Category: Class 12

MP Board Class 12th Business Studies Important Questions Chapter 8 Controlling

Controlling Important Questions

Controlling Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
Controlling is which level of management function :
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Middle
(d) Last
Answer:
(d) Last

Question 2.
Control is related to :
(a) Result
(b) Work
(c) Effects
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(a) Result

Question 3.
Planning and Control are :
(a) Completely different
(b) Adverse to each other
(c) Similar to each other
(d) Interrelated activities.
Answer:
(d) Interrelated activities.

Question 4.
Out of the following which is not a technique of control:
(a) Exceptional control
(b) Budgetary control
(c) Cost control
(d) Punishable control.
Answer:
(d) Punishable control

Question 5.
Control is:
(a) Negative process
(d) Positive process
(c) Re-formative process
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Re-formative process

Question 6.
What is the first step of controlling:
(a) Budget preparation
(b) To lay down proportion
(c) Evaluation of performance
(d) Identification of deviations.
Answer:
(a) Budget preparation

Question 7.
What is the aim of control:
(a) To estimate production
(b) Arrangement of financial resources
(c) Evaluation of actual performance
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(c) Evaluation of actual performance

Question 8.
Control Process is :
(a) Continuous
(b) Primary
(c) Planning
(d) Essential.
Answer:
(a) Continuous

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks :

1. The work of……………….. is to see whether the works are in conformity to plans or not.
2. ………………..is forward looking……………….. and is backward looking.
3. In control process it is……………….. that all the work is processing/done as per plans.
4. Effective control is related to ………………..
5. In control standard work is compared with………………..
6. ………………..steps are taken in controlling process.
7. In control process……………….. points are marked.
8. Control is useful in controlling ………………..
9. Control process of business enterprise is helpful for……………….. operations of business.

Answer:

1. Control
2. Planning, Controlling
3. Evaluating test
4. Results
5. Actual work,
6. Corrective
7. Weak
8. Wastage
9. Skilled.

Question 3.
Write the answer in one word/sentence :

1. In controlling actual performance is compared with.
2. Name the remedial measures taken to correct deviations in process of control.
3. Write the technique of control.
4. Name the technique of control in which the exceptional works are only informed to managers ?
5. Which technique of control is adopted for departments related with finance ?
6. To determine the work standard is which step of control ?
7. Write one advantage of control by exception.
8. What is Budgeting ?
9. What do you mean by control through budgeting ?
10. On what function of management control depends ?

Answer:

1. Standard performance
2. Corrective action
3. Auditing
4. Exceptional control
5. Auditing
6. To determine the work standard is the 1st step of control
7. By control by exception time is saved
8. Budgeting is a process by which budget is controlled.
9. by controlling through budgeting we mean the comparison between the budget provision and the actual goals set
10. control depends on planing

Question 4.
Write true or false :

1. Control is the primary function of management.
2. In control actual performance is compared with standard performance.
3. Control is the last function of management.
4. Control provides security from risk.
5. Control does not need at all levels of management.
6. Deviation is always positive.
7. Control should be rigid.
8. Control is both positive and negative.
9. Control is a continuous process.
10. Control can be done for present and future activities only.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. True
4. True
5. False
6. False
7. False
8. True
9. False
10. True.

Question 5.
Match the columns :

Answers:

1. (e)
2. (c)
3. (b)
4. (a)
5. (d)
6. (g)
7. (f)
8. (j)
9. (h)
10. (i)

Controlling Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
“Planning is of no use without control.” Explain.
Answer:
Planning and controlling both are interdependent and interrelated activities. They are complementary and supplementary to each other.
The close relationship between planning and controlling can be justified on the following points:

1. Planning is the origin of controlling
2. Both are interrelated
3. Planning is theoretical whereas controlling is practical.

Question 2.
What is control by exception ?
Answer:
A good control system should focus managerial attention on exceptional deviations. This is called ‘Control by exception’. It means if things are going smoothly, management should not interfere. Management should interfere only in exceptional circumstances.

Question 3.
Why is control incomplete without planning ?
Answer:
Control is fully dependent upon planning because it is the work of controlling to see whether the work is in conformity to plans or not, if not give directions for correction.

Question 4.
What is deviation in control ?
Answer:
The difference between actual performance and standard performance is deviation in control.

Question 5.
Ravi Ltd. wants to produce stapler pins in huge quantity. As per the policy of the company 44% of the production can be spoiled. Since last 5 lots 8 to 10% production is spoiled. The reason is the repair in the machine. What will be your suggestion for corrective action ?
Answer:
Current machine repair must be monitored or new machine must be purchased.

Question 6.
Why is control a blank exercise without planning ?
Answer:
Control is fully dependent upon planning because it is the work of controlling to see whether the work is in conformity to plans or not, if not give directions for correction.

Question 7.
What is feedback in control ?
Answer:
A feedback is a common and powerful tool of control process. It helps to take the system output into consideration, which enables the system to adjust the performance by corrective actions.

Question 8.
Define control.
Answer:
Definitions : According to Henri Fayol, “In an undertaking, control consists in verifying whether everything occurs in conformity with the plan adopted, the instructions issued and the principles established.”

Question 9.
Why do you need control ?
Answer:
In the current scenario of industrial revolution technological advancement, market and taste of customers are frequently changing, In this era the management has to work efficiently and effectively to meet the qualitative and quantitative standards. Therefore, control is must.

Question 10.
What is physical standard proportion ?
Answer:
Physical standard proportion includes number of tasks, labour, hours and other physical units.

Question 11.
What is monetary standard proportion ?
Answer:
Monetary standard proportion includes per unit cost, per unit sale, labour expenses and distribution expenses etc.

Question 12,
What do you mean by budget ?
Answer:
A budget is a financial plan for a defined period of time, usually a year, it may also include planned sales, volumes and revenues, resource quantities, cost and expenses, assets, liabilities and cash flows.

Question 13.
How does control improves the future plans ?
Answer:
Control improves future plans by suggestions from past experiences.

Question 14.
What is Budgetary control ?
Answer:
Budgets are quantitative statements of objectives, plans and programmed of an organization. Budgetary control regulates, all these important aspects for better functioning

Question 15.
How are planning and control interrelated and how does they provide to each other ?
Answer:
Relationship Between Planning and Control: Planning and controlling both are interdependent and interrelated activities. They are complementary and supplementary to each other.
The close relationship between planning and controlling can be justified on the following points:

1. Planning is the origin of controlling
2. Both are interrelated
3. Planning is theoretical whereas controlling is practical
4. Planning is meaningless without controlling and controlling is blind without planning
5. Controlling ensures realizing planned goals efficiently and provides basis for improvement in future plans
6. Planning is looking ahead and controlling is looking back.

Interrelation between planning and controlling can be understood from the following

Question 16.
What do you understand by negative and positive deviation ?
Answer:
Negative Deviation : This occurs when the actual performance is less than the standard preformance.
Positive Deviation : This occurs when the actual performance is more than the standard performance.

Question 17.
How can control helpful to curtail the dishonest attitude of employees ?
Answer:
Controls can keep constant or steady watch on those employees and can be helpful to curtail dishonest behavior of employees.

Question 18.
Write one point of difference between planning and control.
Answer:
Planning is forward looking and controlling is backward looking.

Question 19.
Give two examples of qualitative standards in the control process.
Answer:

1. Relationship with employees
2. Ability of management.

Question 20.
Why should proportion/standard flexible and can be changed anytime ?
Answer:
The internal and external environment keeps changes very frequently so the standards must be flexible.

Question 21.
What is the last step of process of control ?
Answer:
Taking corrective action in the last step of process of control.

Question 22.
What do you mean by management information mechanism ?
Answer:
Management information mechanism is a technique which provide information and assistance to managerial decisions.

Question 23.
“Control is universal.” Explain why ?
Answer:
Control is universal because it is found at all levels of management. Controlling work is neither related to top level nor to lower level but it is required at all levels. In all organizations (Religious, Social, Political etc.) the need of control is felt.

Question 24.
Why is it said that planning is essential for control ?
Answer:
Determination and establishing standards are the first step of control. The object
of establishing standard is to know what consideration are expected from any work and how and through whom the consideration will be achieved. For all this planning is essential.

Question 25.
What do you mean by control ?
Answer:
Control is related to checking whether everything occurs in conformity with the standards stipulated in the plan. It measures and evaluates performance and brings to light the variations if any.

Question 26.
Write names of any four specific methods of control.
Answer:
The four methods are :

1. Budget control
2. Cost control
3. Production control
4. Quality control
5. Material control.

Question 27.
What are the general methods of control ?
Answer:
General methods of control:

1. Actual inspection
2. Control through auditing
3. Control through motivation
4. By sending notices
5. Return on investment.

Question 28.
Why is control backward looking ?
Answer:
Control is backward looking because in control we see the performance backward which is already performed by the workers and its comparison is done through plan

Question 29.
What is the relation between planning and controlling ?
Answer:
Planning and controlling both are interdependent and interrelated activities. They are complementary and supplementary to each other.
The close relationship between planning and controlling can be justified on the following points :

1. Planning is the origin of controlling.
2. Both are interrelated.
3. Planning is theoretical whereas controlling is practical.

