrate
(c) Is three and half times weaker acid than acetic acid
(d) Is obtained on heating KOH.
Answer:
(b) Reduces ammoniacal silver nitrate

Question 12.
Correct order of Acidic strength is :
(a) CH₃COOH > CH₂ClCOOH > CHCl₂—COOH
(b) CHCl₂—COOH > CH₂ClCOOH > CH₃—COOH
(c) CHCl₂—COOH > CH₃—COOH >CH₂ClCOOH
(d) CH₂—ClCOOH > CH₃ — COOH > CHCl₂—COOH.
Answer:
(b) CHCl₂—COOH > CH₂ClCOOH > CH₃—COOH

Question 13.
Benzaldehyde on heating with alcoholic KCN gives :
(a) Benzoin
(b) Benzyl alcohol
(c) Sodium Benzoate
(d) Cinnamic acid.
Answer:
(a) Benzoin

Question 14.
Which of the following does not give silver mirror with ammoniacal AgNO₃ :
(a) HCHO
(b) CH₃—CHO
(c) CH₃—COOH
(d) HCOOH.
Answer:
(c) CH₃—COOH

Question 15.
The reagent compound which easily reacts with both acetaldehyde and ace-tone is: ,
(a) Fehling solution
(b) Grignard reagent
(c) Schiff’s reagent
(d) Tollen’s reagent.
Answer:
(b) Grignard reagent

Question 16.
Methyl Ketone is identified by :
(a) Tollen’s reagent
(b) Iodoform test
(c) SchifFs test
(d) Benedict solution.
Answer:
(b) Iodoform test

Question 17.
By Which reagent can Aldehyde and Ketone be differentiated :
(a) Fehling solution
(b) H₂SO₄ solution
(c) NaHSO₃ solution
(d) NH₃.
Answer:
(a) Fehling solution

Question 18.
Which compound will give Cannizzaro reaction :
(a) Propionaldehyde
(b) Benzaldehyde
(c) Bromobenzene
(d) Acetaldehyde.
Answer:
(b) Benzaldehyde

Question 19.
Tollen’s reagent is :
(a) Ammonical cuprous chloride
(b) Ammonical cuprous oxide
(c) Ammonical silver bromide
(d) Ammonical silver nitrate.
Answer:
(d) Ammonical silver nitrate.

Question 20.
By the reaction of Formaldehyde with KOH methanol and Potassium formate is formed. This reaction is known as :
(a) Perkin reaction
(b) Claisen reaction
(c) Cannizzaro reaction
(d) Knovengel reaction.
Answer:
(c) Cannizzaro reaction

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks :

1. By the electrolysis of Potassium acetate …………………. is obtained.
2. Mixture of Zinc-amalgam and cone, hydrochloric acid is called ………………….
3. Bakelite is a polymer of phenol and ………………….
4. Benzaldehyde is also known as ………………….
5. Ketones do not …………………. Tollen’s reagent.
6. 40% aqueous solution of formic acid is called ………………….
7. Aldehyde give …………………. precipitate with Fehling solution.
8. On heating acetic acid with phosphorous pentaoxide …………………. is formed.
9. Paraldehyde is used as a …………………. medicine.
10. In Rosenmund’s reduction BaSO₄, acts as a …………………. for Pd and controls the reduction of aldehyde to ………………….
11. Oxidation of Toluene to benzaldehyde by chromyl chloride is known as ………………….
12. By the reduction of Acid chloride by Pd/BaSO₄ …………………. compound is formed.
13. By the reaction of aldehyde containing a-hydrogen with dilute NaOH …………………. is formed.
14. …………………. is obtained by the dry distillation of calcium acetate.

Answer:

1. Ethane
2. Clemmensen reduction
3. HCHO
4. Oil of bitter almond
5. Reduce
6. Formalin
7. Red
8. Acetic anhydride
9. Hypnotic
10. Poison, alcohol
11. Etard reaction
12. Aldehyde
13. Aldol
14. Acetone.

Question 3.
Match the following :


Answer:

1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (c)
4. (b)
5. (d)

Answer:

1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (e)
4. (b)
5. (a)

Answer:

1. (e)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (d).

Question 4.
Write answer in one word/sentence :

1. SchifFs reagent gives which colour with Benzaldehyde.
2. Write IUPAC name of glacial acetic acid.
3. Sodium potassium tartarate associated with alkaline copper sulphate solution is known as.
4. Why do carboxylic acids occur as cyclic dimer ?
5. Which compound is obtained on heating aromatic aldehyde with acid anhydride in the presence sodium carboxylate ?
6. Write the name of the condensation reaction of KCN in benzaldehyde.
7. Which gas is obtained by the dehydration of formic acid ?
8. Name the reagent which can convert an acid to ester without the use of alcohol.

Answer:

1. Pink
2. Ethanoic acid
3. Fehling solution
4. Due to intermolecular hydrogen bonding
5. Un-saturated aromatic carboxylic acid (Cinnamic acid)
6. Benzoin condensation
7. Carbon monoxide
8. CH₂N₂.

Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
(i) Arrange the following acids in the order of increasing acidic strength :
HCOOH, CH₃—COOH,C₆H₅COOH

(iii) Arrange in the increasing order of reactivity :
HCHO,CH₃CHO and CH₃COCH₃
Answer:
(i) Increasing order of acidic strength :
CH₃COOH < C₆H₅COOH < HCOOH

(ii) IUPAC name — 2 methyl propanal
Common name — Iso propyl aldehyde

(iii) Increasing order of reactivity :
CH₃COCH₃ < CH₃CHO < HCHO.

Question 2.
(i) What is Hell- Volhard- Zelinsky (HVZ) reaction ?
(ii) What happens when formic acid is heated ?
Answer:
(i) Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction: When carboxylic acid is treated with Cl₂ or Br₂ in presence of phosphorus, α- halogenated carboxylic acid is formed. This reaction is known as Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction (HVZ).

(ii) When formic acid is heated to 160°C it dissociates into CO and H₂O.

Question 3.
(i) Why ketones are less reactive than aldehydes ?
(ii) Benzaldehyde is less reactive than Acetaldehyde. Why ?
Answer:
(i) Ketones are less reactive than aldehydes because in ketones there are two alky group attached with carbonyl group, due to the positive inductive effect (+ I) of both the alkyl group the positive charge on carbon atom decreases.
Hence, the sensitivity of ketones to the nucleophilic reagents decreases.
In aldehydes, they have only one alkyl group so they are more reactive than ketones.

(ii) —CHO group of benzaldehyde becomes stable due to resonance with benzene ring whereas resonance is not found in acetaldehyde. Benzaldehyde is aromatic and aldehyde is aliphatic.

Question 4.
How is urotropine obtained from formaldehyde ? Write its chemical name and structural formula.

Answer:
When formaldehyde is treated with ammonia, urotropine is formed. Its chemical name is hexamethylene tetra ammine or Hexa ammine.

Question 5.
Although phenoxide ion has more number of resonating structures than carboxylate ion. Carboxylic acid is a stronger acid than phenol. Why ?
Answer:
Carboxylate ion and phenoxide ion both achieve stability due to resonance. But carboxylate ion is more stable than phenoxide ion because in it negative charge is delocalised over two highly electronegative oxygen atom whereas in structures II, III and IV of phenoxide ion the negative charge is delocalized on less electronegative carbon. That is why, carboxylic acid is more acidic than phenol.

Question 6.
Write a note on Tollen’s reagent.
Or,
What is Tollen’s reagent ? Write its reaction with Acetaldehyde.
Answer:
Tollen’s Reagent : Ammoniacal silver nitrate solution is known as Tollen’s reagent. When Tollen’s reagent is heated with aldehyde, aldehyde reduces Ag+ to Ag and forms a bright silver mirror on the wall.

Question 7.
Why boiling point of carboxylic acid is higher than alcohols having same molecular mass ?
Answer:
Carboxylic acid exist as dimer due to hydrogen bond. These bonds are more stronger in acids com¬pared to alcohols, therefore boiling point of carboxylic acid is higher than alcohol.

Question 8.
Explain Fehling reaction with equation.
Answer:
Fehling Reaction : Sodium Potassium tartarate associated with alkaline CuSO4 is known as Fehling solution. When aldehyde is heated with Fehling solution, then aldehyde is oxidized and red precipitate of cuprous oxide is obtained. This is known as Fehling test.

Question 9.
Why is the boiling point of ketone little higher than its corresponding isomeric aldehyde ?
Answer:
Ketones are comparatively more polar than their corresponding isomeric aldehyde because the >C=0 group in Ketone is linked with two electron releasing alkyl group. Thus, the dipole attractive force of ketone is comparatively higher. This is the reason that the boiling point of ketone is comparatively higher than its corresponding isomeric aldehyde.

Question 10.
Among formaldehyde, acetaldehyde and acetone which is more reactive and why ? Explain.
Answer:
Among HCHO, CH₃CHO and CH₃COCH₃, HCHO is more reactive. This can be explained on the basis of:

1. Electron releasing effect : Alkyl groups are electron releasing in nature due to which magnitude of positive charge on carbonyl carbon decreases and hence it becomes less susceptible to nucleophilic attack.

2. Steric effect: The bulkier groups in ketones hinders approach of the nucleophile to the carbonyl carbon. This is known as steric effect.

Thus, HCHO with negligible electron releasing effect as well as steric effect is more reactive.

Question 11.
Compare acidic strength of acetic acid, formic acid and chloroacetic acid.
Answer:
Chlorine atom present in chloroacetic acid has strong negative inductive effect (-I). Due to this, electrons of O—H bond easily displaced towards oxygen and it releases H+ easily. CH₃ group present in CH₃COOH which produces (+ I) effect causes decrease in acidic nature.

In formic acid there is no such group which produces (+ I) or (- I) effect. Hence, formic acid is stronger than acetic acid and chloroacetic acid is stronger than acetic acid. In short chloroacetic acid is stronger than formic acid and formic acid is stronger than acetic acid.

Question 12.
Identify the compounds A, B and C in the following reactions :

Answer:

Question 13.
Write down the chemical equation for the following reaction :
(a) Reaction of acetaldehyde with H₂SO₄ at 0°C
(b) Reaction of formaldehyde with ammonical AgNO₃
(c) Heating acetic acid with P₂O₅.
Answer:

Question 14.
Describe briefly polymerization of acetaldehyde.
Answer:
(i) At normal temperature acetaldehyde in presence of cone. H₂SO₄, polymerises into para-aldehyde.

(ii) At 0°C, on passing HCl gas, acetaldehyde changes into meta-aldehyde.

Question 15.
Write down the difference between formic acid and acetic acid on the basis of following points :
1. Effect of heat.
2. Reaction with acidified KMnO₄.
3. Distillation of Ca salt.
4. Reaction with ammoniacal silver nitrate solution.
5. Reaction with PCl₅.
Answer:
Differences between Formic Acid and Acetic Acid

Question 16.
Explain Stephen’s reaction and Benzoin condensation with example.
Answer:
Stephen’s reaction : Alkyl cyanide on reduction with acidified stannous chloride (i.e., SnCl₂ + HCl) at room temperature forms aldimine hydrochloride, which on hydrolysis with boiling water gives aldehyde. This specific type of reduction of cyanide is known as Stephen’s reduction.

Benzoin condensation : Two molecules of benzaldehyde in presence of alcoholic KCN or NaCN condenses to form benzoin.

Question 17.
(i) Write short note on Perkin’s reaction.
(ii) What happens when acetone is heated with H₂SO₄ ?
Answer:
(i) Perkin’s reaction : When aromatic aldehyde is heated in presence of sodium salt of aliphatic acid with anhydride of aliphatic acid, then α,β unsaturated acid is obtained.

(ii) In presence of H₂SO₄ three molecules of acetone get condensed and form mesitylene.

Question 18.
What is Vinegar ? Write its two use.
Answer:
6 to 10% aqueous solution of acetic acid is known as vinegar.
Use : 1. In the preservation of pickle, chutney and Jam.
2. In the preparation of basic copper acetate.

Question 19.
What is Formalin ? Write its two use.
Answer:
40% aqueous solution of formaldehyde (H—CHO) is known as Formalin.
Uses : 1. In cleaning the rooms of patients.
2. In the preservation of dead bodies.

Question 20.
What happens when (Give only equations):
(i) Calcium formate is heated alone.
(ii) Calcium benzoate is heated alone.
(iii) Calcium formate is heated with calcium acetate.
(iv) Dry distillation of calcium benzoate and calcium formate takes place.
Answer:
(i) Formaldehyde is formed :

(ii) Benzophenone is formed :

(iii) Acetaldehyde is formed :

(iv) Benzaldehyde is formed :

Question 21.
What happens when (Give only equations) :
(i) Formaldehyde reacts with ammonia.
(ii) Calcium formate is heated with calcium acetate.
(iii) Acetone reacts with Grignard’s reagent.
(iv) Acetylene reacts with water in the presence of HgSO₄ and H₂SO₄.
(v) Acetyl chloride to Acetaldehyde.
Answer:

Question 22.
Write down the difference between compounds containing aldehydic group and ketonic group.
Answer:
Differences between Aldehydic and Ketonic group :

Question 23.
An organic compound A (molecular formula C₈H₈O) gives positive 2,4 DNP test. On treating with iodine and sodium hydroxide it gives yellow precipitate of compound B. Compound A does not give Tollen and Fehling test. On drastic oxidation with potassium permanganate it forms a carboxylic acid C (molecular formula C₇H₆O₂) which is also formed with yellow compound in the above reaction. Identify A, B and C and write the related reactions.
Answer:
Compound A does not give Tollen and Fehling test. Thus, it is a Ketone not aldehyde.

Question 24.
Why trichloroacetic acid is strong like inorganic acid ? Explain, benzoic acid is solid while primary aliphatic acids are liquids. Give reason.
Answer:
Chlorine atom present in trichloroacetic acid is electron withdrawing group. Due to this, release of H+ ion becomes easier as trichloroacetate ion is more stable than its molecule because of dispersal of negative charge on its oxygen. Thus, it behaves as a strong acid like inorganic acid.

Benzoic acid is solid due to its poiar nature dye to the presence of O-δ – H+δ group and high molecular mass while lower aliphatic acids dimerises due to H-bonding hence they are liquid.

Question 25.
Differentiate Polymerization and Condensation.
Answer:
Differences between Polymerization and Condensation :

Question 26.
Write down the reactions showing conversion of
(i) Acetic acid into formic acid
(ii) Formic acid into acetic acid.
Answer:
(i) Conversion of CH₃—COOH into H—COOH :

(ii) Conversion of formic acid into acetic acid:

Question 27.
How will you obtain the following :
(i) Acetaldehyde from acetyle chloride
(ii) Acetone from calcium acetate
(iii) Acetic acid from ethyl acetate
(iv) Ethane from acetic acid.
Answer:
(i) Aldehyde can be prepared by the reduction of acetyl chloride with H`₂ in the presence of palladium deposited over barium sulphate.

(ii) Calcium acetate on dry distillation gives a acetone.

(iii) Ethyl acetate are hydrolysed by mineral acids or alkalies to give acetic acid and ethyl alcohol.

(iv) Acetic acid on reduction with HI in presence of red phosphorus at 500 K to give ethene.

Question 28.
When liquid A is treated with freshly prepared ammoniacal silver nitrate solution, it give bright silver mirror. When the liquid is reacted with sodium hydrogen sulphite a white crystalline solid is formed. Liquid B also forms white crystalline solid with sodium hydrogen sulphite but it does not give test with ammoniacal silver nitrate. Which among the two liquids is an aldehyde ? Write chemical equations of these reactions.
Answer:
Since, liquid A reduces ammoniacal silver nitrate (Tollen’s reagent). Thus, A is an aldehyde.

Question 29.
How formic acid is prepared in laboratory ? Write two uses of it.
Answer:
Formic acid is prepared in the laboratory by heating glycerol with oxalic acid at 100-110°C in a distillation flask fitted with the thermometer and condenser.

Uses : (i) For dyeing of cotton and woollen cloth.
(ii) In leather industry.
(iii) Preservation of fruits.
(iv) In rubber industry.
(v) In electroplating.

Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the laboratory method of preparation of acetone. Draw labelled diagram and write down chemical equations.
Answer:
In laboratory, acetone is prepared by dry distillation of anhydrous calcium acetate.

Method : 30-40 gm of calcium acetate mixed with equal amount of sodium acetate is heated in a glass retort fitted with a condenser and receiver. Acetone is collected in the receiver. The acetone so obtained is not pure. To purify this, it is shaken with saturated solution of sodium bisulphite then crystals of acetone sodium bisulphite salt separate out. The crystal is washed and heated with sodium carbonate and then dried over anhydrous CaCl₂ and then distilled at 56°C to get pure acetone.

(CH₃)₂C = O + NaHSO₃ → (CH₃)₂C(OH)SO₃Na
2(CH₃)₂C(OH)SO₃Na + Na₂CO₃ → (CH₃)2C = 0 + 2Na₂SO₃ + H₂O + CO₂.

Question 2.
Write down the following reaction giving example and equation :
(a) Iodoform reaction
(b) Tischenko reaction
(c) Gattermann-Koch synthesis
(d) Rosenmund’s reaction.
Answer:
(a) Iodoform (Haloform) reaction : Acetaldehyde or methyl ketone reacts with iodine in presence of alkali to form yellow coloured iodoform. This reaction is known as iodoform test.

(b) Tischenko reaction: Two molecules of benzaldehyde is coupled together in presence of aluminium ethoxide or isopropoxide then benzylbenzoate (ester) is formed.

(c) Gattermann-Koch synthesis : Mixture of CO and HCl bubbled through a solution of aromatic hydrocarbon in ether solution in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3, then benzaldehyde is formed.

(d) Rosenmund’s reaction : Aldehydes are obtained by the reduction of acid chloride with hydrogen in boiling xylene in presence of a catalyst Pd suspended in BaSO₄.

This reaction is called Rosenmund reaction.

Question 3.
Give quick vinegar method of preparation of acetic acid. Give its reaction with phosphorus pentaoxide and phosphorus pentachloride and write its two uses.
Answer:
In this process, a dilute aqueous solution of ethyl alcohol is oxidized in presence of enzyme Mycoderma aceti.

In this process, a wooden vat is fitted with two wooden plates having holes. Between these plates is filled by beech wood savings, moistened with old vinegar solution which is the chief source of Mycoderma aceti. A 10% aqueous solution of ethyl alcohol is dropped slowly from the top of the vat and air is passed at a controlled rate through the holes near the bottom of the vat. Ethyl alcohol is oxidized to acetic acid. This process is called quick vinegar process because vinegar is formed very quickly.

(a) Reaction with P₂O₅:

(b) Reaction with PCl₅:

Uses : (i) As a reagent and solvent in the lab.
(ii) As vinegar in the preparation of pickel, chutney etc.
(iii) In the preparation of methyl acetate, ethyl acetate and other esters.

Question 4.
Write a brief note on :
(i) Claisen condensation
(ii) Benzoin condensation.
Answer:
(i) Claisen condensation : When aromatic aldehyde reacts with aliphatic aldehyde or ketone with α-hydrogen, in presence of weak base, α,β unsaturated aldehyde or ketone is formed. This type of condensation is called claisen condensation.

(ii) Benzoin condensation : Two molecules of benzaldehyde in presence of alcoholic KCN orNaCN condenses to form benzoin.

Question 5.
How will you obtain the following from acetic acid (Give only equations):
(i) Acetamide
(ii) Ethyl acetate
(iii) Acetic Anhydride
(iv) TVichloro acetic acid.
Answer:
(i) Acetamide:

(ii) Ethyl acetate:

(iii) Acetic anhydride:

(iv) Trichloro acetic acid:

Question 6.
What happens when (Write only equations):
(i) Acetone reacts with chloroform,
(ii) Benzaldehyde reacts with acetic anhydride.
Answer:

Question 7.
Write notes on the following reactions:
(i) Stephen reaction
(ii) Etard reaction
(iii) Knoevenagel reaction.
Answer:
(i) Stephen reaction : In this reaction, phenyl cyanide is reduced in etheral solution by stannous chloride and hydrogen chloride followed by hydrolysis to form benzaldehyde.

(ii) Etard reaction: In this reaction toluene is oxidised by chromyl chloride dissolved in CS₂ or CCl₄, a brown complex initially formed is separated. This is then decomposed by water to form benzaldehyde.

(iii) Knoevenagel condensation: Benzaldehyde reacts with compounds having active methylene group (e.g., malonic ester and acetoacetic ester) in the presence of pyridine or glacial acetic acid in acetamide thereby forming α,β unsaturated carbonyl compounds.
For example, with malonic ester, cinnamic acid is formed.

Question 8.
What happens when (only equation)
(a) On reacting acetone with grignard reagent.
(b) Reaction of acetone with chloroform in presence of KOH.
(c) Benzaldehyde reacts with aniline.
(d) On heating sodium salt of carboxylic acid with soda lime.
(e) Benzyl chloride reacts with acetyl chloride in presence of anhydrous AlCl₃.
Answer:
(a) Reaction of acetone with Grignard reagent.

(b) Reaction of acetone with chloroform.

(c) Reaction of benzaldehyde with aniline.

(d) Reaction of sodium salt of carboxylic acid with soda lime.

(e) Reaction of benzene with CH₃COCl.

Question 9.
How will you obtain :
(a) Acetaldehyde from acetylene
(b) Propanone from propyne.
Answer:
(a) Acetaldehyde from acetylene :

(b) Propanone from propyne :

Question 10.
Starting from acetic acid how will you get the following :
(1) Ethyl alcohol
(2) Ethyl acetate
(3) Methyl bromide
(4) Acetone
(5) Acetic anhydride
(6) Acetamide
(7) Trichloroacetic acid.
Answer:

Question 11.
How will you obtain (Give equation):
(i) Benzoic acid from toluene
(ii) Acetic acid from propanoic acid
(iii) Propanol from propanoic acid
(iv) Formic acid from acetic acid.
Answer:

Question 12.
Give chemical equation of the following :
(i) Acetaldehyde from formaldehyde
(ii) Formaldehyde from acetaldehyde
(iii) Acetic acid from formic acid.
Answer:

Question 13.
Give equation for reactions of Grignard reagent with following :
(a) CO
(b) HCN
(c) HCOOC₂H₅
(d) CH₃CN.
Answer:
(a) With CO : Aldehyde is obtained.

(b) With HCN : Aldehyde is formed.

(c) With HCOOC₂H₅ : Aldehyde is formed.

(d) With CH₃CN : Propanone is formed.

Question 14.
What happens when (Write only equations):
(i) Acetic acid reacts with ethyl alcohol
(ii) Acetic acid reacts with ammonia
(iii) Acetone reacts with chloroform
(iv) Benzaldehyde reacts with acetic anhydride.
Answer:

Question 15.
Explain:
(a) Boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are less than corresponding alcohols and acids.
(b) Boiling points of carboxylic acids are higher than carboxylic acid of similar molecular masses.
Answer:
(a) Aldehydes and ketones are polar compounds so their b.p. are higher than non-polar hydrocarbons but less than that of corresponding alcohols and carboxylic acids. Alcohol and carboxylic acids form associated molecules due to intermolecular hydrogen bonding while hydrogen bonding is not possible in aldehydes and ketones because hydrogen atom is not bonded with oxygen atom. Thus, due to presence of intermolecular hydrogen bonding b.p. of alcohol and acids are higher.

(b) Boiling points of carboxylic acids are higher than alcohols of similar molecular mass because acids have stronger hydrogen bonding than alcohols. Thus, molecules of carboxylic acids linked with hydrogen bonds have more attractive force and thus they possess higher boiling points.

MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions

MP Board Class 12th Business Studies Important Questions Chapter 5 Organization

Organization Important Questions

Organization Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Out of the following, which is not a part of delegations :
(a) Accountability
(b) Authority
(c) Responsibility
(d) informal organization.
Answer:
(d) informal organization.

Question 2.
A network of social relationship that arise relationship due to interaction at work is called:
(a) Formal organization
(b) Informal organization
(c) Denaturalization
(d) Delegation.
Answer:
(b) Informal organization

Question 3.
Organization cannot be seen as :
(a) As a work of management
(b) As a structure of relationship
(c) As a process
(d) As an enterprise instinct
Answer:
(d) As an enterprise instinct

Question 4.
Which of the following is not a part of organization:
(a) Division of work
(b) Work structure
(c) Formation of work and departments
(d) provide leadership
Answer:
(d)provide leadership

Question 5.
Which of the following does not follow the scalar chain :
(a) Formal structure
(b) Informal structure
(c) Functional structure
(d) Divisional structure
Answer:
(b) Informal structure

Question 6.
Group of activities on the basis of product line Is a part of:
(a) Decentralized organization
(b) Divisional organization
(c) Functional organization
(d) Centralized organization
Answer:
(b) Divisional organization

Question 7.
A tall structure has a :
(a) Narrow span of management
(b) Wide span of management
(c) No span of management
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Narrow span of management

Question 8.
Grouping of a activities on the basis of functions line is a part of:
(a) Delegated organization
(b) Divisional organization
(c) Functional organization
(d) Autonomous organization
Answer:
(c) Functional organization

Question 9.
Centralization refers to :
(a) Retention of decision making authority
(b) Dispersal of decision making authority
(c) Creating division of profit centers
(d) Opening new centers or branches
Answer:
(a)Retention of decision making authority

Question 10.
Span management refers to :
(a) Number of managers
(b) Length of term for which a manger is appointed
(c) Number of subordinates under a superior
(d) Number of members in top management.
Answer:
(b) Length of term for which a manger is appointed

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. ……………….establishes cordial relation between labour and capital.
2. Organization formed according to goods produced by them is called …………..
3. The transfer of right in limited form to the members is called …………..
4. Distribution of rights and duties of an enterprise at the lowest level is called ……………
5. Rights and duties are clearly described in ……………organization.

Answer:

1. Organization
2. Departmental, Organization
3. Delegation
4. Decentralization
5. Formal

Question 3.
Write the answers in one word/sentence :

1. Granting authority and responsibility regarding a specific job to subordinates.
2. A systamatic dispersion of authority at all levels of department.
3. Big organization is divided into small administrative unit.
4.  Authority is delegated not responsibility.
5. That form of organization which is developed due to mutual relations.
6. That organization which is based on rules and procedures.
7. In functional organization what type of relation is shown ?
8. When does management of organization comes in the process of management ?
9. Which step is departmental organization ?
10. In informal organization what type of relations is there among members ?

Answer:

1. Authority
2. Decentralization
3. Divisional organization
4. Authority
5. Informal organization
6. Informal organization
7. Authority and subordinates
8. After planning
9. Second step
10. Friendly relation.

Question 4.
Write true or false :

1. Establishment of organization is done by lower level of management.
2. Organization gives birth to corruption.
3. Delegation of authority means assigning work to others.
4. Accountability is the obligation to carry out responsibility.
5. Organization in management is as important as structure of bones in human body.

Answer

1. False
2. False
3. True
4. True
5. True.

Question 5.
Match the columns

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (d)

Organization Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
After which function of management organizing function comes ?
Answer:
Organizing function comes after planning.

Question 2.
How does a strong organization increases job satisfaction among the workers ?
Answer:
A strong organization increases job satisfaction among the workers by assigning them work according to their ability.

Question 3.
How can repetition stopped in an organization ?
Answer:
Right person at the right job.

Question 4.
Why is a big task divided into smaller parts ?
Answer:
Because of the following reasons:

1. To reduce the burden of work load
2. To avail the ability of specialized employees
3. To avoid from repetition of tasks.

Question 5.
What do you understand by divisional ?
Answer:
When a big organization is divided into small administrative units for managing effectively it is called divisional.

Question 6.
How is the word organizing used ?
Answer:
Organization is used in two forms :

1. Organizational Structure and
2. Functional structure.

Question 7.
What is delegation of authority ?
Answer:
Delegation of authority merely means the granting of authority to subordinate to operate within prescribed limits.

Question 8.
Explain the meaning of authority responsibility accountability relationship.
Answer:
Authority responsibility relationship means the relationship which explains from whom an individual will receive orders and to whom he will be accountable or answerable while performing a particular task.

Question 9.
What is expansion of management ?
Answer:
Expansion of management means organizing the deployment of employees or managing tasks.

Question 10.
How is informal organization formed ?
Answer:
The structure is a result of social interaction between employees of similar interests.

Organization Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is delegation of authority ?
Answer:
Granting authority and responsibility regarding specific job to the subordinates is called as delegation of authority. Delegation of authority is an art of granting certain ordinary, routine and exact authorities to competent subordinates so that they can perform the work as per instructions efficiently. It is an important element of organization. Delegation of authority is based upon the principle of division of work.

Question 2.
What is line organization ?
Answer:
Line organization is the oldest form of organization. Business or industry structure with self contained departments. Authority travels downwards from top and accountability upwards from bottom along the chain of command and each department manager has control over his or her departments affairs and employees.

Question 3.
What do you mean by organization ?
Answer:
Organization means a group of people having a certain object. It involves coordinating the employees activities in an efficient manner for accomplishing the objectives of the enterprise. The success of an enterprise totally depends on how powerful the organization is.

Question 4.
Explain the merits of committee organization.
Answer:
The merits of committee organization are as follows :

1. Committee organization promotes cooperation
2. Quick decisions can be taken in important cases
3. Policy matters and problems can be solved easily
4. Coordination can easily be exercised in different departments with the help of committees.

Question 5.
Give a definition of organization.
Answer:
According to Prof. L. Haney, “Organization is a harmonious adjustment of specialized parts for the accomplishments of some common purpose or purposes.”
According to D.W.R. Spriegal, “Organization is the structural relationship between the various factors in an enterprise”.

Question 6.
Where is line organization suitable ?
Answer:
Those organizational units where employees are less in number. Production is of general type and employees are disciplined, here line organization is suitable.

Question 7.
How does organization help in improving the morale of employees ?
Answer:
In an effective organization, the employees are well aware of their rights, duties and responsibilities and therefore they understand the objectives of the enterprise quite well. This helps them to develop the feelings of sincerity, participation and cooperation thereby increasing their morale.

Question 8.
How organization stops repetition of work ?
Answer:
By assigning specific work to specific person repetition is avoided in organization.

Question 9.
Write the main characteristics of line organization.
Answer:
The main characteristics of line organization are :

1. The orders flow from top to bottom i.e. in downward direction.
2. orders are passed by officers.

Question 10.
Write the various forms of organization.
Answer:
According to nature and size, an organization has following forms :

1. Line organization
2. Line and staff organization
3. Functional organization
4. Committee organization.

Question 11.
Discuss the objectives or importance of organization.
Answer:

1. Economy in production : The main object of organization is to bring economy in production. It means production of goods at minimum cost.

2. Economy in time and labour : In organization, best machines, equipments and best methods are applied and so enough time and labour of the work are saved.

3. Cordial relations between labour and capital: To establish relation between labour and management is one of the object of organization. For this, the best entrepreneur is appointed to safeguard the interest of the labour and capital.

4. Spirit of service : Due to social consciousness, the object of every businessman is to serve first then profit. So, every organization in present time has the object to serve.

Question 12.
Throw light on the importance of organization.
Answer:

1. Effective formulation of policies : Policies are framed by the administration of any enterprises or organization. It is the work of the management to formulate all policies. Once the policies are framed, the organization (normally, a group of people) executes these policies. A strong organization ensures reliable policies. So, organization has great importance for effective formulation of policies.

2. Encouragement to specialization : Specialization is based upon the principle of division of labour. If the employees are grouped according to their efficiency, then the work will be carried-out efficiently. This division of work enhances the spirit of employees. Specialization is encouraged due to the number of employees.

3. Increase in managerial efficiency : Priority is given to coperaion, coordination and discipline in a sound organization. So, the work is done at the earliest. Due to earliest disposal of work, new planning is again framed by the top management or administration so the work remains in the continuous process. In this way due to the expansion of managerial work, managerial efficiency progress in a rapid way.

4. Fillip to growth : It can be known from the history of old and big organization that their growth has become possible due to organization. The main maxim for the growth of healthy and sound business is only organization.

5. To work systematically : In organization every person performs his duty systematically as it is clearly directed in the organization about the execution of work.

6. Prevents corruption : There is no any place corruption in a sound organization.

Question 13.
“Organization increases the capacity of production”. Explain.
Answer:
In a sound and organization employees work with full devotion and so production of the enter process increases. Now techniques and machines developed in the enterprise increases the efficiency of employees which will result is large scale production.

Question 14.
What is project organization ?
Answer:
Project organization is that system in which a working team is constituted for specific production or to provide services.

Question 15.
What are the disadvantages of line organization ?
Answer:
Disadvantages of line organization are as follows :
(i) There is a good scope for favouritism as the highest officer has the authority. There is a possibility that he promotes or appoints his favourites.
(ii) The-modem industry is so complex that it is not possible for a single person to perform all the work efficiently. It is not possible for the department head to be specialized in very field. Hence, there is a lack of specialization in this method.

Question 16.
What is line and staff organization ? Write its four characteristics.
Answer:
The line is the chain of command that extends from board of directors through the various delegation and re-delegations of authority and responsibility to the point where
the primary activities of the company are performed. They are directly engaged in producing or selling of goods and services and provide advices also characteristics :

1. Order and responsibility moves from top to bottom in this organization.
2. Both the working thinking and giving suggestions are separate in it.
3. To assist the line officers employees are appointed.
4. The specialists work as a staff member only.

Question 17.
Mention the advantages of line organization.
Answer:
Advantages : The advantage of line organization are as follows :

1. Every member of the organization knows his responsibilities and duties.
2. There is strong discipline because the subordinates knows their rights and control area.
3. In this type of organization, adjustment can be made according to the needs, i.e., there is flexibility.
4. The subordinates cannot runaway from their duties because they are not able to put their responsibilities on others.

Question 18.
What do you mean by committee organization ?
Answer:
Committee organization is that system in which a specific group is formed to perform administrative work committee is a group of persons. They are allotted some functions in such a way that they will perform the function collectively. The head of this committee is called the president.

Question 19.
What are the reasons of distributing works in small parts ?
Answer:
Work is distributed into small parts due to following reasons :

1. To reduce the pressure of work
2. To have advantage of profit
3. To divide the work in such a way so that repetition should not be there.

Question 20.
What do you mean by divisional organization ?
Answer:
When a big organization is divided into small administrative unit for managing effectively, it is called divisional organization.

Question 21.
Write the four advantages of territorial organization.
Answer:
The four advantages of territorial organization are as follows :

1. It provides effective span at control.
2. Expansion of business in various regions becomes easy.
3. It facilitates in economy is  rent and labour.
4. It provides opportunity of giving training to managers.

Question 22.
“By top level organization the efficiency of Administration increases.” Explain.
Answer:
Formal organization is top level organization. Formal organization is established for general objectives. Organization structure is determined by top level. In it authority and responsibility are clearly defined. Formal organization aims at achieving predetermined objectives. Every individual belongs to one work group only and works under one superior. So by top level organization the efficiency of administration increases.

Question 23.
Distinguish between divisional and functional organization.
Answer:
The differences between divisional and functional organization :

Question 24.
What is the relation between formal and informal organization ?
Answer:
Informal organization is a part of formal organization. In formal organization the worker complete their work with the help of each other. They consult each other due to this friendly relationship is maintained. On the basis of friendship a network of informal organization in formed. This network is called informal organization. Thus formal organization gives birth to informal organization. So we can say that formal organization and informal organization are interrelated.

Question 25.
“Organization increases managerial efficiency.” How ?
Answer:
The best organization increases managerial efficiency. The best and effective organization helps in achieving objectives easily. The best organization means good employees, workers and management. Better environment helps in the efficiency of organization. Increase in managerial efficiency is because of specialization in an organization. A good organization provides training to its employees. These qualified and trained people make full utilization of various resources.

Question 26.
What are the characteristics of informal organization ?
Answer:
Following are the characteristics of informal organization :

1. These type of organizations are formed spontaneously.
2. These organization have common interest.
3. It is a voluntary organization.
4. These organizations have no concern with manual and charts.
5. These organization can be legal or illegal.
6. It is a part of formal organization.
7. In these organization the relationship is based upon personal understanding.

Organization Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between formal and informal organization.
Answer:
Differences between Formal and Informal Organization :

Question 2.
What is formal organization ? Explain any four features.
Answer:
The different types or forms of organizations are classified on various basis. One of the type is formal and informal organization.
Formal organization : It is an official structure of activities, roles and authority relationship which is planned and executed by management for achieving organizational objectives. In this organization every individual belongs to one work group only and works under one superior only. It follows official chain of command.
Characteristics of formal organization : Following are the characteristics of formal organization:

1. This type of organization is established for general objectives.
2. Organization structure is determined by top level.
3. Authority and responsibility are clearly defined in formal organization.
4. The relationship.is determined according to the jobs and its nature.
5. Formal organization aims at achieving predetermined objectives.
6. Every individual belongs to one work group only and works under one superior.
7. In this type of organization policies, procedures and plans are written.

Question 3.
What is informal organization ? Explain its characteristics/features.
Answer:
Informal Organizations: Informal organization is the result of working together and social interactions. It has no predetermined purpose. It achieves social satisfaction. In this type of organization there is no prescribed channel of communication. There are no set or fixed rules in this organization. The examples of this organization are relationship between travellers, players, pilgrims, etc.
Definitions :

(1) According to Keith Davis, “Informal organization is that network of personal and social relationships which is not established or required by formal organizations.”

(2) According to C. I. Barnard, “Organization is informal when aggregate inter-personal relationships are without conscious joint purpose.”

Characteristics of informal organization : The characteristics of informal organization are as follows:

1. These type of organizations are formed spontaneously.
2. These organizations have common interest.
3. It is a voluntary organization.
4. These organizations have no concern with manuals and charts.
5. In this organization the relationship is based upon personal understanding.
6. These organizations can be legal and illegal.
7. It does not have a clear and well defined structure.
8. It emerges to meet the social and cultural needs of the members of the organization.
9.  It is a part of formal organization.
10. The rules and regulations in this organization is not in writing.
11. It may or may not follow official chain of command.

Question 4.
What do you mean by delegation of authority ? What are its elements ?
Ans.
Delegation of authority: Granting authority and responsibility regarding specific job to subordinates is called delegation of authority.
The process or elements of delegation are as follows :

1. Assigning of duty : The first and important element of delegation is assigning of duty or task or responsibility. Before the task is assigned, the superior must:

1. Determine the results expected from subordinates
2. Identify the tasks to be assigned
3. Define the tasks to be assigned. The original officer gives less important or routine duties to subordinates while the original officer should himself perform the important, complicated and secret work.

2. Granting of authority : Without authority nobody is going to perform the duties. Thus for completion of work it is necessary to grant authority along with assigning of duties. In the words of Koontz O’Donnell, “Actually the authority vested in a managerial position is the right to use discretion, the right to create and maintain an environment for the performance of individual working together in a group. Thus all needed authorities should be delegated for the fulfilment of a responsibility.

3. Creation of responsibility : Responsibility means holding an individual answerable for final results. Delegation is an art of getting work done effectively not escaping from responsibility to superiors. According to Allen, “Accountability or responsibility is the obligation to carry out responsibility and exercise authority in terms of performance standard established.”

Acceptability of delegation. A person can accept or reject an assigned task. If the delegated authority rejects the task then the delegated management with assign it to another capable employee therefore acceptability of delegation is important.

4. Evaluation and control of internal activities : It is the last step of the process of organizing every subordinate is responsible for the task assigned by his or her authority. Higher authorities evaluate the deployed tasks to their subordinates assures its process and avail the power of authority.

Question 5.
What is decentralization ? Explain its advantages.
Answer:
Meaning : Decentralization is the opposite of centralization which means systematic delegation or dispersal of authority at all levels of management and in all departments of the organization. In this process subordinates are given more role and importance in the management and organization. It is the top level management which decides introduction of decentralization in the organization.
Definition : The major definitions of decentralization are as follows :

1. Everything that goes to increase the importance of the subordinates role is decentralization. —Henri Fayol.
Following are the Importance or advantages of decentralization:

1. Quick decision making: Since the workload of managers at top level is reduced so they are free to make decisions which are speedy in nature,

2. Reduces the burden of managers: The most important benefit of decentralization is that it reduces the burden of managers at top level. The work is assigned by the managers to the subordinates which brings relief to the top level management.

3. Motivates subordinates : Managers or the top level management authorises the subordinates to take decisions independently which increases their morale and motivates them towards the betterment of organization.

4. Democratic management: Decentralization facilitates democratic management. It shares authority and responsibility between managers. It also avoids concentration of power.

5. Helps in facing competition : Today’s competition can be faced effectively only when a person is able to take and implement decisions. This can be performed only when the authority and responsibility of decisions is provided by organization. Thus decentralization helps to face competition effectively.

6. Training and Development: Through decentralization training and development is automatically directed or followed. Decentralization helps in providing training to subordinates and makes them specialised in their work.

7. Incentives to workers : Decentralization provides job satisfaction to workers by giving them independence and participation in the activities of organization which increases the morale of employees.

Question 6.
Distinguish between divisional and functional organization.
Answer:

Question 7.
Explain the various advantages and disadvantages of formal organization.
Answer:
Formal organization : It is an official structure of activities, roles and authority relationship which is planned and executed by management for achieving organizational objectives. In this organization every individual belongs to one work group only and works under one superior only. It follows official chain of command.
Characteristics of formal organization : Following are the characteristics of formal organization:

1. This type of organization is established for general objectives.
2. Organization structure is determined by top level.
3. Authority and responsibility are clearly defined in formal organization.
4. The relationship is determined according to the jobs and its nature.
5. Formal organization aims at achieving predetermined objectives.
6. Every individual belongs to one work group only and works under one superior.
7. In this type of organization policies, procedures and plans are written.

Merits of formal organization : Following are the merits of formal organization :

1. Objectives can be easily achieved through this organization.
2. There is unity of order and direction in this organization.
3. Stability persists in this organization. .
4. There is easy and effective coordination and control over activities.
5. Responsibilities are fixed in case of failures.
6. There is clear determination of duties, authorities and responsibilities.
7. In this type of organization reasonable and balanced division and subdivision of activities.
8. Advantages of specialization and division of work can be achieved.
9. All activities are performed according to rules and regulations.
10. The resources are utilized up to the maximum extent in these organizations.

Demerits of formal organization : Following are the demerits of formal organization:

1. There is lack of flexibility in these organizations.
2. In these organizations there is always problem of control and coordination.
3. Red farism develops in this organization.
4. There is lack of initiative informal organization.
5. Sometimes power and authority is misused. .
6. Formal work and communication is not having importance in this organization.

Question 8.
Differentiate between Delegation and Decentralization.
Answer:
Differences between Delegation and Decentralization :

Question 9.
Distinguish between Authority and Accountability.
Answer:
Differences between Authority and Accountability :

Question 10.
Write the essentials of good organization structure.
Answer:
Essentials of good organization structure :

1. Clear lines of authority : There must be a clear line of authority running from the top to bottom of the organization. It is achieved through delegation by step from the highest executive to the lowest worker having the least responsibility and no authority over others. Failure to clarify the line of authority result in friction, politics and inefficiencies.

2. Adequate delegation of authority : Every person in the organization must get adequate authority to meet his obligations according to situations. Authority is vested in the top most executive and is delegated to his subordinates wherever necessary to meet their obligations. If sufficient authority is not delegated, the top most executive or the person vesting the authority, faces various problems such as bottle-neck in decision-making, delay in decision implementation, pressure on higher level and less motivation to subordinates. These all problems hamper the growth of the organization.

3. Minimum managerial levels : The managerial level in an organization should be kept minimum as far as possible. The greater the number of levels, the larger the chain of command and the longer the time in travelling the message up and down. Though the number of levels is not certain, yet it serves as guide-line.

4. Unity of direction : Every person in the organization should be directed only by one boss as far as possible relating to a single major function. Multiplication of direction may create confusion and may lead to role conflict.

5. Application of Ultimate Responsibility : The authority flows from superior to subordinate along with the responsibilities. The higher level manager is not relieved of his responsibilities for the acts delegated to the subordinates. He is responsible for his own duties and the duties of his subordinates.

6. Span of Control: Span of control refers to the number of subordinates a manager can directly supervise. There is a limit on this number but it cannot be applied universally because several factors such as nature of superior and that of a subordinates, communication techniques, etc. affect the span of control.

7. Simplicity : Taking into account the essential network but leaving no room for confusion and ambiguity the organization structure should be designed as simple as possible. Too many levels or communication channels, or committees, or multiple of command or too much coordination often create more problems rather to solve them.

Question 11.
Describe the objects of organization.
Answer:

1. Economy in production : The main object of organization is to bring economy in production. It means production of goods at minimum cost.

2. Economy in time and labour : In organization, best machines, equipment and best methods are applied and so enough time and labour of the work are saved.

3. Cordial relations between labour and capital : To establish relation between labour and management is one of the object of organization.
Safeguard the interest of the labour and capital.

4. Spirit of service : Due to social consciousness, the object of every businessman is to serve first then profit. So, every organization in present time has the object to serve.

Question 12.
Describe characteristics of project organization.
Answer:

1. This system is adopted to perform any specific project
2. After completion of the project its existence ends
3. Working team is constituted with persons of special ability.

Question 13.
Explain briefly the process of organization.
Or
Method of organization.
Answer:
Following are the steps of organization :

1. Establishment of objectives: The first step of organization structure is establishment of objectives. In the object of organization, those activities should be clearly explained for which organization is built.

2. Determination of activities : The second step in organization is determination of activities and its division. While dividing activities the organizational objectives must be kept in mind.

3. Grouping of activities : The next step involves grouping of activities as purchases, sales, advertisement, marketing, production etc. Different departments are set up for that purpose.

4. Allocation of work : It involves allocation of work on the basis of skills and specialization of employees. The principle of right job for right person is followed while allocating work to employees.

5. Delegation of authority : It is not possible to execute activities without authority. Therefore along with work, the authority is also delegated to the employees.

6. Coordination : For coordination, employees and officers are introduced to each other and everybody’s working place, work, right, duties and relation to each other are specifically mentioned.

Question 14.
Describe the characteristics of organization.
Answer:

1. Organization is a group of people : One person cannot be defined as organization. So, there should be at least two or more persons. There is no restriction on maximum number.

2. Specific objective : Any good organization has specific objectives. A gathering of people without a purpose is not an organization.

3. Division of work : For efficiently achieving goals, the work at hand should be divided and delegated. For example, the activities of an organization may be divided under purchase, sales, finance, personnel, production, etc,

4. Universal existence : Organization exists universally, irrespective of size of the company. All spheres or fields of society like politics, business, schools, families, etc. have organization though the objective may be different.

5. Leadership and formal relations : Organization is also characterized by the presence of leadership and formal relations among the members of the group.

6. Effective communication and coordination : An efficient organization necessitates effective communication as a requisite element. Proper communication and coordination between various levels of the organization results in easy execution of work.

Question 15.
“Write the characteristics, advantage and disadvantage of informal organization.
Answer:
Characteristics of informal organization : The characteristics of informal organization are as follows:

1. These type of organizations are formed spontaneously
2. These organizations have common interest
3. It is a voluntary organization
4. These organizations have no concern with manuals and charts
5. In this organization the relationship is based upon personal understanding
6. These organizations can be legal and illegal
7. It does not have a clear and well defined structure
8. It emerges to meet the social and cultural needs of the members of the organization
9. It is a part of formal organization
10. The rules and regulations in this organization is not in writing
11. It may or may not follow official chain of command.

Advantages of informal organization : Following are the advantages of informal organization:

1. It removes the weakness of formal organization
2. It is an effective means of communication
3. Through this organization the spirit of cooperation and coordination develops
4. It provides social status and sense of satisfaction
5. Employees are motivated towards work.

Disadvantages of informal organization : Following are the disadvantages of informal organization:

1. Illegal activities are encouraged in these organizations
2. These organizations create confusions by spreading rumours
3. High level management is generally opposed by this organization
4. Some of these organizations are against democracy and secularism
5. These organizations are generally have short life.

Conclusion : Generally all organizations have some merits and demerits. Informal organization is complementary to formal organization

Question 16.
Write the principles of organization.
Answer:
Golonel Lyndall Urwick has given following principles :

1. Principle of objectives: The objective of an enterprise should be the objective of whole organization, because every organizational aims at achieving aims of an enterprise. Objectives should be made clear at every level.

2. Principle of specialization : Every person has got particular quality of doing particular work. One person should be allotted one work only this will increases his ability of doing that particular work.

3. Principle of coordination : The main aim of organization should be to maintain coordination among various elements, through which objectives can be achieved.

4. Principle of authority : Authority should not be vested in one hand, but it should be distributed accordingly. So that workers take interest in the work and a feeling of responsibility also arises.

5. Principle of continuity : According to time and requirement, changes should be done. In other words, an organization should be flexible, otherwise it would not be successful. One should recognize the speed of time.

6. Principle of responsibility: After assigning authority, care of responsibility should also be taken. This increases the desire of working more and quality of work. Every worker should be well aware that he is responsible to whom.

7. Principle of definition : Every employee should be made well aware of his duties and responsibilities. Every duty, position etc. in every organization should be clearly prescribed in writing, which helps in quick achievements of goals.

8. Principle of uniformity: There should be uniformity in authority and responsibility given to various officers. But there should be no dispute between authority of two officers which will result in indiscipline and lead to delay of work.

9. Principle of span of control: Area of control of each manager should be restricted, this results in better performance and it becomes easy to carry and complete work. ‘Urwick’ has said that “Maximum a person can handle five to six persons”. According to the nature of business, control should be restricted.

10. Principle of balance : Balance should be made between different units of an organization. Balance increase discipline in the management of a business and helps in the success of the organization.

11. Principle of unity of command : A worker takes orders from his superior boss only and not from others, he is answerable to his boss only. If he has two boss, then confusion will be created and if he listens to one boss and not other, this will create conflict. Therefore, unity of command is necessary for success.

12. Principle of simplification : Organizers should make such policies which are simple, easy, understood by everyone and impressive. If the elements of an organization or policies are not simple, it will create problem.

13. Other principles: Some modem principles showed by experts are :

1. Principle of efficiency
2. Principle of unity of objectives
3. Principle of participation
4. Principle of formality
5. Principle of inspection and balance
6. Principle of surety
7. Principle of transferring ownership.

Question 17.
Distinguish between line of organization and staff organization.
Answer:
differences between Line and Staff organization :

Question 18.
Distinguish among authority, responsibility and accountability.
Answer:
Differences among Authority, Responsibility and Accountability.

MP Board Class 12 Business Studies Important Questions

MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 5 Dissolution of a Partnership Firm

Dissolution of a Partnership Firm Important Questions

Dissolution of a Partnership Firm Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Profit on Realization is credited to Partner’s:
(a) Bank AJc
(b) Capital A/c
(c) Revaluation A/c
(d) Realization A/c.
Answer:
(b) Capital A/c

Question 2.
Assets and liabilities accounts are closed by transferring them into:
(a) Revaluation A/c
(b) Realization A/c
(c) Cash A/c
(d) Capital A/c.
Answer:

Question 3.
Compulsory dissolution of a firm:
(a) On the death of a partner
(b) On insolvency of a partner.
(c) On becoming insane of a partner
(d) When the business of the firm become illegal.
Answer:
(b) On insolvency of a partner.

Question 4.
Assets are transferred to Realization account on their :
(a) Book value
(b) Cost price
(c) Market price
(d) Establishment cost.
Answer:
(d) Establishment cost.

Question 5.
On payment of Liabilities, amount written :
(a) Book value
(b) Originally paid amount
(c) After deducting discount
(d) Any other price.
Answer:
(a) Book value

Question 6.
After transferring creditors and Bills payable to Realization account, if nothing is mentioned about its payment then these liabilities are:
(a) Not paid
(b) Fully paid
(c) Partially paid
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Fully paid

Question 7.
When a partner pay the dissolution expenses on behalf of the firm, then these expenses will be debited in :
(a) Realization A/c
(b) Partner’s Capital A/c
(c) Partner’s loan A/c
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Realization A/c

Question 8.
When unrecorded assets is taken over by a partner, it is shown in :
(a) Debit side of Realization A/c
(b) Debit side of Bank A/c
(c) Credit side of Realization A/c
(d) Credit side of Bank A/c.
Answer:
(c) Credit side of Realization A/c

Question 9.
When unrecorded liabilities are paid, it is shown in :
(a) Debit side of Realization A/c
(b) Debit side of Bank A/c
(c) Credit side of Realization A/c
(d) Credit side of Bank A/c.
Answer:
(a) Debit side of Realization A/c

Question 10.
Which of the following is an internal liability .
(a) Bank loan
(b) Bank overdraft
(c) General Reserve
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) General Reserve

Question 11.
On dissolution of firm all assets and liabilities are transferred to :
(a) Capital A/c
(b) Revaluation A/c
(c) Realization A/c
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Realization A/c

Question 12.
The asset which is not transferred in realization A/c but it is sold :
(a) Stock
(b) Goodwill
(c) Investment
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(d) None of these.

Question 13.
Realization A/c is prepared :
(a) On admission of new partner
(b) On retirement of partner
(c) On dissolution of firm
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) On dissolution of firm

Question 14.
Dissolution of a firm, partner’s loan account is transferred to: (MP 2009 Set A)
(a) Realization account
(b) Partner’s capital account
(c) Partner’s current account
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(d) None of these.

Question 15.
Insolvency of a partner leads to which type of dissolution :
(a) Dissolution of agreement
(b) Compulsory dissolution
(c) Dissolution by incidence
(d) Dissolution by court.
Answer:
(b) Compulsory dissolution

Question 16.
Realization A/c is: (MP 2015,16)
(a) Real A/c
(b) Personal A/c
(c) Nominal A/c
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Nominal A/c

Question 17.
At the time of dissolution of a firm Bank Overdraft is transferred to: (MP 2014)
(a) Cash A/c
(b) Realization A/c
(c) Capital A/c
(d) Revaluation A/c.
Answer:
(b) Realization A/c

Question 18.
Undistributed losses and reserves are transferred to: (MP 2017)
(a) Cash account
(b) Bank account
(c) Capital account of partners
(d) Profit & loss A/c.
Answer:
(c) Capital account of partners

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. On the dissolution of firm the court appoint an ………………
2. All the assets except ……………. are transferred to debit side of Realization account.
3. Payment of liabilities is entered in …………….. side of cash account.
4. The realized amount of assets is entered in ………….. account.
5. All the Assets (except cash in hand and Bank) are transferred to ………….. side of …………. Account.
6. All ……………… (External / Internal) liabilities are transferred to …………… side of …………… Account.
7. Reserve loss / Undistributed losses are transferred to ……………… in their …………… ratio.
8. When a partner took over any liability of the firm, his capital account is ………………
9. Partner’s loan account is …………… in Realization Account.
10. When a partner took over any assets of the firm, his capital account will be …………..
11. Balance of Partner’s current account is transferred to partner’s …………… account.
12. When all the partners of firm become insolvent except one then there is …………… dissolution of firm.
13. Amount due to deceased partner is transferred to …………… account.
14. By dissolution of partnership there is not compulsory dissolution of ……………..
15. On dissolution of firm first of all ……………. liabilities are paid. (MP 2010)
16. On dissolution of firm cash in hand is transferred to ………….. account.
17. Realization account is a kind of …………….. account. (MP 2011)
18. After dissolution of the firm, partner can transact their own ……………. (MP 2017)

Answer:

1. Solicitor
2. Cash & Bank balance
3. Credit
4. Realization
5. Credit, Realization
6. External, Debit, Realization
7. Capital A/c, Profit Sharing ratio
8. Debited
9. Credited
10. Not recorded
11. Capital
12. Compulsory
13. legal executors
14. firm
15. outsiders
16. cash
17. real
18. business.

Match the columns:

Answer:

1. (d) Goodwill
2. (c) Loan from partner (MP 2010,17)
3. (b) Bank loan
4. (a) Unrecorded asset
5. (e) Preferred (MP 2010)
6. (f) Dissolution
7. (h) At the time of dissolution. (MP 20I5)
8. (g) Realization A/c Dr. (MP 2016)

Question 4.
Write true or false:

1. Unrecorded assets are transferred to realization A/c.
2. In a firm the dissolution of partnership among all partners is called dissolution of firm.
3. Provision for bad debts is not transferred to realization A/c.
4. Profit and loss of Realization A/c is divided among partners in profit and loss sharing ratio.
5. Revaluation account is opened for closing the books of a firm under dissolution. (MP 2009 Set A)
6. Balance sheet is prepared at the time of firm’s dissolution. (MP 2010,15)
7. Partners loan is an internal liability. (MP 2010)
8. The balance of realization account is transferred among partners in capital ratio.
9. There are five methods of dissolution of firm. (MP 2011)
10. The business is closed in case of dissolution of a firm. (MP 2012)
11. Realization account is made many times in the life of a firm. (MP 2012)
12. There is no difference between the dissolution of firm and dissolution of partner-ship. (MP 2016)
13. On dissolution, payment made to creditors is debited to realization account. (MP 2017)

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. False
4. True
5. False
6. False
7. True
8. False
9. True
10. True
11. False
12. False
13. True.

Question 5.
Write the answer in one word / sentence:

1. Realization account is prepared. (MP 2008,17)
2. Assets and liabilities are transferred at book value. (MP 2012)
3. The balance of current account is transferred.
4. When liabilities of the partner are more than his assets, then he is called as ?
5. The act which is applicable on dissolution of a firm.
6. When all the partners or all the partners except one is declared insolvent then which type of dissolution it is ?
7. At which value the assets of a dissolved firm are transferred to realization A/c.
8. On the expiry of time the dissolution of partnership is called ? (MP 2016)
9. On dissolution of firm, assets bought by partners is entered in Capital A/c in which side ?
10. Profit or loss on Realization is divided among partners in which ratio ?
11. Which assets are not transferred to Realization account ?
12. Assets are transferred to Realization account in which value ?
13. After the expiry of term, partnership that comes to an end is known ?

Answer:

1. On dissolution of firm
2. In realization account
3. In capital account
4. Insolvent
5. Indian partnership act 1932
6. Compulsory dissolution
7. Book value
8. Dissolution by co-incidence
9. Debit side
10. Profit sharing
11. Cash & Bank balance
12. Book value
13. Partnership at will.

Dissolution of a Partnership Firm Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by dissolution of a partnership ?
Answer:
Dissolution of partnership firm means closing down the business of the firm. There is distinction between dissolution of partnership and dissolution of firm. Dissolution of partnership involves a change in the relation of partners, but the business is carried on. Section 39 of Indian Partnership Act, 1932 provides that, “The dissolution of partnership among all the partners of a firm is called the dissolution of the firm.”

Question 2.
What do you mean by realization account ?
Answer:
When the firm is dissolved, it is essential to close the accounts of various assets and liabilities. In this circumstance the assets are sold off and cash is realized. This cash is used for paying the liabilities. This process is entered in a separate account, which is known as realization account. It is a temporary account.

Question 3.
Write the names of those accounts entered in assets side of balance sheet which are not transferred to realization account.
Answer:
The following accounts are not transferred to realization account:

• Cash Account
• Bank Account
• Prepaid Expenses Account
• Accrued Income A/c
• Debit Balance of Profit and Loss Account.

Question 4.
Write the names of those accounts entered in the liability side of balance sheet which are not transferred to realization account.
Answer:
The following accounts are not transferred to realization account:

• Undivided Profit
• General Reserve
• Capital Account
• Partners Loan Account.

Question 5.
What journal entries are passed on sale of unrecorded Asset ?
Answer:
Cash A/c                – Dr.
To Realization A/c

Question 6.
Which accounts are opened when a firm is dissolved ?
Answer:
The following accounts are opened when a firm is dissolved:

• Realization Account
• Partner’s Loan Account
• Partner’s Capital Account
• Cash Account or Bank Account.

Question 7.
In which condition partnership act will be dissolved ?
Answer:
According to Indian partnership Act section 43. When partnership act will be there then the firm can be dissolve by giving information to all the partners.

Question 8.
What do you mean by Compulsory dissolution of a firm ? Explain.
Answer:
Compulsory Dissolution: As per Indian partnership Act the compulsory dissolution of a firm takes place under the following conditions:

• When all the partners or all the partners except one partners are declared insolvent.
• When the business of the firm is declared illegal due to happening of any specific event.
• When the maximum number of members exceeds the stipulated Limit.
• When the citizen of an enemy nation is the partner of the firm.

Question 9.
Under what circumstances a court may order for the dissolution of a firm ? Explain.
Answer:
Court may order the dissolution of a firm if a partner files a suit for the purpose. The grounds on which such dissolution may be ordered are as under :

• When a partner became insane.
• When any of the firm’s partner becomes handicapped or permanently disabled.
• When any of the firm’s partner willfully breaches the agreement.
• When there is possibility of losses regularly in the firm’s business.
• On any other reason for which the court is satisfied that it is necessary to dissolve the firm.

Question 10.
Write the internal Liabilities which are not paid in cash by the firm during dissolution.
Answer:
Following are the internal Liabilities of any firm which are not paid in cash during firm’s dissolution.
Partner’s Capital A/c
Partner’s Loan A/c
Loan A/c of partner’s wife.

Question 11.
Which assets are not transferred in the debit side of Realization account but the amount received on their sale are entered in it ?
Answer:
Unrecorded assets are not transferred in the debit side of the Realization ac-count but the amount received on their sale are entered in it.

Question 12.
How do the left over or unrecorded assets and liabilities were recorded in realization A/c ? Explain .
Answer:
Unrecorded Assets and Liabilities are not transferred to realization account. But the amount received from the sale of unrecorded assets is entered in the credit side and payment made for unrecorded liabilities are entered in the debit side of realization account.

Question 13.
Which assets shown in the assets side of the balance sheet were not transferred to the realization account ?
Answer:
Cash in hand
Bank A/c
Dr. Balance of P/L A/c.

Question 14.
Which Liabilities shown in the liabilities side of the balance sheet were not transferred to the realization A/c ?
Answer:
Following liabilities were not transferred to the realization A/c :

• Undistributed profits
• General Reserve
• Partner’s Capital A/c
• Partner’s Loan A/c.

Question 15.
What is Memorandum balance Sheet ?
Answer:
Sometimes the partner’s capital accounts and all other liabilities were given in the question but the amount of total assets is not given. Under such condition, the amount of total assets is ascertained. Total of all the Liabilities is done on the basis of old balance sheet and from it, the amount of total sundry assets is calculated. Such a balance sheet is known as Memorandum Balance sheet.

Dissolution of a Partnership Firm Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write three differences between the dissolution of a firm and dissolution of part-pep?
Answer:
Differences between dissolution of a firm and dissolution of partners:

Question 2.
State the rules given under Section 48 of Partnership Act of 1932 to close the accounts when a firm is dissolved.
Or
How are accounts settled on dissolution of a firm ?
Answer:
The following rules are given under Section 48 of the Partnership Act of 1932 to close the accounts when a firm is dissolved:
(1) All the loss including the capital deficiency of the partners is adjusted at first from the profit, then from their capital balance and if need arise they have to bring in sufficient amount in their profit or loss sharing ratio.

(2) The realized amount from the sale of assets (including the amount brought by the partner) is used in the following order:

• The outside liabilities of the firm
• Proportionate payment of partner’s loan
• Payment of capital balance
• If any amount is left, it is shared by the partners in their profit or loss-sharing ratio.

Dissolution of a Partnership Firm Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What accounts are opened on the dissolution of a firm ? Explain the realization account.
Answer:
When a partnership is dissolved, the following accounts are opened:

• Realization Account
• Partner’s Capital Account
• Bank/Cash Account
• Loan Account.

Realization account:
When a partnership is dissolved for closing all the assets and liabilities account and for entering the amount realized from the sale of assets and payments of all the liabilities, an account is opened, which is known as realization account. Preparation of realization account:

In the debit side of realization account, all the assets excluding cash and bank balance are entered. In the credit side of this account all the liabilities excluding the partners capital balance, partners loan towards the firm and the reserves are entered.

After that the amount received from the sale of assets credited and the payment of liabilities is debited in this account. After the dissolution, the balance of this account is transferred to all the partners capital account in their profit or loss sharing ratio.

Question 2.
Differentiate between revaluation account and realization account.
Answer:
Differences between revaluation account and realization account:

Question 3.
which circumstances a partnership firm may be dissolved ?
Or
Explain the methods of dissolution of a firm.
Answer:
Section 40 to 44 of the Indian Partnership Act of 1932 tells that, on the following circumstances a partnership firm may be dissolved:

1. Dissolution by agreement:
A firm may be dissolved with the consent of all the partners or according to the terms of the agreement among the partners.

2. Compulsory dissolution:
Under section 41 of the Indian partnership act 1932, by the adjudication of all the partners but one as insolvent, or by the business of the firm becomes unlawful or illegal due to the happening of any such incident or event, the firm may be compulsory dissolved.

3. Dissolution by court: If any of the circumstances lays down, the court may under to dissolve the firm:

• When a partner becomes unsound mind
• When a partner suffers from permanent incapacity and incapable for performing his duties as a partner
• When a partner is found guilty out of misconduct affecting the firm
• On the will full and persistent breach of partnership agreement by a partner
• On the transfer of the whole or the interest by a partner in favor of a third party or when his share is attached
• under a decrease or sold under process of law.
• When the business of the firm can’t be carried on.
• On any other just and equitable ground.

4. Dissolution on the happening of contingencies: A firm may be dissolved in any of the following ways unless there is a contract between the partners to the contrary:

• By expiry of the term fixed
• By the completion of the adventure that which the firm is constituted
• By the death of a partner
• By the adjudication of a partner as insolvent.