Question 30.
What is control through example ?
Answer:
Under this system of control, the manager himself places an example before his employees by being punctual, working for specific period, good behavior etc. This method is very effective.

Question 31.
Explain the cost control.
Answer:
By exercising cost control as per unit production cost can be ascertained and can find out the method of minimizing the cost in future so as to complete with the other items in the market, e.g., cost raw material, labour cost, direct expenses and indirect expenses etc.

Question 32.
What does control ensure ?
Answer:
Control ensures whether the actual work is going on according to the targets ! determined or not.

Question 33.
How is control full of objectives ?
Answer:
Control is full of objectives because it ensures whether the predetermined objectives of organizations are fulfilled or not by effective and efficient utilization of resources.

Controlling Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain two aspects of control.
Answer:
The two aspects of control are :

1. Political control
2. Managerial control

1. Political control means to inspect the impact and implementation of rules and plans of the organization.
2. Managerial control means to focus on the managerial and other activities of the organization.

Question 2.
What are points that should be kept in mind while preparing standards/proportion ?
Answer:

1. Standards must be capable of measuring,
2. Standard should be such which can be achieved with some efforts.
3. Standards should be easy and clear.
4. Standards must be flexible.
5. While setting standards the deviation limits must be specified.

Question 3.
Explain, briefly, the features of a good control system.
Answer:
A good control system must fulfill the following requirements :

1. Suitability: The control system should be appropriate to the nature and need of the organization. A control system that is good to small organization may be inadequate for a big organization.

2. Objectivity : The control system should focus on the objectives of the organization. The determination of standard measurement of performance and corrective actions thereby, should be objective and impersonal. Subjective and arbitrary control cannot be effective. .

3. Simplicity: A good control system should be clear, easy to understand and operate. Unless the control system is understood fully by those responsible for its operation, it cannot be successful.

4. Economical: A good control system is one which is economical in terms of time and money. Small units may not be able to afford huge cost of control.

5. Flexible : A good control system must be flexible because business conditions are not stable. If the system of control can work only on the basis of one specific plan, it becomes useless if the plan breaks down and another has to be substituted. According to Theo Haimann, “A good control system must keep pace with continuously changing pattern of a dynamic business world. ”

6. Promptness : The control system should be such that actual result and all deviations from standards are quickly reported to the concerned officers. Delay in reporting will make control ineffective. Speed is also required in initiating the corrective actions.

Question 4.
Explain the meaning of control process.
Answer:
Control is a universal and important function of management. It is the power to direct, order or restrain. Managerial control seeks to achieve conformity to plan as closely as possible. It is applied to all activities of the organization like purchases, sales, finance, marketing, personnel management etc.

Meaning: Control is the most important element of management. It is concerned with verifying whether actions are in conformity with the standard stipulated in the plan. It measures and evaluates performance and brings to light the variations, if any, for the purpose of necessary action by the management and to prevent the recurrence of such variations in future. Controlling as a function of management means the measurement and correction of performance of activities of subordinates in order to make sure that enterprise objectives and plans devised to attain them are accomplished.

Question 5.
How should a newly appointed foreman should manage the process of control ?
Answer:
A newly appointed foreman should manage the process of control:

1. Setting of Standard/Proportion.
2. Measurement of performance.
3. Comparison of actual performance with standard performance:
4. Analysis of deviation.

Question 6.
The ideal control system inspects every aspect of performance. Explain.
Answer:
An ideal control system is one which focuses on important aspect of performance. There may be thousands of jobs related to control but the prime focus must be control on the prime aspects as it is difficult to control all. If we keep controlling all the aspects then we face the problem of control delay, increase in cost and the important points are neglected.

Question 7.
Write the advantages of control by exception.
Answer:
Advantages of control by exception :

1. It concentrates attention of managers towards important things.
2. It differentiates between the important and ordinary problems.
3. It saves the efforts of managers.
4. There is no wastage of time and energy of managers in solving daily problems.

Question 8.
What do you mean by control ? How does control stimulates action ?
Answer:
Meaning of control:Control is related to checking whether everything occurs in conformity with the standards stipulated in the plan. It measures and evaluates performance and brings to light the variations if any

Control stimulate action : An effective control system stimulates action by spotting the variations from the original plan and highlighting them for the people who can set things right. Control helps in detecting the deviation and their causes. It enables the management to act quickly.

Question 9.
What things should be kept in mind while determine standards ?
Answer:
While determining standards following things should be kept in mind :

1. Standard should be accurate.
2. Standard should be lawful.
3. Determined standard should be able to acquire.
4. Standard should be according to planning.
5. Standard should be such which can be measured.

Question 10.
Explain the setting up standards as first step of control.
Answer:
Determination and establishment of standards are the first step of control. The object of establishing standard is to know what consideration are expected from any work and how and through whom the consideration will be achieved. What will be different levels of activating in work and what will be the expenditure ? For all this, a policy is prepared, which is called planning, without planning and policies, work cannot be estimated and standards cannot be established. In this way, for control planning is important.

Question 11.
Controlling is a Dynamic Process”. How its help in achieving the objectives ?
Answer:
Controlling involves view of standard as well a corrective action which may lead to changes in other managerial functions. The control system has to be adapted to the changing conditions and requirement of organization.

Controlling ensures that results of operations conform as closely as possible, to the predetermined objectives. Every organization draw up a plan of action at periodical intervals. The plan indicates the expected behavior and activities of people working in different units of the organization. By keeping a close watch over performance at various levels, controlling tries to correct the deviation between actual results and desired results. Mistakes are located promptly and appropriate remedial actions are initiated. Thus, it helps in achieving the objectives laid down in the plan of action.

Question 12.
Define Net Working Capital.
Answer:
Net Working Capital: It represents the excess of current assets over current liabilities. Current assets include cash in hand, cash at bank, stock, debtors, bills receivables etc. while current liabilities consists of accounts payable, outstanding bills payable, bank overdraft, and outstanding expenses etc. Net working capital is a qualitative concept and it reveals the soundness of current financial position. Working capital may be classified as follows:

1. Permanent or regular working capital
2. Temporary or variable working capital
3. Seasonal working capital and
4. Special working capital.

Controlling Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1
Describe the salient features of control.
Or
Explain main characteristics of control.
Answer:

1. Control is a management function : Controlling work is done by the line officer and line officer may take advice and help from different experts and colleagues.

2. At all levels of management: Controlling work is neither related to top level nor to the lower level but it is required at all levels. At top level, controlling work is done by the chief manager and at the lower level foreman or other officer does the work of control.

3. Continuous process : Control is a regular activity, required at all levels. It is not an activity in isolation. The management has to be continuously vigilant to ensure that the management is in the right track. If control is withdrawn midway, then it may affect performance and subsequently, the efficiency of the organization.

4. Control is futuristic or Forward looking : The object of control is to wipe away present errors and defects so that no hindrance or defect may arise in future. Necessary steps are to be taken for this before hand. Whatever, faults have occurred in the past, should be examined and care is taken so that it should not be repeated in future.

Question 2.
“Planning and controlling are interrelated.” Explain.
Answer:
Relationship Between Planning and Control: Planning and controlling both are interdependent and interrelated activities. They are complementary and supplementary to each other.
The close relationship between planning and controlling can be justified on the following points:

1. Planning is the origin of controlling
2. Both are interrelated
3. Planning is theoretical whereas controlling is practical
4. Planning is meaningless without controlling and controlling is blind without planning
5. Controlling ensures realizing planned goals efficiently and provides basis for improvement in future plans
6. Planning is looking ahead and controlling is looking back.

Interrelation between planning and controlling can be understood from the following

1. Controlling without planning is blind: Control uses the standards of performance provided by planning as a base of evaluation and comparison.

2. Planning without controlling is meaningless : Controlling monitors the progress of plans implemented, discovers deviation and initiates corrective measures to ensure that activities conform to plans.

3. Planning seeks consistent, integrated and articulated programmed while controlling seeks to compel events to conform to plans.

4. Planning involves thinking and analysis to prescribe and appropriate course of action while controlling checks it prescribed decisions have been translated into desired action and verifies their accuracy and objectivity.

Conclusion : To conclude we can say that planning based on facts makes controlling easier and effective and controlling improves future planning. Therefore, planning is a prerequisite for controlling and the two are inseparable twins of management.

Question 3.
Explain the limitations of control.
Answer:
Though control is essential in every organization, it does suffer from limitations. The following are the main limitations :

1. External factors : Though an effective external control is possible, the management virtually cannot exercise any control over external factors such as government policies, technological changes etc. All these affect planning.

2. Expensive: Control requires deputation of large personnel at various level to analyse deviations. This become an expensive affair for small organization.

3. Problems in fixing standards : There are various areas in management like employee morale, R & D, customer reactions, human relations etc. where standards for performance cannot be set in quantitative terms. In the absence of standards, control is ineffective.