MP Board Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions

MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 6 तत्त्वों के निष्कर्षण के सिद्धान्त एवं प्रक्रम

तत्त्वों के निष्कर्षण के सिद्धान्त एवं प्रक्रम NCERT पाठ्यनिहित प्रश्नोत्तर

प्रश्न 1.
सारणी 6.1 में दर्शाए गए अयस्कों में से किसका सान्द्रण चुम्बकीय पृथक्करण विधि द्वारा करते हैं ?
उत्तर
नोट-सारणी के लिए NCERT पाठ्य-पुस्तक देखें।
चुम्बकीय अयस्क को अचुम्बकीय अशुद्धियों से पृथक् चुम्बकीय पृथक्करण विधि द्वारा करते हैं। उदाहरण के लिए-मैग्नेटाइट को अचुम्बकीय सिलिका एवं अन्य अशुद्धियों से पृथक् इस विधि द्वारा करते हैं।

प्रश्न 2.
ऐल्युमिनियम के निष्कर्षण में प्रक्षालन का महत्व क्या है?
उत्तर
ऐल्युमिनियम का मुख्य अयस्क बॉक्साइट (Al₂O₃xH₂O) है। इसमें अशुद्धियों के रूप में SiO₂, FeO एवं टाइटेनियम ऑक्साइड (TiO₂) होती है। इस अशुद्धियों को प्रक्षालन द्वारा पृथक् करते हैं। बॉक्साइट से शुद्ध एलुमिना बनाने में प्रक्षालन का महत्व है। बॉक्साइट चूर्ण को NaOH विलयन के साथ 473 – 523 K पर गर्म करते हैं । एलुमिना घुलकर सोडियम मेटा ऐलुमिनेट बनाता है, जबकि अशुद्धियाँ आयरन एवं टाइटेनियम शेष रह जाती है।

अशुद्धियों को छानकर अलग कर लेते हैं। छनित में CO₂ प्रवाहित कर उदासीन करते हैं । ऐल्युमिनियम हाइड्रॉक्साइड को पृथक् कर लेते हैं, जबकि सोडियम सिलिकेट विलयन में शेष रह जाता है। ऐल्युमिनियम हाइड्रॉक्साइड को गर्म कर शुद्ध ऐलुमिना प्राप्त होता है।

ऐलुमिना के वैद्युत-अपघटन से ऐल्युमिनियम प्राप्त होता है।

प्रश्न 3.
Cr₂O₃ + 2Al → Al₂O₃ +2Cr; (∆G° = -421kJ)
गिब्स ऊर्जा मान से स्पष्ट है कि उपरोक्त अभिक्रिया संभव है। यह कमरे के तापक्रम पर क्यों नहीं होती?
उत्तर
कमरे के ताप पर सभी अभिकारक एवं उत्पाद ठोस हैं। इसलिए कमरे के ताप पर अभिक्रिया नहीं होती। उच्च ताप पर अभि-कारक पिघलकर क्रिया करते हैं।

प्रश्न 4.
यह सत्य है कि कुछ विशिष्ट परिस्थितियों में, Mg, SiO₂ को अपचयित करता है एवं Si, MgO को अपचयित करता है। ये उपरोक्त परिस्थितियाँ क्या हैं ?
उत्तर
मैग्नीशियम 1693 K पर अथवा कम पर SiO₂ को अपचयित करते हैं । सिलिकॉन 1693 K के ऊपर Mgo को अपचयित करते हैं।

तत्त्वों के निष्कर्षण के सिद्धान्त एवं प्रक्रम NCERT पाठ्य-पुस्तक प्रश्नोत्तर

प्रश्न 1.
कॉपर का निष्कर्षण हाइड्रो धातुकर्म द्वारा किया जाता है, परन्तु जिंक का नहीं। व्याख्या कीजिए।
उत्तर
कॉपर तुलनात्मक कम क्रियाशील धातु है, इसका अपचयन विभव E° (Cu²⁺/Cu) उच्च है (+0.34V)। यह Cu²⁺ आयनों के विलयन से अधिक क्रियाशील धातुओं, जिनके E° मान कॉपर से कम होते हैं, द्वारा विस्थापित हो जाता है। उदाहरण के लिए, जिंक का E° (Zn²⁺/zn) – 0.76 है, जिंक कॉपर से Cu²⁺आयनों के विलयन से विस्थापित करता है। इसके विपरीत Zn²⁺ आयनों के विलयन से Zn को अधिक क्रियाशील धातु जैसे-Na, K, Mg, Ca आदि द्वारा विस्थापित किया जाता है। परन्तु ये अधिक क्रियाशील धातुएँ जल से क्रिया कर अपने आयनों को बनाकर हाइड्रोजन गैस निकालती हैं।
[2Na + 2H₂O → 2NaOH + H₂] इस प्रकार Zn²⁺ आयनों के विलयन से Zn को विस्थापित करना कठिन है। अत: कॉपर को हाइड्रोधातुकर्म द्वारा निष्कर्षित किया जाता है, जिंक को नहीं।

प्रश्न 2.
फेन प्लवन विधि में अवनमक (Depressant) की क्या भूमिका है?
उत्तर
दो सल्फाइड अयस्कों को पृथक् करने के लिए फेन प्लवन विधि में अवनमक (Depressant) का उपयोग किया जाता है। इसके लिए जल में तेल का भाग समायोजित करते हैं। यदि अयस्क में ZnS एवं Pbs है, तो अवसाद या अवनमक के रूप में NaCN का उपयोग करते हैं। NaCN, Pbs को झाग के रूप में ऊपर आने देता है, जबकि ZnS को झाग की बनी परत जिंक संकुल Na₂[Zn(CN)₆] के रूंप में रोकता है।

प्रश्न 3.
अपचयन द्वारा ऑक्साइड अयस्कों की अपेक्षा पाइराइट से ताँबे का निष्कर्षण अधिक कठिन है ?
उत्तर
H₂S एवं CS₂ से Cu₂S की निर्माण की मानक मुक्त ऊर्जा (Δ_fG°) अधिक ऋणात्मक है। उसी प्रकार Cu₂S को कार्बन या H₂ द्वारा अपचयित नहीं किया जा सकता। निम्न दो अभिक्रिया समान नहीं होतीं। इन अभिक्रियाओं की Δ_rG° धनात्मक है।

Cu₂S + H₂ → 2Cu + H₂S
2Cu₂S + C → 4Cu + CS₂

इसके विपरीत Cu₂O की Δ_fG°, CO से कम ऋणात्मक है एवं कार्बन सरलता से Cu₂O को Cu में अपचयित करता है।

Cu₂O_(s) +C_s → 2Cu + CO_(g)

इस कारण से पाइराइट अयस्क से कॉपर का निष्कर्षण, इसके ऑक्साइड से कठिन है।

प्रश्न 4.
व्याख्या कीजिए –
(i) मंडल परिष्करण (Zone refining)
(ii) स्तंभ वर्णलेखिकी (Column chromatography)।
उत्तर
(i) मंडल परिष्करण या प्रभाजी क्रिस्टलीकरण (Zone refining or Fractional crystallisation) विशिष्ट उपयोगों हेतु शुद्धतम धातु प्राप्त करने हेतु इस विधि का उपयोग किया जाता है। उदाहरण के लिये, अर्द्धचालक (Semiconductors) के रूप में उपयोग के लिये सिलिकॉन व जर्मेनियम को इसी विधि द्वारा प्राप्त किया जाता है। यह विधि इस तथ्य पर आधारित है कि अशुद्ध धातु के ठोस अवस्था की तुलना में द्रव में अधिक विलेय होती हैं तथा अशुद्धियाँ होने पर उसका गलनांक शुद्ध धातु से कम होता है।

इस विधि में अशुद्ध धातु के छड़ के एक सिरे में गोलाकार चलित हीटर फिट कर दिया जाता है। हीटर को छड़ में धीरे-धीरे विस्थापित किया जाता है। हीटर के आसपास धातु पिघलती है। जैसे-जैसे हीटर आगे बढता है शुद्ध धातु क्रिस्टलीकृत होता जाता है तथा अशुद्धियाँ पिघले क्षेत्र में चली जाती हैं । यह प्रक्रिया तब तक दोहरायी जाती है जब तक पूरी अशुद्धियाँ छड़ के एक सिरे पर नहीं आ जाती जिसे बाद में अलग कर दिया जाता है। यह विधि प्रभाजी क्रिस्टलीकरण (Fractional crystallisation) भी कहलाती है।

(ii) स्तम्भ वर्णप्रक्रम या अधिशोषण स्तम्भ वर्णप्रक्रम (Column chromatography or Adsorption column chromatography)- यह विधि काँच नली में बंद (Packed) अधिशोषक के स्तम्भ पर मिश्रण के पृथक्करण से संबंधित है। स्तम्भ के निचले सिरे पर स्टॉप कॉक (Stop cock) लगा होता है। अधिशोषक पर अधिशोषित होने वाले मिश्रण को अधिशोषक स्तम्भ के ऊपर रखा जाता है। अब एक अन्य द्रव मिश्रण, जो वाहक (Eluant) का कार्य करता है, स्तम्भ में नीचे की ओर बहने दिया जाता है। यह वाहक मिश्रण अपने साथ धीरे-धीरे पूर्व अधिशोषित पदार्थों को बहाकर ले जाता है। मिश्रण के विभिन्न अवयव स्तम्भ के विभिन्न भागों में अधिशोषित हो जाते हैं।

वह अवयव जो अधिक प्रबलता से अधिशोषित होता है, स्तम्भ के ऊपरी भाग में रहता है और पट्टी बनाता है। अधिशोषित यौगिकों को विभिन्न घोलकों में घुलाकर एक-एक करके पृथक् कर लिया जाता है। इस प्रक्रिया को निक्षालन (Elution) कहते हैं। निक्षालन की क्रिया के लिए प्रायः जल, ऐल्कोहॉल, ऐसीटोन, पेट्रोलियम, ईथर आदि घोलकों का उपयोग होता है। अधिशोषक के रूप में प्राय: एलुमिना, मैग्नीशियम
ऑक्साइड, सिलिका जेल, कैल्सियम कार्बोनेट आदि का व्यवहार होता है। इस विधि में साधारणतः एक भाग यौगिक के लिए चालीस भाग अधिशोषक प्रयुक्त होता है।

कभी-कभी नली से अधिशोषित स्तम्भ को बाहर निकालकर प्रत्येक रंगीन बैण्ड को काट लिया जाता है। इन रंगीन बैण्डों से अधिशोषित यौगिकों को घोलक द्वारा निष्कर्षित (Extract) कर रवाकरण की क्रिया द्वारा शुद्ध अवयव प्राप्त किये जाते हैं।

इस विधि द्वारा किसी मिश्रण से रंगहीन (Colourless) अवयवों का पृथक्करण तभी संभव है जब वे पराबैंगनी प्रकाश (Ultra-violet light) में विभिन्न प्रतिदीप्त (Fluorescence) प्रदर्शित करते हों। यदि वे प्रतिदीप्ति प्रदर्शित नहीं करते तो अधिशोषक को ही प्रतिदीप्तिशील पदार्थ (Fluorescent material) में डुबोया जाता है। मिश्रण के विभिन्न अवयवों को अधिशोषित करने वाले क्षेत्र पराबैंगनी प्रकाश में गहरे रंग (Dark colour) के दिखाई पड़ने लगते हैं जिससे अवयवों के पृथक्करण में सुविधा होती है। प्रयोग शीशे की नली की जगह क्वार्ट्स (Quartz) की नली में किया जाता है।

प्रश्न 5.
673 K ताप पर C तथा CO में से कौन-सा अच्छा अपचायक है ?
उत्तर
जब कार्बन, डाइऑक्सीजन से क्रिया करता है, दो अभिक्रियाएँ संभावित हैं।
C_(s) + O_2(g) → CO_2(g) …………..(i)
2C_(s) + O_2(g) → 2CO_(g) …………..(ii)

यदि CO अपचायक अभिकर्मक के रूप में उपयोग होती है, तब यह CO₂ में ऑक्सीकृत होती है।

2CO + O₂ → 2CO₂…………..(iii)

एलिन्गम आरेख से स्पष्ट है कि 673 K पर CO से CO₂ में ऑक्सीकरण पर ΔG° अभिक्रिया (i) एवं अभिक्रिया (ii) से अधिक ऋणात्मक है। इस प्रकार C से CO अच्छा अपचायक अभिकर्मक है। इस बात की पुष्टि अभिक्रिया (iii) का ग्राफ 673 K पर अभिक्रिया (i) एवं (ii) से नीचे है, से होती है। एलिन्गम आरेख में जो तत्व नीचे हैं, अन्य धातुओं के ऑक्साइड इससे ऊपर होते हैं।

प्रश्न 6.
कॉपर के वैद्युत अपघटन शोधन में ऐनोड पंक (Anode mud) में उपस्थित सामान्य तत्वों के नाम दीजिए। वे कहाँ कैसे उपस्थित होते है ?
उत्तर
ऐनोड पंक में उपस्थित सामान्य तत्वों Ag, Au, Pt, Sb, Se आदि हैं। ये तत्व कम क्रियाशील होते हैं एवं CuSO₄ एवं H₂SO₄ विलयन से अप्रभावित रहते हैं, एवं इस प्रकार ये ऐनोड के नीचे ऐनोड पंक (Anode mud) के रूप में बैठ जाते हैं।

प्रश्न 7.
आयरन (लोहे) के निष्कर्षण के दौरान वात्या भट्टी के विभिन्न क्षेत्रों में होने वाली रासायनिक अभिक्रियाओं को लिखिए।
उत्तर
वात्या-भट्ठी में होने वाली क्रियाएँ –
(i) कोक वायु की उपस्थिति में जलकर CO₂ बनाता है, जो कोक की अधिक मात्रा से रासायनिक संयोग करके CO बनाता है।

(ii) CO ऊपर की ओर उठकर 600°C पर हेमेटाइट अयस्क (Fe₂O₃) को फेरस ऑक्साइड (FeO) में अपचयित कर देता है।

(iii) लगभग 750°C पर CO द्वारा FeO को आयरन (Fe) में अपचयित कर देता है।

FeO + CO —> Fe+ CO₂

इस प्रकार प्राप्त लोहे को स्पंजी आयरन कहते हैं। स्पंजी लोहा नीचे जाते-जाते ताप बढ़ने के कारण पिघल जाता है तथा अपने में कुछ C, S, Mn को घोल लेता है।
(iv) चूना पत्थर 1100°C ताप पर CaO और CO₂ में अपघटित हो जाता है।

(v) CaO अयस्क उपस्थित सिलिका (SiO2) से क्रिया करके धातुमल (Slag) बना लेता है।

ये धातुमल पिघले लोहे के ऊपर तैरता रहता है, जिसे ऊपरी छिद्र से बाहर निकाल लेते हैं। वात्या-भट्ठी का नामांकित रेखाचित्र –

प्रश्न 8.
जिंक ब्लैण्ड से जिंक के निष्कर्षण में होने वाली रासायनिक अभिक्रियाओं को लिखिए।
उत्तर
जस्ते के अयस्क – (i) जिंक ब्लैण्ड ZnS, (ii) कैलामाइन ZnCO₃, (iii) विलैमाइट ZnSiO₄.
धातु निष्कर्षण की आधुनिक विधि-जिंक ब्लैण्ड तथा कैलामाइन अयस्कों से प्रायः धातु का निष्कर्षण किया जाता है।
1. सान्द्रण-जिंक ब्लैण्ड अयस्क का सान्द्रण झाग उत्प्लावन विधि से करते हैं।
2. भर्जन-सान्द्रित अयस्क को वायु की अधिकता में भर्जित करने से अयस्क ZnO में परिवर्तित हो जाता है। कुछ ZnS, ZnSO₄ में परिवर्तित होते हैं, जो ZnO में अपघटित हो जाता है।

2ZnS + 3O₂ → 2ZnO + 2SO_2(g)
ZnS + 2O₂ → ZnSO₄
2ZnSo₄ → 2ZnO + 2SO_2(g) + O_2(g)

कैलामाइन अयस्क केवल निस्तापन से ही ZnO बनाता है।
ZnCO₃ → ZnO + CO_2(g)

3. अपचयन- भर्जित या निस्तापित अयस्क को कोक से साथ ऊर्ध्वाधर रिटॉर्ट में रखकर प्रोड्यूसर गैस द्वारा 140°C तक गर्म किया जाता है, जिससे ZnO का Zn में अपचयन हो जाता है। प्राप्त Zn वाष्प को संघनित्र में एकत्रित करते हैं। इस प्रकार प्राप्त Zn को स्पेल्टर कहते हैं। इसमें Pb, As, Fe, Si, Cd और C की अशुद्धियाँ होती हैं और शेष 97.8% Zn होता है।

4. शोधन-अतिशुद्ध Zn विद्युत्-अपघटनी विधि द्वारा प्राप्त किया जाता है। इसमें अम्लीय ZnSO₄ विलयन विद्युत्-अपघटन का कार्य करता है। प्राप्त अशुद्ध Zn ऐनोड तथा शुद्ध Zn छड़ कैथोड का कार्य करता है। विद्युत् धारा प्रवाहित करने पर शुद्ध Zn कैथोड पर एकत्रित होता है। यह लगभग 99.98% शुद्ध होता है।

प्रश्न 9.
कॉपर के धातुकर्म में सिलिका की भूमिका समझाइए।
उत्तर
सिलिका अम्लीय गालक के रूप में प्रयुक्त होता है, जो आयरन ऑक्साइड की क्षारीय अशुद्धि को हटाता है।

प्रश्न 10.
‘वर्णलेखिकी’ पद का क्या अर्थ है ?
उत्तर
पृथक्करण एवं शोधन के लिए वर्णलेखिकी एक तकनीक है, जो धातु एवं इसकी अशुद्धियों की उपयुक्त अधिशोषक द्वारा अधिशोषण क्षमताओं में अंतर पर आधारित है। यह इस सिद्धांत पर आधारित है, कि मिश्रण के विभिन्न यौगिक अधिशोषक द्वारा भिन्न-भिन्न अधिशोषित होता है। यह पद मुलतः ग्रीक शब्द ‘क्रोमा’ का अर्थ रंग एवं ग्राफी लिखते हैं, इस आधार पर इस विधि का नाम क्रोमेटोग्राफी रखा गया, जिसका अर्थ होता है, वर्णलेखन (Colour writing) जिसका सर्वप्रथम उपयोग पौधों के रंगीन वर्णकों के लिए किया गया।

प्रश्न 11.
वर्णलेखिकी में स्थिर प्रावस्था के चयन में क्या मापदंड अपनाए जाते हैं ?
उत्तर
अचल या स्थिर (Stationary phase) प्रावस्था का चयन इस प्रकार करते हैं कि जिन तत्वों का शोधन करना होता है, उनकी तुलना में अशुद्धियों को अधिक शक्ति से अधिशोषित करें। इन परिस्थितियों में, अशुद्धियाँ अचल या स्थिर प्रावस्था द्वारा रोक ली जाती हैं, जिसका अर्थ है, इन्हें सरलता से हटाया नहीं जा सकता, जबकि शुद्ध अवयव दुर्बल अधि-शोषित होते हैं, अतः सरलता से हटाए जा सकते हैं।

प्रश्न 12.
निकिल शोधन की विधि समझाइए।
उत्तर
(i) मंडल परिष्करण (Zone refining)- मंडल परिष्करण या प्रभाजी क्रिस्टलीकरण (Zone refining or Fractional crystallisation) विशिष्ट उपयोगों हेतु शुद्धतम धातु प्राप्त करने हेतु इस विधि का उपयोग किया जाता है। उदाहरण के लिये, अर्द्धचालक (Semiconductors) के रूप में उपयोग के लिये सिलिकॉन व जर्मेनियम को इसी विधि द्वारा प्राप्त किया जाता है। यह विधि इस तथ्य पर आधारित है कि अशुद्ध धातु के ठोस अवस्था की तुलना में द्रव में अधिक विलेय होती हैं तथा अशुद्धियाँ होने पर उसका गलनांक शुद्ध धातु से कम होता है।

इस विधि में अशुद्ध धातु के छड़ के एक सिरे में गोलाकार चलित हीटर फिट कर दिया जाता है। हीटर को छड़ में धीरे-धीरे विस्थापित किया जाता है। हीटर के आसपास धातु पिघलती है। जैसे-जैसे हीटर आगे बढता है शुद्ध धातु क्रिस्टलीकृत होता जाता है तथा अशुद्धियाँ पिघले क्षेत्र में चली जाती हैं । यह प्रक्रिया तब तक दोहरायी जाती है जब तक पूरी अशुद्धियाँ छड़ के एक सिरे पर नहीं आ जाती जिसे बाद में अलग कर दिया जाता है। यह विधि प्रभाजी क्रिस्टलीकरण (Fractional crystallisation) भी कहलाती है।

(ii) स्तम्भ वर्णप्रक्रम या अधिशोषण स्तम्भ वर्णप्रक्रम (Column chromatography or Adsorption column chromatography)- यह विधि काँच नली में बंद (Packed) अधिशोषक के स्तम्भ पर मिश्रण के पृथक्करण से संबंधित है। स्तम्भ के निचले सिरे पर स्टॉप कॉक (Stop cock) लगा होता है। अधिशोषक पर अधिशोषित होने वाले मिश्रण को अधिशोषक स्तम्भ के ऊपर रखा जाता है। अब एक अन्य द्रव मिश्रण, जो वाहक (Eluant) का कार्य करता है, स्तम्भ में नीचे की ओर बहने दिया जाता है। यह वाहक मिश्रण अपने साथ धीरे-धीरे पूर्व अधिशोषित पदार्थों को बहाकर ले जाता है। मिश्रण के विभिन्न अवयव स्तम्भ के विभिन्न भागों में अधिशोषित हो जाते हैं।

वह अवयव जो अधिक प्रबलता से अधिशोषित होता है, स्तम्भ के ऊपरी भाग में रहता है और पट्टी बनाता है। अधिशोषित यौगिकों को विभिन्न घोलकों में घुलाकर एक-एक करके पृथक् कर लिया जाता है। इस प्रक्रिया को निक्षालन (Elution) कहते हैं। निक्षालन की क्रिया के लिए प्रायः जल, ऐल्कोहॉल, ऐसीटोन, पेट्रोलियम, ईथर आदि घोलकों का उपयोग होता है। अधिशोषक के रूप में प्राय: एलुमिना, मैग्नीशियम
ऑक्साइड, सिलिका जेल, कैल्सियम कार्बोनेट आदि का व्यवहार होता है। इस विधि में साधारणतः एक भाग यौगिक के लिए चालीस भाग अधिशोषक प्रयुक्त होता है।

कभी-कभी नली से अधिशोषित स्तम्भ को बाहर निकालकर प्रत्येक रंगीन बैण्ड को काट लिया जाता है। इन रंगीन बैण्डों से अधिशोषित यौगिकों को घोलक द्वारा निष्कर्षित (Extract) कर रवाकरण की क्रिया द्वारा शुद्ध अवयव प्राप्त किये जाते हैं।

इस विधि द्वारा किसी मिश्रण से रंगहीन (Colourless) अवयवों का पृथक्करण तभी संभव है जब वे पराबैंगनी प्रकाश (Ultra-violet light) में विभिन्न प्रतिदीप्त (Fluorescence) प्रदर्शित करते हों। यदि वे प्रतिदीप्ति प्रदर्शित नहीं करते तो अधिशोषक को ही प्रतिदीप्तिशील पदार्थ (Fluorescent material) में डुबोया जाता है। मिश्रण के विभिन्न अवयवों को अधिशोषित करने वाले क्षेत्र पराबैंगनी प्रकाश में गहरे रंग (Dark colour) के दिखाई पड़ने लगते हैं जिससे अवयवों के पृथक्करण में सुविधा होती है। प्रयोग शीशे की नली की जगह क्वार्ट्स (Quartz) की नली में किया जाता है।

(ii) वैद्युत अपघटन परिष्करण (Electrolytic refining) धातुएँ अपने लवण के विलयन का विद्युत्अपघटन करने पर कैथोड पर जमा होती है। एक से अधिक धातुएँ रहने पर अपनी विद्युत् धनात्मक प्रवृत्ति के क्रम पर या बढ़ते ऑक्सीकरण विभव के क्रम में मुक्त होकर कैथोड पर जमा होती हैं । इस विधि में एक उपयुक्त विद्युत्-अपघट्य का चुनाव करके उसे विद्युत्-अपघटन सेल में ले लिया जाता है। शुद्ध धातु को कैथोड बनाकर विद्युत्-अपघटन सेल में लगाया जाता है। अशुद्ध धातु जिसका कि शोधन किया जाना है उसका एक मोटा एनोड बनाया जाता है। विद्युत्-अपघटन सेल में उपयुक्त विभव में जब विद्युत् प्रवाहित की जाती है तो एनोड से शुद्ध धातु विलयन में घुलेती है तथा विलयन से शुद्ध धातु, कैथोड के ऊपर लगातार संग्रहित होता रहता है। इस प्रकार विद्युत्-अपघटन की क्रिया में एनोड निरन्तर पतला होता चला जाता है तथा कैथोड लगातार मोटा होता जाता है। अशुद्धियाँ, एनोड पंक (Anode mud) के रूप में एनोड के नीचे जमा होती है। समय-समय पर आवश्यकतानुसार इलेक्ट्रोड परिवर्तित कर लिये जाते हैं।

(iii) वाष्प प्रावस्था परिष्करण (Vapour-phase refining)- कच्ची धातु को विशिष्ट अभिकर्मक के साथ गर्म करने पर निम्न ताप पर वाष्पशील यौगिक प्राप्त होता है। इस वाष्पशील यौगिक को उच्च तापक्रम पर गर्म करने से विघटित होकर धातु देता है। इस विधि द्वारा Ni, Ti, Zr आदि का शोधन किया जाता है।
(a) माण्ड प्रक्रम (Mond process)- इस विधि का उपयोग निकिल जैसी धातुओं के शोधन में किया जाता है जो कि वाष्पशील कार्बोनिल यौगिक बनाती है। ये धातु के कार्बोनिल यौगिक उच्च ताप पर विघटित हो जाते हैं तथा कार्बन मोनोऑक्साइड गैस मुक्त करती हैं व शुद्ध धातु शेष रह जाती है।

(b) वान-अर्केल विधि (Van-Arkel method)-जिर्कोनियम व टाइटेनियम जैसी धातुओं को अतिशुद्ध रूप में प्राप्त करने हेतु इस विधि का उपयोग किया जाता है। इस विधि में अशुद्ध धातु को वाष्पशील अस्थायी यौगिक (मुख्यतः धात्विक आयोडाइड) में परिवर्तित किया जाता है, जो गर्म करने पर विघटित होकर शुद्ध धातु प्रदान करते हैं। जैसे –

प्रश्न 13.
सिलिका युक्त बॉक्साइट अयस्क में से सिलिका को ऐलुमिना से कैसे अलग करते है ? यदि कोई समीकरण हो तो दीजिए।
उत्तर-
ऐल्युमिनियम का मुख्य अयस्क बॉक्साइट (Al₂O₃xH₂O) है। इसमें अशुद्धियों के रूप में SiO₂, FeO एवं टाइटेनियम ऑक्साइड (TiO₂) होती है। इस अशुद्धियों को प्रक्षालन द्वारा पृथक् करते हैं। बॉक्साइट से शुद्ध एलुमिना बनाने में प्रक्षालन का महत्व है। बॉक्साइट चूर्ण को NaOH विलयन के साथ 473 – 523 K पर गर्म करते हैं । एलुमिना घुलकर सोडियम मेटा ऐलुमिनेट बनाता है, जबकि अशुद्धियाँ आयरन एवं टाइटेनियम शेष रह जाती है।

अशुद्धियों को छानकर अलग कर लेते हैं। छनित में CO₂ प्रवाहित कर उदासीन करते हैं । ऐल्युमिनियम हाइड्रॉक्साइड को पृथक् कर लेते हैं, जबकि सोडियम सिलिकेट विलयन में शेष रह जाता है। ऐल्युमिनियम हाइड्रॉक्साइड को गर्म कर शुद्ध ऐलुमिना प्राप्त होता है।

ऐलुमिना के वैद्युत-अपघटन से ऐल्युमिनियम प्राप्त होता है।

प्रश्न 14.
उदाहरण देते हुए भर्जन एवं निस्तापन में अन्तर बताइए।
उत्तर
भर्जन एवं निस्तापन में अन्तर –

प्रश्न 15.
ढलवाँ लोहा कच्चे लोहे से किस प्रकार भिन्न होता है ?
उत्तर
वात्या भट्टी से प्राप्त लोहे को कच्चा लोहा (Pig iron) कहते हैं। इसमें लगभग 4% कार्बन एवं अन्य अशुद्धियाँ S, P. Si, Mn आदि होती है। इस कच्चे लोहे दो स्क्रेप आयरन एवं कोक में मिलाकर गर्म वायु के झोकों से गर्म करते हैं, कुछ अशुद्धियाँ दूर हो जाती हैं, तब ढलवाँ लोहा (Cast iron) प्राप्त होता है। इसमें 3% कार्बन एवं कुछ अन्य अशुद्धियाँ होती है। यह कठोर एवं भंगुर होता है।

प्रश्न 16.
खनिजों एवं अयस्कों में अन्तर स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर
खनिज और अयस्क में अन्तर –

प्रश्न 17.
कॉपरमेट को सिलिका की परत चढ़े हुए परिवर्तन में क्यों रखा जाता है ?
उत्तर
कॉपरमेट में Cu₂S एवं Fes होता है। कॉपरमेट को सिलिका के साथ गर्म करने से FeS की अशुद्धि FeSiO₃ (धातुमल) के रूप में अलग हो जाती है।

प्रश्न 18.
ऐल्युमिनियम के धातुकर्म में क्रायोलाइट की क्या भूमिका है ?
उत्तर
क्रायोलाइट के दो उदेश्य हैं –
(i) यह ऐल्युमिना को विद्युत् का अच्छा सुचालक बनाता है।
(ii) यह वैद्युत अपघट्य के गलन का तापक्रम कम करता है।

प्रश्न 19.
निम्न कोटि के कॉपर अयस्कों के लिए निक्षालन क्रिया को कैसे किया जाता है ?
उत्तर
निम्न कोटि के कॉपर अयस्कों के निक्षालन क्रिया, वायु की उपस्थिति में अम्लों से करते हैं। जब कॉपर विलयन में Cu²⁺ आयनों के रूप में जाता है, तब
2Cu + 2H₂SO₄+O₂ → 2CuSO₄ + 2H₂O

प्रश्न 20.
CO का उपयोग करते हुए अपचयन द्वारा जिंक ऑक्साइड से जिंक का निष्कर्षण क्यों नहीं किया जाता?
उत्तर
एलिन्गम आरेख में, CO का CO₂ में ऑक्सीकरण का ग्राफ, Zn के ऑक्सीकरण ग्राफ से ऊपर रहता है। इस प्रकार CO,Zno को Zn में अपचयित नहीं करती। अन्य प्रकार से, कार्बन का CO में ऑक्सीकरण का ग्राफ, 1120 K अथवा ऊपर ताप-पर Zn के ऑक्सीकरण ग्राफ से नीचे है। इस प्रकार ‘C’ का उपयोग 1120 K अथवा अधिक ताप पर ZnO के ऑक्सीकरण में करते हैं।

प्रश्न 21.
Cr₂O₃ के विरचन के लिए Δ_fG° का मान – 540kJmol^-1 है, तथा Al₂O₃ के लिए-827 kJmol^-1 है, क्या Cr₂O₃ का अपचयन AI से संभव है।
उत्तर

प्रश्न 22.
‘C’ एवं ‘Co’ में से Zno के लिए कौन-सा अपचायक अच्छा है?
उत्तर
कार्बन अच्छा अपचायक अभिकर्मक है।
एलिन्गम आरेख में, CO का CO₂ में ऑक्सीकरण का ग्राफ, Zn के ऑक्सीकरण ग्राफ से ऊपर रहता है। इस प्रकार CO,Zno को Zn में अपचयित नहीं करती। अन्य प्रकार से, कार्बन का CO में ऑक्सीकरण का ग्राफ, 1120 K अथवा ऊपर ताप-पर Zn के ऑक्सीकरण ग्राफ से नीचे है। इस प्रकार ‘C’ का उपयोग 1120 K अथवा अधिक ताप पर ZnO के ऑक्सीकरण में करते हैं।

प्रश्न 23.
किसी विशेष स्थिति में अपचायक का चयन ऊष्मागतिकी कारकों पर आधारित है। आप इस कथन से कहाँ तक सहमत हैं ? अपने मत के समर्थन में दो उदाहरण दीजिए।
उत्तर
किसी निश्चित धातु-ऑक्साइड को धातु में अपचयन के लिए उपयुक्त अपचायक अभिकर्मक के चयन के लिए ऊष्मागतिकी कारक के रूप में सहायता करता है। ऑक्साइडों के निर्माण में Δ_fG° vs T के बीच ग्राफ के आधार पर तापीय अपचयन की संभावना का अनुमान लगाया जाता है। इसे एलिन्गम आरेख कहते हैं। इस आरेख से यह अनुमान लगाया जाता है कि ऐसी धातु ऑक्साइड, जिनमें Δ_fG° ऑक्साइड अधिक ऋणात्मक है, अपचयित की जा सकती है। अन्य शब्दों में एलिन्गम आरेख में अन्य धातुओं के ऑक्साइड ऊपर हैं अपचयित की जा सकती है, क्योंकि संयुक्त रेडॉक्स अभिक्रिया के लिए Δ_rG° ऋणात्मक दो धातुएँ, जिनके Δ_fG° ऑक्साइड कम ऋणात्मक है, की तुलना में, ऐसी धातु ऑक्साइडों को Δ_fG° के अन्तर के बराबर होगा। उदाहरण के लिए, Al, Cr₂O₃ को अपचयित करता है, जबकि MgO को नहीं। इसी भाँति कार्बन ZnO को Zn में अपचयित करता है, किन्तु CO को नहीं। अतः निश्चित अपचायक अभिकर्मक का चयन ऊष्मागतिकी कारक पर निर्भर करता है।

प्रश्न 24.
उस विधि का नाम लिखिए, जिसमें क्लोरीन सहउत्पाद के रूप में प्राप्त होती है। क्या होगा यदि NaCl के जलीय विलयन का वैद्युत अपघटन किया जाए ?
उत्तर
सोडियम धातु को डाउन प्रक्रम द्वारा बनाया जाता है। NaCl एवं CaCl₂ के गलित मिश्रण को 873 K पर यह वैद्युत अपघटन से प्राप्त होता है।

यदि NaCl के जलीय विलयन का वैद्युत अपघटन किया जाये, तो कैथोड पर H₂ निकलती है, जबकि Cl₂ एनोड पर प्राप्त होती है। इसका कारण \(\mathrm{E}_{\mathrm{Na}^{+} / \mathrm{Na}}^{\mathrm{o}}\) (-2.71) \(\mathrm{E}_{\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O} / \mathrm{H}_{2}}^{\circ} (-0.832)\) से अधिक कम है। जल, Na⁺ आयनों की उपस्थिति में H₂ में अपचयित हो जाता है।

प्रश्न 25.
ऐल्युमिनियम के वैद्युत-धातुकर्म में ग्रेफाइट छड़ की क्या भूमिका है ?
उत्तर
ऐलुमिना के विद्युतीय अपचयन में ग्रेफाइट एनोड वैद्युत अपघटन द्वारा Al₂O₃ का ऐल्युमिनियम में अपचयन की सुविधा प्रदान करता है। कार्बन ऑक्सीजन से क्रिया कर एनोड पर CO एवं CO₂ निकालता है।

एनोड पर – C + O^2- → CO + 2e^–
C + 2O^2- → CO₂ + 4e^–
कैथोड पर – Al³⁺ + 3e^– → Al.

प्रश्न 26.
निम्नलिखित विधियों द्वारा धातुओं के शोधन के सिद्धांतों की रूपरेखा दीजिए
(i) मंडल परिष्करण (Zone refining); (ii) वैद्युत अपघटन परिष्करण (Electrolytic refining), (ii) वाष्प प्रावस्था परिष्करण (Vapour phase refining)।
उत्तर
(i) मंडल परिष्करण (Zone refining)- मंडल परिष्करण या प्रभाजी क्रिस्टलीकरण (Zone refining or Fractional crystallisation) विशिष्ट उपयोगों हेतु शुद्धतम धातु प्राप्त करने हेतु इस विधि का उपयोग किया जाता है। उदाहरण के लिये, अर्द्धचालक (Semiconductors) के रूप में उपयोग के लिये सिलिकॉन व जर्मेनियम को इसी विधि द्वारा प्राप्त किया जाता है। यह विधि इस तथ्य पर आधारित है कि अशुद्ध धातु के ठोस अवस्था की तुलना में द्रव में अधिक विलेय होती हैं तथा अशुद्धियाँ होने पर उसका गलनांक शुद्ध धातु से कम होता है।

इस विधि में अशुद्ध धातु के छड़ के एक सिरे में गोलाकार चलित हीटर फिट कर दिया जाता है। हीटर को छड़ में धीरे-धीरे विस्थापित किया जाता है। हीटर के आसपास धातु पिघलती है। जैसे-जैसे हीटर आगे बढता है शुद्ध धातु क्रिस्टलीकृत होता जाता है तथा अशुद्धियाँ पिघले क्षेत्र में चली जाती हैं । यह प्रक्रिया तब तक दोहरायी जाती है जब तक पूरी अशुद्धियाँ छड़ के एक सिरे पर नहीं आ जाती जिसे बाद में अलग कर दिया जाता है। यह विधि प्रभाजी क्रिस्टलीकरण (Fractional crystallisation) भी कहलाती है।

(ii) स्तम्भ वर्णप्रक्रम या अधिशोषण स्तम्भ वर्णप्रक्रम (Column chromatography or Adsorption column chromatography)- यह विधि काँच नली में बंद (Packed) अधिशोषक के स्तम्भ पर मिश्रण के पृथक्करण से संबंधित है। स्तम्भ के निचले सिरे पर स्टॉप कॉक (Stop cock) लगा होता है। अधिशोषक पर अधिशोषित होने वाले मिश्रण को अधिशोषक स्तम्भ के ऊपर रखा जाता है। अब एक अन्य द्रव मिश्रण, जो वाहक (Eluant) का कार्य करता है, स्तम्भ में नीचे की ओर बहने दिया जाता है। यह वाहक मिश्रण अपने साथ धीरे-धीरे पूर्व अधिशोषित पदार्थों को बहाकर ले जाता है। मिश्रण के विभिन्न अवयव स्तम्भ के विभिन्न भागों में अधिशोषित हो जाते हैं।

वह अवयव जो अधिक प्रबलता से अधिशोषित होता है, स्तम्भ के ऊपरी भाग में रहता है और पट्टी बनाता है। अधिशोषित यौगिकों को विभिन्न घोलकों में घुलाकर एक-एक करके पृथक् कर लिया जाता है। इस प्रक्रिया को निक्षालन (Elution) कहते हैं। निक्षालन की क्रिया के लिए प्रायः जल, ऐल्कोहॉल, ऐसीटोन, पेट्रोलियम, ईथर आदि घोलकों का उपयोग होता है। अधिशोषक के रूप में प्राय: एलुमिना, मैग्नीशियम
ऑक्साइड, सिलिका जेल, कैल्सियम कार्बोनेट आदि का व्यवहार होता है। इस विधि में साधारणतः एक भाग यौगिक के लिए चालीस भाग अधिशोषक प्रयुक्त होता है।

कभी-कभी नली से अधिशोषित स्तम्भ को बाहर निकालकर प्रत्येक रंगीन बैण्ड को काट लिया जाता है। इन रंगीन बैण्डों से अधिशोषित यौगिकों को घोलक द्वारा निष्कर्षित (Extract) कर रवाकरण की क्रिया द्वारा शुद्ध अवयव प्राप्त किये जाते हैं।

इस विधि द्वारा किसी मिश्रण से रंगहीन (Colourless) अवयवों का पृथक्करण तभी संभव है जब वे पराबैंगनी प्रकाश (Ultra-violet light) में विभिन्न प्रतिदीप्त (Fluorescence) प्रदर्शित करते हों। यदि वे प्रतिदीप्ति प्रदर्शित नहीं करते तो अधिशोषक को ही प्रतिदीप्तिशील पदार्थ (Fluorescent material) में डुबोया जाता है। मिश्रण के विभिन्न अवयवों को अधिशोषित करने वाले क्षेत्र पराबैंगनी प्रकाश में गहरे रंग (Dark colour) के दिखाई पड़ने लगते हैं जिससे अवयवों के पृथक्करण में सुविधा होती है। प्रयोग शीशे की नली की जगह क्वार्ट्स (Quartz) की नली में किया जाता है।

(ii) वैद्युत अपघटन परिष्करण (Electrolytic refining) धातुएँ अपने लवण के विलयन का विद्युत्अपघटन करने पर कैथोड पर जमा होती है। एक से अधिक धातुएँ रहने पर अपनी विद्युत् धनात्मक प्रवृत्ति के क्रम पर या बढ़ते ऑक्सीकरण विभव के क्रम में मुक्त होकर कैथोड पर जमा होती हैं । इस विधि में एक उपयुक्त विद्युत्-अपघट्य का चुनाव करके उसे विद्युत्-अपघटन सेल में ले लिया जाता है। शुद्ध धातु को कैथोड बनाकर विद्युत्-अपघटन सेल में लगाया जाता है। अशुद्ध धातु जिसका कि शोधन किया जाना है उसका एक मोटा एनोड बनाया जाता है। विद्युत्-अपघटन सेल में उपयुक्त विभव में जब विद्युत् प्रवाहित की जाती है तो एनोड से शुद्ध धातु विलयन में घुलेती है तथा विलयन से शुद्ध धातु, कैथोड के ऊपर लगातार संग्रहित होता रहता है। इस प्रकार विद्युत्-अपघटन की क्रिया में एनोड निरन्तर पतला होता चला जाता है तथा कैथोड लगातार मोटा होता जाता है। अशुद्धियाँ, एनोड पंक (Anode mud) के रूप में एनोड के नीचे जमा होती है। समय-समय पर आवश्यकतानुसार इलेक्ट्रोड परिवर्तित कर लिये जाते हैं।

(iii) वाष्प प्रावस्था परिष्करण (Vapour-phase refining)- कच्ची धातु को विशिष्ट अभिकर्मक के साथ गर्म करने पर निम्न ताप पर वाष्पशील यौगिक प्राप्त होता है। इस वाष्पशील यौगिक को उच्च तापक्रम पर गर्म करने से विघटित होकर धातु देता है। इस विधि द्वारा Ni, Ti, Zr आदि का शोधन किया जाता है।
(a) माण्ड प्रक्रम (Mond process)- इस विधि का उपयोग निकिल जैसी धातुओं के शोधन में किया जाता है जो कि वाष्पशील कार्बोनिल यौगिक बनाती है। ये धातु के कार्बोनिल यौगिक उच्च ताप पर विघटित हो जाते हैं तथा कार्बन मोनोऑक्साइड गैस मुक्त करती हैं व शुद्ध धातु शेष रह जाती है।

(b) वान-अर्केल विधि (Van-Arkel method)-जिर्कोनियम व टाइटेनियम जैसी धातुओं को अतिशुद्ध रूप में प्राप्त करने हेतु इस विधि का उपयोग किया जाता है। इस विधि में अशुद्ध धातु को वाष्पशील अस्थायी यौगिक (मुख्यतः धात्विक आयोडाइड) में परिवर्तित किया जाता है, जो गर्म करने पर विघटित होकर शुद्ध धातु प्रदान करते हैं। जैसे –

प्रश्न 27.
उन परिस्थितियों का अनुमान लगाइए, जिनमें AI, Mgo को अपचयित कर सकता है।
उत्तर
1623 K के ऊपर, AI, Mgo को Mg में अपचयित करता है।

Mgo से Al₂O, अधिक स्थायी है, अत: Al, 1623 K के ऊपर MgO को अपचयित करता है।

तत्त्वों के निष्कर्षण के सिद्धान्त एवं प्रक्रम अन्य महत्वपूर्ण प्रश्नोत्तर

तत्त्वों के निष्कर्षण के सिद्धान्त एवं प्रक्रम वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न

1. सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए

प्रश्न 1.
ऐल्युमिना के वैद्युत-अपघटन में क्रायोलाइट इसलिए मिलाया जाता है
(a) ऐल्युमिना के गलनांक घटाने के लिए
(b) वैद्युत-चालकता घटाने के लिए
(c) ऐल्युमिना की अशुद्धियाँ पृथक् करने के लिए
(d) एनोड प्रभाव को कम करने के लिए।
उत्तर
(a) ऐल्युमिना के गलनांक घटाने के लिए

प्रश्न 2.
कौन-सी धातु अपनी ही ऑक्साइड की परत से रक्षित होती है –
(a) Ag
(b) Fe
(c) Cu
(d) Al.
उत्तर
(d) Al.

प्रश्न 3.
बॉक्साइट से Al के निर्माण में कौन-सी विधि का उपयोग किया जाता है –
(a) मैग्नीशियम द्वारा अपचयन
(b) कोक द्वारा अपचयन
(c) विद्युत्-अपघटनी अपचयन
(d) लोहे द्वारा अपचयन।
उत्तर
(c) विद्युत्-अपघटनी अपचयन

प्रश्न 4.
आयरन ऑक्साइड की अशुद्धियों वाले बॉक्साइट का शोधन किस विधि द्वारा किया जाता है –
(a) हुप की विधि
(b) सर्पक विधि
(c) बेयर विधि
(d) विद्युत्-अपघटनी विधि।
उत्तर
(c) बेयर विधि

प्रश्न 5.
फफोलेदार ताँबा है –
(a) Cu का अयस्क
(b) Cu की मिश्र-धातु
(c) शुद्ध ताँबा .
(d) 1% अशुद्धियाँ युक्त ताँबा।
उत्तर
(d) 1% अशुद्धियाँ युक्त ताँबा।

प्रश्न 6.
वात्या-भट्टी में आयरन ऑक्साइड अवकृत होता है
(a) SiO₂ से
(b) CO से
(c)C से
(d) CaCO₃ से।
उत्तर
(b) CO से

प्रश्न 7.
हेमेटाइट से लोहे के निष्कर्षण में चूने का पत्थर का कार्य है –
(a) अपचायक पदार्थ
(b) धातुमल
(c) अधात्री
(d) गालक।
उत्तर
(d) गालक।

प्रश्न 8.
क्यूपेलीकरण इसके धातुकर्म में प्रयुक्त होती है –
(a) Cu
(b) Ag
(c) Al .
(d) Fe.
उत्तर
(b) Ag

प्रश्न 9.
फोटोग्राफी में काम आने वाली प्लेट तथा फिल्मों का यह आवश्यक अवयव है
(a) AgNO₃
(b) Ag₂S₂O₃
(c) AgBr
(d) Ag₂CO₃.
उत्तर
(c) AgBr

प्रश्न 10.
जिंक, कॉस्टिक सोडा विलयन के आधिक्य से क्रिया करके बनाता है
(a) Zn(OH)₂
(b) ZnO
(c) Na₂ZnO₂
(d) ZnH₂.
उत्तर
(c) Na₂ZnO₂

प्रश्न 11.
कैलोमल है
(a) Hg₂Cl₂
(b) HgCl₂
(c) Hg₂Cl₂ + Hg
(d) Hg + HgCl₂.
उत्तर
(a) Hg₂Cl₂

प्रश्न 12.
पोटैशियम आयोडाइड घोल को मरक्यूरिक आयोडाइड पर अत्यधिक मात्रा में डालने पर बनाता
(a) Hg₂Cl₂
(b) K₂HgI₄
(c) Hg
(d) Hg + KI₃
उत्तर
(b) K₂HgI₄

प्रश्न 13.
HgCI, के विलयन में अधिक मात्रा में KI मिलाने पर प्राप्त होने वाला रंग है –
(a) नारंगी
(b) भूरा
(c) लाल
(d) रंगहीन।
उत्तर
(c) लाल

प्रश्न 14.
निम्न में से कौन-सी धातु अमलगम नहीं बनाती है –
(a) Zn
(b) Cu
(c) Mg
(d) Fe.
उत्तर
(d) Fe.

प्रश्न 15.
निम्नलिखित अयस्क मैलेकाइट है –
(a) Cu₂S
(b) CuCO₃.Cu(OH)₂
(c) Cu₂O
(d) CuCO₃
उत्तर
(b) CuCO₃.Cu(OH)₂

प्रश्न 16.
हाइपो में AgBr की विलेयता इसके बनने के कारण है –
(a) Ag₂SO₃
(b) Ag₂S₂O₃
(c) [Ag(S₂O₃)]^–
(d) [Ag(S₂O₃)₂]^3-
उत्तर
(c) [Ag(S₂O₃)]^–

प्रश्न 17.
AgCI अमोनिया में इसके बनने के कारण विलेय है –
(a) [Ag(NH₃)₄]⁺
(b) [Ag(NH₃)₂]²⁺
(c) [Ag(NH₃)₄] ³⁺
(d) [Ag(NH₃)₂]⁺
उत्तर
(d) [Ag(NH₃)₂]⁺

प्रश्न 18.
कॉपर सल्फेट घोल में KI डालने से बनाता है –
(a) CuI₂
(b) CuI₂²⁺
(c) K₂[CuI₄]
(d) Cu₂F₂ + I₂.
उत्तर
(d) Cu₂F₂ + I₂.

प्रश्न 19.
CuSO₄ विलयन की KCN के साथ क्रिया से बनता है
(a) Cu(CN)₂
(b) CuCN
(c) K₂[Cu(CN₄)]
(d) K₃[Cu(CN)₄].
उत्तर
(d) K₃[Cu(CN)₄].

प्रश्न 20.
फोटोग्राफी में निम्न रूप में Na₂S₂O₃,, प्रयुक्त होता है –
(a) अपचयन करने वाला
(b) डेवलेपर
(c) स्थिर करने वाला
(d) टोनिंग करने वाला।
उत्तर
(c) स्थिर करने वाला

2. रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिए

1. मैलेकाइट ……………. का एक अयस्क है।
2. स्टेनलेस स्टील में लोहे के साथ ………… एवं ……….. धातु मिश्र-धातु बनाती है।
3. ………… का उपयोग परगेटिव के रूप में किया जाता है।
4. …………. का कोलॉइडी विलयन का उपयोग आँख की दवाई बनाने में होता है।
5. AgNO₃ को ………….. कहते हैं।
6. कोरोसिव सब्लीमेट का रासायनिक सूत्र ……….. है।
7. झाग उत्प्लावन विधि ………… अयस्कों के लिए प्रयोग की जाती है।
8. ऐल्युमिनियम द्वारा किसी धातु का अपचयन ………… कहलाता है।
9. अमोनिया को सुखाने में प्रयुक्त होता है।
10. ……….. को लूनर कॉस्टिक कहते हैं।
11. फ्लोरस्पार का सूत्र ………… है।
12. HgCl₂ व KI का क्षारीय विलयन …………… कहलाता है।
13. रक्त तप्त स्टील को वायु में धीरे-धीरे ठण्डा करने पर वह मृदु इस्पात में परिवर्तित होता है, इसे …………… कहते है।

उत्तर

1. कॉपर
2. Cr, Ni
3. कैलोमल
4. Ag
5. लूनर कॉस्टिक,
6. HgCl₂
7. सल्फाइड
8. ऐल्युमिनोतापी
9. CuO
10. सिल्वर नाइट्रेट
11. CaF₂
12. नेस्लर अभिकर्मक,
13. एनीलिंग।

3. उचित संबंध जोड़िए –

I.

उत्तर
1. (d), 2. (c), 3. (e), 4. (b), 5. (a), 6. (f), 7. (g).

II.

उत्तर
1. (d), 2. (a), 3. (b), 4. (e), 5. (c).

III.

उत्तर
1. (d), 2. (e), 3. (1), 4. (c), 5. (b), 6. (a).

4. एक शब्द/वाक्य में उत्तर दीजिए –

1. वात्या-भट्टी से प्राप्त Cu₂S तथा FeS का मिश्रण कहलाता है।
2. प्रदण्डन (Polling) से किस धातु का शोधन किया जाता है ?
3. डेवलप करने के पश्चात् फोटोग्राफिक फिल्म को स्थिर करने के लिए किस विलयन में डुबाया जाता
4. दार्शनिक वुल का रासायनिक सूत्र है।
5. हार्न सिल्वर का रासायनिक सूत्र लिखिए।
6. फोटोग्राफी में टोनिंग के लिए सामान्यतः किस यौगिक का उपयोग किया जाता है ?
7. सिक्का धातु किसे कहते हैं ?
8. कॉपर प्राप्त करने का प्रमुख अयस्क कौन-सा है ?
9. आयरन प्राप्त करने का प्रमुख अयस्क कौन-सा है ?
10. तत्वों की ऑक्साइड निर्माण के लिए मानक मुक्त उर्जा परिवर्तन (∆G°) व परमताप आरेख क्या कहलाता है?
11. ढलवाँ लोहे से अशुद्धि दूर कर जो लोहा प्राप्त होता है, इसका नाम क्या है ?
12. कठोर इस्पात को गर्म कर धीरे -धीरे ठण्डा करने की विधि क्या कहलाती है ?
13. कठोर इस्पात को गर्म करने की विधि क्या कहलाती है ?
14. इस्पात को अमोनिया के वातावरण में गर्म करने की विधि क्या कहलाती है ?
15. लूनर कॉस्टिक किसे कहते है ?

उत्तर

1. मैट
2. कॉपर
3. हाइपो विलयन (Na₂S₂O₃)
4. ZnO
5. AgCl
6. ऑरिक क्लोराइड
7. Cu,Ag और Au को
8. कॉपर पायराइटीज
9. हेमेटाइट
10. एलिन्गम आरेख
11. पिटवाँ लोहा
12. तापानुशीतन
13. मृदुकरण
14. नाइट्राइडीकरण
15. AgNO₃.

तत्त्वों के निष्कर्षण के सिद्धान्त एवं प्रक्रम अति लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
एल्युमिना के विद्युत् अपघटन में AI प्राप्त करते समय क्रायोलाइट मिलाया जाता है। कारण बताइए। .
उत्तर
एल्युमिना का गलनांक अति उच्च है (2050°C) क्रायोलाइट मिलाने पर एल्युमिना का गलनांक कम हो जाता है। साथ ही साथ क्रायोलाइट का विद्युत् अपघटन आसान हो जाता है।

प्रश्न 2.
जब AI को सान्द्र HNO₃ के संपर्क में रखा जाता है तो किसी भी अभिक्रिया के होने का पता नहीं लगता है। क्यों?
उत्तर
चूँकि AI को सान्द्र HNO₃ से क्रिया करके Al₂O₃ बनाता है जो AI धातु या एक सुरक्षात्मक आवरण बना लेता है, जिससे अभिक्रिया आगे नहीं बढ़ती।

प्रश्न 3.
AI का कौन-सा यौगिक अच्छा अपचायक है ?
उत्तर
AI का जटिल हाइड्राइड Li(AlH₄ ) मुख्यतः कार्बनिक यौगिकों के लिये अच्छा अपचायक है।

प्रश्न 4.
निम्न के रासायनिक सूत्र लिखिए(i) कैलोमल, (ii) फिलॉस्फर वूल, (ii) कोरोसिव सब्लिमेट।
उत्तर
(i) कैलोमल-Hg₂Cl₂ मरक्यूरस क्लोराइड
(ii) फिलॉस्फर वूल-ZnO
(iii) कोरोसिव सब्लिमेट-HgCl₂ मरक्यूरिक क्लोराइड।
उपयोग- (i) एण्टीसेप्टिक के रूप में, (ii) लकड़ी को सुरक्षित करने के लिए, (iii) प्रयोगशाला में अभिकर्मक के रूप में।

प्रश्न 5.
कॉपर के मुख्य अयस्क लिखिए।
उत्तर
कॉपर के मुख्य अयस्क निम्नलिखित हैं –
(1) ऑक्साइड-क्यूप्राइट या रूबी कॉपर (Cu₂O)
(2) कार्बोनेट-ऐज्युराइट-2CuCO₂.Cu(OH)₂
मैलेकाइट-CuCO₃.Cu(OH)₂ या CuCO₃.CuO.H₂O
(3) सल्फाइड-कॉपर पायराइटीज या कैल्कोपाइराइट-Cu₂S + Fe₂S₃,या CuFeS₂
कॉपर ग्लांस या कैल्कोसाइट – Cu₂S

प्रश्न 6.
लूनर कॉस्टिक का रासायनिक नाम, सूत्र व दो उपयोग लिखिए।
उत्तर
(1) रासायनिक नाम-सिल्वर नाइट्रेट।
(2) सूत्र- AgNO₃
(3) उपयोग-(i) दवाइयों में इसका उपयोग क्षार के रूप में
(ii) विशेष प्रकार की स्थायी व हेयर डाई बनाने में।

तत्त्वों के निष्कर्षण के सिद्धान्त एवं प्रक्रम लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
इस्पात के कठोरीकरण, तापानुशीतन, पायनीकरण एवं नाइट्राइडीकरण को समझाइए।
उत्तर-
1. कठोरीकरण-यदि रक्त-तप्त इस्पात को पानी में डालकर एकदम ठण्डा किया जाये तो प्राप्त इस्पात अति कठोर और भंगुर हो जाता है। इस क्रिया को इस्पात का कठोरीकरण कहते हैं।
2. तापानुशीतन-जब रक्त-तप्त इस्पात को धीरे-धीरे ठण्डा किया जाता है तब वह बहुत मुलायम हो जाता है। इस क्रिया को इस्पात का तापानुशीतन कहते हैं।
3. पायनीकरण-जब कठोर एवं भंगुर इस्पात को गर्म करके धीरे-धीरे भिन्न तापों पर ठण्डा किया जाता है। भिन्न-भिन्म तापों पर इस्पात की कठोरता कम होती जाती है और ताप के अनुसार इस्पात अलग-अलग गुण प्रदर्शित करता है। इस क्रिया को इस्पात का पायनीकरण कहते हैं।
4. नाइट्राइडीकरण-इस्पात की सतह का नाइट्रोजन द्वारा संतृप्त होना नाइट्राइडीकरण कहलाता है। इस्पात को 500-600°C ताप पर अमोनिया गैस में गर्म करने पर इस्पात का नाइट्राइडीकरण हो जाता है। आयरन नाइट्राइड की पर्त इस्पात को कठोर बना देती है।

प्रश्न 2.
कॉपर सल्फेट (नीला थोथा) बनाने की विधि व इसके उपयोग लिखिए।
उत्तर
कॉपर सल्फेट बनाने की विधियाँ –
(1) कॉपर को वायु की उपस्थिति में तनु H,SOR के साथ गरम करके

2Cu + 2H₂SO₄ + O₂ → 2CuSO₄ + 2H₂O .

(2) कॉपर ऑक्साइड, हाइड्रॉक्साइड या कार्बोनेट पर H₂SO₄ की क्रिया से

CuO + H₂SO₄ → CuSO₄ + H₂O
Cu(OH)₂ +H₂SO₄ → CuSO₄ + 2H₂O
CuCO₃ + H₂SO₄ → CuSO₄ + H₂O + CO₂.

उपयोग-(1) कपड़ों की रंगाई एवं छपाई में। (2) जीवाणुनाशी के रूप में। (3) कीटाणुनाशी के रूप में। (4) विद्युत् सेलों में। .

प्रश्न 3.
कॉपर सल्फेट विलयन की निम्न के साथ होने वाली अभिक्रिया का समीकरण लिखिए(i) NaOH विलयन, (ii) NH₄OH, (iii) KI विलयन, (iv) KCN.
उत्तर
(i) कॉपर सल्फेट विलयन में NaOH विलयन मिलाने से हल्के नीले रंग का क्यूप्रिक हाइड्रॉक्साइड का अवक्षेप बनता है।

CuSO₄ +2NaOH → Cu(OH)₂ + Na₂SO₄.

(ii) कॉपर सल्फेट विलयन में अमोनियम हाइड्रॉक्साइड आधिक्य में मिलाने पर क्यूप्रिक अमोनियम सल्फेट का विलेय संकर लवण का गहरा नीला रंग प्राप्त होता है।

CuSO₄ + 4NH₄OH → [Cu(NH₃)₄]SO₄ + 4H₂O

(iii) कॉपर सल्फेट के विलयन में KI विलयन मिलाने पर I₂ मुक्त होती है।

CuSO₄ +2KI → K₂SO₄ + CuI₂
2CuI₂ → I₂ + Cu₂I₂.

(iv) कॉपर सल्फेट KCN के आधिक्य में घुलकर पोटैशियम क्यूप्रोसाइनाइड बनाता है।

प्रश्न 4.
नीला थोथा क्या है ? इस पर ऊष्मा का प्रभाव लिखिए।
उत्तर
कॉपर सल्फेट का व्यापारिक नाम नीला थोथा है, जिसमें पाँच अणु क्रिस्टलन जल के होते हैं। यह नीले रंग का क्रिस्टलीय ठोस.पदार्थ है जो जल में विलेय है।
ऊष्मा का प्रभाव – CuSO₄.5H₂O को 100°C ताप पर गर्म करने पर 4 क्रिस्टलन जल के अणु निकल जाते हैं और मोनोहाइड्रेटेड CuSO₄ प्राप्त होता है, जो 130°C ताप निर्जल कॉपर सल्फेट देता है तथा 730°C ताप पर वियोजित होकर क्यूप्रिक ऑक्साइड व सल्फर ट्राइऑक्साइड देता है।

प्रश्न 5.
Al के मुख्य अयस्क कौन-कौन से हैं ? अशुद्ध Al का शोधन किस प्रकार किया जाता है ?
अथवा, ऐल्युमिना के विद्युत्-अपघटनी सेल का नामांकित चित्र बनाइए व इसमें होने वाली रासायनिक अभिक्रियाएँ लिखिए।
उत्तर
Al के मुख्य अयस्क
(1) बॉक्साइट – Al₂O₃.2H₂O
(2) फेल्स्पार – K₂O.Al₂O₃.6H₂O
(3) क्रायोलाइट- Na₃AIF₆
Al का शोधन- Al का शोधन विद्युतीय हूप विधि द्वारा किया जाता है जिससे सेल में तीन स्तर होते हैं
(1) AL, Cu एवं Si की बनी मिश्र धातु की तली पर ऐनोड परत।
(2) क्रायोलाइट एवं बेरियम फ्लुओराइड का गलित मिश्रण मध्य परत।
(3) शुद्ध धातु की ऊपरी के कैथोड परत।

सेल-कार्बन अस्तर युक्त लोहे का एक बॉक्स होता है। धारा प्रवाहित करने पर मध्य पर्त के ऐल्युमिनियम आयन ऊपरी पर्त की ओर गमन करते हैं तथा शुद्ध Al के रूप में कैथोड पर जाकर अपचयित हो जाते हैं और उतनी ही मात्रा में AI निचली परत (ऐनोड) से मध्य परत में आ जाते हैं और अशुद्धियाँ नीचे रह जाती हैं। इस विधि से 99.9% शुद्ध Al धातु प्राप्त होता है।

समीकरण- 2Al₂O₃ + 3C → 4Al + 3CO₂
कैथोड पर- Al³⁺_(l) + 3e^– → Al_(l)
ऐनोड पर- C + O^–₂ → CO + 2e^–

प्रश्न 6.
हलवा लोहा, पिटवाँ लोहा और इस्पात के गुणों की तुलना कीजिए।
उत्तर
ढलवाँ लोहा, पिटवाँ लोहा और इस्पात के गुणों की तुलना –

प्रश्न 7.
निम्नलिखित धातु के दो अयस्कों के रासायनिक नाम व सूत्र लिखिए –
(1) ऐल्युमिनियम
(2) जिंक
(3) लोहा
(4) ताँबा
(5) चाँदी।
उत्तर
अयस्कों के नाम –

प्रश्न 8.
ताँबे की नाइट्रिक अम्ल से होने वाली चार विभिन्न रासायनिक अभिक्रिया समीकरण सहित लिखिए।
उत्तर
ताँबे पर नाइट्रिक अम्ल की अभिक्रिया –
(i) तनु और ठण्डे HNO₃ के साथ नाइट्रस ऑक्साइड बनाता है।
4Cu + 10HNO₃ → 4Cu(NO₃)₂ + 5H₂O+N₂O

(ii) तनु और गर्म HNO₃ के साथ नाइट्रिक ऑक्साइड बनाता है।
3Cu + 8HNO₃ → 3Cu(NO₃)₂ + 4H₂0+ 2NO

(iii) सान्द्र और ठण्डे HNO3 के साथ नाइट्रोजन ऑक्साइड बनाता है।
Cu + 4HNO₃ → Cu(NO₃)₂ + 2NO₂+2H₂O

(iv) सान्द्र और गर्म HNOJ के साथ नाइट्रोजन गैस बनती है।
5Cu+12HNO₃ → 5Cu(NO₃)₂ + 6H₂O + N₂

प्रश्न 9.
बॉक्साइट से ऐल्युमिनियम के निष्कर्षण हॉल की विधि की रासायनिक समीकरण लिखिए।
उत्तर
हॉल की विधि की रासायनिक समीकरण इस प्रकार है –

प्रश्न 10.
कॉपर की प्रमुख मिश्र धातु, उनके संघटन एवं उपयोग लिखिए।
उत्तर
कॉपर की प्रमुख मिश्र धातु संघटन एवं उपयोग –

प्रश्न 11.
Al₂O₃ से Al के निष्कर्षण में विद्युत् परिपथ के समानान्तर क्रम में बल्ब लगाया जाता है। कारण समझाइए।
उत्तर-ऐल्युमिना सें A1 धातु का निष्कर्षण करते समय विद्युत् परिपथ के समानान्तर क्रम में बल्ब लगा दिया जाता है। इसका कारण यह है कि विद्युत्-अपघटन से जब ऐल्युमिना समाप्त हो जाता है तो विद्युत् प्रतिरोध बढ़ जाता है जिससे विद्युत् धारा बल्ब में से प्रवाहित होने लगती है और बल्ब जलने लगता है बल्ब के जलने पर ऐल्युमिना की और मात्रा मिला देते हैं, जिससे विद्युत्-अपघटन का प्रक्रम लगातार चलते रहता है।

प्रश्न 12.
बॉक्साइट के शोधन की बेयर विधि को समीकरण सहित लिखिए।
उत्तर
बेयर की विधि (Baeyer’s Process)—यदि बॉक्साइट में Fe₂O₃ अशुद्धि की मात्रा अधिक हो तो उसका शुद्धिकरण बेयर विधि से किया जाता है। इसमें बॉक्साइट अयस्क को पीसकर NaOH विलयन के साथ 80 वायुमण्डलीय दाब तथा 130°C ताप पर एक ऑटोक्लेव भट्टी में गर्म करते हैं, जिससे बॉक्साइट विलेय होकर सोडियम मेटा ऐल्युमिनेट (NaAlO₂) में परिवर्तित हो जाता है तथा अशुद्धियाँ (Fe₂O₃) अविलेय रहती हैं जो छानकर अलग कर दी जाती हैं।

प्राप्त सोडियम मेटा ऐल्युमिनेट (NaAlO₂) विलयन को जल के साथ तनु करने पर Al(OH)₃ का अवक्षेप प्राप्त होता है। इसमें ताजा AI(OH)₃ की कुछ मात्रा मिला दी जाती है जो अवक्षेप देने में सहायता करती है, इसे सीडिंग (Seeding) कहते हैं।

NaAlO₂ + 2H₂O → Al(OH)₃ + NaOH

Al(OH)₃ को छानकर, धोकर सुखाने के पश्चात् गर्म करने पर शुद्ध Al₂O₃ प्राप्त होता है।

प्रश्न 13.
कॉपर पायराइटीज से स्वअपचयन विधि द्वारा शुद्ध कॉपर प्राप्त करने का समीकरण दीजिए।
उत्तर
प्रगलन से प्राप्त द्रवित मैट को बेसेमर परिवर्तक में लेकर रेत और वायु को ट्वीयर के द्वारा पिघले मैट में प्रवाहित कराने पर मैट में उपस्थित FeS, FeO में बदल जाता है जो SiO₂ से क्रिया करके धातुमल (FeSiO₃) बना लेता है और Cu₂S का कुछ भाग Cu₂O में ऑक्सीकृत हो जाता है –

2FeS +3O₂ → 2FeO + 2SO₂
FeO + SiO₂ → FeSiO₃
2Cu₂S+3O₂ → 2Cu₂O + 2SO₂

जो बचे हुए Cu₂S से क्रिया कर धात्विक कॉपर में अपचयित हो जाता है इसे स्वअपचयन कहते हैं।

2Cu₂O + Cu₂S → 6Cu+SO₂

प्रश्न 14.
लोहा कितने प्रकार का होता है ? प्रत्येक के नाम और दो-दो विशेषताएँ लिखिए। उत्तर-लोहे के प्रकार व विशेषताएँ –

• ढलवाँ लोहा – (i) इसमें C की मात्रा 2:2 -4.5% होती है।
  (ii) आघात करने पर भंगुर प्रकृति का होता है।
• पिटवाँ लोहा – (i) इसमें C की मात्रा 0.10 – 0.25% होती है।
  (ii) आघात करने पर फैलता है।
• इस्पात – (i) इसमें C की मात्रा 0-25 से 2% होती है।
  (ii) यह आघातवर्धनीय एवं भंगुर होता है।

प्रश्न 15.
बॉक्साइट अयस्क का शोधन किस विधि से किया जाता है, जबकि उसमें सिलिका की मात्रा अधिक होती है ? इस विधि का वर्णन कीजिए।
उत्तर
सर्पक विधि – इस विधि में सिलिकायुक्त बॉक्साइट का शोधन किया जाता है। बारीक पीसे बॉक्साइट अयस्कों को कोक के साथ मिलाकर नाइट्रोजन की धारा में 1800°C तक गर्म किया जाता है, जिससे एल्युमिनियम नाइट्राइड बनता है तथा वाष्पशील सिलिकॉन के रूप में सिलिका से पृथक् हो जाता है। AlN का जल-अपघटन करके AI(OH)₃ बना लेते हैं, जिसके निस्तापन द्वारा शुद्ध Al₂O₃ प्राप्त होता है।

तत्त्वों के निष्कर्षण के सिद्धान्त एवं प्रक्रम दीर्घ उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
फोटोग्राफी पर संक्षिप्त टिप्पणी लिखिए।
उत्तर
फोटोग्राफी में सिल्वर हैलाइडों (AgX) के अत्यन्त प्रकाश सुग्राहिता का उपयोग करके वस्तुओं के स्थायी चित्र प्राप्त किये जाते हैं। इसे निम्न पदों में समझा जा सकता है –

(1) प्लेट या फिल्म बनाना-फोटोग्राफिक प्लेट या (फोटोरील) AgBr का जिलेटिन में इमल्सन होता है, जो कि प्रकाश में बैंगनी व नीली किरणों के प्रति विशेष सुग्राही होता है। इसे और सुग्राही बनाने हेतु कुछ विशेष रंजक मिला दिये जाते हैं। इसे निम्नांकित प्रकार से बनाया जाता है –

NH₄Br + AgNO₃ → AgBr↓ + + NH₄NO₃

(2) चित्र लेना (Exposure) कैमरे के लेंस को वस्तु पर केन्द्रित करके प्रकाश को कुछ क्षण के लिए प्लेट या फिल्म में आने देते हैं। इसके कारण AgBr के उपस्थित होने से वस्तु का उल्टा प्रतिबिम्ब बन जाता है।

(3) डेवलपमेण्ट (Development)-डेवलपर क्विनोल, पाइरोगैलाल, हाइड्रोक्विनोन या एमिडाल का क्षारीय घोल होता है, जो कि AgBr के Ag में अपचयन होने वाली क्रिया को पूर्ण कर देता है। इस प्रक्रिया में काला भाग सफेद व सफेद भाग काला हो जाता है तथा उल्टा चित्र प्राप्त होता है, जिसे निगेटिव कहते हैं।