4. Resistance : It is an accepted fact that control techniques are always looked upon as an interference in work by subordinates. Hence, full cooperation for effective control may not be obtained from the subordinates.Thus, these are some of the limitations of control

Question 4.
What are the types of standard ?
Answer:
Types of standard : Standards can be divided into the following parts :

1. Physical standard : In it, determination of work is made about per hour, per day, per week, per unit etc.

2. Monetary standard : In it, standard is determined about per unit labor cost, per unit material cost, per unit factory cost. These standards can be measured in money.

3. Tangible standard : In it, standard is determined about per day production cost, per article production cost, per day production quantity and standard of fixed units.

4. Intangible standard : In it, to increase the morale of employees, to increase efficiency and to appreciate good work etc. are determined. Intangible standards cannot be measured in quantity. It can be felt by experience.

5. Revenue standard : In it, such standards are included which can be measured in terms of sales value, e.g., for transport company, income per passenger.

6. Capital standard : The standard capital ratio is two units of capital to one unit of borrowing. Standard of it in capital expenditures are determined for this different ratios are
determined as current ratio, ratio of loan with the owners capital etc. The capital standard should be increased or decreased looking to the size, nature of business.

Question 5.
What are various core areas of control and its methods ?
Answer:
The core areas of control are :

1. Policy control: Real policy and control policy always vary which leads to deviation.
2. Employee control: Management gets divided into sub-section management departments to have control on employees.
3. Wage and salary control: Management controls the wage and salary of employees through the evaluation of their work.
4. Capital control : The prime task of control is to monitor whether the usage of capital is for achieving the goal or not. If not then corrective measures are taken.
5. Cost control: Control on various production departments to check and have optimum utilization of resources results in cost control.
6. Inventory control: In production sufficient inventory must be available. There usage, purchase and storage must be properly monitor and corrective actions must be taken.
7. Comprehensive control: Under this all the plans are collectively.

Question 6.
What are the various principles of control ?
Answer:
The various principles of control are :

1. Principle of security of goal: Control process should be such which understands the difference between plans and actual deviation of tasks and take corrective actions.
2. Principal of ability: Control process should be such which should be in expensive and should also take care of subordinates without hampering the image and confidence of management.
3. Principle of priority : Control process should prioritize the activities and should focus on the important activities. If there is any deviation then they must be rectified.
4. Principle of responsibility : Control is the responsibility of management and it cannot be taken lightly.
5. Principle of flexibility : Control process must have lot of flexibility to amend easily if need be.
6. Principle of revaluation : For effective control the control process must evaluated at regular intervals to incorporate the changing situations.

Question 7.
What are the essential factors of effective control system ?
Answer:
Essential Factors of Efficient Control System : Following are the essential factors of efficient control system:

1. Suitability : The control system must suit the requirements of an organization. It should be designed after considering the nature, size and functions of organization.

2. Flexibility : The control system should have the flexibility to adjust itself to the changing requirements of the organization. It should not be very rigid and strict.

3. Simple and understandable : The controlling system must be simple and easily understandable to the officials and employees of organization. Controlling system can be effectively applied if it is simple and understandable.

4. Economical: Controlling system should be economical with regard to time and money. It should be within the means of the enterprises.

5. Efficient control techniques: An effective and efficient control system should use efficient control techniques. Through these techniques the uncertainties in business can be easily tackled

Question 8.
Explain the methods of control.
Answer:
(A) General methods :

1. Actual inspection : By actual inspection we mean actual inspection of worker’s performance by taking rounds, visiting the departments.

2. Control through auditing : Internal or external auditing of certain accounts and books are necessary. By auditing we mean stock in going and incoming inventory, fixed assets books, cost accounting etc.

3. Control through motivation : This method is the best method of control. By motivating the labour, the sincere labour is encouraged to do more and more work.

4. By sending notices: Management can be controlled by sending notices, circulars, orders to subordinates for coordinating their work and establishing control thereby.

5. Return on investment (ROI): Return on investment is another wily used management control method of all. It is aimed of measuring profit as return on the capital employed for production. It uses a number of financial variables to arrive at the return on investment.

6. Control by policies : Policies are also one of the sources of control. Policies are
pre-determined for performance of activities. The employees work according to these policies. By these policies the employees get full opportunity to seek direction and they work within their own limits. Thus, control is observed by policies also.

7. Control by exception: Under this method, the controller or manager concentrates only on the exceptional circumstances and tries to remove them. Exceptions are activities which are not supposed to be done i.e., the activities should not be out of the area of activity of the employee. In management, control by exception has been imparted universal acceptance.

8. Control by example : This is specific example of control. The manager, in his leadership role, himself becomes a model example of the employees’ work and behaviour. The ideal behaviour of the manager becomes a ‘norm’ for the employees to follow, which in other words, means that the employees will behave in accordance with the example set by the manager. This method is called control by example.

9. Control by records and reports : The management scrutinizes the records and reports called from various branches from time to time. After scrutiny, the concerned branch or branches are issued necessary instructions or directions. Thus control is observed by scrutinizing the records and report of the concerned branches or offices.

10. Control by fixing of limitation: In an organization, area of activity or operation of an employee is fixed. It is necessary to obtain prior permission of the higher officials to work beyond the area of operation. This permission is granted in the interest of the organization only when it is found necessary. In this way, control is observed over the subordinates.

11. Control by disciplinary action : Disciplinary action along with criticism of an employee is a negative aspect of control. This has an adverse effect on the moral of the employee, reduces his efficiency and initiative. Even so. this method, at times, becomes necessary as a weapon of the last resort. This method is applied to those employees who do not improve in their efficiency in spite of use of all positive methods. This method should, however, be adopted only in instances of serious lapses or shortcomings.

12. Control by written order : Under this method the employees are served with written notice or memorandum. Sometimes, demi-official (D.O.) letters are also issued with instructions to bring improvement in their working using simple and clear language.

13. Control by other methods : In addition to above methods, control is adopted by additional budget, break-even analysis, ratio analysis, self-control, charts and tables, indices etc.

(B) Specific methods:

1. Budgetary control: It is a traditional form of control and it is a widely used device in management. Budgets are used to control the day today operations of an enterprise.

2. Cost control : By exercising cost control the per unit production cost can be ascertained and can find out the method of minimizing the cost in future.

3. Break even analysis: The relationship of sales and expenses is depicted by a break even point chart. This chart shows the volume at which revenues exactly covers expenses.

4. Quality control: The best quality product of same grade and size can be produced at a cheaper rate. Such attractive goods will capture the market.

5. Production control : Under production control, all the activities involved in production are controlled in such a manner that the work of production is accomplished within the fixed time. In production control, control measures like the quality of goods, quantity, cost etc. are also adopted. In production control, the following two factors are kept in mind :

(a) When, how much and by which methods goods are to be produced
(b) Whether production is being accomplished as per per-determined plans or not ?

6. Material control: In cost of production, materials form a major portion. Therefore, the availability of the best material and minimum cost is very essential. Less than required quantity or more than required quantity of material are both considered unsuitable. Whereas production will be affected in the absence of required quantity of material, in case of excess of material, a part of capital! will remain idle. “Therefore, observing required control over all activities of material management is material control.

Question 9.
What is controlling ? Explain its importance.
“Controlling is a continuous activity in an organization.”
Answer:
controlling is a continuous or never-ending process. According to Koontz and O’ Donnell, “Just as the navigator continually takes a planned action, so should the business manager continually take to reading to assure himself that his enterprise or department is on course. ” Controlling never stops. Planning and controlling are two interrelated functions are reinforce each other. Control follows a definite pattern and time-table, month after month and year after year on a continuous basis.
The following are the points due to which control has a great importance :

1. Increasing size of business: At present the size of business is increasing day by day, from sole trader to partnership, from partnership to company. One man cannot control such big organization. So it is necessary to take help from others, therefore, control is necessary to see that no type of irregularity creeps into the organization.

2. Motivation for efficient employee : Efficient employee always welcomes control system because he gets a good opportunity for good work and finds his way to progress. He may be appreciated by managers for good work and so an employee is motivated towards work.’ ‘

3. For complete discipline : Discipline is necessary for any enterprise. To maintain discipline, control is very necessary. So, it can be said where there is control, discipline will come automatically. In the absence of control, indiscipline arises and hence morale of good employees hampers.

4. Helpful in future planning : Through controlling process, managers get full knowledge about the limitations of their objects and their efficiency. On the basis of this knowledge, it becomes easier for managers to prepare future planning. Through the process of controlling, managers get very important information about targets which may be useful in preparing future planning. .

5. Aids efficiency : Basically, control is concerned with ensuring that all activities proceed as per plans. Hence, it brings about efficiency in the organization.

6. Decrease in risk : Generally business and risk cannot be segregated but limitation and obstacles of business can be fully controlled. If it is done, then risk of business may be minimized to a great extent.

7. Helpful in coordination : Coordination has an important place in management, where control is best, the discipline will be best and in the presence of discipline, coordination becomes easier.

8. Helpful in decentralization : Decentralization (Dispersion) of authority is essential in big enterprises. Management cannot delegate authority without ensuring controls management must retain control in its hands to make sure whether authority is being used properly.