C₆H₄ (OH)₂ + 2AgBr → C₆H₄O₂ + 2Ag↓ + 2HBr

(4) स्थिरीकरण (Fixation) सोडियम थायोसल्फेट (हाइपो विलयन) का उपयोग निगेटिव के स्थिरीकरण हेतु किया जाता है। अप्रयुक्त AgBr हाइपो में घुलकर अलग हो जाता है।

AgBr + Na₂S₂O₃ → NaAgS₂O₃ + NaBr

(5) प्रिंटिंग (Printing)-P.O.P. (Printing out paper) या ब्रोमाइड पेपर पर निगेटिव के द्वारा प्रकाश डालकर कुछ समय के लिए रख दिया जाता है जिससे पेपर पर वस्तु का सही चित्र अंकित हो जाता है। प्रिंटिंग पेपर पर AgCl, जिलेटिन व सिल्वर सिट्रेट का लेप लगा होता है।

(6) रंग-संस्करण (Toning)—काले-सफेद चित्र को चमकीला बनाने हेतु ऑरिक क्लोराइड (AuCl₃) या प्लैटिनम क्लोराइड का विलयन उपयोग किया जाता है, जिसे (Toning) कहते हैं।

AuCl₃ + 3Ag → 3AgCl + Au

प्रश्न 2.
फफोलेदार ताँबा क्या है ? इसके शोधन हेतु विद्युत्-अपघटन विधि का नामांकित चित्र सहित वर्णन कीजिए।
उत्तर
बेसेमर परिवर्तक से प्राप्त पिघली हुई कॉपर धातु में बहुत-सी SO₂, गैस घुली रहती है, जिसे ठंडा करने: पर SO₂ गैस बुलबुलों के रूप में निकलती है। इस प्रकार कॉपर धातु की सतह पर छोटे-छोटे छिद्र हो जाते हैं, यही फफोलेदार ताँबा कहलाता है जिसमें 98% शुद्ध कॉपर प्राप्त होता है।

कॉपर धातु शोधन की विद्युत्-अपघटन विधि – अति शुद्ध धातु प्राप्त करने के लिए बड़ी टंकी में 15% CusO₄ और 5 % H₂SO₄ विलयन भरकर तथा अशुद्ध Cu धातु की मोटी प्लेटों का एनोड और शुद्ध Cu की पतली प्लेटों का कैथोड लगाकर विद्युत्-अपघटन करते हैं। विद्युत् धारा प्रवाहित करने पर एनोड का अशुद्ध ताँबा धुलकर विलयन में चला जाता है और विलयन में से शुद्ध कॉपर कैथोड पर जमा हो जाता है। एनोड के नीचे अशुद्धियाँ, जिनमें Au, Ag जैसी मूल्यवान धातुएँ भी होती है, एकत्र हो जाती है इन्हें एनोड कीचड़ कहते हैं। इस प्रकार 99.99 % शुद्ध धातु प्राप्त होती है।

प्रश्न 3.
इस्पात निर्माण की सीमेन-मार्टिन विधि का सचित्र वर्णन कीजिए। अथवा, इस्पात को ढलवाँ लोहा से किस प्रकार खुले तल की भट्ठी विधि से प्राप्त किया जाता है ?
उत्तर
सीमेन और मार्टिन की खुले तल वाली भट्ठी से (By Seimen and Martin’s Open Hearth Furnace)—यह इस्पात बनाने की आधुनिक विधि है। इस विधि में अशुद्धियों का ऑक्सीकरण वायु द्वारा न करके फेरिक ऑक्साइड (हेमेटाइट) द्वारा किया जाता है। इस
विधि में एक विशेष प्रकार की भट्ठी होती है, जिसका तल उथला और खुला रहता है। इसके भीतरी भाग में अम्लीय विधि के लिये सिलिका तथा क्षारीय विधि के लिये चूना और मैग्नेशिया का अस्तर लगा रहता है। इस भट्ठी को प्रोड्यूसर गैस (Producer gas) या वायु अंगार गैस द्वारा गर्म करते हैं चूल्हे में आने के पहले प्रोड्यूसर गैस को काफी गर्म कर लेते हैं, वह भट्ठी में जलकर लगभग 1800°C ताप देता है। भट्ठी को गर्म करने के बाद उसके उथले तल पर 70-80% ढलवाँ लोहा, 20-30% लोहे की छीलन (Scrap iron) तथा हेमेटाइट (Fe₂O₃) डाल देते हैं । ढलवाँ लोहे में उपस्थित कार्बन ऑक्सीकृत होकर CO बनाता है तथा बाहर निकल जाता है। अन्य अशुद्धियाँ जैसे-सल्फर, फॉस्फोरस, सिलिकॉन और मैंगनीज, हेमेटाइट (Fe₂O₃) द्वारा ऑक्सीकृत हो जाती है।

Fe₂O₃ + 3C → 2Fe + 3CO
2Fe₂O₃ + 3S → 4Fe + 3SO₂
10Fe₂O₃ + 3P₄ → 20Fe + 6P₂O₅
2Fe₂O₃ + 3Si → 4Fe + 3SiO₂
Fe₂O₃ + 3Mn → 2Fe + 3MnO

इन क्रियाओं से बनने वाली CO और SO₂ गैसें बाहर निकल जाती हैं। शेष अशुद्धियाँ भट्ठी के अस्तर से क्रिया करके धातुमल (Slag) बना लेती हैं।

थोड़ी-थोड़ी देर बाद भट्ठी से इस्पात की कुछ मात्रा निकालकर उसमें कार्बन की मात्रा ज्ञात करते रहते हैं। जब इस्पात में कार्बन की उपयुक्त मात्रा रह जाती है, तो इस्पात को भट्ठी से बाहर निकाल लिया जाता है। आवश्यक हो तो कार्बन स्पीजील के रूप में मिला दिया जाता है।

प्रश्न 4.
सिल्वर के दो मुख्य अयस्कों के नाम एवं सूत्र लिखिए तथा उसमें से किसी भी एक अयस्कों से शुद्ध धातु प्राप्त करने की विधि का समीकरण सहित वर्णन कीजिए।
अथवा, सिल्वर के दो अयस्कों के नाम और सूत्र लिखिए। चाँदी का निष्कर्षण सायनाइड विधि द्वारा किस प्रकार करते हैं ?
उत्तर
चाँदी प्रकृति में मुक्त एवं संयुक्त दोनों रूपों में पायी जाती है। संयुक्त अवस्था में यह प्रायः निम्नलिखित रूपों में पायी जाती है –
सल्फाइड – अर्जेन्टाइट या सिल्वर ग्लास (Ag₂S), सिल्वर कॉपर ग्लास (Ag₂S.Cu₂S) आदि।
हैलाइड – हार्न सिल्वर (AgCl), ब्रोमाइड (AgBr) आदि। मुक्त अवस्था में यह सोने व ताँबा के साथ मिश्रित रहती है।

सायनाइड विधि – इसे मैक आर्थर फारेस्ट विधि भी कहते हैं । यह सिल्वर ग्लांस से सिल्वर प्राप्त करने की उपयुक्त विधि है। सान्द्रित सल्फाइड अयस्क को सोडियम सायनाइड के जलीय विलयन के साथ खूब हिलाकर मिलाया जाता है। इस प्रक्रिया में विलयन में वायु भी प्रवाहित की जाती है। सोडियम सायनाइड के आधिक्य में संकर सोडियम अर्जेण्टो सायनाइड (विलेय) बनता है।

विलयन में Zn चूर्ण मिलाने पर चाँदी अवक्षेपित हो जाती है।

2Na [Ag(CN)₂] + Zn → Na₂[Zn(CN)₄] + 2Ag↓

गलन मिश्रण के साथ अवक्षेप को गलाने पर चमकदार चाँदी प्राप्त हो जाती है।
उपयोग – (i) सस्ती धातुओं की वस्तुओं पर चाँदी का लेपन करने में।
(ii) कलिल सिल्वर का उपयोग आँख की दवाई बनाने में होता है।

प्रश्न 5.
निम्न की मिश्र धातुओं के संघटन, उपयोग का वर्णन कीजिए –
(1) ऐल्युमिनियम, (2) ताँबा, (3) लोहा।।
उत्तर
मिश्र धातुओं के संघटन तथा उपयोग –

प्रश्न 6.
कॉपर के प्रमुख अयस्क कौन-से हैं ? कॉपर पायराइट से कॉपर धातु के निष्कर्षण का वर्णन कीजिए।
उत्तर
कॉपर के प्रमुख अयस्क-(i) क्यूप्राइट या रूबी कॉपर Cu₂O, (ii) कॉपर पायराइट CuFeS₂, या CuS.Fe₂S₃, (iii) मैलेकाइट CuCO₃.Cu(OH)₂, (iv) ऐज्युराइट 2CuCo₃.Cu(OH)₂.

पायराइट अयस्क से कॉपर का निष्कर्षण निम्न पदों में किया जाता है –

1. सान्द्रण (Concentration)-अयस्क को महीन पीसकर उसका सान्द्रण फेन उत्प्लावन विधि (Froth floatation process) द्वारा करते हैं।

2. भर्जन क्रिया (Roasting)—सान्द्रित अयस्क को एक उथले तल की परावर्तनी भट्ठी (Reverberatory furnace) में रखकर कम ताप पर (जिससे अयस्क पिघलने न पाए) वायु की धारा में गर्म करते हैं। पायराइट अयस्क का कॉपर, कॉपर सल्फाइड और आयरन सल्फाइड के मिश्रण में परिवर्तित हो जाता है।

2CuFeS₂ + O₂ → Cu₂S + 2Fes + SO₂

पायराइट से प्राप्त कॉपर सल्फाइड और आयरन सल्फाइड का कुछ भाग उनके ऑक्साइडों में परिणित हो जाता है।

2FeS + 3O₂ → 2FeO + 2SO₂
2Cu₂S + 3O₂ → 2Cu₂O + 2SO₂

3. प्रमलन (Smelting)-भर्जन क्रिया (Roasting) से प्राप्त अयस्क में रेत और कोक मिलाकर वात्याभट्ठी (Blast furnace) में प्रगलित (विगलित) करते हैं । भट्ठी के ऊपरी भाग में अयस्क डालने के लिए द्वार होता है तथा व्यर्थ गैसों के निकलने के लिए ऊपरी कोने में रास्ता बना होता है। । भट्ठी में उच्च ताप पर भर्जन से प्राप्त Cuho और Fes संयोग करके आयरन ऑक्साइड बनाते हैं।

Cu₂O + FeS → Cu₂S + Feo

आयरन ऑक्साइड सिलिका (रेत) गालक (flux) से मिलकर आयरन सिलिकेट, धातुमल (Slag) बनाता

FeO + SiO₂ → FeSiO₃ (धातुमल)

वात्या-भट्ठी के ऊपर की सतह हल्के धातुमल की होती है तथा नीचे की सतह में क्यूप्रस सल्फाइड तथा थोड़ा फेरस सल्फाइड रहता है। इसे मैट (Matte) कहते हैं। ऊपरी सतह पर स्थित हल्की धातुमल बाहर निकाल दी जाती है।

4. बेसेमरीकरण (Bessemerization) – प्रगलन की क्रिया से प्राप्त द्रवित मैट को थोड़ा सिलिका (रेत) मिलाकर बेसेमर परिवर्तक में भर देते हैं। इस भट्ठी के भीतरी सतह पर चूने या मैग्नीशियम ऑक्साइड (MgO) का अस्तर लगा होता है। इसके बाजू में काफी ऊँचाई पर ट्वीयर (tuyer) द्वारा हवा भेजी जाती है।

मैट में उपस्थित FeS, FeO में परिवर्तित हो जाता है। Feo रेत से क्रिया करके धातुमल FeSiO₃, बनाता है। यह धातुमल बेसेमर परिवर्तक की ऊपरी सतह पर तैरने लगता है, इसे बाहर निकाल लिया जाता है।
पिघली धातु dirty

2FeS + 3O₂ → 2FeO + 2SO₂
FeO + SiO₂ → FeSiO₃ (धातुमल)

क्यूप्रस सल्फाइड का कुछ भाग ऑक्सीकृत होकर क्यूप्रस ऑक्साइड बनाता है, जो बचे हुए Cu₂s से क्रिया करके Cu देता है।
2Cu₂S + 3O₂→ 2Cu₂O + 2SO₂
Cu₂S + 2Cu₂O→ 6Cu+ SO₂

बेसेमर परिवर्तक को उल्टा कर ताँबे को निकाल लिया जाता है। इस प्रकार प्राप्त पिघली हुई धातु में बहुत-सी SO₂ गैस रहती है। जब धातु को ठण्डा किया जाता है तो SO₂ गैस बुलबुलों के रूप में निकलती है। इस प्रकार कॉपर धातु की सतह पर छोटे-छोटे छिद्र हो जाते हैं और यह फफोलेदार ताँबा (Blister copper) कहलाता है। इसमें 98% शुद्ध कॉपर होता है। .

5.शोधन-दो विधियों द्वारा शोधन किया जाता है –
(a) विद्युत्-अपघटनी विधि। (b) प्रदण्डन विधि।
विद्युत्-अपघटनी विधि-अति शुद्ध धातु प्राप्त करने के लिए एक बड़ी टंकी में 15% CuSO₄ और 5% H₂SO₄ विलयन भरकर तथा अशुद्ध Cu धातु की मोटी प्लेटों का ऐनोड और शुद्ध Cu धातु की पतली प्लेटों का कैथोड लगाकर विद्युत्-अपघटन करते हैं। कैथोड पर 99.9% शुद्ध ताँबा प्राप्त होता है।

प्रश्न 7.
जिंक के निष्कर्षण की ऊर्ध्वाधर रिटॉर्ट विधि का नामांकित चित्र बनाइये।
अथवा, जस्ते के प्रमुख अयस्क कौन-कौन से हैं ? किसी अयस्क से जिंक धातु के निष्कर्षण की आधुनिक विधि का वर्णन कीजिए।
उत्तर
जस्ते के अयस्क – (i) जिंक ब्लैण्ड ZnS, (ii) कैलामाइन ZnCO₃, (iii) विलैमाइट ZnSiO₄.
धातु निष्कर्षण की आधुनिक विधि-जिंक ब्लैण्ड तथा कैलामाइन अयस्कों से प्रायः धातु का निष्कर्षण किया जाता है।
1. सान्द्रण-जिंक ब्लैण्ड अयस्क का सान्द्रण झाग उत्प्लावन विधि से करते हैं।
2. भर्जन-सान्द्रित अयस्क को वायु की अधिकता में भर्जित करने से अयस्क ZnO में परिवर्तित हो जाता है। कुछ ZnS, ZnSO₄ में परिवर्तित होते हैं, जो ZnO में अपघटित हो जाता है।

2ZnS + 3O₂ → 2ZnO + 2SO_2(g)
ZnS + 2O₂ → ZnSO₄
2ZnSo₄ → 2ZnO + 2SO_2(g) + O_2(g)

कैलामाइन अयस्क केवल निस्तापन से ही ZnO बनाता है।
ZnCO₃ → ZnO + CO_2(g)

3. अपचयन- भर्जित या निस्तापित अयस्क को कोक से साथ ऊर्ध्वाधर रिटॉर्ट में रखकर प्रोड्यूसर गैस द्वारा 140°C तक गर्म किया जाता है, जिससे ZnO का Zn में अपचयन हो जाता है। प्राप्त Zn वाष्प को संघनित्र में एकत्रित करते हैं। इस प्रकार प्राप्त Zn को स्पेल्टर कहते हैं। इसमें Pb, As, Fe, Si, Cd और C की अशुद्धियाँ होती हैं और शेष 97.8% Zn होता है।

4. शोधन-अतिशुद्ध Zn विद्युत्-अपघटनी विधि द्वारा प्राप्त किया जाता है। इसमें अम्लीय ZnSO₄ विलयन विद्युत्-अपघटन का कार्य करता है। प्राप्त अशुद्ध Zn ऐनोड तथा शुद्ध Zn छड़ कैथोड का कार्य करता है। विद्युत् धारा प्रवाहित करने पर शुद्ध Zn कैथोड पर एकत्रित होता है। यह लगभग 99.98% शुद्ध होता है।

प्रश्न 8.
क्या होता है जब (केवल समीकरण दीजिए) –
(i) नीले थोथे को गर्म किया जाता है।
(ii) सिल्वर नाइट्रेट के विलयन में अमोनियम हाइड्रॉक्साइड मिलाया जाता है।
(iii) स्टैनस क्लोराइड के विलयन में मरक्यूरिक क्लोराइड मिलाया जाता है।
(iv) ताँबा गर्म व सान्द्र नाइट्रिक अम्ल से क्रिया करता है।
(v) मरक्यूरिक क्लोराइड की KI से अभिक्रिया होती है।
(vi) मरक्यूरिक क्लोराइड पोटैशियम आयोडाइड से किया करता है।
(vii) सिल्वर नाइट्रेट हाइड्रोक्लोरिक अम्ल से क्रिया करता है।
(viii) सिल्वर नाइट्रेट को गर्म किया जाता है।

प्रश्न 9.
शुद्ध ऐल्युमिनियम धातु प्राप्त करने के विद्युत्-अपघटन विधि का नामांकित चित्र सहित वर्णन कीजिए।
उत्तर
Al धातु प्राप्त करने की विद्युत्-अपघटन विधि-उपयुक्त विधि से प्राप्त शुद्ध Al₂O₃, का गलनांक 2050°C होता है अत: इसमें थोड़ा-सा क्रायोलाइट (Na₃AlF₆) तथा कैल्सियम फ्लोराइड (CaF₂) के संगलित मिश्रण घोल दिया जाता है जिससे (Al₂O₃) का गलनांक कम हो जाता है तथा विद्युत् चालकता बढ़ जाती है।

हॉल एवं हैराल्ट द्वारा विकसित विधि में एक खुली लोहे की टंकी जिसके भीतर कार्बन का अस्तर लगा होता है जो कैथोड का कार्य करता है कई कार्बन की छड़ों को विद्युत् अपघटन में लटका दिया जाता है जो एनोड का कार्य करते हैं। विद्युत् धारा प्रवाहित करने पर क्रायोलाइट (Na₃AlF₆) पिघलकर अपने में (Al₂O₃) को घोल लेता है विद्युत् धारा के प्रवाह से उत्पन्न ताप 900-950°C पर मिश्रण में घुले हुए Al₂O_3, Al और ऑक्सीजन में अपघटित हो जाता है। जिसमें Al कैथोड पर तथा O₂ एनोड पर मुक्त हो जाता है।

क्रायोलाइट (Na₃AlF₆) में उपस्थित फ्लोराइड निम्न प्रकार से आयनित होते हैं

इस प्रकार, ऐल्युमिनियम आयन (Al³⁺) कैथोड पर AI धातु के रूप में और F आयन एनोड पर फ्लोरीन के रूप में मुक्त होते हैं। एनोड में मुक्त F ,Al₂O₃ से क्रिया करके AlF₃ बनाता है।

इस प्रकार वास्तव में ऐल्युमिना का ही विद्युत्-अपघटन होता है और इस प्रकार एनोड पर मुक्त O₂ का कुछ भाग कार्बन एनोड से क्रिया करके CO बनाती है। जिसके कारण कार्बन एनोड को बार-बार बदलना पड़ता है जब Al₂O₃ की मात्रा एक निश्चित स्तर से गिर जाती है तो सेल का प्रतिरोध बढ़ जाता है, तो समान्तर क्रम में जुड़ा हुआ बल्ब जलने लगता है उस समय Al₂O₃ की और अधिक मात्रा मिला दी जाती है। कैथोड पर मुक्त हुआ Al पिछली अवस्था में टंकी के तली से एकत्र होता है जिसे निकास द्वार से समय-समय पर निकाल लेते हैं। पिघले हुए क्रायोलाइट और एल्युमिना के मिश्रण के ऊपर कोक का चूर्ण डाल देते हैं जो उसे ठण्डा नहीं होने देता तथा इससे आँखों को चमक भी कम लगती है। इस विधि से 99% शुद्ध Al धातु प्राप्त होता है।

MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions

MP Board Class 12th Business Studies Important Questions Chapter 4 Planning

Planning Important Questions

Planning Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
Out of the following which one is the objective of planning :
(a) Forecast
(b) Thrift
(c) Fixed objective implementation
(d) all of the above.
Answer:
(d) all of the above.

Question 2.
“Planning is a cage to hold the future”. Who said this :
(a) Hart
(b) Henri Fayol
(c) Urwick
(d) Allen
Answer:
(d) Allen

Question 3.
The last step of planning is :
(a) Setting objectives
(b) Forecast
(c) Selection of best option
(d) Follow up action.
Answer:
(d) Follow up action.

Question 4.
Which function ascertains fixation of future tasks of management:
(a) Planning
(b) Organizing
(c) Control
(d) Direction
Answer:
(a) Planning

Question 5.
Objectives should be :
(a) Ideal
(b) Complex
(c) Practical
(d) Single use
Answer:
(c) Practical

Question 6.
From the following which is not related to plan :
(a) Budget
(b) Motivation
(c) Programme
(d) Procedure.
Answer:
(b) Motivation

Question 7.
“Take all my wealth, industry just leave my organization, I will rebuild my business”.Who said this :
(a) Henri Fayol
(b) F.W. Taylor
(c) Henri Ford
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Henri Ford

Question 2.
Write the answer in one word/sentence :

1. What is required for achievement of objectives ?
2. Which type of process is planning ?
3. What is the base of managerial activity ?
4. What is important in removing future uncertainly ?
5. What type of process is planning ?
6. What is the base for formulation of policies ?
7. To do or not to do activities is affected by which factor ?
8. Is planning a process to see backward ?
9. What is called the financial plan for five or more than five years ?
10. At the time of planning management needs to assume certain things what are they called ?
11.  Among management functions, one function is considered as a function with no dependency on any other. Name it.
12. To analyze competition policies which plan is used ?
13. What is the name of the plan which specifies about the tasks of the employee ?
14. At what level the management has to do the planning ?
15. Planning has intense connection with which function ?

Answer:

1. Effective planning
2. Intellectual process
3. Planning
4. Planning
5. Continuous process
6. Objectives
7. Rules
8. No
9. Long term financial planning
10. Hypotheses
11. Planning
12. View composition
13. Policy
14. At all levels
15. Control.

Question 3.
Write true or false :

1. Planning is a physical process.
2. Planning is a mental process.
3. Planning is the primary function of management.
4. Planning is the process of looking forward.
5. Planning is wastage of time.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. True
5. False

Question 4.
Fill in the blanks :

1. ……….. is such method which completes the work.
2. Planning is ……………. oriented process.
3. ………….. is the primary function of management.
4. Without objectives cannot be achieved.
5. Budget is a plan of expected for future.

Answer:

1. Process
2. Aim
3. Planning
4. Target
5. Expenditure.

Question 5.
Match the columns :

Answers:

1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (b)
4. (f)
5. (a)
6. (c)

Planning Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give any two definitions of planning.
Answer:
According to Billy E. Goels: “Planning is fundamentally choosing and a planning problem arises only when an alternative course of actions is discovered.”According to George RTerry: “Planning is a method to technique of looking ahead . a constructive reviewing of future needs, so that present actions can be adjusted in view of the established goals”.

Question 2.
Is planning a primary function of management ?
Answer:
Yes, the primary function of management is planning other functions take place after planning. First of all plans are prepared and to attain the objectives other functions helps in achieving it.

Question 3.
What is the relation of planning with control ?
Or
Bring out the relation between planning and control.
Ans. Though planning and control are primary functions, they cannot be thought of a distinct operations exclusive of each others. In fact, planning form the basis of control. Control is backward looking whereas planning is forward looking. Without plans, actions cannot be controlled efficiently. Hence, plans are required for efficient control of activities.

Question 4.
“For effective control planning is essential”. Explain.
Answer:
Management control involves keeping activities on the right path by restricting deviations from the plans. Through planning management establishes standards of performance. this serves as yardstick for appraisal of actual performance. If actual performance is not as per plane corrective action is taken. This is how planning helps in effective control.

Question 5.
What do you mean by planning ?
Answer:
Planning is a predetermined cause of action by which the management fixes its goal and to achieve them selects the best alternative from the available alternatives and prepares a blueprint of what is to be done, by whom, when etc.

Question 6.
What will be the effect on organization if the planning is not done ?
Answer:
In the absence of planning workers will do the work in different directions and organizations will not be successful in achieving the objectives.

Question 7.
Selecting the best course from the alternatives is planning”. Explain.
Answer:
After analyzing and evaluating of the best courses, the next step of planning is to select the best alternative. Best alternative should be selected very carefully because it is on the basis of this alternative, all future activity will be carried on.

Question 8.
“Planning is a cage kept to get future”. Explain.
Answer:
Planning is concerned with deciding in advance, what is to be done in future. Thus, it is a predetermined course of action to achieve a specified aim or goal. In today’s world it is very essential to make proper planning to achieve an aim. An effective plan can go a long way in minimizing dangers and risks associated with future.

Question 9.
Through planning future uncertainty is kept away”. Explain.
Answer:
Without proper planning there remains uncertainty in every future work. To escape from this uncertainty, planning is very necessary. To face all the future conditions planning is almost necessary.

Question 10.
“Planning is helpful in utilizing the resources”. Explain.
Answer:
Planning guarantees the best possible use of limited resources available because an organization estimates its requirements while planning. Planning ensures the optimum use of physical and non-physical resources of an enterprise.

On the basis of figures and tendencies inference can be made about the future. It helps achieving  target easily. Thus, misuse of resources can be stopped by planning.

Question ll.
“Planning is having a lot of importance for any nation”. Explain.
Answer:
For any nation Planning is having a lot of importance. Through planning only the various plans related with development of trade, industry, agriculture, etc. are prepared in order to eradicate the evils of nation like poverty, illiteracy, unemployment, etc. Due to a national planning only the employment opportunities are increasing, literacy level is improving and industries are developing. All these things have been made possible only because of planning.

Question 12.
“Without planning, the attainment of goals is impossible.” Explain.
Answer:
Every enterprise has a definite aim or objective. These definite aims can be achieved in time when all the activities are performed in a perfect manner. When all the activities are done according to plans then objectives can be achieved easily.

Question 13.
Budget is a type of planning. How ?
Answer:
Budget is an important part of planning without budget, planning is incomplete, preparation of budget itself is a planning process.

Question 14.
Budget is related to both planning and control.
Answer:
When we prepare budget then its relation is with planning and when we use it as an instrument to measure deviations it is related to control.

Question 15.
“Planning is a continuous process.” Explain.
Answer:
Planning occupies the first place in the list of managerial function, it is continuous process and well known and never ending activity. Planning is aimed at
(a) Exploiting business opportunities
(b) Meeting problem and improving organizational function. Continuity of planning is related with planning cycle. It means that a plan is formed, it is implemented and followed by another plan and so on.

Planning Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
“Planning is mental activity” explain.
Answer:
Planning is an intellectual activity requiring application of the mind, imagination and sound judgement. It is a thinking function rather than doing function as it determines the actions to be taken. Moreover planning requires logical and systematic thinking based on the analysis of facts and figures.

Question 2.
What do you mean by derivative plans/standing plans ? Is support plan standing plan ?
Answer:
Derivative plans are the plans which support the main plans to achieve the set goal. Yes, support plans are derivative plans as they provide assistance and support to main plan.

Question 3.
Why is planning futuristic ?
Answer:
Planning is futuristic because it is related to the future and also for casts of future

Question 4.
What remedies are planned to overcome the limitations of planning ?
Answer:
Following remedies are planned to overcome the limitations of planning:

1. Planning should be focused on current and futures problems.
2. Planning must be done by top level management.
3. For the success of planning all the workers must cooperate.
4. Complete information of planning must be formulated to concern people.
5. Planning should always be based on authentic data.
6. Planning must be flexible.

Question 5.
What does 5 W’s stands for in planning ?
Answer:
What, where, when, why, who are the 5 Ws.

Question 6.
How many types of barricade are there ? Explain.
Answer:
Barricades are of two types :
(a) External barricade : It means the barricade used to handle problems from competitors.
(b) Internal Barricade : It means the barricade used to handle problems generated within the organization.

Question 7.
Is budget related to both planning and control ?
Answer:
Whenever a budget is prepared with a plan therefore it is related to planning whenever it is used to as a device to measure the result then it is related to control. Therefore it is said that it is related to both planning and control.

Question 8.
What will be the impact if planning is not made ?
Answer:
Planning is a predefined way to do the task. If there is no plan then the task may get deviated and need to work in various directions. It will lead to failure in achievement of goal.

Question 8.
“Planning is not an assurance to success”. Explain this statement.
Answer:
Business can only be successful when plans are properly prepared and executed. Business environment is not still its keeps changing. Planning cannot stop the organization. These are only the forcasted problems of the organization which are planned and are to be executed in the situation. Even-after a lot of efforts while planning still plans fail. Therefore it is said planning is not an assurance to success.

Question 10.
Explain the following policies :

1. Personal policy
2. Sales policy
3. Pricing policy

Answer:

1. Personal policy: It means that policy which ascertains the promotion policy of employee either on the basis of capability or experience.
2. Sales policy: This policy states regarding the sale of goods in cash or in credit also.
3. Pricing policy : This policy states the fixing of prices of goods after adding the decided amount of the profit.

Question 11.
Explain two limitations which are beyond the control of a human.
Answer:
The limitations are as follows :

1. Natural calamity : Natural calamities are unpredictable and can happen anytime and anywhere and are always beyond the control.
2. Behavior of market: Trend and change in fashion market keeps changing everyday so as the with new and variety of goods which in turn changes the interest of customer.

Question 12.
Is control possible without planning ?
Answer:
Planning is considered as prerequisite of control. It basically aims at the requisites of the real state implementation and measure of level is made. To know the differences, it is essential to have some predefined strategies and planning which when are unavailable leads to collision of tasks. If there were no predefined plans it would never lead to improvement in the working procedure and enlistment of organization. Therefore it is said that control is impossible without planning.

Question 13.
Distinguish between Budget and Programme.
Answer:

Budget

1. Budget usually has a time span of one year.
2. Budget gives more importance to finance.
3. Budget is a timetable to achieve general objectives of the organization.
4. Budget is considered as the basis for a bigger financial planning.

Programme

1. Programme usually have a time span till the desired goal is achieved.
2. Programme lays emphasis on finance and programme procedure.
3. Programme is a sequential or time based timetable for achieving a specific goal.
4. Usually each programme has its own budget.

Question 14.
Distinguish between Standing plan and Single plan.
Answer:
Difference between Standing plan and Single plan :

Basis	Standing plan	Single plan
Time	These plans are made for a long-period usually of more than 5 years.	These plans are made for 1 month to 12 months.
Object	The objective of this plan is and usually is implemented for a longer span.	These plans are made for a specific objective and after accompleshment they get over.
Base	Longer span plans are based on the objective of the organization.	Single plan is based on plans.
Use	They are used for a longer period. They are also known as routine plans.	Single plan are for a single objective and after completition they are closed.

Question 15.
“Planning is helpful in utilizing the resources” Explain.
Answer:
Planning guarantees the best possible use of limited resources available because an organization estimates its requirements while planning. Planning ensures the optimum use of physical and non-physical resources of an enterprise

Question 16.
Distinguish between Rule and Procedure.
Answer:
Difference between Rule and Procedure :

Basis of difference	Rule	Procedure
1.Decision	Rule is a decision taken before which is implemented in special circumstances.	In procedure there is a specific way of work.
2.Area	There is no procedure	Scope of procedure is broad because it has its own rules.
3.Punishment	When rule is violated there is arrangement of punishment.	There is no requirement of punishment from the beginning.
4.Flexible	There is lack of flexibility.	It is more flexible comparatively.

Question 17.
State Some differences between Objectives and Policies.
Answer:
Differences between Objectives and Policies :

Objectives

1. Objectives are fundamental.
2. Objectives indicate the destination.
3. Objectives decide what is to be done.
4. Objectives determined by top level management.
5. Business gives birth to objectives.

Policies

1. Policies are guidelines.
2. Policies indicate the route for destination.
3. Policies decide now is to be done.
4. Policies determined by middle level or top level management.
5. Objective gives birth to policies.

Question 18.
Write the characteristics of aims or objectives.
Answer:
Following are the characteristics of aims:

1. Fixation of aims is done generally by top level management of organization
2. It explains about the facts in future which the organization wants to achieve
3. It gives directions to many plans of trade
4. Each department of organization has its own objectives
5. Aims may be long-term or short-term.

Question 19.
What is the importance of objectives ?
Answer:
Importance of objectives:

1. It gives directions to the decisions and activities of the organization
2. Good objectives bring managerial efficiency
3. They make coordination easy
4. They help in best use of resources.

Question 20.
Write the characteristics of procedure. .
Answer:
Following are the characteristics of procedure :

1. Procedure refers to operational guidelines.
2. Procedures are laid down by middle and lower management.
3. Procedures are detailed, specific and rigid.
4. Procedures represents systematic manners of handling routine tasks.
5. Procedures are made for internal people to follow them.
6. Procedures have closed relation with policies.
7. It is a systematic method to operate regular incidences.

Question 21.
Write the characteristics of strategy.
Answer:
Strategies are one time used plans because they are changing according to changing in market conditions. It has three dimensions :

1. Fixation of long-term targets
2. To accept specific procedure
3. Distribute resources to achieve target.

Question 22.
Write the importance of strategy.
Answer:

1. Strategy is an extensive plan which is prepared keeping in mind the competitions.
2. With the help of strategy organization can take advantage of environmental opportunity.
3. Organization can face environmental obstacles with the help of strategy.

Question 23.
Write any three methods to control the limitations of planning.
Answer:

1. More attention should be paid to collect reliable facts.
2. Employees participation should be there in planning.
3. While planning environment should be studied deeply.

Question 24.
Describe the characteristics of an ideal planning.
Answer:

1. Definite goals : Planning has certain definite aims and on the basis of these aims, plans are prepared.
2. Forecasting : Forecasting has much importance in planning, forecasting is done on the basis of information and data.
3. Selection of best alternatives : While preparing planning a comparison is made from all the alternatives and then best alternative is selected.
4. Flexibility : Planning always has the quality of flexibility. It means a changes is made according to circumstances.
5. Continuity : Planning is not such a matter to be prepared at once only. Planning work continues.
6. Unity : Unity is the most important characteristics of planing. Atone time only one planning can be effective.

Question 25.
How is planning helpful in decision making ?
Answer:
In planning aims are determined with the help of these objectives the manager evaluate the various alternatives and selects appropriate alternative. On the basis of decision is taken that what to do

Question 26.
Write distinguish between method and budget.
Answer:
Distinguish between method and budget : Method is that type of planning which determines the order of various activities to fulfill any work. It is related to any one activity. To complete any work there may be various methods. Out of many methods one method is selected in which less fatigueness and more production with less cost of production. Methods work as direction for employees.

Budget: It is a statement of various sources of income and expenditure from specific activities. It is an import part of planning.

Question 27.
Distinguish between goals and programme.
Answer:
Goals or objectives: Goals and objectives are the basis of planning objectives are achieved through policies, procedures etc. These are the endpoints of organization.
Programmes: A comprehensive plan to complete or finish a work is called programmes. Programmes are guided by objectives, policies and strategy.

Planning Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the limitations of planning ?
Or
What are the obstacles of planning ?
Answer:
The followings are the limitations of planning :

1. Planning depends upon forecasting : Planning is based upon the anticipated fiscal and industrial policies. Any change in the anticipated situation may render plans ineffective.
2. Hindrance in the development of initiative : Planning strangulates the initiative
   of works and compels management to work with inelastic methods. .
3. Lack of business flexibility : Planning makes business operations inelastic.
4. Planning is an expensive process : Collection, analysis and evaluation of the different information facts and alternatives involve a lot of expense.
5. Incompetent planners: If those entrusted with the task of planning are incompetent,
   the entire phm will prove to b,e defective.

Question 2.
Describe the importance of planning.
Or
Give five advantages of planning.
Answer:
The importance of planning are as follows :

1. Basis of all managerial activity: Planning precedes all managerial activity. Without proper planning, all other functions like coordination, control, motivation, etc. cannot be carried out in an efficient manner. Hence, it is important.

2. Minimizes uncertainty : Planning is done in anticipation of future uncertainties. It enables the organization to forecast the future and prepare itself for the future challenges. An effective plan can go a long way in minimizing dangers and risks associated with the future.

3. To avoid hasty decision : To avoid hasty decision pre planning is essential with the help of planning, the perfect and accurate decision can be taken easily.

4. Best utilization of resources : Planning guarantees the best possible use of limited resources available, because an organization estimates its requirements while planning.

5. Minimization of cost : When estimates are made taking into consideration the future uncertainties, steps are taken to reduce cost at various levels of operation. Hence, waste ages are avoided and costs are kept to the minimum.

6. Encourages initiative and creativity : Sound planning encourages innovative thought and creative action among executives. It improves motivation and moral of
employees.

7. Facilitates effective communication : Planning makes communication effective. When work proceeds as per plans, communication is made easier and routine matters are, very easily tackled. Hence, it makes communication effective.

8. Helps in coordination : Planning helps to secure unity of purpose. Individual activities are pulled together towards a common goal. Hence, it brings about coordination also.

Question 3.
Write short notes on the following :

1. Goals or objectives
2. Policies
3. Budget
4. Strategy
5. Programmes.

Answer:

1. Goals or objectives: Goals or objectives are the basis of planning. Objectives act as nuclecus to the planning process specific objectives have to be laid down which can be achieved with the help of policies, procedures, rules, budgets, stategies etc. Objectives are the end points of an organization.

2. Policies: The policies formulated by any enterprise guides or directs the management and administration (what and who is to be done). The principles which are followed to achieve the objectives are called policies. Policies guides the activities of management.

3. Budget: In simple words budget means the statement of various sources of income and expenditure from specific activities. According to Koontz and O’Donnell. “A budget, as a plan is statement of expected results expressed in numerical terms.”

Budget is an important part of planning without budget planning is incomplete. Preparation of budget itself is a planning process. Through budget the planning of use of financial resources is prepared,

4. Strategy : Strategy is an extensive plan which is prepared keeping in mind the competitions. Due to present cut throat competition and for the success of different types and forms of product in market, it is essential to make strategies. Nowadays every producer tries to bring his product in a unique way, in a new pack into the market and he wants to keep his plan secret by knowing the secrets of his competitor. This is called as strategy formulation.

5. Programmes : A comprehensive plan to complete or finish a work is called as a programme. Programme is also a type of plan. Programmes are guide.d by objective, policies and strategies. Once the objective of a programme is achieved that same programme cannot be used in the same form again.

Question 4.
Step five characteristics of planning.
Answer:
Characteristics/Nature of Planning An analysis of the above definitions reveals the following features of planning :

1. An Intellectual Process : Planning is a mental exercise involving creative thinking and imagination. A manager can prepare sound plans only when he has sound judgement, foresight and vision. Planning requires a mental predisposition to think before acting.

2. A Primary Function : Planning serves as the basis for all other functions of management. It precedes organizing, staffing, directing and controlling. All these functions are ! performed within the framework of plans, Thus, planning is the most primary function.

3. Goal-oriented : The purpose of formulating plan is that it facilitates that achievement enterprise’s goals. Every member of the enterprise must, therefore, positively contribute towards achievement of these goals.

4. A Continuous Process : Planning is an ongoing process. Plans are prepared for a specific time-period e.g., one year. At the end of that period, new plans have to be prepared. Similarly, as conditions change, existing plans have to be revised. Thus, planning is a never ending exercise.

5. Flexible : Plans are formulated on the basis of forecasts. As future is uncertain, planning must cope with changes in future conditions. When assumptions about the future do not come true, the original plan must be revised in the light of changing conditions.

6. Pervasive : Planning is required in all types of organization at all level of management. Every department prepares plans. However, the scope of planning may differ from one level to another. For example, top management plans for the organization as a whole. Middle management prepares departmental plans. At the lowest level, supervise formulate day to day operational plans.

Question 5.
Write the main objectives of planning,
Answer:
The main objectives of planning are as follows :

1. Setting the objectives : Definite goals and objectives are predetermined and then integrated efforts of human and physical factors are made for accomplishment of those set goals or desired goals.

2. Unity of action : The aim of planning is to create unity among various activities of an organization. Planning builds unity between resources and ability for better coordination.

3. Providing information : Through planning information is provided to the internal and external persons of the enterprise regarding the target and the process to achieve the objectives.

4. Economy in management: Planning leads to economy and efficiency. It involves the selection of most profitable course of action that would lead to the best result at the minimum costs.

5. Forecasting : The summary of planning is forecasting. On the basis of forecasting, present planning can be made.

6. Direction and operation : The object of planning is not only coordination between physical and human resources, but directing the collective efforts of the human force towards the goals.

7. Achievement of targets : The final or ultimate object of planning is to achieve the goals or targets which it has set.

8. Identifying dangers : Under planning, future plans are made and assumptions of result are made. Possibilities and dangers of an organization are dealt.

9. Healthy competition : Through planning one can create an atmosphere of healthy competition.

10. Total coordination : Planning helps in creating coordination among objectives, methods, rule/programmes etc.

Question 6.
What is the difference between Policy and Rule.
Answer:
Differences between Policy and Rule :

Question 7.
Distinguish between Policies and Procedures.
Answer:
Difference between Policies and Procedures :

Policies

1. Policies are made by the top level authority.
2. They are made in a simple form.
3. They are directions for the ideas.
4. Policies play important role.

Procedures

1. Procedures are the implementation of policies.
2. They are fixed by lower level of management.
3. They are made in a specific form.
4. They direct to take action.

Question 8.
Write the criteria of effective planning or principles of planning.
Answer:
Knootz O’ Donell has given importance to basic criteria of effective planning.

1. Principle of justification : Under this principle, whatever planning is done should be judge mental.

2. Principle of contribution to objectives : To achieve aims and goals of an organization is the aim of planning. If any planning fails in achieving the objectives in positive manner, then the results of such planning are not good.

3. Principle of assumption : Every work is based on assumptions, which are kept in mind and then work is carried on. Therefore, a goods planning should assume betted things before commencing work, this helps in coordination of work.

4. Principle of efficiency : According to this principle, at minimum cost, better and maximum quantity of goods should be produced. Thus, planned efficiency should be put in the work for desired goals.

5. Principle of pervasiveness: Planning is a work which is present everywhere, which is needed in every part of management. Therefore, planning should be according to the need of every department.

6. Principle of flexibility: Planning should be flexible, so that if any unexpected loss occurs, factors affecting the cause can be changed.

7. Principle of time .: Time plays an important role planning therefore while planning element of time should be kept in mind to attain desired goals.

8. Principle of changeability : Work should be regularly checked by the manager keeping in mind the changing situations of market and if necessary or need, changes in planning should be done.

9. Principle of policy decision : To give effective shape to the planning of an organization, strong policy and good programmes should be designed so that desired objectives of an organization can be achieved.

10. Principle of alternative route : To commence any work there are various alternative solutions. During planning all the alternative should be studied and such alternative should be choosen which helps the organization in achieving its goals.

11. Principle of competitive campaign : If there are other competitors in the market along with business organization then the organization while planning should keep in mind the techniques and planning or method of work adopted by competitors and such type pf plan should be framed which proves to be more strong and better than competitors.

12. Principle of evaluation : Manager should at regular invervals evaluate their plans so that under certain required situations they could be changed or corrected.

13. Principle of cooperation : For the success of planning, it is very essential that a cooperation is maintained between different levels of officers and workers.

14. Principle of communication: An effective communication is the need of planning. Through better Communication only workers can be informed on time about policies, corrections, work etc.

15. Principle of continuity : Planning is a continuous process therefore planning department should always be alert and attentive.

Question 9.
Discuss the steps of planning.
Answer:
The followings are the steps of planning :

1. Establishment of objectives: Objectives serve as a basis for planning. They act as a nucleus to planning process and they are the end-points of an organization. So, objectives have to be established.

2. Deciding planning premises : It involves forecasting and the possible areas, where planning is required. It provides a logical basis for planning.

3. Fixing limitations: Limitations refer to those factors which restrict the freedom of planning for management. Possible limitations could be a change in technology, industrial unrest, availability of material, etc.

4. Determination of alternate courses : For every plan, there are number of alternatives. Hence, all these alternatives have to be identified.

5. Evaluation and selection of alternatives : After weighing each alternative, on the basis of cost, speed, quality, the best alternative has to be selected.

6. Formulate derivative plans : The next step is to formulate secondary or derived plans. Derived plans help in execution of main plans. These derivatives or derived plans are also called as departmental plans.

7. Follow-up : As a last step, continuous appraisal of plans should be made, so that further could be made, if required.

Question 10.
Explain the elements of planning.
Answer:
Followings are the elements of planing :

1. Goals or objectives : Goals or Objectives are the basis of planning. Objectives act as nuclecus to the planning process specific objectives have to be laid down which can be achieved with the help of policies, procedures, rules, budgets, stategies etc. Objectives are the end points of an organization.

2. Policies: The policies formulated by any enterprise guides or directs the management and administration (what and who is to be done). The principles which are followed to achieve the objectives are called policies. Policies guides the activities of management.

3. Budget: In simple words budget means the statement of various sources of income and expenditure from specific activities. According to Koontz and O’Donnell. “A budget as a plan is statement of expected results expressed in numerical terms.”Budget is an important part of planning without budget planning is incomplete. Preparation of budget itself is a planning process. Through budget the planning of use of financial resources is prepared.

4. Strategy : Strategy is an extensive plan which is prepared keeping in mind the competitions. Due to present cut throat competition and for the success of different types and forms of product in market it is essential to make strategies. Nowadays every producer tries to bring his product in a unique way, in a new pack into the market and he wants to keep his plan secret by knowing the secrets of his competitor. This is called as strategy formulation.

5. Programmes : A comprehensive plan to complete or finish a work is called as a programme. Programme is also a type of plan. Programmes are guided by objective, policies and strategies. Once the objective of a programme is achieved that same programme cannot be used in the same form again.

MP Board Class 12 Business Studies Important Questions

MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Admission of a Partner

Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Admission of a Partner Important Questions

Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Admission of a Partner Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The type of asset, goodwill is:
(a) Tangible
(b) Intangible fixed
(c) Current
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Intangible fixed

Question 2.
Revaluation account is opened when:
(a) On admission of new partner
(b) On dissolution of a firm
(c) On amalgamation of a firm
(d) On sale of a partnership firm.
Answer:
(a) On admission of new partner

Question 3.
The equation of sacrificing ratio is: (MP 2014)
(a) Old ratio – New ratio
(b) New ratio – Old ratio
(c) Old ratio + New ratio
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Old ratio – New ratio

Question 4.
Goodwill account is written off in:
(a) Partner’s old ratio
(b) New ratio
(c) New share of new partner
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) New ratio

Question 5.
Increase in value of assets is written in which side of revaluation account:
(a) Debit side
(b) Credit side
(c) Debit and credit side
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Credit side

Question 6.
In which ratio the profit on revaluation is distributed: (MP 2009 Set B, 13,15)
(a) New profit and loss ratio
(b) Old profit and loss ratio
(c) Sacrificing ratio
(d) Gaining ratio.
Answer:
(b) Old profit and loss ratio

Question 7.
The sacrificing ratio of the partner and gaining ratio of the partner is :
(a) More
(b) Equal
(c) Less
(d) Sacrificing ratio is less and gaining ratio is more.
Answer:
(b) Equal

Question 8.
Goodwill is entered into A/c :
(a) When no amount is being given for that
(b) When payment has been given or any asset is been given for that
(c) When it is mentioned
(d) When calculation of goodwill is not mentioned.
Answer:
(c) When it is mentioned

Question 9.
‘A’ and ‘B’ are partners who share profit & loss in the ratio 3:1. They admit C’ for\(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\)^th share in profit. New profit sharing ratio will be:

(a) (A) \(\frac { 9 }{ 16 }\) (B) \(\frac { 3 }{ 16 }\) (C) \(\frac { 4 }{ 16 }\)
(b) (A) \(\frac { 8 }{ 16 }\) (B) \(\frac { 4 }{ 16 }\) (C) \(\frac { 4 }{ 16 }\)
(c) (A) \(\frac { 10 }{ 16 }\)(B) \(\frac { 2 }{ 16 }\) (C) \(\frac { 4 }{ 16 }\)
(d) (A) \(\frac { 8 }{ 16 }\) (B) \(\frac { 9 }{ 16 }\) (C)  \(\frac { 10 }{ 16 }\)
Answer:
(a) (A) \(\frac { 9 }{ 16 }\) (B)\(\frac { 3 }{ 16 }\) (C)\(\frac { 4 }{ 16 }\)

Question 10.
‘A’ and ‘B’ are partners sharing profit in the ratio 3 : 1. They admit ‘C’ into partnership for \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\)^th Sacrificing ratio of ‘A’ and ‘B’ is:
(a) Equal
(b) 3 : 1
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 3 : 2.
Answer:
(b) 3 : 1

Question 11.
On admission of a partner, the General Reserve shown in the balance sheet of the old firm will be transferred to :
(a) All partner’s Capital A/c
(b) New partner’s Capital A/c
(c) Old partner’s Capital A/c
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Old partner’s Capital A/c

Question 12.
‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ are partner’s in a firm. ‘D’ is admitted as a new partner in the firm:
(a) Dissolution of old firm
(b) Dissolution of firm and partnership
(c) Reconstitution of partnership
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Reconstitution of partnership

Question 13.
On the admission of a new partner, the undistributed profits shown in the balance sheet of old firm will be transferred to capital accounts:
(a) In old capital ratio among old partners
(b) In old profit sharing ratio among old partners
(c) In new profit sharing ratio among all partners
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) In old profit sharing ratio among old partners

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. Increase in value of assets due to revaluation is recorded in ……………. side of revaluation account.
2. Profit on revaluation is transferred in credit side of ………….. account.Undistributed profit given in liabilities side
3. of balance sheet is …………… in partners capital account.
4. When changed figures of assets and liabilities are not to be shown in books than …………… account is opened. (MP 2013)
5. Amount of the goodwill bought by the new partner is credited to old partners capital account in …………… ratio.
6. On goodwill …………. is not calculated.
7. Reduction in reserve for bad and doubtful debts will be to revaluationaccount.
8. Decrease in liability is …………… for a firm. (MP 2012,15,17)
9. ………….. is not charged on goodwill. (MP 2012,15)
10. The right over the amount of goodwill rests with ………….. partners. (MP 2013)
11. Revaluation account is a …………. account. (MP 2014,16)
12. Super profit is that profit which is earned ……………. than normal profit. (MP 2016)
13. ……………. of a partnership is a change in relationship among the partnership. (MP 2017)

Answer:

1. Credit
2. Capital account
3. Credited
4. Memorandum revaluation account
5. Sacrificing
6. Depreciation
7. Credited
8. Profit
9. Depreciation
10. Old partners
11. Nominal
12. Excess
13. Reconstitution

Question 3.
Match the columns:

Answer:

1. (c) In credit side of revaluation account
2. (b) In debit side of revaluation account
3. (e) Credit side of capital account
4. (d) Debit side of capital account
5. (f) Shown in liability side of balance sheet
6. (a) Cat goodwill.
7. (i) Partnership deed.
8. (g) Average profit
9. (h) Reputation

Question 4.
Write true or false:

1. Goodwill is an intangible assets, which should be written off soon.
2. New partner is not entitled to share firm’s future profits.
3. No new partner can be hold responsible for the losses incurred in the firm before his admission.
4. If goodwill account is opened, it is shown in balance sheet.
5. The entry of unrecorded assets is done in debit side of revaluation account.
6. Goodwill is a salable asset. (MP 2009 Set B, 15)
7. Super profit = Normal profit – Actual profit. (MP 2009 Set A)
8. At the time of new partner’s admission, if the value of any asset decreases, it will be debited to revaluation account. (MP 2010)
9. Monopoly decreases the goodwill. (MP 2010)
10. On paying the goodwill premium by new partners, it is transferred to old partners capital A/c in their Sacrificing ratio. (MP 2014)
11. A, B, C are partners in 3 : 2 : 1 respectively B retires. The new ratio of A and C will be 3 :2.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. True
5. False
6. True
7. False
8. True
9. False
10. True
11. False.

Question 5.
Write the answer in one word/sentence:

1. The ratio in which existing partners decide to give up their shares in favor of a new partner is called.
2. What type of asset is goodwill ? (MP 2017)
3. Which type of goodwill fetches the highest value.
4. Increase and decrease in assets and liabilities of a firm are transferred to an account called as. (MP 2010)
5. Which type of goodwill fetches the lowest value ?
6. In case of change in profit – sharing ratio of existing partners where is profit on revaluation of assets and liabilities transferred ?
7. Good will =
   In which method this formula is used for good will valuation ? (MP 2015)
8. A.S.-10 is related to. (MP 2015)
9. When liabilities of the partner are more than his assets, then it is called as (MP 2013)
10. Purchase Consideration – Net Assets = ? (MP 2013)
11. What is normal profit ? (MP 2014)
12. What is the base of valuation of goodwill. (MP 2016)

Answer:

1. Sacrificing ratio
2. Intangible
3. Cat goodwill
4. Revaluation account
5. Rat goodwill
6. Capital account of partners
7. Capitalization of goodwill
8. Goodwill and fixed asset
9. Insolvent
10. Goodwill
11. Super profit – actual profit
12. Profit.

Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Admission of a Partner Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write three reasons to give admission to a new partner.
Answer:
Due to the following reasons a partner may be admitted:

1. To raise capital: When the firm needs more capital, a new partner is admitted to fullfill their need.

2. Need of a skill full partner: If the firm needs an able, skillful and intellectual person for the development and efficient running of the business, the firm can admit a new partner to full fill their need.

3. On death of a partner: On death or retirement of a partner there gets a blank in the firm and in order to fill the space a new partner is admitted in the firm. This helps the firm to receive additional capital from the incoming partner and his experience.

Question 2.
What are the rights of new partner in a firm ?
Answer:
Rights of new partner:

• Right to share in the future profits of the firm.
• Right to share in the assets of the firm.

Question 3.
Define goodwill.
Answer:
According to Lord Macnaughton, “Goodwill is a thing which is easy to describe, but difficult to define. It is the benefit and advantage of good name, reputation in connection of a business. It is the one thing which distinguishes an old established business from a new business as it first starts. Goodwill is composed of variety of elements. It differs in its composition in different trades and in different business in the same trade.”

Question 4.
What do you mean by local goodwill ?
Answer:
When the goodwill always remains with the place of the place is called cat goodwill. The nature of the cat is that, it always lives at its place. The owners of the business may change, but goodwill doesn’t change its place like cat. Therefore, its nature is compared to the nature of the cat.

Question 5.
Write the methods of valuation of goodwill.
Answer:
Following are the important methods :

• Average Profit Method
• Super profit Method
• Capitalization Method
• Annuity Method.

Question 6.
Write entry for writing off the goodwill account when a partner is admitted.
Answer:
The following entry is passed when the goodwill account is written-off in the event of admission of a partner.
All the Partners Capital A/c – Dr.
To Goodwill Account
(Being goodwill account written off).

Question 7.
What is personal goodwill ?
Answer:
It raises due to the individual qualities and efficiency of particular personnel. Values of such goodwill is usually less. It is also called ‘Dog nature of goodwill’.

Question 8.
What is sacrificing ratio ?
Answer:
Due to admission of a new partner in the firm the old partners share in the firm’s profits is bound to reduce. Hence, sacrificing ratio means the ratio in which the old partners abandon the fraction of their in the profits of business, in favor of new partners.

Question 9.
what is Memorandum revaluation account ?
Answer:
When all the partners (including the new partner) decide that despite revaluation, the value of assets and liabilities are to be shown at their original value, as such a memorandum revaluation account is prepared.

Question 10.
Write names of different methods of calculation of goodwill.
Answer:
Following methods are used to calculate goodwill:

• Average profit method
• Super profit method
• Capitalization method
• Annuity method.

Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Admission of a Partner Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the characteristics of goodwill ?
Answer:
‘Goodwill’ is defined as follows:

• According to J. O. Mage: “The capacity of a business to earn profits in the future is basically what is meant by the term Goodwill”.
• According to Lord Elden: “Goodwill simply means that old customers will resort to the old place”.

The following are the characteristics of goodwill:

• Goodwill is treated as an asset of the business
• Goodwill is an intangible asset. It can’t be seen or be touched. It can only be imagined
• Goodwill helps to make more profits
• Goodwill can be calculated
• The value of goodwill always fluctuates.

Question 2.
‘Goodwill is an intangible asset”. Explain.
Or
“Goodwill is an intangible assets which should be written-off soon from the books. Explain.
Answer:
Every businessman tries to earn its name or reputation and popularity in business field. It is called ‘Goodwill’. Like other assets it is also as an asset. But it can’t be seen or be touched. It has no physical shape. That is why it is known as intangible asset.

This goodwill helps to earn more profit to the businessman. Some experts are having the opinion that goodwill is an intangible asset. According to them, it is having no fixed value. Always it varies, so it should not be shown in balance sheet. It should show up to the distribution of it and after that it should be written off.

Question 3.
‘Write those conditions when valuation of goodwill is essential in partner-ship’v(Any five)
Answer:
In the following cases valuation of goodwill is essential in a partnership :

• When a new partner is admitted in a firm
• When a partner is retiring or on the event of death of a partner
• When two partnership firms are amalgamating
• When the partnership is changing into a company
• When the partners desire to change their profit and loss sharing ratio.

Question 4.
(i) What do you mean by revaluation account ?
(ii) Why it is prepared ? How it is prepared ?
Answer:

(i) When a new partner is admitted in a partnership firm it is necessary to re-value the various assets and liabilities. For entering this effect an account is opened. This account is known as revaluation account or profit and loss appropriation account.

(ii) The revaluation account is opened for the following purposes :

• Increase or decrease in the value of assets and liabilities and its social effect.
• When a new partner is admitted, the revaluation account balance should be adjusted to the old partner’s capital account and on retirement it should be transferred to capital accounts of all the partners.

Preparation of revaluation account:
When the cost of assets and liabilities are revalued it is entered in revaluation account. In this account, losses are debited and gaining of profits are credited. The balance of this account will later be transferred to the old partner’s capital account in their ratio.

Question 5.
In what conditions, revaluation account is prepared ?
Answer:
On following conditions, revaluation account is opened in the firm:

• When a new partner is admitted in the firm.
• When an old partner retires from the firm.
• When an old partner had died

Question 6.
Explain the method of valuation of goodwill on average profit basis with example.
Answer:
Valuation of goodwill on ‘Average Profit Method’:
Under this method, good-will is valued on the basis of average profit of the last few years. It is found out by totaling the profit of last few years and then divide it with number of years, later the resulting amount should be multiplied with the number of purchase price. The resulting figure should be the amount of goodwill.

Example:
He mant Traders made the following profits and losses during the last 5 years :
1988: Rs. 15,000
1989 : Rs. 13,000
1990 : loss Rs. 8,000
1991 : Rs. 10,000
1992 : Rs. 15,000.
Calculate the amount of goodwill at 2 years purchase price of the average profit of last 5 years.
Solution:
Goodwill is calculated as under:

= \(\frac { (15,000 + 13,000 + 10,000 + 15,000) – 8,000 }{ 5 }\)
= \(\frac { 53,000 – 8,000 }{5 }\) \(\frac { 45,000}{ 5 }\) = Rs. 9,000
Goodwill = 9,000 x 2 = Rs.18,000

Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Admission of a Partner Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the causes of creation of ‘Goodwill’.
Answer:
The following are the causes of creation of ‘Goodwill’.
1. Situation of a market: Business should be started in such a place where the buyers can easily come and buy the goods. It will increase the sales and profits of the business.

2. Good business dealings: If the businessmen are keeping good relation with the customers, it will automatically increase the reputation and sales.

3. Good quality of goods at reasonable price: If the businessmen sell their goods of good quality at reasonable price, more customers will be attracted and the sales will normally be increased.

4. Give maximum convenience to the customers: The customers like to go to that shops where there are credit facilities and also there should be arrangement for home delivery of goods.

5. Influence of advertisement: Due to continuous advertisement there should be chances of increasing the sales. e.g., Nirma Powder.

Question 2.
Explain the methods of valuation of goodwill.
Or
What are the different methods of valuation of goodwill ? Explain calculation of goodwill as per average profit method.
Answer:
Valuation of goodwill is a difficult task. Generally, its valuation is done in the following ways :

1. Average profit method:
Under this method, the average profit of last years is found out at first. Then this average is multiplied with the number of years (purchase price). The resulting figure should be the amount of goodwill.

2. Super profit method:
Under this method, super profit is found out at first. Then
this figure is multiplied with the number of years (purchase price). The resulting amount should be the goodwill.

3. Capitalization method:
Under this method, it is assumed that the capital in-vested in the business brings profit. If the invested capital brings super profit or extra profit, it is treated as the goodwill of the firm.

4. Annuity method:
Under this method, it calculates that how many years the firm will earn super profit. Then this super profit (extra profit) is multiplied with annual interest (rate).
i.e., Goodwill = Super profit x Annual rate.

Question 3.
What is hidden goodwill ? How it is calculated ?
Answer:
hidden goodwill:
If is the value of goodwill that is not mentioned at the time of admission of a new partner. If in the question, it is mentioned that the new partner requires to bring his/her share of goodwill, then in between the capitalized value of the firm’s goodwill need to be calculated. It is calculated by taking the difference between the capitalized value of the firm and the net worth of the firm.

1. Calculation of total capital of the new firm:
First of all, on the basis of the new partners’ share of capital, the total capital of the firm is calculated. For example, if the new partner brings Rs. 10,000 as capital for 1/4 share, then the total capital will be Rs. 10,000 x 4 = Rs. 40,000.

2. Calculation of Actual capital (Sum of old and new partners):
Total capital of the old partners + capital brought by new partner is the actual capital of the, firm. Suppose the old partners’ capital is Rs. 25,000 and the new partner bring^s. 10,000 as capital. Then the actual capital of the firm will be Rs. 35,000 (Rs. 25,000 + Rs. 10, 000).

3. Determination of hidden Goodwill:
Excess of the total capital of the new firm over the actual capital i.e., sum of old and new partners’ capital is assumed to be hidden goodwill. Suppose the total capital of the new firm is Rs. 40,000 and the sum of old partners and new partners’ capital is Rs. 35, 000, then the difference Rs. 5,000 (Rs. 40,000 – Rs. 35, 000) will be the hidden goodwill.

MP Board Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions

MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 2 Partnership Accounts: Basic Concepts

Partnership Accounts: Basic Concepts Important Questions

Partnership Accounts: Basic Concepts Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Maximum number of members in a partnership firm performing banking business is:(MP 2010)
(a) 20
(b) 15
(c) 10
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) 10

Question 2.
In the absence of partnership deed interest on loan will be: (MP 2011,15)
(a) 10% p.a.
(b) 6%
(c) 6% p.a.
(d) 10%.
Answer:
(b) 6%

Question 3.
In the absence of partnership deed profit is divided in:
(a) Capital ratio
(b) Equally
(c) Liability ratio
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Equally

Question 4.
Liabilities of partners is:
(a) Limited
(b) Unlimited
(c) Limited up to capital
(d) None of above.
Answer:
(b) Unlimited

Question 5.
Partnership deed means:
(a) Rules of purchase and sale in business
(b) Rules and conditions of partnership business
(c) Rules of dissolution of partnership
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Rules and conditions of partnership business

Question 6.
The balance of current account of the partner will always have:
(a) Debit balance
(b) Credit balance
(c) Either of the two
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Either of the two

Question 7.
Preparation of Partnership deed is: (MP 2009 Set B, 13)(MP 2014)
(a) Compulsory
(b) Voluntary
(c) Partly compulsory
(d) Not necessary.
Answer:
(b) Voluntary

Question 8.
When the new partner brings premium (goodwill) in cash, it is transferred to: (MP 2009 Set B)
(a) New partner’s capital A/c
(b) Premium A/c
(c) New partner’s current A/c
(d) Bank A/c
Answer:
(b) Premium A/c

Question 9.
Interest on drawings is:
(a) Firm’s loss
(b) Partner’s income
(c) Firm’s income
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Firm’s income

Question 10.
On the admission of partnership the profit on revaluation A/c should be en¬ter: (MP2016)
(a) In the capital account of all partners
(b) In the capital account of new partners
(c) In the old partners capital account
(d) In profit sharing account.
Answer:
(c) In the old partners capital account

Question 11.
On dissolution of firm, the balance of partner’s Loan A/c is transferred to:
(a) Realization A/c
(b) Partner’s Capital A/c
(c) Partner’s current A/c
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(d) None of these.

Question 12.
Profit on revaluation is distributed in:
(a) Sacrificing ratio
(b) Equally
(c) Gaining ratio
(d) Old profit sharing ratio.
Answer:
(d) Old profit sharing ratio.

Question 13.
Profit on revaluation is transferred to:
(a) All partner’s Capital A/c
(b) New partner’s Capital A/c
(c) Old partner’s Capital A/c
(d) Profit & Loss A/c.
Answer:
(c) Old partner’s Capital A/c

Question 14.
New Ratio – Old Ratio:
(a) Sacrificing ratio
(b) Equal ratio
(c) Gaining ratio
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Gaining ratio

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. Partnership is the outcome of ………….. between partners.
2. Indian Partnership Act is of ……………. (MP 2013)
3. In fixed capital method ………….. account is also made.(MP 2013)
4. By Product method interest on …………… is calculated. (MP 2010)
5. In ………….. account method partner’s capital is always fixed. (MP 2009 Set A)
6. In partnership the liability of the partners is ………….
7. Preparation of partnership deed is ……………… (MP 2011)
8. Gaining ratio = New ratio …………… (MP 2011)
9. The liability of the partners in a firm is ……………
10. The registration of partnership is …………… (MP 2016)

Answer:

1. Agreement
2. 1932
3. Current account
4. Drawings
5. Fixed capital
6. Unlimited
7. Not compulsory
8. Old ratio
9. Unlimited
10. Compulsory.

Question 3.
Match the columns:

Answer:

1. (b) 10
2. (c) 6%
3. (a) 20
4. (e) 1932
5. (d) 1956
6. (f) Loan from partner
7. (g) Current account.).

Question 4.
Write true or false:

1. Partnership is an agreement between partners to share profit.
2. Partnership, a partner can transfer his interest in favor of any other partner without the consent of all other partners.
3. In absence of partnership deed neither interest is paid on capital nor charged, interest on drawing.
4. The liability of each partner in partnership is limited. (MP 2013)
5. In case of insolvency of a partner the deficiency of his capital is borne by all other partners.
6. Current account is opened in fluctuating capital method. (MP 2009 Set B)
7. To make partnership deed is compulsory. (MP 2012)
8. New Ratio – Old Ratio = Profit Receipt Ratio. (MP 2016)
9. Registration of partnership is not compulsory.
10. If the deed is silent on interest, then interest on partner’s loan will be paid @ 12% p.a.
11. Without any written agreement among the partners, a legal partnership can be formed.
12. Maximum numbers of members in a banking firm may be 20.’
13. If the deed is silent on interest, then interest on partner’s drawings will be charged @ 6% p.a.
14. Every partner in the firm beside taking active part in the firm also work as an agent of the other partners.
15. Disputes among the partners will not be solved as per the provisions of the partnership deed.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. True
6. True
7. False
8. True
9. True
10. False
11. True
12. True
13. False
14. True
15. False.

Question 5.
Write the answer in one word/sentence:

1. Name the agreement which sets out the terms and conditions for running the partnership business among partners ?
2. In which account the balance of profit and loss account is transferred in partnership business ?
3. What is maximum number of members in partnership ?
4. Whether registration of partnership is compulsory or optional ?(MP 2014)
5. The persons who have entered into a partnership with one another are collectively called.(MP 2009 B, 16)
6. In which system the current account is prepared ?(MP 2009 D)
7. The capital withdrawn by partners for personal use is termed by which name ? (MP 2015)

Answer:

1. Partnership deed
2. Profit and loss appropriation account
3. 20 or 10 (Banking business)
4. Optional
5. Partners
6. Fixed capital system
7. Drawings.

Partnership Accounts: Basic Concepts Short Answer type Questions

Question 1.
What is partnership deed ?
Answer:
A partnership deed is a document containing the important terms of partnership as agreed between the partners. A partnership deed may be written or verbal.

Question 2.
What are the rules applicable in the absence of partnership deed ?
Answer:
As per the Indian Partnership Act 1932, the rules applicable in the absence of partnership deed are:

1. Interest on capital: Interest on capital is not allowed to any partner.
2. Profit/loss distribution: Profit/loss of the firm will be distributed equally among all the partners.
3. Remuneration: No partner is entitled to get any remuneration like salary, bonus, commission etc.
4. Interest on partner’s loan: If any partner has given loan to the firm then interest on such loan will be paid @ 6 % p.a.
5. Interest on drawings: No interest will be charged on the drawings of the partners.