9. Helps in further planning : Planning and control are closely related. While planning is forward-looking, control is backward looking. Good control enables to analyse causes for deviations, and if required alter the plans according to circumstances. Thus, control is essentially a review of work done, whereas planning drafts the course of future action. Thus, control helps in further planning.

10. Highlights deviations : Since control is basically a review of past actions, it highlights any deviation while implementing work. This is primarily done by comparing with the standards set. Constant review of actions definitely proves beneficial for the organization.

MP Board Class 12 Business Studies Important Questions

MP Board Class 12th Business Studies Important Questions Chapter 7 Directing

Directing Important Questions

Directing Objective type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer :
Question 1.
Out of the following which is not a part of direction :
(a) Motivation
(b) Communication
(c) Supervision
(d) Delegation
Answer:
(d) Delegation

Question 2.
Principle of motivation which was sequenced as per necessity, was formulated by :
(a) Ford Louis
(b) Scott
(c) Abraham Maslow
(d) Peter F Drucker.
Answer:
(d) Peter F Drucker.

Question 3.
Out of the following which is monetary motivation :
(a) Promotion
(b) Stock encouragement/incentives
(c) Post/security job
(d) Employee share/co-partnership.
Answer:
(d) Employee share/co-partnership.

Question 4.
Grapevine is :
(a) Formal communication
(b) Barrier/obstacle in communication
(c) Lateral communication
(d) Informal communication.
Answer:
(d) Informal communication.

Question 5.
The software company established by Narayan murthy :
(a) Infosys
(b) Wipro
(c) Satyam
(d) HCL.
Answer:
(a) Infosys

Question 6.
On the path of leadership, specify the handles faced by a leader :
(a) Mistakable behaviour leader
(b) Leader who is unaware of human tendency
(c) Unforeseeable leader
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above.

Question 7.
Direction starts from :
(a) Top level
(b) Middle level
(c) Lower level
(d) All the levels
Answer:
(a) Top level

Question 8.
Communication means:
(a) Distribution of work
(b) To formulate information each other
(c) Control of work
(d) To motivate the employee
Answer:
(b) To formulate information each other

Question 9.
When a message is converted into a format it is known as :
(a) Medium
(b) Feed back
(c) encoding
(d) De coding
Answer:
(d) De coding

10. Out of the following, which is not a monetary motivation :
(a) To stop/with hold increase in salary
(b) Increase in salary
(c) Bonus
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(a) To stop/with hold increase in salary

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks :

1. Direction is the function of …………….
2. Direction flows from top……………. to……………. level of management.
3. …………….refers to instructing, guiding, communicating and inspiring people in the organization to achieve the desired goal.
4. Deduction in salary of employee is motivation.
5. The act of stimulating someone to set a desired course of action is known as …………….
6. Supervisor works as a link between……………. and …………….
7. Written communication is more …………….
8. Verbal communication is exchange of words mode through …………….
9. Monetary motivation gives …………….to the employees on the achievement of goals.
10. In negative motivation employees are……………. if the task is not accomplished with in the given time.
11. Motivation is …………….

Answer:

1. Management
2. Top, bottom
3. Direction
4. Negative
5. Motivation
6. Management ,worker
7. Reliable
8. Conversation
9. Rewarded
10. Punished
11. Internal peace.

Question 3.
Write the answer in one word/sentence :

1. Which method of communication is suitable in case of emergency ?
2. What is the name of informal communication ?
3. Which type of communication spreads rumours and creates misunderstanding ?
4. What do you mean by economic security ?
5. What is the ability to influence subordinate called ?
6. What are the main elements of direction ? ,
7. How do manager start the work in organization ?
8. Fill the left reasons :
   Direction = Supervision +……………. + Leadership + Motivation.
9.  Direction has three elements, supervision, leadership and motivation, which is the fourth element ?
10. Give four examples of incentives.
11. What does post means in organization in reference to management ?
12. Who is a leader ?
13. Write one example of non-monetary motivation.
14. Which function of management in called functional management ?
15. On what the desire to do some specific work by a person depend ?
16. What is profit sharing ?
17. Food, clothing and housing are of what type of wants ?
18. Write one advantage of informal communication.

Answer:

1. Informal communication
2. Grapevine network
3. Informal type of communication
4. By economic security we mean to secure the employment and to make arrangement for old age
5. Leadership ability
6. The main elements of direction are as follows :
   1. Leadership
   2. Motivation
   3. Supervision
   4. Communication
   5. Co-ordination
   6. Training
   7. Command
7. Manager starts the work by direction
8. Direction = Supervision + Communication + Leadership + Motivation
9. Communication is the fourth element
10. Facility of servant, Education of children, Car,  Free housing
11. In organization post means position or place of a person in organization
12. A leader is a person responsible to ensure that all the followers develop positive attitude, posses required skills and knowledge to perform effectively and with harmony
13. Promotion
14. Direction
15. On motivation
16. Profit sharing is a type of incentive where company decides that if it earns profit over and above a fixed percentage then the excess profit earned will be shared among employees
17. Economic wants
18. By informal communication workers get psychological satisfaction.

Question 4.
Write true or false :

1. Direction is needed at all levels of management.
2. Supervision, leadership, motivation a communication are important elements of direction.
3. Direction and supervision is synonyms.
4. The motivation theory which classifies needs in hierarchical order is developed by Abraham Maslow.
5. Leadership is required for only less salary workers.
6. Written communication requires direct contact between both parties.
7. If employees are efficient, then training is not required.
8. Leader uses informal means to show his influence.
9. By communication we mean exchange of ideas.
10.  All managers are leaders.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. True
5. False
6. False
7. False
8. False
9. True
10. True.

Question 5.
Match the columns :

Answer:
1. (g)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (d)
6. (e)
7. (f)

Directing Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the function of management known ? Which directs the organization, provides guidance, suggestions and motivations
Answer:
Direction.

Question 2.
Name two principles of direction.
Answer:

1. Unity of command
2. Leadership.

Question 3.
Which element of direction means observing the subordinates at work to ensure that they are working according to the schedules and plans and to help them in solving problems related to work ?
Answer:
Supervision.

Question 4.
How is sound important during the process of communication ? Give example.
Answer:

1. Loud voice
2. Problem in internet connection
3. Disturbance in telephone connection.

Question 5.
Give an example of psychological constraint.
Answer:
Lack of concentration.

Question 6.
Which are positive motivations ?
Answer:
Salary or wages incrementalist, recognition, reward, pension, leave salary etc.

Question 7.
Which are negative motivations ?
Answer:
Threat, punishment.

Question 8.
What is lateral informal communication also known as ?
Answer:
Grapevine communication.

Question 9.
Salary, allowances and bonus are what type of motivation ?
Answer:
Financial motivation.

Question 10.
Which communication spreads rumours and develops misunderstanding ?
Answer:
Informal communication.

Question 11.
What is the aim of direction ?
Answer:
Execution.

Question 12.
How does the management stats/begins its work in an organization ?
Answer:
A management formulates guidelines and directions to begin a work in an organization.

Question 13.
How does motivation work as an inspiration to do a task ?
Answer:
Motivation enhances the level of ability of employees and inspires them to achieve the goal. ‘

Question 14.
Among whom does the leadership shows the relationship ?
Or
The leadership shows the relationship among whom ?
Answer:
The leadership shows the relationship between the leader and followers.

Question 15.
What is the principle of follow up ?
Answer:
The principle of follow up states that the management must supervise its employees to check whether their employees are following the directions given to them.

Question 16.
What are dependency elements to find the status of an employee in the organization ?
Answer:

1. Rights of the individual
2. Responsibility
3. Other benefits.

Question 17.
When does motivation start ?
Answer:
Motivation starts when his desires or wants are unsatisfied because motivation is a psychological element.

Question 18.
When does tension start ?
Answer:
Tension starts when our wants are not satisfied.

Question 19.
When is a person tension free ?
Answer:
A person is tension free when all his needs are satisfied.

Question 20.
“Direction starts function of management”. Explain.
Answer:
Direction starts functioning because it prepares base for other functions of man-agement.

Question 21.
How many elements of direction are there ?
Answer:
There are four elements of direction :

(a) Supervision
(b) Motivation
(c) Leadership
(d) Communication.

Question 22
What is a motive ?
Answer:
Motive literally means stimulating a person for willingness to work.

Question 23.
What is motivation ?
Answer:
Motivation means to provide someone with a motive. It is a complex force inspiring a person to work, to use his capacities willingly for achieving certain objectives. It is a process of arousing action, sustaining the activity in progress and regulating the pattern of activity.

Question 24.
What is motivator ?
Answer:
It is a technique to motivate people in an organization.

Question 25.
How many types of motivators are there ?
Answer:
Motivators are of two types :
(a) Positive
(b) Negative.

Question 26.
In what type of communication rumours are there ?
Answer:
In informal communication rumours are found.

Question 27.
What do you mean by coaching leadership ?
Answer:
Coaching leadership involves teaching and supervising followers.

Question 28.
How many types of communications are there ?
Answer:
There are three types of communication :
(a) Verbal communication
(b) Written communication
(c) Formal communication.