Question 3.
What is partnership deed ? Define it.
Answer:
Partnership deed is an agreement among the partners on the basis of which the firm is formed. The terms and conditions for carrying on partnership are recorded here. The object of preparing this agreement is to conduct the business smoothly. It may be oral or written. “Partnership deep or Partnership agreement” is that document which defines and describe the rules and condition for conducting business of the firm.

Question 4.
Why is it desirable to have a written partnership deed ?
Answer:
For the smooth conduct of the business and to have a healthy relation among the partners. The partnership deed is considered as a base. It is not compulsory to have a written deed. An oral deed is also considered as valid. But for avoiding any conflict among the partners in future, a written partnership deed is considered more relevant.

Question 5.
Why profit and loss adjustment account is prepared ? Explain.
Answer:
Is sole trade, the balance of profit and loss account is transferred to the personal account of the sole trader. But is partnership profit and loss adjustment account is prepared to ascertain the net profit or loss. All the factors effecting the profit and loss of the partners like interest on capital, salary, commission, interest on drawings, drawings of goods etc. are entered and the net profit or loss is ascertained. This profit and loss is distributed among the partners in agreed ratio or equally as mentioned in the deed.

Question 6.
Write any two circumstances when the fixed capital of partners get change.
Answer:
Following are the two conditions when there is change in the fixed capital of partners:

• When additional capital is introduced by the partners.
• When drawings are made by the partners.

Question 7.
Explain four characteristics of partnership.
Answer:
Four characteristics of partnership:
1. Two or more person:
For making partnership, the number of persons must not less than two. In the event of death or retirement, if the number of partners become less than two, the firm automatically get dissolved. But the maximum number of members not to exceed more than 20.

2. Agreement between partners:
According to Indian Partnership Act 1932 the partnership must be formed on the basis of an agreement. The agreement among the partners may be oral or written.

3. Legal business:
The existence of a legal business is necessary for the formation of a partnership firm.

4. Unlimited liability:
With reference to the repayment of the firm’s external debts, the liability of each partner of the firm is unlimited.

Question 8.
If a fixed amount is withdrawn on the first day of every quarterly. What period will be considered for calculating the interest on drawings ?
Answer:
If a fixed amount is withdrawn on the first day of every quarterly, then the period for calculating the interest on drawings will be taken as 7\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) months. If the drawings is made in the middle of the quarterly, then the period will be of 6 months. And if the drawings are made on the last day of every quarterly, the period will be of 4\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) months for calculating interest on drawings.

Partnership Accounts: Basic Concepts Long Answer Type Questions

Question I.
Discuss the various methods used for calculating interest on drawings. Ans. Interest on drawings in calculated on the basis of following methods.

1. Product method:
In this method number of months are calculated from the date of drawings up to the date of closing accounts and it is multiplied with the amount of drawings. The following formula interest is calculated.

2. Average due date method:
To calculate interest in this method, first of all the amount of drawings are added together. Each amount of drawings is multiplied with number of drawings months and the product is obtained. After that average month is calculated and interest is calculated from the following formula

3. Simple method:
In this method, at first interest is calculated separately on each drawings for their drawing periods. Afterwords amount of interest so obtained are added together to find out the total interest chargeable on drawings.

Question 2.
Differentiate between fixed capital and fluctuating capital method.
(MP 2000 Set C; 01 R Set C; 02 R Set A, B, C; 03 R Set B; 06 Set C; 08 Set B; 09 Set B; 2010 Model paper 12, IS, 17)
Answer:
Differences between fixed and fluctuating capital accounts:

MP Board Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions

MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers

Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers NCERT Intext Exercises

Question 1.
Classify the following as primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols :

Answer:
(i) 1°, (ii) 1°, (iii) 1°, (iv) 2°, (v) 2°, (vi) 3°.

Question 2.
Identify allylic alcohols in the above examples.
Answer:
Allylic alcohols are (ii) and (vi).

Question 3.
Name the following compounds according to IUPAC system :

Answer:
(i) 3-chloromethyl-2-isopropyl pentan-1-ol.
(ii) 2,5-Dimethyl hexane-1,3-diol.
(iii) 3-Bromocyclohexan-l-ol.
(iv) Hex-l-en-3-ol.
(v) 2-Bromo-3 -methyl but-2-en- l-ol.

Question 4.
Show how are the following alcohols prepared by the reaction of a suitable Grignard reagent on methanal ?

Answer:

Question 5.
Write structures of the products of the following reactions:

Answer:

(ii) NaBH₄ is weak reducing agent, it reduces aldehyde/ketones and not the esters.
Thus,

Question 6.
Give structures of the products you would expect when each of the following alcohol reacts with (a) HCl -ZnCl₂, (b) HBr and (c) SOCl₂ : (i) Butan-l-ol , (ii) 2-Methylbutan-2-ol.
Answer:
(a) With ZnCl₂-HCl (Lucas reagent) : Butan-l-ol (1° alcohol) does not react with Lucas reagent at room temperature. However, turbidity appears only after heating but- 2-methyl butan-2-ol (3° alcohol) reacts with Lucas reagent at room temperature immediately gives turbidity

(b) With HBr : Both the alcohols react with HBr to give corresponding alkyl bromides.

(c) With SOCl₂ : Both the alcohols react with SOCl₂ to give corresponding alkyl chlorides.

Question 7.
Predict the major product of acid catalysed dehydration of:
(i) 1-methylcyclohexanol and (ii) butan-l-ol.
Answer:

According to Saytzeff rule, the highly substituted product is the major product.

Question 8.
ortho and para nitrophenols are more acidic than phenol. Draw the resonance structures of the corresponding phenoxide ions.
Answer:
(i) Phenoxide ion:


Resonating structures of p-nitro phenoxide ion. In substituted phenols, the presence of electron withdrawing group (-R effect) such as -NO₂ group, increases the acidic strength of phenol, ortho and para nitrophenoxide ions are more stable (because of additional resonance structures show in boxes) than phenoxide ion due to effective delocalisation of negative charge in phenoxide ion. As a result o-and p- nitrophenols are more acidic than phenols.

Question 9.
Write the equations involved in the following reactions :
(i) Reimer – Tiemann reaction
(ii) Kolbe’s reaction.
Answer:
(i) Reimer-Tiemann reaction : When phenol is treated with chloroform in presence of aqueous sodium hydroxide at 60°C, o-Hydroxy benzaldehyde (Salicylaldehyde) and p-Hydroxy benzaldehyde are formed. The ortho-isomer is the major product. This reaction is called Reimer-Tiemann reaction.

If carbon tetrachloride is used in place of chloroform, salicylic acid is obtained as the main product.

(ii) Kolbe- Schmidt reaction : When sodium salt of a phenol is heated with CO₂ at 130°C. (403K) and 4-7 atm pressure, sodium salicylate is formed. This on acidification gives salicylic acid.

Salicylic acid is the starting material for the manufacture of aspirin which is an important analgesic.

Question 10.
Write the reactions of Williamson synthesis of 2-ethoxy-3-methylpentane starting from ethanol and 3-methylpentan-2-oI.
Answer:
Williamson’s synthesis is reaction of alkyl halide (1°) with sodium alkoxide to give ether by S_N2 mechanism. Thus, alkyl halide should be derivde from ethanol and alkoxide ion from 3-methyl pentan-2-ol. The complete reaction is as follows :

Question 11.
Which of the following is an appropriate set of reactants for the preparation of l-methoxy-4-nitrobenzene and why ?

Answer:
Chemically both sets are equally probable. In set (A) the Br group is activated by the electron withdrawing effect of —NO₂ group. Therefore, nucleophilic attack of CH₃ONa followed by elimination of NaBr gives the desired ether.

In set (B) nucleophilic attack of 4-nitrophenoxide ion on methylbromide gives the desired product.

Question 12.
Predict the products of the following reactions:

Answer:

When one of the groups in unsymmetrical ether is tertiary, then the halide formed is tertiary halide.

Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers NCERT Textbook Exercises

Question 1.
Write IUPAC names of the following compounds :


Answer:
(i) 2,2,4-Trimethyl pentan-3-ol
(ii) 5-Ethylheptane-2,4-diol
(iii) Butan-2,3-diol
(iv) Propane-1,2,3-triol
(v) 2-Methylphenol
(vi) 4-Methylphenol
(vii) 2,5-Dimethylphenol
(viii) 2,6-Dimethylphenol
(ix) l-Methoxy-2-methylpropane
(x) Ethoxybenzene
(xi) 1-Phenoxyheptane
(xii) 2-Ethoxybutane.

Question 2.
Write structures of the compounds whose IUPAC names are as follows :
(i) 2-Methylbutan-2-ol
(ii) l-Phenylpropan-2-ol
(iii) 3,5-Dimethylhexane -1, 3, 5-triol
(iv) 2,3 – Diethylphenol
(v) 1 – Ethoxypropane
(vi) 2-Ethoxy-3-methylpentane
(vii) Cyclohexylmethanol
(viii) 3-CycIohexylpentan-3-ol
(ix) Cyclopent-3-en-l-
(x) 4-Chloro-3-ethylbutan-l-ol.
Answer:

Question 3.
(i) Draw the structures of all isomeric alcohols of molecular formula C5H12O and give their IUPAC names.
(ii) Classify the isomers of alcohols in question (i) as primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols.
Answer:

Isomers (ii), (vii) and (viii) contain chiral centres can exhibit enantiomerism.

Question 4.
Explain, why propanol has higher boiling point than that of the hydrocarbon, butane ?
Answer:
The molecules of butane are held together by weak van der Waals’ force of attraction while those of propanol are held together by stronger intermolecular hydrogen bonding.

Therefore, the b.p. of propanol is much higher than that of butane.

Question 5.
Alcohols are comparatively more soluble in water than hydrocarbons of comparable molecular masses. Explain this fact.
Answer:
Alcohols can form hydrogen bonds with water and break the H—bond exist between water molecules. Hence, they are soluble in water.
On the other hand, hydrocarbons cannot form hydrogen bonds with water molecules and hence are insoluble in water.

Question 6.
What is meant by hydroboration-oxidation reaction ? Illustrate it with an example.
Answer:
The addition of diborane to alkene to form trialkyl boranes followed by their oxidation with alkaline hydrogen peroxide to form alcohol is called hydroboration-oxidation. For example:

The alcohols obtained by this process appear to have been formed by direct addition of water to the alkene against MarkownikofFs rule.

Question 7.
Give the structures and IUPAC names of monohydric phenols of molecular formula, C₇H₈O.
Answer:
Three isomers are :

Question 8.
While separating a mixture of ortho and para nitrophenois by steam distillation, name the isomer which will be steam volatile. Give reason.
Answer:
Orthonitrophenol is steam volatile while para-nitrophenol is not. This is on ac¬count of chelation (intramolecular H—bonding) in the molecule of o-nitrophenol. As a result its boiling point is less than that of p-nitrophenol, which is not steam volatile and its molecules are linked by intermolecular H—bonding.

Question 9.
Give the equations of reactions for the preparation of phenol from cumene.
Answer:

Question 10.
Write chemical reaction for the preparation of phenol from chloroben zene.
Answer:

Question 11.
Write the mechanism of hydration of ethene to yield ethanol.
Answer:
Direct addition of water to ethene in presence of an acid does not occur. Indirectly, ethene is first passed through cone. H₂SO₄ at room temperature to form ethylhydrogen- sulphate, which is decomposed by water on heating to form alcohol.

Mechanism : H₂SO₄ → H⁺ + O^Θ SO₂OH

Step-I: Protonation of alkene to form carbo-cation by electrophilic attack of hydronium ion (H₃O⁺).

Step-II: Nucleophilic attack by water on carbo-cation to yield protonated alcohol.

Step-III: Deprotonation (loss of proton) to form an alcohol:

Question 12.
You are given benzene, cone. H₂SO₄ and NaOH. Write the equations for the preparation of phenol using these reagents.
Answer:

Question 13.
Show how will you synthesis :
(i) 1-Phenylethanol from a suitable alkene ?
(ii) Cyclohexylmethanol using an alkyl halide by an S_N2 reaction ?
(iii) Pentan-l-ol using a suitable alkyl halide ?
Answer:

Question 14.
Give two reactions that show the acidic nature of phenol. Compare acidity of phenol with that of ethanol.
Answer:
The reactions showing acidic character of phenols are :
(i) Reaction with sodium : Phenol reacts with Na to give H₂ gas.

(ii) Reaction with NaOH : Phenol dissolves in NaOH to give sodium phenoxide and OH

Phenol is more acidic than ethanol. This is due to the reason that phenoxide ion left after the loss of a proton from phenol is stabilized by resonance (for structure refer text acidic nature of phenol) while ethoxide ion (left after loss of a proton from ethanol) is not.

Question 15.
Explain, why ortho nitrophenol is more acidic than ortho methoxyphenol ?
Answer:
Due to strong -R and -I effect of -NO₂ group, electron density in O-H bond decreases and hence the loss of proton becomes easy.

-R effect results in +ve charge on O-atom and hence facilitates the release of proton. Moreover, o-nitrophenoxide formed after the loss of a proton is stabilized by resonance.

o-nitrophenoxide ion is stabilized by resonance and hence o-nitrophenol is a stronger acid. On the other hand, due to +R effect of the —OCH₃ group,the electron density in the O—H bond increases and this makes the loss of proton difficult.

Further more after the loss of proton o-methoxy- phenoxide ion left is destabilized by resonance.

The two -ve charge repel each other and therefore destabilize the o-methoxyphenoxide ion. Thus, it is less acidic than o-nitrophenol.

Question 16.
Explain, how does the -OH group attached to a carbon of benzene ring activate it towards electrophilic substitution ?
Answer:
The -OH group exerts +R effect on the benzene ring under the effect of attacking electrophile. As a result, there is an increase in the electron density in the ring particularly at ortho and para positions, therefore electorphilic substitution occurs mainly at o-and p-positions. (For resonance hybrid structures of phenol refer to NCERT text-book.)

Question 17.
Give equations of the following reactions:
(i) Oxidation of propan-l-ol with alkaline KMnO₄ solution.
(ii) Bromine in CS₂ with phenol.
(iii) Dilute HNO₃ with phenol.
(iv) Treating phenol with chloroform in presence of aqueous NaOH.
Answer:

Question 18.
Explain the following with an example :
(i) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(ii) Kolbe’s reaction
(iii) Williamson-ether synthesis
(iv) Unsymmetrical ether.
Answer:
(i) Reimer-Tiemann reaction : When phenol is treated with chloroform in presence of aqueous sodium hydroxide at 60°C, o-Hydroxy benzaldehyde (Salicylaldehyde) and p-Hydroxy benzaldehyde are formed. The ortho-isomer is the major product. This reaction is called Reimer-Tiemann reaction.

If carbon tetrachloride is used in place of chloroform, salicylic acid is obtained as the main product.

(ii) Kolbe- Schmidt reaction : When sodium salt of a phenol is heated with CO₂ at 130°C. (403K) and 4-7 atm pressure, sodium salicylate is formed. This on acidification gives salicylic acid.

Salicylic acid is the starting material for the manufacture of aspirin which is an important analgesic.

(iii) Williamson-1 ether synthesis : This is the best method for preparation of ethers because both symmetrical and unsymmetrical (Aliphatic as well as aromatic) ethers can be prepared. When haloalkane is treated with sodium alkoxide then ether is formed. It is an example of nucleophilic substitution reaction in which halide ion (X-^–) of haloalkane is replaced by alkoxy or aroxy group.

Example : Reaction of ethyl bromide with sodium ethoxide gives diethyl ether
C₂H₅Br + C₂H₅ONa → C₂H₅OC₂H₅ + NaBr
(iv) Unsymmetrical ether : An unsymmetrical ether is an ether where two groups on the two sides of an oxygen atom differ (i.e., have and unequal number of carbon atoms.
For example; ethyl methyl ether (CH₃—O—CH₂CH₃)

Question 19.
Write the mechanism of acid dehydration of ethanol to yield ethene.
Answer:
The mechanism of acid dehydration of ethanol to yeild ethene involes the following three steps:

Step 1 : Protonation of ethanol to form ethyl oxonium ion :

Step 2 : Formation of carbocation (rate determinning step):

Step 3 : Elimination of a proton to form ethene:

The acid consumed in step I is released in Step 3. After the formation of ethene, it is removed to shift the equilibrium in a forward direction.

Question 20.
How are the following conversions carried out:
(i) Propene → Propan-2-ol.
(ii) Benzyl chloride → Benzyl alcohol.
(iii) Ethyl magnesium chloride → Propan-1-ol.
(iv) Methyl magnesium bromide → 2-Methylpropan-2-ol.
Answer:

Question 21.
Name the reagents used in the following reactions:

1. Oxidation of a primary alcohol to carboxylic acid.
2. Oxidation of a primary alcohol to aldehyde.
3. Bromination of phenol to 2,4,6-tribromo-phenol.
4. Benzyl alcohol to benzoic acid.
5. Dehydration of propan-2-ol to propene.
6. Butan-2-one to butan-2-ol.

Answer:

1. Acidified K₂Cr₂O₇ or neutral acidic or alkaline KMnO₄.
2. Pyridinium chlorochromate (pec) in CH₂Cl₂ or Cu at 573 K.
3. Bromine water (Br₂/H₂O)
4. Acidified or alkaline KMnO₄
5. Cone. H₂SO₄ at 443K or 85% phosphoric acid at 443K.
6. Ni/H₂ or NaBH₄ or LiAlH₄.

Question 22.
Give reason for the higher boiling point of ethanol in comparison to methoxymethane.
Answer:
The boiling point of ethanol is higher than methoxymethane because of the presence of strong intermolecular hydrogen bonding between ethanol molecule. As a result ethanol exist as associates molecules.

However no such H-bonding is present in methoxy methane.

Question 23.
Give IUPAC names of the following ethers:

Answer:
(i) 1-Ethoxy-2-methylpropane
(ii) 2-Chloro-1-methoxyethane
(iii) 4-Nitro anisole
(iv) 1-Methoxypropane
(v) 1 -Ethoxy-4,4-dimethylcyclohexane
(vi) Ethoxybenzene.

Question 24.
Write the names of reagents and equations for the preparation of the following ethers by Williamson’s synthesis:
(i) 1-Propoxypropane
(ii) Ethoxybenzene
(iii) 2-Methoxy-2-methylpropane
(iv) 1-Methoxyethane
Answer:

Question 25.
Illustrate with examples the limitations of Williamson synthesis for the preparation of certain types of ethers.
Answer:
Limitations of Williamson synthesis : (i) Better results are obtained, if the alkyl halide is primary. In case of secondary and tertiary alkyl halides, elimination completes over substitution. If a tertiary alkyl halide is used, an alkene is the only reaction product and no ether is formed. For example, the reaction of CH₃ONa with (CH₃)₃C—Br gives exclusively 2-methylpropene.

It is because alkoxides are not only nucleophile but strong bases as well. They react with alkyl halide leading to elimination reaction. Thus, in order to prepare methyl tertiary butyl ether, we must use methyl halide (primary) and sodium tertiary butoxide.

(ii) Aryl halides and vinyl halides cannot be used as substrate for the preparation of aromatic aliphatic ether because aryl halide and vinyl halides are less reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction.

Question 26.
How is 1-propoxypropane synthesized from propan-l-ol ? Write mechanism of this reaction.
Answer:
(a) It can be prepared by Williamson’s synthesis.

(b) It can also be prepared by dehydration of propan-l-ol

Question 27.
Preparation of ethers by acid dehydration of secondary or tertiary alcohol is not a suitable method. Give reason.
Answer:
The 1° alcohol gets protonated. Now it is attacked by another alcohol molecule. The mechanism is S_N2 (Nucleophilic attack)

The 2° and 3° alcohols also get protonated. But another molecule of alcohol cannot attack it due to steric hindrance. The protonated alcohol loses a molecule of H₂O to form a stable 2° or 3° carbo-cation. The carbocation prefers to lose a proton to form alkene.

Similarly, the 3° alcohol (CH₃)₃COH forms isobutane.

Question 28.
Write the equation of the reaction with hydrogen iodide :
(i) 1-Propoxypropane
(ii) Methoxybenzene and
(iii) Benzyiethylether.
Answer:

Question 29.
Explain the fact that in aryl alkyl ethers :
(i) The aikoxy group activates the benzene ring towards electrophilic substitution and
(ii) It directs the incoming substituents to ortho and para positions in benzene ring.
Answer:

In aryl alkyl ethers, due to the +R effect of the aikoxy group, the electron density in the benzene ring increases as shown in the following resonance structure.

Thus, benzene is activated towards electrophilic substitution by the aikoxy group.

(ii) It can also be observed from the resonance structure that the electron density increases more at the ortho para positions than at the meta position. As a result, the incoming substituents are directed to the ortho and para positions in the benzene ring.

Question 30.
Write the mechanism of the reaction of HI with methoxymethane.
Answer:

Protonated ether undergoes S_N2 attack by 1- ion and gives a mixture of methyl iodide and methyl alcohol. However, if HI is taken in excess, the methyl’alcohol formed in (ii) is also converted into methyliodide by the following mechanism.

Question 31.
Write equations of the following reactions:
(i) Friedel-Craft’s reaction – alkylation of anisole.
(ii) Nitration of anisole.
(iii) Bromination of anisole in ethanoic acid medium.
(iv) Friedel-Craft’s acetylation of anisole.
Answer:
(i) Friedel-Crafts reaction – alkylation of anisole : Anisole undergoes Friedel- Crafts reaction i.e., the alkyl and aryl group is introduced at ortho and para-positions by reaction with alkyl halide and aryl halide in the presence of anhydrous aluminium chloride (Lewis acid) as catalyst.

(ii) Nitration of anisole : Anisole reacts a mixture of concentrated sulphuric and nitric acids to yield a mixture of ortho and para nitroanisole.

(iii) Bromination of anisole in ethanoic acid medium : Phenetole or anisole undergoes bromination with bromine in ethanoic acid even in absence of iron (III) bromide catalyst. It is due to the activation of benzene ring by the ethoxy group, para-isomer is obtained in 90% yield.

(iv) Friedel-Craft’s acetylation of anisole :

Question 32.
Show how would you synthesize the following alcohols from appropriate alkenes ?

Answer:
(i) Alcohols on dehydration give alkene. Dehydrate the given alcohol. The alkene formed will give the desired alcohol on adding a molecule of H₂O. The addition of H₂O molecule takes place according to MarkownikofFs rule. In case dehydration of the given alcohol gives two alkenes, then see which alkene will give the desired alcohol.

Both the alkene give the desired alcohol on adding a molecule of H₂O.

(ii) Two alkenes are formed. They will give the desired alcohol on adding a H₂O molecule.

Addition of H₂O molecule to pent-1-ene gives the desired alcohol. Remember that -OH group comes to that carbon atom of the double bond which contains less number of H-atoms. In case of pent-2-one, both the carbon atoms of double bond have one H-atom. Therefore, -OH group may come to either of the carbon atom. This alkene will give pentan-2-ol as well as pentan-3-ol.

Addition of H₂O molecule to 2-methylcy-clohexyl but-2-ene will give the desired alcohol -OH group comes to that carbon atom of double bond which contains less number of H- atom.

Question 33.
When 3-methylbutan-2-ol is treated with HBr, the following reaction takes place:

Give a mechanism for this reaction.
(Hint : The secondary carbocation formed in step-II rearranges to a more stable tertiary carbocation by a hydride ion shift from 3rd carbon atom.)
Answer:
Alcohol gets protonated and then a H2O molecule is given out to give a carbocation.

Now, the 2° carbocation rearrange to form more stable 3° carbocation, one H—atom migrates from the adjacent carbon atom to C+. It is called 1,2-shift. Then addition of Br^– takes place.

Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers Other Important Questions and Answers

Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
Sodium dissolves easily in alcohol because :
(a) Alcohol has higher density than water
(b) Alcohol is lighter than water
(c) Alcohol is neutral
(d) Alcohol is amphoteric.
Answer:
(d) Alcohol is amphoteric.

Question 2.
Most acidic among the four compound is :
(a) Phenol
(b) o-nitrophenol
(c) m – nitrophenol
(d) p – nitrophenol.
Answer:
(c) m – nitrophenol

Question 3.
Reaction for the formation of salicylaldehyde from phenol is :
(a) Rosenmund reaction
(b) Friedel Crafts reaction
(c) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(d) Wurtz’s reaction.
Answer:
(c) Reimer-Tiemann reaction

Question 4.
Most effective reagent which converts propanol-2 to propanone :
(a) LiAlH₄
(b) Cu/300°C
(c) CO₂
(d) K₂Cr₂O₇.
Answer:
(b) Cu/300°C

Question 5.
Carbolic acid is :
(a) Phenol
(b) Phenyl benzoate
(c) Phenyl acetate
(d) Methyl salicylate.
Answer:
(a) Phenol

Question 6.
Which compound is known as oil of winter green :
(a) Phenyl benzoate
(b) Phenyl salicylate
(c) Phenyl acetate
(d) Salol.
Answer:
(d) Salol.

Question 7.
Reaction of Lucas reagent is fastest with :
(a) (CH₃)₃ C-OH
(b) (CH₃)₂ CHOH
(c) CH₃-(CH₂)₂ OH
(d) CH₃CH₂OH.
Answer:
(a) (CH₃)₃ C-OH

Question 8.
At low temperature phenol reacts with Br₂ in CS₂ to give

Answer:

Question 9.
Which compound is obtained on passing vapours of ethanol on hot Al₂O₃:
(a) Ethyl ether
(b) Acetone
(c) Acetaldehyde
(d) Ethane.
Answer:
(a) Ethyl ether

Question 10.
Which of the compound is Aspirin :
(a) Acetyl salicylic acid
(b) Salicylic acid
(c) Acetamide
(d) Salicyl amide.
Answer:
(a) Acetyl salicylic acid

Question 11.
The following compound reacts with phthalic acid to give acid-base indicator :
(a) Chlorobenzene
(b) Phenol
(c) Alcohol
(d) Ether.
Answer:
(b) Phenol

Question 12.
Bakelite is formed when phenol is condensed with :
(a) HCHO
(b) CH₃CHO
(c) C₆H₅CHO
(d) CH₃COCH₃.
Answer:
(a) HCHO

Question 13.
Used as an anaesthetic :
(a) CH₃OH
(b) C₂H₅OH
(c) CH₃—CHO
(d) (C₂H₅)₂ O.
Answer:
(d) (C₂H₅)₂ O.

Question 14.
Lucas reagent is :
(a) Cone. HCl
(b) Cone. H₂SO₄
(c) Anhydrous ZnCl₂
(d) Cone. HCl and anhydrous ZnCl₂.
Answer:
(d) Cone. HCl and anhydrous ZnCl₂.

Question 15.
Ether and alcohol can be distinguished by the following :
(a) Reaction with Na
(b) Reaction with PCl₅
(c) Reaction with 2,4 dinitrophenyl hydrazine
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Reaction with Na

Question 16.
Which is used for poisoning the alcohol:
(a) Methyl alcohol
(b) Ethyl alcohol
(c) Glycerine
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(a) Methyl alcohol

Question 17.
Gives Libermann’s nitroso test:
(a) C₆H₅OH
(b) CH₃-OH
(c) C₂H₅—OH
(d) CH₃-O-CH₃
Answer:
(a) C₆H₅OH

Question 18.
Which is identified by Lucas reagent:
(a) Phenol
(b) Ether
(c) Aldehyde
(d) Alcohol.
Answer:
(d) Alcohol.

Question 19.
Alcohols are soluble in water. Its main reason is :
(a) O—H bond
(b) Hydrogen bond
(c) Covalent bond
(d) Electrovalent bond.
Answer:
(b) Hydrogen bond

Question 20.
Which is formed on heating ethyl alcohol with bleaching powder :
(a) Diethyl ether
(b) Phenol
(c) Chlorobenzene
(d) Chloroform.
Answer:
(d) Chloroform.

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks :

1. General formula of ether is ……………….
2. Main product of Kolbe-Schmidt reaction of phenol is ……………….
3. By the hydrogenation of phenol ………………. is formed.
4. Alcohol reacts with I₂ and a base to give a yellow precipitate of ……………….
5. Phenol on being heated with Zn powder forms ……………….
6. On heating formaldehyde with ………………. bakelite is formed.
7. Diethyl ether is used as an ……………….
8. On heating RX with NaOR, ROR is formed. Name of this reaction is ……………….
9. Alcohol is ………………. whereas phenol is of ………………. nature.
10. On heating alcohol with cone. H₂SO₄ for 160 – 170°C ………………. is formed.
11. By the dehydration of ethyl alcohol ………………. and ………………. are obtained.
12. Rectified spirit is a mixture of ………………. % alcohol and ………………. water.

Answer:

1. C_nH_2n+1OC_nH_2n+1
2. Salicylic acid
3. Cyclohexanol
4. Iodoform (CHI₃),
5. Benzene
6. Phenol
7. Anaesthetic
8. Williamson synthesis
9. Neutral, acidic
10. Alkene
11. Ethylene, diethyl ether
12. 95-5%, 4-5%.

Question 3.
Match the following :

Answer:

1. (f)
2. (d)
3. (e)
4. (g)
5. (b)
6. (a)
7. (j)
8. (c)
9. (h)
10. (i).

Question 4.
Answer in one word/sentence :

1. Diethyl ether does not reacts with Na. Why ?
2. Fire caused due to ether cannot be extinguished by water. Why ?
3. Which is formed on burning ether ?
4. Write name of the enzyme which converts maltose to glucose.
5. Sulphuric ether is known as.
6. Reaction of ether with HI is used for the detection of what ?
7. Phenol reacts with Br₂ in presence of CS₂ to form.
8. In Victor Meyer method, 1° alcohol gives which colour with base.
9. Phenol reacts with phthalic anhydride in presence of H₂SO₄ to form.
10. Which gas is obtained during fermentation ?
11. Name the primary alcohol which gives iodoform test.
12. Name the reaction in which phenol reacts with chloroform and sodium hydroxide to form salicylaldehyde.

Answer:

1. Absence of acidic H-atom
2. Lighter than water and insoluble
3. CO₂ and H₂O
4. Maltase
5. Diethyl ether
6. Alkoxy (Ziesel)
7. o-and p-bromophenol,
8. Red
9. Phenolphthalein
10. CO₂
11. C₂H₅—OH
12. Reimer-Tiemann reaction.

Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why ether is less soluble in saturated solution of NaCl ? Explained.
Answer:
Ether is a weak polar compound and saturated solution of NaCl decrease the polarity ofthe ether. Na⁺ and Cl^– ions attract H₂O molecules more strongly than ether molecules, thus the solubility of ether decreases in saturated solution of NaCl.

Question 2.
What is absolute alcohol ? How is it prepared ?
Answer:
100% ethanol is known as Absolute alcohol. Benzene is mixed in absolute spirit and fractionally distilled. Azeotropic mixture of 74% water, 18 5% alcohol and 74% ben¬zene is distilled on 64-8% alcohol. After the removal of water at 68-2°C binary mixture of alcohol (32-4%) and benzene (67-6%) is distilled. When entire benzene is removed then at 78-l°C impure alcohol is distilled. It contains 100% alcohol.

Question 3.
Give equations for the preparation of ethyl alcohol by starch and write name of enzymes.
Answer:

Enzymes : (1) Diastase, (2) Maltase, (3) Zymase.

Question 4.
What is Lucas reagent ? How are primary, secondary and tertiary alcohol identified by it ? Explain.
Answer:
Mixture of anhydrous ZnCl₂ and cone. HCl is known as Lucas reagent.

1. Tertiary Alcohol : On adding Lucas reagent in alcohol at normal temperature, immediately white oily precipitate of Alkyl chlorides is formed, then it is tertiary alcohol.
2. Secondary Alcohol: If on adding Lucas reagent in alcohol, at normal temperature, a white oily precipitate of alkyl chloride is obtained after 5 minutes, then it is secondary alcohol.
3. Primary Alcohol: Primary alcohol does not show any reaction with Lucas reagent at normal temperature.

Question 5.
Why the b.p. of alcohol are higher than ethers and alkene ?
Or,
C₂H₅OH and CH₃OCH₃ both have same molecular formula (C₂H₆O) but the b.p. of alcohol is 78.4°C and b.p. of ether is -240°C. Explain the reason.
Answer:
In case of C₂H₅OH there is strong intermolecular hydrogen bonding between the molecules of alcohol. So alcohols (C₂H₅OH) required much energy to evaporate than ether molecules. In other words, we can say that the C₂H₅OH molecules are in associated form due to H-bonding so the b.p. of C₂H₅OH is very higher than ether and alkene.

Question 6.
What do you understand by Methylated spirit or denaturing alcohol ?
Answer:
Methylated Spirit : Ordinary rectified spirit is known as industrial alcohol.

Methylated spirit is 90% ethanol to which nauseating materials like methyl alcohol, pyridine or mineral naphtha have been added. These materials are added so that the ethanol will not be used for beverage purposes. This process is called denaturing. It is of two types :

It is used for the preparation of spirit, varnish etc. By it misuse of ethanol as a beverage is controlled.

Question 7.
Explain the manufacture of CH₃OH by water gas.
Answer:
From water gas : Steam is passed over red hot coke when water gas is formed.

Water gas is mixed with half its volume of hydrogen, compressed to about 200 atm and passed over a catalyst which is a mixture of oxides of copper, zinc and chromium at 300°C.

Question 8.
Give chemical equation of the following conversion :
(i) Diethyl ether from ethanol
(ii) Ethanol from diethyl ether
(iii) Ethyl acetate from ethanol
(iv) Ethanol from glucose.
Answer:
(i) Diethyl ether from Ethanol:

(ii) Ethanol from Diethyl ether :

(iii) Ethyl acetate from Ethanol :

(iv) Ethanol from Glucose :

Question 9.
Differentiate between Phenol and Alcohol and write Libermann’s reaction related to phenol.
Answer:
Differences between Phenol and Alcohol:

Phenol:

1. Physical properties : Characteristic phenolic odour, sparingly soluble in water.
2. It is acidic and dissolve in bases to form salt.
3. On oxidation, hybrid coloured product is formed.
4. Produce characteristic colour with Ferric chloride.
5. It does not react with halogen acid.
6. With PCl₅, mainly form triaryl phosphate.

Alcohol:

1. Pleasant odour, fairly soluble in water.
2. It is neutral and do not reacts with bases.
3. It can easily oxidize to Aldehydes and ketones.
4. It does not reacts with ferric chloride.
5. Forms Alkyl halide.
6. Alkyl chloride are formed.