Question 29.
What do you mean by verbal communication ?
Answer:
Verbal communication is that communication in which exchange of words is made through spoken words.

Question 30.
Why a good leader should have the quality of initativeness ?
Answer:
To take opportunity of having profit.

Question 31.
Food, housing and clothings are what type of wants ?
Answer:
Physical wants.

Question 32.
Love, affection and friendship are what type of wants ?
Answer:
Social wants.

Directing Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is direction ? Write definition
Answer:

After planning, organizing and staffing, for the achievement of managerial objectives directing is one of the most important factor, without proper direction the other functions of management are not having any importance. Through direction only the work of planning, organizing and motivation work can be completed. Directing provides movement to the organization.

Meaning of direction : The word direction literally means moving into action i.e., activating human resources towards attaining the objectives of the business of the business. Direction is the answer to the questions like how the work should begin ? or how the employees should be led ? Direction is the practical aspect of management involving motivation, supervision, communication and effective leadership of human resources.

Definitions : Some eminent scholars had given the following definitions :
According to Kooatg and O’Donnel : “Direction is a complex function that includes all those activities, which are designed to encourage a subordinate”.

Question 2.
Is direction important function of management do you agree give your points in case of difference in opinion.
Answer:
No, I don’t agree. According to me, Direction is the most important function of management because

1. Starts the task
2. Way of communication
3. Creates balance in the organization
4. Assimilates the efforts of the employees.

Question 3.
Distinguish between leader and manager.
Answer:
Differences between Leader and Manager:

Question 4.
Write any four functions of direction.
Answer:
Following are the functions of direction :

1. Order: The main function of direction is to give orders to his subordinates.

2. Supervision: The supervisor observes the subordinates at work to ensure that they are working according to schedules and plans.

3. Guidance and training : Guidance and training subordinates is essential. This is done by direction process.

4. Co-ordination : The another function of direction is to maintain co-ordination among the various workers of organization.

Question 5.
Distinguish between Leader and Boss.
Answer:
Differences between Leader and Boss :

Leader

1. High level leaders are present to control leaders.
2. Leader always uses the word ‘we’ in his organization.
3. Social responsibility is having an important place in leadership.
4. Leader guide their followers through motivation.
5. Leaders cannot make their followers work through fear or negative motivation.
6. There is no place for punishment of followers in leadership.
7. Suggestions or opinions are invited from followers if necessary in leadership and it is also accepted by the leaders.

Boss

1. No one is above the boss in an enterprise.
2. Boss always uses the word ‘I’ in his organization.
3. There is no place for social responsibility in bossism.
4. It guide their subordinates and employees through orders.
5. It make their subordinates work through fear and negative motivation.
6. For the errors committed by the subordinates there is provision of punishment in bossism.
7. Suggestions or opinions are generally not invited from subordinates and the decision is taken by the management.

Question 6.
Explain the Importance/Elements of direction.
Answer:
Direction is one of the important function of management. On the basis of elements oi direction it is also called as operating management. The elements of direction are as follows:

1. Leadership : Leadership may be defined as the process of influencing the behaviour of other members of the group to attain the objectives of enterprise. Leadership is the ability of the manager to induce subordinates to work with confidence and zeal. According to Tead, “Leadership is that combination of qualities by the possession of which one is able to something done by others, chiefly because through this influence they become willing to do so. “In this way the qualities of leadership is also found in direction.

2. Motivation : Motivation is a Latin word, meaning to move. Human motives are internalized goals within individuals. Motivation is the process of creating organizational conditions which will compel employees to strive to attain company’s goals.
Although motivation has been defined by different persons in different ways, they all have the same meaning. All these management experts have said to arouse dedication towards work, desire, interest etc.

3. Supervision: Supervision means observing the subordinates at work to ensure that they are working according to the schedules and plans and to help them in solving problem related with work. Supervision is a work of higher ability and knowledge. Supervisors provides necessary guidelines to the subordinates for the effective completion of work. Thus, supervision is an element of direction.

4. Communication : Although communication is the secondary function of management, its importance cannot be undermined. That is why some management experts have put it in the primary function of management. Communication is an exchange of facts, ideas, opinions or emotions by two or more persons. Coordination also consists of the qualities of direction.

5. Coordination : Due to the effect of modem contrast views and will to work freely, coordination has been an important task of management. It is called as mutual understanding also. Coordination aims at an orderly arrangement of group effect for the achievement of desired ends. Coordination also consists of some elements of direction.

6. Training : Training is the base of healthy management. Training is a process by which effort is mode to increase the knowledge and skill of employees for the accomplishment of a specific job. It imparts the practical knowledge of work which is given by high level officials. Proper guidelines are given by high official to trainee in process of training. Thus training also consists of some qualities of direction.

7. Command : For the completion of work order or command is given by superiors to subordinates. The subordinates complete the work according to the command given by superiors. Thus, command is also a kind of direction.

Question 7.
How many types of motivations are there ?
Answer:
There may be two broad categories of motivation. They are positive motivation or reinforcement or negative motivation.

1. Positive motivation : It is the process of attempting to influence others to do your will. They may be further subdivided into two category. These are :

1. Monetary and
2. Non-monetary motivation.

a. Monetary : When finance is directly related to motivation, is known as monetary motivation. Thus, motivation in the form of money is monetary motivation. Example of monetary motivation are bonus, extra allowance, a share in profits, increase in wages etc.

b. Non-monetary motivation : When a person is satisfied in any other way a part from money then it is called non-monetary motivation. Non-monetary motivation is not at all connected with money. Non-monetary motivation are the psychic rewards or the rewards of enhanced position that can be secured in the work organization,

2. Negative motivation : Negative motivation is a motivation that prohibits a person from doing some act which may be detrimental to the organization.
Example of negative motivation are :

1. Deducting salary
2. Suspension
3. Issue of show cause notices
4. Rebukes, monetary penalization
5. Penal transfer and so on.

Question 8.
Write the functions of a supervisor
Answer:
Functions of a supervisor is as follows :

1. Supervise the work: Supervisor is a major branch whose main work is to organised, direct and supervise the work.
2. Co-ordination : It is another important work of the supervisor to make bring and maintain co-ordination in the branch.
3. To achieve the goal: Directors set the goal for the branch and it is the job of the supervisor to work accordingly and achieve the goal.
4. Maintain departmental accounts: Supervisor has to maintain records of expenses,incomes of the department, expenses made on the employees etc.

Question 9.
Explain the elements of communication process. :.
Answer:
The element of communication process are :

1. Sender: Individual who conveys information sender is a source of communication.
2. Message : It is the content of information intended to be communicated.
3. Encoding : It is the process of converting the message into communication.
4. Media: It is the path through which encoded message is transmitted to the receiver.
5. Decoding : it is the process of converting encoded symbols of the sender.
6. Receiver : The person who receives communication message of the sender.
7. Feedback : Information given by receiver to indicate his understanding of the information.
8. Noise: It is the hindrance or obstruction to communication. It may be the sender, receiver or the message itself.

Question.10
“Motivation is the act of stimulating someone”. Explain.
Answer:
Motivation is something that motivates a person into action and continue him in the course of action willingly to get the results expected of him. It refers to the way in which desires and aspirations direct, control or explain the behaviour of human beings. It also refers to carrying out the task properly and with loyalty to the group that has accepted the task.

The success of management depends on efficiency. In turn, the efficiency of employees depends upon their professional capability and desire to work. In the absence of desire to work, the professional capabilities will not be tapped to its fullest potential. So it is said that motivation is the act of stimulating someone.

Question 11
Explain the importance of supervision.
Answer:
The importance of supervision can be justified from the following points :
1. Supervision is a motive power : Effective direction and supervision motivates the employees to work hard for the enterprise. Without motive power the work cannot be accomplished within the time limit. Thus for the completion of work in time direction plays an important role.
2. To maintain discipline : If proper discipline is not maintained in the organization than enterprise cannot prosper. Since production is a team work therefore disciplined efforts of all the individuals under the command of supervisor is necessary.
3. Improves communication : A situate of quarrel or dispute arises in an organization due to lack of communication “but through supervision directions are given by top level management and in return feedback is given by employees. So supervision improves communication in an organisation.
4. Better utilization of resources : The available resources of organisation like mate-rial, machinery, employees are properly utilized under supervision. All these resources are monitored closely by the supervisors which helps in completion of effective work within the time limit.
5. Feedback : Supervision maintains contact with his subordinates. This helps in receiving the suggestions, ideas, complaints etc. of employees. It facilitates the process of
reviving feed back and helps to take many

Question 12.
Distinguish between : Monetary motivation and Non-monetary motivation. ‘
Answer:
Differences between Monetary and Non-monetary Motivation
Monetary Motivation

1. It is suitable in case of workers.
2. Monetary incentives are measured in terms of money.
3. Monetary motivation includes salary or wages, allowances, bonus, rewards, profit sharing etc.
4. Monetary motivation helps in satisfying lower level needs like food, shelter and clothing.

Non-monetary Motivation

1. 1.It is suitable in case of managers.These incentives cannot be measured in terms of money.
2. 2.Non-monetary motivation includes status, job security, recognition, reward or punishment, responsibility etc.
   Non-monetary motivation helps in satisfying high level needs like love, affection, recognition, status or self system needs like position, fame etc.

Question 13.
Why a leader should have the quality of communication ?
Answer:
A leader should have a quality of communication because of the following reasons:

(1) A leader is a source of information for all the members of his group. Subordinates get the information of their officers through leaders only.

(2) Leader sends the problems of his subordinates to the higher level officers. For this leader should have good communication quality.

(3) To establish friendly relation among the members and the sub ordinate and officers a leader should have quality of communication.

Question 14.
Write the characteristics of leadership.
Answer:
Following are the characteristics of leadership :

1. Existence of followers : The first characteristic of leadership is the existence of followers and followers should accept the leader. If the number of followers will increase than it will also increase the importance of leader.

2. Continuous process : Leadership is not needed on any particular occasion but it is needed all the time. In the day to day business activities effective and continuous leadership is required.

3. Influencing process : Leadership means bringing to under one’s own influence. It is that process through which the people in a group are influenced in such a way that followers automatically start using their ability for the betterment of organization.

4. Develops relationship and Confidence : Leaders develop close relations with the followers. Leader is also required to gain confidence otherwise he will be changing decisions which will be very tough to be followed.

5. Related to particular situation : Leaders always work according to situations because if they are not going to work according to perfect situation, then difficulties will arise.

Question 15.
Explain the terms motive, motivation and motivator.
Answer:

1. Motive : Motive literally means stimulating a person for willingness to work. It is an internal desire which gives strength person to move forward.
2. Motivator : It is a technique which is used to motive people in an organization. For example bonus, promotion, etc.
3. Motivation : Motivation is a psychological phenomenon that inspires a person to perform maximum task and provides maximum satisfaction.

Question 16.
Explain the characteristics of motivation.
Answer:
Following are the characteristics of motivation :

1. Continuous process : Whatever be the motivation, after some times, its effect gradually diminishes. Therefore, in order to maintain a worker’s interest in his job, the process of motivation should be continuous. Motivation is affected by time, place and circumstances. Therefore, these should be kept in mind while motivating.

2. Psychological effect: The famous management expert, McFarland, says, “The concept of motivation is mainly psychological by which the mind is inspired with a fresh idea to do some work”.

3. Motivation is related to human being : Motivation is done by man for man. A company, firm or an organization cannot be motivated. Therefore, motivation is related with human beings. However, even the animals can be motivated.

4. Motivation wholly influences a person : Motivation influences not only a man’s ears, nose, eyes and hands but it affects the whole body of a person and the willingness to work can only be inspired when the whole body of a person is influenced.

5. Important task of management : Motivation is an important function of management by which the human force can be molded in the desired direction. By motivation, the worker is inspired to work which in turn increases his working capacity. For these reasons, motivation has become the important function of management.

6. Motivation is an inspiration : Motivation has a human nature. Inspiration comes from within a man. This inspiration is intrinsic which results in increased working capacity of a man. Thus, motivation is an internal inspiration.

Question 17.
What do you mean by transaction ?
Answer:
Transactional leadership : This is a leadership that maintains or continues the status quo. It is also the leadership that involves an exchange process, whereby followers get immediate, tangible rewards for carrying out the leader’s orders. Transactional leadership can sound rather basic, with its focus on exchange.

Being clear, focusing on expectations, giving feedback are all important leadership skills. According to Boundiess.com, transactional leadership behaviors can included : clarifying what is expected of followers’ performance, explaining how to meet such expectations and allocating rewards that are contingent on meeting objectives.

Question 18.
Write the meaning of facilitative leadership.
Answer:
Facilitative leadership: Facilitative leadership is too dependent on measurements and outcomes-not a skill, although it takes much skill to master. The effectiveness of a group is directly related to the efficacy of its process. If the group is high functioning, the facilitative leader uses a light hand on the process.
On the other hand, if the group is low functioning, the facilitative leader will be more directives in helping the group run its process. An effective facilitative leadership involves monitoring of group dynamics. Offering process suggestions and interventions to help the group stay on track.

Question 19.
Write the features of supervision.
Answer:

1. Supervision is done at all three levels of management.
2. It is the main part of direction function of management.
3. It is a continuous process.
4. It ensures if the work is going on smoothly or not.
5. Its main aim is to utilize the resources properly.

Question 20.
Decribe the importance of leadership in organization.
Answer:
The role of leadership is very important in any organization the importance of leadership is clear from the following facts :

1. A good leader defines and explains the objectives of the group to his followers in order to achieve the targets.

2. A good leader develops the spint of cooperation among his followers. He can easily resolve the internal dispute and differences among the followers.

3. A good leader persuade his followers to accept and carry out the desired changes in the present dynamic environment of the structure and working of an enterprise.

4. A competent leader serves as the proper representative of his followers. He protects the interest of his followers and acts as a spokesman.

Question 21.
Explain the term ‘Motivation’ and ‘Leadership’.
Answer:
Motivation : In motivation, there is a psychological element. This element stimulates the mind of a person for willingness to work in. Motivation is a human element of management and it cannot be used like we make a machine to work by the push of a button. A person works only when his willingness to work is stimulated. Motivation is also called encouragement. The term ‘Motivation’ is derived from the work ‘Motive’ which literally means’ stimulating a person for willingness to work. Different management experts have defined motivation differently. Henri Fayol calls it ‘Command’, Koontz and Donnell ‘Direction’ and Likert calls it ‘Heart of Management’. What is mean by them is to maintain the worker’s interest, devotion and spirit to work ?

Leadership : Leadership is the ability to awaken in order the desire to follow a common objective. Leadership is the quality of behavior of individuals, whereby they guide people or their activities in organizing efforts.

Question 22.
Write the characteristics of formal communication.
Answer:
Following are the characteristics of fonnal communication :

1. Formal communication is generally written.
2. Communication of messages is through scalar chain.
3. While moving from one person to another communication has to pass through a definite channel.
4. The channel of communication in this type’is not established automatically.
5. It is the result of authorities granted and duty assigned by the organization.

Question 23.
Write the characteristics of supervision.
Answer:
Characteristics are as follows :

1. It is a main part of direction.
2. It is an universal process which is done at all levels of management.
3. It is a continuous process which is required all the time.
4. It ensures if the work is done properly or not.

Question 24.
Write the characteristics of informal communication or grapevine network.
Answer:
Characteristics of Informal Communication :

1. It is a direct and verbal communication.
2. It moves in a zig-zag manner like a grapevine.
3. It is the result of mutual relationship among employees.
4. It spreads rumours and creates misunderstanding.
5. It is difficult to trace its source and direction of flow.
6. It is not possible to fix responsibility with respect to informal communication.
7. It may involve work related matters or social matters.

Question 25.
Write the advantages of formal communication.
Answer:
Advantages :

1. It is an orderly and systematic type of communication.
2. This system is less expensive for communicating messages.
3. It can be used as reference in the future.
4. In this system written messages are complete and clear.
5. It is generally written so it helps in resolving disputes.
6. Organization can be controlled effectively through formal communication.

Question 26.
Write the defects of formal communication.
Answer:
Disadvantages:

1. The suggestions and complaints of employees are overlooked by the officers.
2. The process of formal communication is time taking hence message is delayed.
3. Time and money is invested a lot in formal communication.
4. It is not suitable for small enterprises.
5. There is lack of personal contact in formal communication.
6. It overloads higher authorities with work.

Question 27.
What are the defects of informal communication ?
Answer:
Disadvantages:

1. It spreads rumours and develops misunderstanding.
2. There is lack of secrecy in this type of communication.
3. It is not possible to fix the responsibility with respect to informal communication.
4. It is difficult to trace its source and direction of flow.
5. There is no proof for sending information in this communication.
6. It is unreliable and unauthentic type of communication.
7. It is not possible to trace the origin of informal communication.

Question 28.
What are the advantages of informal communication ?
Answer:
Advantages :

1. It travels faster than formal communication because it is not required to follow scalar chain.
2. It is one of the simple, easier and cheap system of communication.
3. Quick feedback is ascertained in this type of communication.
4. This method is suitable in case of emergency.
5. It establishes better human relations.
6. There is more freedom in informal communication which helps the solution of difficult problems.
7. It satisfies the social needs of workers.

Question 29.
Write the types of communication on the basis of media, direction and method.
Answer:

1. communication on the basis of media :

1. Formal
2. Informal.

2. Communication on the basis of direction :

1. Towards low
2. Towards high
3. Parallel
4. Slanting.

3. On the basis of method ,:

1. Oral
2. Written
3. Indicator.

Directing Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give a detailed account of non-monetary incentives that an organization can adopt in motivating employees.
Answer:
Incentives may be extrinsic, intrinsic, monetary and non-monetary which are given as under:

1. Job security : Job security implies that an employee would continue to work for the organization, enjoying economic and social security through health and welfare programs like providing security against sickness, unemployment, disability, old age and death.