Libermann’s Reaction : On adding few drops of concentrated sulphuric acid and little sodium nitrite in phenol first dark blue colour is produced on adding water colour becomes red and on adding an alkali red colour again changes to blue colour.

Question 10.
Pure phenol is a colourless solid but why it is converted into pink after some time ?
Or,
What change in colour is observed in phenol in presence of oxygen ? Explain with reaction.
Answer:
In the presence of air pure phenol oxidises into quinone.

This quinone again combines with two molecules of phenol by H-bond and gives pink phenoquinone.

Question 11.
Write reaction of phenol with ferric chloride.
Answer:
Phenol reacts with FeCl₃ to form water soluble coloured complex. The colour varies from violet to red including green and blue.
6C₆H₅OH + FeCl₃ → (C₆H₅O)₆ Fe + 3HCl + 3H⁺

Question 12.
Boiling point of higher than corresponding alkane. Why ?
Answer:
Boiling point of alcohols is much higher than hydrocarbons of nearly similar molecular mass due to inter molecular hydrogen bond. Alcohols molecules associate kilo calories mole^-1. Thus, extra energy is required for the separation of these molecules, which lead to increase in boiling point. Hydrocarbons do not form hydrogen bond, thus their boiling point is comparatively less.

Question 13.
Ethyl alcohol and phenol both contain — OH group. What is the reason that phenol is acidic and alcohol has alkaline effect ?
Or,
Ethyl alcohol and phenol both contain — OH group. What is the reason that phenol is acidic and alcohol is neutral in nature ?
Answer:
Explanation of acidic nature of phenol: One possible explanation why phenols are stronger acids as compared to alcohols is that phenols exist as a resonance hybrid.

Due to resonance, the oxygen atom gets a positive charge and attracts the electron pair of the O—H bond and thus facilitates the release of a proton. The phenoxide ion formed after the release of a proton is also stabilized by resonance.

In alcohols, no resonance is possible hence the hydrogen atom is more firmly linked to the oxygen.

Question 14.
Write Victor Meyer method to distinguish primary, secondary and tertiary alcohol.
Answer:
Victor Meyer’s method : (i) The given alcohol is converted into an iodide by concentrated HI or red phosphorus and iodine.
(ii) The iodide is treated with silver nitrite to form nitroalkane.
(iii) Nitroalkane is finally treated with nitrous acid (NaNO₂ + H₂SO₄) and made alkaline with KOH.
If a blood red colour is obtained, the original alcohol is primary.
If a blue colour is obtained, the alcohol is secondary.
If no colour is produced, the alcohol is tertiary.

Question 15.
What is Williamson continuous etherification process ? Is it a continuous process ? Explain. Give labelled diagram.
Or,
Describe the laboratory method of preparation of diethyl ether. How ether thus obtained is purified ?
Answer:
Laboratory Method for the Preparation of Diethyl Ether (Sulphuric Ether):
Diethyl ether is prepared in the laboratory and industry by the Williamson continuous etherification process, i.e., by heating ethanol (in excess) with concentrated sulphuric acid.

Sulphuric acid is regenerated in the reaction hence, it appears as if only a small amount of acid may convert an excess of alcohol into ether. So, this method is called Williamson continuous etherification process but actually we cannot get ether continuously.

This is due to the following two reasons :

1. Water formed in the reaction dilutes the acid and its reactivity decreases.
2. A part of sulphuric acid is reduced by alcohol into sulphur dioxide.

Method : Ethanol and H₂SO₄ (2:1) are taken in a flask and heated on sand bath at ‘ 140°C. Ethanol is added at the same rate at which ether distilled over and is collected in a receiver cooled in ice-cold water.

Purification: Ether contain ethanol, water and sulphuric acid as impurities. It is washed with NaOH to remove sulphuric acid and then agitated with 50% solution of calcium chloride to remove alcohol. It is then washed with water, dried over anhydrous calcium chloride and redistilled.

Question 16.
Write a notes on fermentation.
Answer:
Fermentation : In this method, molasses or starch are used as raw materials. This is the old method and is used at present also. Fermentation (Latin-fermentare means to boil) proceeds with fast evolution of CO₂ producing much foam giving appearance as if the solution is boiling. “It is a process of decomposition of complex large molecules into simple and small molecules slowly and by enzyme.” Enzymes are of many kinds and are present in yeast which is a living and complex substance containing several types of bacteria which are called enzymes. It is a good ferment. The enzymes present in yeast are zymase, mal- tase, invertase, etc.

When yeast is mixed in glucose solution and kept at proper conditions, ethyl alcohol is formed as a result of fermentation.

Favourable conditions for Fermentation:

1. Favourable temperature: It is between 25-35°C.
2. Other substances : Some inorganic salts like ammonium sulphate or ammonium nitrate function as food for fermentation.
3. Concentration : Solution should be dilute (Concentration 8-10%).
4. Air : The process occur in presence of air.

Question 17.
(i) How can we obtain phenol from benzene diazonium chloride ?
(ii) What is the reaction of diethyl ether with HI acid ?
Answer:
(i) Phenols are prepared by hydrolysis of diazonium salts by water, dil. acids etc.

(ii) The reaction of diethyl ether with cone. HI acid, on heating gives one molecule of ethyl iodide and one molecule of ethyl alcohol.

Question 18.
Give two reactions that show the acidic nature of phenol.
Answer:
(a) The reactions showing acidic character of phenol are:
(i) Reaction with sodium : Phenol reacts with sodium to give H₂ gas.

(ii) Reaction with NaOH: Phenol dissolve in NaOH to give sodium phenoxide.

(b) Comparison of Acidity of Phenol with alcohol.
C₂H₅OH + NaOH → No reaction
But phenol reacts with NaOH and exhibits its strong acidic nature.
Ionization of Ethanol and Phenol is as follows :
On the other hand ethoxide ion and ethanol do not represent resonance thus negative charge is on oxygen of ethoxide ion whereas charge displacement occur in phenoxide ion.
pK_a value of ethanol is 15.9 where of phenol is 10.0. Thus, phenol is many more times’ more acidic than ethanol.

Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the mechanism of dehydration of alcohol.
Answer:
Dehydration of alcohol:
(i) When ethyl alcohol is heated in excess of cone. H₂SO₄ molecule of water is eliminated and alkene is formed.

Mechanism : (i) Protonation of alcohol by H₂SO₄

(ii) Removal of water

(iii) Elimination of β-hydrogen in the form of proton by base (bisulphate ion)

Stability of the carbocation (I) determines the case of dehydration and order of stability of carbocation is :
CH₃ < C₂H₅ < Isopropyl < Tertiary butyl

Question 2.
How is ethyl alcohol obtained by molasses ? Explain in brief.
Or,
What are molasses ? How is alcohol obtained by fermentation ? Explain. Tell favourable conditions of fermentation. Draw labelled diagram of coffee still.
Answer:
From molasses : Molasses is the syrupy solution of sugar left after the separa¬tion of cane sugar or beet sugar crystals from the concentrated juice.

The different steps of the manufacture processes are :

(a) Dilution : The molasses is diluted with water so that a concentration of 8-10 percent sugar is obtained in solution. This is acidified with dilute sulphuric acid to retard other bacterial growth. A solution of ammonium salts is also added which acts as food for the ferment.

(b) Alcoholic fermentation : The dilute solution obtained above [From step (a)] is taken in big fermentation tanks and some yeast is added. The mixture is kept for a few days and the temperature is maintained at about 30°C. The fermentation reaction starts and the enzyme Invertase (From Yeast) converts sucrose into glucose and fructose which are then converted into ethanol by Zymase (From Yeast).

The fermentation is completed in about 3 days. The carbon dioxide is collected as a by product.

(c) Distillation : The fermented liquor is technically called wash or wort which contains about 9-10 percent ethanol. It is then distilled in a continuous still called Coffey’s still. It consists of two tall fractionating columns which are called analyser and the rectifier. It works on the counter current principle and the steam and wash travel in opposite directions through the still.

The steam goes upwards in the analyser and takes away the alcohol vapours from the down coming dilute alcohol. The mixture leaves the analyser from the top and enters the rectifier at the base. Here it heats the wash flowing through the pipes on its way to the analyser. Most of the steam condenses and the alcohol vapours condenses in the condenser. The distillate contain 90% alcohol.

(d) Rectification : Wash is rectified by fractional distillation.

Question 3.
How can you change the following : (i) Methanol to ethanol, (ii) Ethanol to methanol.
Answer:
(i) Methanol to ethanol:

(ii) Ethanol to methanol:

Question 4.
Differentiate primary, secondary and tertiary alcohol by oxidation and dehydrogenations method.
Answer:
1. Oxidation : The oxidizing agents generally used for oxidation of alcohols are acid dichromate, acid or alkaline KMnO₄ and dilute HNO₃.

(i) A primary alcohol is easily oxidized to an aldehyde and then to an acid both containing the same number of carbon atoms as the original alcohol.

(ii) A secondary alcohol on oxidation gives a ketone with the same number of carbon atoms as the original alcohol, ketones are oxidized with difficulty but prolonged action of oxidizing agents produce carboxylic acids containing fewer number of carbon atoms than the original alcohol.

(iii) A tertiary alcohol is resistant to oxidation in neutral or alkaline solutions but is readily oxidized by an acid oxidizing agent giving a mixture of ketone and acid each having lesser number of carbon atoms than the original alcohol.

2. Dehydrogenation (Action of hot reduced copper at 300°C): Different types of alcohols give different products when their vapours are passed over Cu gauze at 300°C.
Primary alcohols lose hydrogen and yield an aldehyde.

Secondary alcohols lose hydrogen and yield a ketone.

Tertiary alcohols are not dehydrogenated but lose a water molecule to give alkenes.

Question 5.
How can you obtained following compounds from phenol :
(i) 2, 4, 6-Tribromophenol
(ii) Picric acid
(iii) Aniline
(iv) Benzene
(v) Phenolp- hthalene
(vi) p-cresol, o-cresol.
Answer:
(i) Phenol to Tribromophenol : Phenols readily react with halogens to give polyhalogen substituted compounds. Phenol gives white precipitate of 2, 4, 6-tribromo- phenol with bromine water.

(ii) Phenol to Picric acid : Nitration : On nitration, phenols give a variety of products depending upon the conditions.

Nitration of phenol with conc. HNO₃ in presence of conc. H₂SO₄ gives, 2,4,6-Trinitro-phenol (Picric acid).

(iii) Phenol to Aniline:

(iv) Phenol to Benzene:

(v) Phenol to Phenolphthalene : Phenol condenses with phthalic anhydride in pres¬ence of cone. H2SO4 to give phenolphthalein which is an indicator for acid-base titrations and is used as a laxative in medicine.

(vi) Phenol to ortho and para cresol:

Question 6.
Give chemical equation of the following conversion:
(i) Diethyl ether from ethanol
(ii) Ethanol from diethyl ether
(iii) Ethyl acetate from ethanol
(iv) Ethanol from glucose.
Answer:
(i) Diethyl ether from Ethanol:

(ii) Ethanol from Diethyl ether:

(iii) Ethyl acetate from Ethanol:

(iv) Ethanol from Glucose :

Question 7.
Describe the manufacture method of methanol by the destructive distillation of wood.
Answer:
Manufacture of methanol: By the destructive distillation of wood: Dried wood is heated (350°C) in closed retorts for about 3 hours. Different products obtained are given ahead:

Recovery of methyl alcohol from pyroligneous acid : Pyroligneous acid contains methyl alcohol (2-4%), acetone (0-5 to 1%), acetic acid (about 10%) and water.

The pyroligneous acid is taken in a copper vessel and distilled. The vapours are passed through hot milk of lime which retains acetic acid as non-volatile calcium acetate. Methyl alcohol and acetone vapours pass over and are condensed. This mixture is subjected to fractional distillation to separate methyl alcohol (b.p. 65°C) and acetone (b.p. 56°C). Methyl alcohol obtained by fractional distillation is about 95% pure. To purify further methyl alcohol is treated with anhydrous calcium chloride when it forms solid derivative CaCl₂.4CH₃OH. This solid derivative is separated and methyl alcohol is recovered by distillation.

Question 8.
Give equations for three methods of preparation of phenol.
Answer:
Methods of preparation of phenol:
(i) By the hydrolysis of Benzene diazonium salts: Benzene diazonium salt is formed by aromatic primary amine (aniline) with nitrous acid at 0-5°C. On boiling aqueous solution of this salt phenol is formed.

(ii) By alkaline fusion of sodium benzene sulphonate : On fusing sodium benzene sulphonate with NaOH, sodium phenoxide is formed which on acidification forms phenol.

(iii) Rasching method : On heating benzene with mixture of HCl and air to 230°C in the presence of Cu catalyst chlorobenzene is formed which on hydrolysis form phenol.

MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions

MP Board Class 12th Business Studies Important Questions Chapter 3 Management and Business Environment

Management and Business Environment Important Questions

Management and Business Environment Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Out of the following which is not a part of business environment:
(a) Urbanization
(b) Employee
(c) Comparative
(d) Mandatory.
Answer:
(b) Employee

Question 2.
Out of the following which is a component of business environment:
(a) Identification
(b) Improvement in performance
(c) Coping with rapid changes
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above.

Question 3.
Which is an example of social environment:
(a) Supply of money in the economy
(b) Consumer protection ACT
(c) Structure of country
(d) Formation of family.
Answer:
(d) Formation of family.

Question 4.
Liberalization means:
(a) Integration among economies
(b) Reduced government control and restriction
(c) Policy of planned disinvestment
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Reduced government control and restriction

Question 5.
Shape and distribution of population is taken as :
(a) Part of technological environment
(b) Part of legal environment
(c) Part of political environment
(d) Part of social environment.
Answer:
(d) Part of social environment.

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks :

1. The …………….. components of business are controllable.
2. The internal components of business …………….. affects the business.
3. Legal regulatory is the …………….. component of business.
4. The objectives and outlook of business is included …………….. in components or factor.
5. India formulated the policy of new economic reforms in ……………..

Answer:

1. Internal
2. Directly
3. External
4. Internal
5. 1991.

Question 3.
Write the answer in one word/sentence :

1. What do you mean by Globalization ?
2. What is the policy made for providing employment to people known as ?
3. Foreign policy is the component of which business environment ?
4. What does EPCG stands for ?
5. Name the business zone established to encourage exports.

Answer:

1. Integration of world trade economies
2. Employment policy
3. Political
4. Export promotion goods plans
5. Export promotion policy.

Question 4.
Write true or false :

1. Liberalization in India is failure in affecting industry and business.
2. Economic, Social and political situations creates business environment.
3. Globalization has affected industries and business in India.
4. External factors do not affect the business environment.
5. Changes in government policies do not affect industries and business.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. False
5. False.

Question 5.
Match the columns :

Answer:

1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (d)

Management and Business Environment Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Advanced techniques lay emphasis on what factors ?
Answer:
Advanced techniques lay emphasis on the following :

1. Scientific research
2. Innovation
3. Invention
4. Improvement
5. Spreading innovation.

Question 2.
Name the change in economic surrounding of India after 1991.
Answer:
The changes in economic surroundings of India after 1991 :

1. Modernization
2. Privatization
3. Globalization,
4. Liberalization.

Question 3.
what are the reasons behind adoption of new economic policy in India ?
Answer:
The following are the reasons behind adoption of new economic policy in India:

1. Decrease in foreign exchange
2. Heavy government loss
3. Increase in cost
4. Increase in internal loan
5. Decrease in foreign business.

Question 4.
Under 1956 industrial policy how are the industries classified ?
Answer:

1. First category: Those industries whose development is completely based on its state.
2. Second category: Those industries which are run by the state and new industries in future will also be stated by them.
3. Third category: Rest all industries belong to this. Industries in this category are mainly consumer products based.

Question 5.
Write names of four economic policies :
Answer:
Four economic policies :

1. Export import policy
2. Employment policy
3. Agricultural policy
4. Industrial policy
5. Foreign investment policy
6. Tax policy.

Question 6.
Which industries according to the new economic policy compulsorily need to take licence.
Answer :
The six industries according to the new economic policy compulsorily need to take licence are :

1. Harmful/Dangerous chemical
2. Drugs and pharmaceuticals
3. Alcohol peva
4. Defense equipment
5. Industrial explosive.

Question 7.
After 1991, what were the changes in the Indian economic environment ?
Answer :
These were the important parts of new economic policy which has been modified so that objectives of liberalization, globalization and privatization can be achieved.

1. Declaration of new industrial policy : At the time, 1991 industrial policy was announced, 18 items were subject to industrial licensing but gradually their number has been reduced to 5 namely.

1. Cigars and cigarettes
2. Electronic aerospace and defence equipment
3. Indus-trial explosives
4. Hazardous chemicals
5. Certified specified drugs.

2. New trade policy :

1. Minimum restriction on trade. To increase foreign trade, import duty and tariff were slowly reduced.
2. To bring expansion in economy foreign investment and new technology was encouraged.
3. Liberal financial facilities to exporters were given.

3. Reform in capital market: SEBI was established.

4. Reforms in fiscal policy : Control on public expenditure and introduction of VAT in states.

Question 8.
Throw light on new monetary policy.
Answer:
To encourage liberalization and to enhance foreign business government decided to amend monetary policy for which Narshimham Committee was formed. The recommendations are as follows:

1. Bank should independently control the interest rates and RBI should not interfere in it.
2. To redesign the banking system.
3. To give more independence to banks.
4. To improve the accounting system of banks.
5. National banks should be given freedom to accumulate money from the market.
6. Private sector should be permitted to establish bank.
7. There should be reorientation of banks. Two or three banks should have international orientation which means that they alone should operate overseas.
8. Necessary changes should be made in accounting systems of banks.
9. There should be 8 to 10 national banks who should operate throughout the country.

Question 9.
What do you understand by business environment ?
Answer:
business environment is made of two words ‘Business’ and ‘Environment’. Business simply mean busy with an aim of profit earning. Environment means the surrounding extend agents influences or circumstances under which someone or something exits. Business environment consists of all external and internal factors that influence the complex interaction in the market production and finance.

Question 10.
Write the various components of internal environment.
Answer:
Various components of internal environment are as follows :

1. Policies, rules and plans of business.
2. Aims and objectives of business.
3. Production pattern of business. .
4. Organization of business.
5. Sources and resources of business.
6. Labour policy of business.

Question 11.
Explain India vision 2020.
Answer:
On 23rd January, 2003, the planning commission for the evaluation of economic development of next two decades issued a document or deed called “lndia Vision 2020” Through this document, planning commission has made an effort to improve the business environment.
The main features of India Vision 2020 are as follows :

1. To pay attention towards the multiplying of employment opportunities.
2. Per capital income to be increased by 4 times.
3. To lay stress on balanced environment protection.
4. To increase economic development at the rate of 9% p.a.
5. To increase the share of direct foreign investment in the total capital formation.
6. To increase the gross domestic product etc.

Management and Business Environment Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What does LPG stands for in business environment ?
Answer:

• L : Liberalization
• P : Privatization
• G : Globalization.

Question 2.
Write full forms of FERA and FEMA under the new policy of India which rule has been eliminated to implement FEMA ?
Answer:
FERA: Foreign exchange regulation Act
FEMA: Foreign exchange management Act.
In India at the time of new economic policy FEMA was implemented in place FERA.

Question 3.
What do you understand by Micro and Macro environment ?
Answer:
Micro environment: It means that environment in which the included components have close relationship with business.

Question 5.
What were reasons which compelled Indian government to adopt new economic policy ?
Answer:
Following are the reasons which compelled Indian government to adopt new economic policy:

1. Fiscal threat
2. Increased international loan
3. Appreciation of currency index
4. Fall in foreign exchange accumulation
5. Depreciation in Indian rupee
6. Imbalance and negligence of payments
7. RBI and SBI Mortgaged Gold.

Question 6.
Give three examples of Indian legal environment which has affected the business.
Answer:

1. Restriction on advisement of toxic production.
2. Industries were made free from licencing.
3. Statutory warning was made compulsory on tobacco products.

Question 7.
What do you mean by liberalization ? Under liberalization what measures were taken and what was the impact of it on business and industry ?
Answer
Meaning : Liberalization refuse to removal of entry and growth restrictions on the private companies. It is an economic reform with main objective to minimize licencing requirements, remove restrictions related to scale of operations, give freedom for fixing prices and movement of goods, encourage.import and export.Measures and impact of liberalization on business and industries are as follows :

1. Ending of licensing and registration : The main objective under new economic policy is to have controlled economy. The new economic policy has benefited the private industries by providing free licensing.

2. Relief from proprietorship restrictions: The restrictions of more than 100 crores investment in proprietorship was removed.

3. Increase in investments in small scale industries : Investment limits in small scale industries have been increased to 1 crore and adopted the latest advance in technology.

4. Discount on technological imports: To promote the new economic policy emphasis was laid to promote latest technologies and discounts were given. This policy promoted industries based on computers and electronics.

Question 8.
In today’s scenario of business environment how can a businessman prove his existence ?
Answer:
The ahead points lay emphasis on what a businessman can do in today’s scenario to exist:

1. To produce goods as per customer’s need
2. To keep the employees happy with sufficient remuneration
3. To recruit trained and experienced employees
4. To produce good in such a manner which lays good impression on consumers
5. To make plans and techniques keeping in view the competitors.

Question 9.
Explain the following in short:

1. Liberalization
2. Privatization
3. Globalization.

Answer:
1. Liberalization: Means removing unnecessary trade restriction. Liberalization allows private sectors to run even those industries which are reserved for the public sectors, relaxing the restriction and regulations imposed on it.
Measures of liberalization adopted by India are :

1. Exemption from licensing
2. Concession from MRTP Act (Monopolistic and Restrictive Trade practice)
3. Increase in production capacity
4. Freedom of production,
5. Buying foreign exchange from open market.

2.Privatization: Privatization refers to transfer of ownership management and control of public sector enterprise to the entrepreneurs of private sector. It is a set of economic reforms with the main objective to allow private sector to invest in sectors earlier restricted to public sector to develop healthy competition between public and private sector and dilute government ownership in public sector enterprises. Process by which the participation of state and public sector in economic activities are reduced. The main aim of privatization to allow private sector to run and manage the industries and to minimize the reservation made for public sector.

3.Globalization : Globalization refers to integration of national economy with the world economy by removing with the objective to strengthen relationships between countries and increase imports and exports.

Question 10.
Write any two objectives of globalization.
Answer:
Two objectives of globalization are as follows :

1. Removal of inefficiency: Globalization is intended to remove inefficiency of firms and Industries.

2. Improvement in banking and financial sectors : As result of globalization, entry of foreign banks will be easy. It will improve the efficiency of banking and financial sector.

Question 11.
What do you mean by internal components of business ?
Answer:
Business environment can be classified in two categories. Internal environment and external environment. Internal environment includes those factors of business which can be controlled by business. In internal environment changes take place speedily.
Components of Internal Environment:

1. Policies,rules and plans of business.
2. Aims and objectives of business.
3. Production pattern of business.
4. Sources and resources of business.
5. Organization of business
6. Labour policy of business etc.

These are the internal factors of business which affects the business directly while it is under the control of the owners of business. Hence changes can be made according to our own will but external environment is not under the control of the owner of business.

Question 12.
Explain the social environment of business.
Answer:
Social environment: Social environment is shaped by social factors such as attitudes of people, cultural heritage, beliefs and customs of people, education system, consumers organizations, trade unions and other non-government organizations. In society, there are activities related with caste, religion, sex, family etc. which affects the business.

Question 13.
Throw light on legal regulatory of business.
Answer:
Legal Regulatory: Legal regulatory environment of business is determined by constitutional provisions, economic laws, commercial laws, industrial and labour laws, government regulations under various laws and court decisions. These help the government in the regulation of economic activities of the business enterprises. Since Indian economy is centrally planned and controlled the business enterprises are required to operate within the framework of legal regulatory environment. The important components of the legal regulatory environment include the following:

1. The constitutional framework: Directive principle fundamental rights and division of legislative powers between central and state government.
2. Commercial and economic laws and government policies under the laws relating to licensing, monopolies, foreign investment etc.
3. Government policies related to imports and exports. .
4. Government policies related to small scale industries, sick industries, consumer protection etc.
5. Government policies related to pricing and distribution of essential commodities.
6. decisions for the protection of consumers, environment and ecological balance.

Question 14.
What is meant by External Environment ? What are its dimentions ?
Answer:
External Environment which is an index of opportunities and anticipations Internal
environment inclueds. External environment indued micro environment and macro environment it is called up External Environment.

Dimention:

1. Political environment
2. Social environment
3. Legal environment
4. Demographic environment
5. Technological environment
6. Physical environment
7. International environment

Management and Business Environment Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the main characteristics of economic environment.
Answer:
The main characteristics of economic environment are as follows :

1.Related with economic activities: All those activities of human beings are included in the economic environment which is related with the purchase sale, consumption, income- expenditure etc. of man.

2. Related with environment : Economic environment is affected by other environments. Ecological environment like land, air, forest, soil, water, mineral resources etc. also affects the economic environment. Political environment also affects the economic environment.

3. Administration by government : Economic environment is administered and directed by government. The government uses economic policies to effectively influence the economic environment of the business.

4. Related with common people : Economic environment is directly related with common people. Each person is having the will to earn money therefore he is affected by the economic environment. He cannot remain distant from economic environment.

5. Availability of capital: If capital is available in sufficient quantity then the natural and human resources are utilized properly. This leads increase in national income due to this rate Of national development also increases.

Question 2.
What are the elements components of micro environment ?
Answer:
Elements of micro environment:

1. Supplier : A person, firm, agency or organization which supplies raw materials, labour or other required things is known as supplier. More number of suppliers must be there to avoid problems of supply to firms.

2. Consumer market: A businessman can have many areas of consumer market. Consumer market can be National/International which uses the material for self or uses it to produce any other goods.

3. Competitor : The competitive business environment increases the level of productivity.

4. Public: Public has various categories, local public, press, media, etc. The behaviour of these categories effect the business unit.

5. Marketing middlemen: Marketing middlemen are those people who decrease and work as connectors between producers and consumers. The success of an industry also depends upon these marketing middlemen.

Question 3.
Name the characteristics of business environment and explain them.
Answer:
Main features/characteristics of business environment are as below :

1. Sum total of external forces.
2. Inter relatedness.
3. Dynamic Nature.
4. Uncertainly.
5. Complexity.
6. Relativity.

1. Dynamic Nature : Business environment is dynamic in nature in the sense that it keeps on changing whether in terms of technological improvement, shifts in consumer preferences of entry of new competition in the market.

2. Complexity : Environment is a complex phenomenon that is relatively easier to understand in parts but difficult to grasp in it totality.

3. Relativity: It is a relative concept since it differs from country to country and even
region to region. For e.g.,  South India may have fairly high in demand than in North India. .

4. Long-term process: business environment has a long-term effect long-term changes in affect the profitability, productivity and development.

5. Business environment influences the firms differently: It is not compulsory that all firms will be equally affected by change in business environment. Each firm is affected according to its nature.

6. Inter dependency of components of business environment: All the components of business environment are related to each other. So effect of business cannot be found out separately.

Question 4.
Explain the components of business environment.
Answer:
Different components of business environment are.

1. Economic components : It includes economic activities, Economic policies, Demand, supply, Investment, Industrial tendency/behaviour and monetary pressure, Investment flow and level, Import-Export, Fiscal and Taxation policies, Monetary policies, etc.

2.Geographical and ecological components : It includes Resources, Environment, Climate locomotion. Marine, Celestical, Geologic resource, Magnetic and solar energy.

3.Political components : It includes government monetary system and government system, Political point of view, administrative arrangements, constitutional arrangements security, etc.

4.Social and cultural components : It includes cost, beliefs, assumptions, social arrangement, materialism, religion, culture, traditions, etc.

5.Science and technological components : It includes scientific research and level, competitive development, Mechanization thermal power, Satellite transmission system, Celestical research labs, etc.

6.Legal and judical components : It includes justice system, various business, Industrial and labour control forum, administrative system, etc.

7.Others components: Population, educational level, consumer behavior, security, crisis, danger, international powers, industrial power and struggle, etc.

Question 5.
Describe the importance of business environment.
Or
What is the need of business Environment today ? Explain.
Answer:
The importance of business environment is as follows : .

1. Market conditions and situations : A business must know the structure of market and changes taking place in the market. Creation of demand, monopoly, boom periods etc. should be in the knowledge of business. These information, conditions are provided by business environment.

2. Better performance : Proper understanding of the various elements of external environment is necessary to take timely action to deal with the threats and avail opportunities for the purpose of improvement in performance of the firm.

3. Technological up gradation : Development of business also depends upon the new technology and inventions, so if a business has to grow it should be aware of new techniques of production, new products, new designs, scientific development etc., No business will survive if technology is ignored.

4. Optimum utilization of resources : Natural environment divides the nature of business, localization, stability, progress etc. Human resource decide the knowledge, techniques, production, Industrial relations, managerial efficiency etc. Management of these resources play an important role in success of business.

5. Survival and growth : A detailed study of business environment is essential for the survival and growth of business enterprise. Business has limited capacity to influence the environment. Therefore adjustment of business, policies and strategies to be changed environment is essential for business survival.

6. Reputation of the company: The management of a company is interested not only in building up its business but also to build an image and reputation of the company in the public mind. Therefore study of environment will help the company to be friendly and avoid such policies which will affect the public.

Question 6.
Explain the political factors affecting business environment.
Answer:
The political conditions and situations of any country affects the business environment. The main factors of political environment are as follows :

1. Ideology of government: The three forms of government are capitalism, socialism and mixed economy. These governments have different ideologies and thinking. These political ideologies and thinking affects the economic and business environment.

2. Policies of government: The policies of government are related with their ideology and thinking. Their policies directly affects the business, trade and industries.

3. Political stability : Stability of government is also an important factor whenever there is political instability in the country, business is affected adversely. The stable government and peaceful atmosphere of the society encourages economic growth.

4. Foreign policy: The foreign policy of any country affects its business environment. The foreign policies helps in maintaining peaceful atmosphere which develops the international business.

5. National security : The business of any country is also affected due to its national
security. Terrorist activities, civil wars disrupt. The business activities while in peaceful atmosphere of the country economic growth takes place.

6. Constitution : The laws and provisions made in constitution is not changeable for a long-term if political situation is stable and changes are not made in constitution then it is not getting to affect the business.

Question 7.
Explain the impact of government policy changes on business and industry.
Answer:
Following are the impacts on business and Industry due to changes in government policies:

1. Increase in competition: Due to government polices of liberalization, privatization and globalization has increase the competition in day to day world. Increasing competition has adver self affected many industries.

2. Increase in demands: Due to economic reforms.speedy industrialization has taken place and various high quality products are available for customers. The customers are demanding these products for improvement in standard of living.

3. Technological environment: Due to rapid changes in technological environment competition is increasing. Only those companies will survive who are going to follow the changes in technology. For smaller firms it is becoming difficult to face the competition.

4. Need of efficient human resource : To achieve success it is necessary to have efficient human resource and it should be properly utilized. That’s why in all industries the demand for efficient human resources and their salary have also increased.

5. Decline of Public Sector : Due to government policies and economic reforms importance of public sector has declined. Financial assistance is also not provided to the public sectors property.

6. Decline of small-scale and cottage industries : Economic reforms and policies had played a major role decline of small-scale and cottage industries. It is becoming difficult for small-scale and cottage industries to face the competition with big companies with limited resources.

7. Open economy : The policies of the government has made our economy as open economy. Due to minimisation of restrictions our country is now developing into as international market.

Question 8.
Explain the managerial response of changing pattern in business environment.
Answer:

1. Large-scale production : Big companies are increasing their production to reduce the cost of production and large-scale production makes it possible to get subsidies.

2. New technology: Various companies are using the new technology with the help of foreign countries to increase their share in market.

3. Direct distribution : By eliminating the middle men companies are trying to sell their products directly to the the consumers. For e.g.Amway is distributing its products directly to consumers.

4. Variety of line of goods and services : Various types of products and services are provided to the consumers at reasonable prices. For e.g., Tata’s are dealing in Iron products, Tea, cars etc.

5. Capital Formation : To expand the business to increase production, to open new branches in national and international market big companies are changing capital structure and forming huge capital.

Question 9.
Explain the economic policy of 2007.
Or
Explain new Exim policy 2002-07.
Answer:
The export-import policy for the period 2002-07 was announced on 31st March, 2002 with the objective to consolidate. The gains of the previous export-import policies and to set for itself a challenging target to achieve one per cent share in global trade by 2007 but this policy was replaced by Foreign Trade Policy by UPA Govt, for the period of2004-2009. This policy aimed to have exports of US 80-48 billion $ per year. The salient features of this policy are: ‘

1. Increase in export: The target of 11 -9% per annum average growth by increase annual exports up to 80 Billion $.

2. Abolishing Quantitative restrictions : Exim policy removed all quantitative re-strictions on all agricultural products except a few sensitive items like jute and onions.

3. Export promotion schemes: Value cap exemption granted on 429 items to continue.

4. More facilities to SEZs : A scheme for setting up special economic zones (SEZs) in the country to promote exports was announced by the Govt, in the export and import policy on 31st March, 2000. The SEZs are to provide an internationally competitive and hassle free environment for exports and exported to give a further boost to the country’s exports. 13 new SEZs were given the permission to start their work by Govt. Units set up in SEZ would be eligible for income tax concessions, exemptions from customs and excise duties.

5. Transport subsidies : Processed fruits and vegetables, poultry, dairy products, wheat and rice etc., Their cost of transportation is more than 80S per ton. This leads to increase in prices of products. To increase exports in the international market Govt, provided a transport subsidy of Rs. 100 crores in the year 2002-03.

6. Overseas banking : Permission have been given by the Govt, to start overseas banking branches in SEZs. In these branches the rules like CRR and SLR of Reserve Bank of India will not be followed.

7. Export to Russia: To increase the export of butter, wheat, groundnut, oil, cashewnuts and products of wheat to Russia, packaging and registration have been stopped.

8. Expansion of market: The countries separated from Africa and Russia and some Latin American countries are the new markets of India. Hence, the exports have been in-creased by 40%. The policy has also made provision for expansion of export market. In first phase Nigeria,.South Africa, Mauritius, Kenya, Ethiopia, Tanzania and Ghana were selected which helped in expansion of market.

By increasing the exports in international market it helped India in increasing foreign trade. This happened due to the efforts and policy of 1991. India’s current share in global merchandise trade is about 0-8 percent ($ 55 billion out of $ 7274 billion in 2003).

MP Board Class 12 Business Studies Important Questions