2. Opportunities of promotion: Every person desires to promote his career till he reaches the highest authority level and for this he works with full interest and dedication. So, it is the responsibility of the employer that he should make suitable arrangements for promotional prospects. Efficient, able and experienced employees should be given the benefit of promotion.

3. Reward and punishment : Rewards refer to appreciation or recognition and the efficiency of the worker, whereas punishment serves as a negative motivation. In other words, it prohibits a person from performing undesirable actions.

4. Status : Status refers to the social rank of a person. Management often iris to satisfy egoistic needs by establishing status symbols and distinction in its organization. Individuals try hard to gain this status symbol.

5. Favourable work environment : Both physical and mental environment in the organization should be conducive to good work. In the absence of a good work environment, the worker gets disturbed and is not able to put in his / her best. The management should try to remove the irritants which creep in and spoil the environment.

6. Recognition : Recognition satisfies human need for esteem by others and for self-esteem. This recognition may be shown in the form of praise or a pat on the back of the employees or a recommendation for a pay raise, promotion or assignment of more interesting work.

Question 2.
What are the essential qualities of an effective leader ?
Or
Discuss any four qualities of a good leader.
Answer:
The essential qualities of an effective leader are as follows :

1. Intelligent :This is one of the most important quality of a leader. He should be intelligent enough to find out the problems and suggest the solution. Without intelligence a person cannot become a good leader. An intelligent leader can take perfect decisions for the enterprise.

2. Attractive personality : Leader should have such type of personality so that followers or subordinates should get attracted towards him. His work and behaviour should also attract the followers.

3. Self confidence : An effective or good leader should have strong will power and self confidence to lead the followers. He should be brave to face the difficult and extreme situations.

4. Knowledge of rules and regulations : A good leader should have the complete knowledge of rules and regulations related with work. To perform the work systematically he should have the knowledge of rules and it should be communicated to the followers also

5. Honest: Leader should always work with honesty because if they are not performing the work honestly then it is going to effect their reputation and the followers will not support the leader.

6. Forward looking : A good leader should always be forward looking. He should make the plans after studying the previous plans, future plans are made. He should have the quality of forecasting.

7. Scientific outlook : An efficient leader should have scientific outlook. He should not be superstitious. All the information should be collected regarding a problem and it should solved one by one with patience.

Question 3.
Distinguish between : Formal communication and informal communication.
Answer:
Differences between Formal Communication and Informal Communication

Question 4.
Eplain Maslow’s need hierachy theory of Motivation and its assumptions.
Answer:
Since motivation is highly complex, many researchers have studied about motivation from several dimensions and developed some theories. These theories help to develop understanding about motivation phenomenon. Among these, Maslow’s Need Hierarchy Theory is considered fundamental to understanding of motivation. Let us examine it in detail.
Abraham Maslow, a well-known Psychologist in a classic paper published in 1943, outlined the elements of an overall theory of motivation.

His theory was based on human needs. He felt that within every human being, there exists a hierarchy of five needs. These are:

(i) Basic Physiological Needs : These needs are most basic in the hierarchy and corresponds to primary needs. Hunger, thirst, shelter, sleep and sex are some examples of these needs. In the organisational context, basic salary helps to satisfy these needs.

(ii) Safety/Security Needs: These needs provide security and protection from physical and emotional harm. Examples: job security, stability of income, Pension plans etc.,

(iii) Affiliation/Belonging Needs : These needs refer to affection, sense of belonging , acceptance and friendship.

(iv) Esteem Needs : These include factors such as self-respect, autonomy status, recognition and attention.

(v) Self Actualization Needs : It is the highest level of need in the hierarchy. It refers to the drive to become what one is capable of becoming. These needs include growth, self-fulfillment and achievement of goals.

Maslow’s theory is based on the following assumptions:

1. People’s behaviour is based on their needs. Satisfaction of such needs influences their behaviour.
2. People’s needs are in hierarchical order, starting from basic needs to other higher level needs.
3. A satisfied need can no longer motivate a person; only next higher level need can motivate him.
4. A person moves to the next higher level of the hierarchy only when the lower need is satisfied.

Maslow’s Theory focuses on the needs as the basis for motivation. This theory is widely recognised and appreciated. However, some of his propositions are questioned on his classification of needs and hierarchy of needs. But, despite such criticism, the theory is still relevant because needs, no matter how they are classified, are important to understand the behaviour. It helps managers to realise that need level of employee should be identified to provide motivation to them.

Question 5.
What do you mean by styles of leadership ? How many types are there ?
Answer:
Some leaders cannot work comfortably with a high degree of followers’ participation indecision making. Some employers lack the ability or the desire to assume responsibility. Furthermore, the specific situation helps determine the most effective style of interactions. Sometimes leaders must handle problems that require immediate solutions without consulting followers.

1. Autocratic Leadership: Autocratic leadership style is centered on the boss. In this leadership the leader holds all authority and responsibility. In this leadership, leaders make decisions on their own without consulting subordinates. They reach decisions, communicate them to subordinates and expect prompt implementation. Autocratic work environment does normally have little or no flexibility. In this kind of leadership, guidelines, procedures and policies are all natural additions of an autocratic leader. Statistically, there are very few situations that can actually support autocratic leadership.

2. Decmocratic Leadership : In this leadership style, subordinates are involved in making decisions. Unlike autocratic, this headship is centered on subordinates’ contributions. The democratic leader holds final responsibility, but he or she is known to delegate authority to other people, who determine work projects.
The most unique feature of this leadership is that communication is active upward and downward. With respect to statistics, democratic leadership is one of the most preferred leadership, and it entails the following: fairness, competence, creativity, courage, intelligence and honestly.

3. Laissezfaire Leadership: Laissezfaire leadership gives authority to employees. According azcentral, depaftments or subordinates are allowed to work as they choose with minimal or no interference. According to research, this kind of leadership has been consistently found to be the least satisfying and least effective management style.

4. Strategic Leadership : Strategic leadership is one that involves a leader who is essentially the head of an organization. The strategic leader is not limited to those at the top of the organization. It is geared to a wider audience at all levels who want to create a high performance life, team or organization.
The strategic leader fills the gap between the need for new possibility and the need for practicality by providing a prescriptive set of habits. An effective strategic leadership delivers the goods in terms of what an organization naturally expects from its leadership in times of change. 55% of this leadership normally involves strategic thinking.

5. Transformational Leadership : Unlike other leadership styles, transformational leadership is all about initiating change in organizations, groups, oneself and others.

Transformational leaders motivate others to do more than they originally intended and often even more than they thought possible. They set more challenging expectations and typically achieve higher performance.

Question 6.
Explain the functions of supervisor.
Answer:
For any activity of the organisation, supervisor is responsible. Supervisor per-forms all the basic functions of management like planning, organizing, directing etc. The functions of supervisor is mentioned in American act. The functions are as follows:

1. Planning the work: Supervisor is one of the important officers of an organisation. He is responsible for the work of organisation. He has to chalk out the daily and weekly programme and present it before the higher officials. Supervisors should be effective planners.

2. Organising the section : Supervisor is required to distribute the work of his department and also regroup the identical functions. He has to seek the effective cooperation and coordination of employees. He works for making the foundation of organization strong.
3. Motivation: Motivation is a power which encourages the employees to work hard. Supervisor motivates employees and creates team spirit. Supervisors create interest of employees towards work of enterprise.

4. Training and Instructions : The labours and lower level employees are having direct and close relationship with supervisors. The preliminary work of training is provided by supervisors. Instructions and guidelines are also given time to time by the supervisors.

5. Achieving the targets : The most important duty of the supervisor to achieve the targets of his department. The supervisors uses the best possible resources of the organisation to achieve the organisational goals.

Question 7.
What do you mean by Financial motivation ? Explain the various type of it,
Answer:
Meaning : When a person is motivated to work with monetary methods, it is called monetary motivation. Thus, a person is satisfied with money. This is also called financial motivation. Under this method, the employer spends money on the various satisfaction needs of the employees by keeping in mind their essential needs.
The following methods have been included in monetary motivation which are all positive:

1. Salary or Wages : An employee is motivated to put in more work when he is paid sufficient wages according to the nature and importance of the job assigned.

2. Allowances and Bonus: The employer grants various allowances to workers. Thus, the employees can be provided satisfaction by granting them necessary allowances depending on the place of work and also by sanctioning one or two bonus during a year. Bonus is like a reward which keeps the employees cheerful and happy.

3. Gratuity and Pension: This two benefits are available after completion of service. The employees are fully satisfied and work harder with loyalty when they are notified during the tenure of service about the facility of pension and gratuity. The employees work with complete devotion when their future is thus secured.

4. Premium and Holiday Salary: Premium means share in economies due to increase in production. When the employees is granted free bonus, gifts and earned leave, he is motivated to work even during leave period. When there is a benefit of overtime allowances in addition to this, it has a positive effect on the performance of the employees.

5. Fringe Benefits and Reward : Fringe benefits are facilities provided free by employers in the absence of which the employees have to bear the expenses e.g., house, car, furniture, domestic servants etc. When they get these fringe benefits, the employees are motivated for higher work as they are satisfied with the comforts of life. Similarly, rewards or gifts granted at the time of Holi, Diwali and other festivals, are also added source of satisfaction for the employees,

6. Contribution to Provident Fund : This is a fund involving contributions by both the employer and employees which is deposited in the employee’s account in equal monthly installments. In order to motivate the employee for higher work and satisfy his needs, the employer can increase his contribution the fund.

Question 8.
What do you mean by Negative motivation. Explain some of them.
Answer:

Negative motivations may be both monetary and non-monetary. These have negative nature in human behaviour. These encourage extracting work by fear of force as opposed to welfare of human beings. Such motivations are considered suitable for ‘Management by Force’. There is no place for such negative motivations in today’s efficient and competent management system. However, sometimes it becomes necessary to resort to these motivations also. The negative motivations are :

1. Deduction of Salary : A portion or percentage of salary is deducted by way of monetary punishment when an employees does not work properly or to his full capacity. The employees tries to work efficiently for fear of deduction from salary. This negative monetary motivation.

2. Demotion: To post a worker in lower post downgrading him from his original post is called demotion. Workers try to perform efficiently as they are afraid of demotion. This is a negative monetary motivation.

3. Fear: By scaring employees that they will be drive out of job or complaint will be made against them with the top management or by threatening them with any other bodily harm, management compels employees to work harder. This is a negative monetary motivation.

4. Physical Punishment : This is a negative motivation which is applied on workers in the lower level where only physical labour is done. This is a negative motivation.

5. Removal from Job : Removal from job results in unemployment and therefore, the workers try to work harder and with greater efficiency for fear of unemployment. This motivation is adopted in many small or large industries and this is particularly adopted in case of unsuitable and inefficient workers.

6. Insult: Insult is a big blow to those employees who have high self-pride therefore, such employees always try to work efficiently and to their full capacity. This practice is prevalent in private organizations and is negative in nature.

Question 9.
Write the difference between direction and supervision.
Answer:
Differences between Direction and Supervision
The differences between direction and supervision are as follows

Question 10.
Describe the principles of direction.
Answer:
The principle of direction are as follows :

1. Principle of maximum contribution : According to this principle. The employees should be motivated in such manner that they should give their maximum contribution to the enterprise.

2. Principle of Harmony of objectives: According to this principle there should be harmony among the individual objective of employees and objective of enterprise. Both should work together and should not create hurdles.

3. Principle of unity of command : This principle requires that the employees should receive orders from one superior only for any action or activity. It means workers in a department are required to be accountable to one superior for complying with the orders for performing a job. Multiplicity of command lead to misunderstandings and confusion in the enterprise.

4. Principle of effective communication : According to this principle the hurdles of communication are removed and it is monitored whether sent message is received in the same manner and understood in the same form or not.

5. Principle of Informal organization : Informal organization is used to remove the demerits of formal organization and to creat an environment of free communication. Its aim is to develop an attitude of taking initiative among employees.

6. Principle of leadership : The subordinate should be provided effective leadership by top level executives and through its personality the leader should bring positive (creative) changes in the employees.

Question 11.
Explain briefly the importance of directions.
Answer:
The importance of directing is clear from the following facts :

1. Initiating activities : All the activities of a business enterprise are initiated through directing. The motto of directing is to activate the sub-ordinates to work to achieve the desired goals.

2. Improving efficiency : Motivation and leadership from part of directing which persuade the sub ordinates to work to the best of their ability and contribute maximum to achieve the pre-determined objectives of an enterprise.

3. Facilitating change : The present business environment is subject to frequent charges. An enterprise has to adjust and mould itself according to such changes.

4. Stabilization and Growth : Efficient directing ensures the stability and growth of a business enterprise if can lend it to right direction. Directing helps as making maximum use of ability the efficiency.

Question 12.
Explain importance of supervision.
Answer:
In the older days supervision was not having a lot of importance but nowadays supervision is a must in all the enterprises. The supervision makes the best possible utilisation of physical resources and also directs human effects to desired goals . Supervision exists at every level, location and operation throughout the organization. Top level management supervises the work of middle level while middle level managers supervises the employees. Supervision is the process of checking and comparing the performance of personnel in the organization. The importance of supervision can be justified from the following points :

1. Supervision is a motive power: Effective direction and supervision motivates the
employees to work hard for the enterprise. Without motive power the work cannot be accomplished within the time limit. Thus for the completion of work in time direction plays an important role.

2. To maintain discipline : If proper discipline is not maintained in the organization than enterprise cannot prosper. Since production is a team work therefore disciplined efforts pf all the individuals under the command of supervisor is necessary.

3. Improves communication : A situate of quarrel or dispute arises in an organization due to lack of communication but through supervision directions are given by top level management and in return feedback is given by employees. So supervision improves communication in an organisation.

4. Better utilisation of resources : The available resources of organisation like material, machinery, employees are properly utilized under supervision. All these resources are monitored closely by the supervisors which helps in completion of effective work within the time limit.
5. Feedback : Supervision maintains contact with his subordinates. This helps in receiving the suggestions, ideas, complaints etc. of employees. It facilitates the process of receiving feedback and helps to take managerial decisions.

Question 13.
Write the importance of motivation.
Answer:

1. Development of Human Relations : The thought of establishment of cordial human relations is the keystone of an ideal business enterprise. It will never be easy to achieve the objective in an organization unless cordial relations between management and workers’ groups are established. Human relations can be established by creating an atmosphere of cordial relations between management and labour though motivation. In any organization, it should be accepted that the worker is ‘first human being and then worker’.

2. Achievement of goals within time : The success of any enterprise depends not only in achieving the goals but also achieving them within time. A manager may arrange good quality material and the best machines to produce the product, but the machines and material cannot be properly utilized if the employees working there do not have full dedication and willingness to work. Therefore, motivation is necessary to achieve the goals’

3. Increase in Production : Motivation results in improvement in efficiency as the employees work with increased zeal which in turn results in increased production.

4. Full Utilization of Efficiency: It will not be out of place to agree that “Full utilization of efficiency cannot be achieved without motivation”.

5. For better Organization : To basis of any organization is that it should be better organized. A perfect organization can be established only by satisfying human needs and the basis of human satisfaction is motivation. E.F.L. Breach says, “Organization is the reflection of motivation”.

6. Reduction in Absenteeism : The growing awareness and, for some other reasons, the labour absenteeism etc. is becoming a problem to every organization. The main reason behind absenteeism is monotony. To change this monopoly into zeal and dedication can be achieved only by motivation. Therefore, absenteeism can be prevented by motivation.

Question 14.
What is meant by managerial leadership? Explain briefly the qualities of a good leader.
Answer:
Leadership may be defined as the process by which influence is made on the behaviour and performance of others in group efforts towards the achievement of specific goals in a given situation. The leader influences the followers in such a way that they willingly strive towards the fulfillment of common objectives.

Definitions : “Leadership is the ability of a manager to induce subordinates to work with confidence and zeal. ” —Koontz and O’ Donnell
“Leadership is the activity of influencing people to strive willingly for mutual objectives. ” —George R. Terry
“Leadership in interpersonal influence exercised in a situation and directed through communication process, towards the attainment of a specified goal or goals. ”
Qualities of a Good Leader :

1. Sound Physique : A good leader must have good health and physical fitness. He requires tremendous stamina and vigor for hard work.

2. Intelligence : A leader should be intelligent enough to examine problems in the right perspective. He should have the ability to assess the pros and cons of his actions in a particular situation.

3. Objectivity : A leader should have and objective outlook, free from bias and prejudice. He should form his opinion and judgement on the basis of facts alone. He needs an open mind, is willing to listen to others and adopt new ideas.

4. Flexibility : A leader should be flexible or open minded i.e., he should be ready to absorb new ideas as may be demanded by the situation. He should be prepared to accommodate other view points and alter his decision if need be.

5. Self-Confidence : Self-Confidence is essential to motivate the subordinates and boast up their morale. He should have confidence in himself whenever he takes any decision or initiates any cause of action.

6. Sense of Responsibility : A leader should be prepared to shoulder the responsibility for the consequences of any steps he takes. He should be aware of the duties and obligations associated with the position held by him.

Question 15.
Distinguish between verbal and written communication.
Answer:
Differences between Verbal and Written communication

Question 16.
Write the importance of direction.
Answer:
Following are the importance :

1. Direction initiates action : The employees cannot start their work until they are not informed about what to do ? And how to do ? This work is performed by the manager through direction. Thus, direction initiates action in as organization.

2. Helpful in making plans : One of the elements of direction is communication through which the contact is made between different levels of management. Necessary modifications and changes can be brought in plans with the help of direction.

3. Means of motivation : For the achievement of organizational objectives, direction motivates the employees to contribute to the best of their abilities. Motivated employees work with full dedication and with a full of belonging.

4. Necessary at ail levels of management : Direction is performed at all the three levels of management. Direction is required more at the lower level, less at medium level and lesser at top level of management.

5. Provides stability : Direction brings stability and balance is the organization. Stability is brought through effective supervision, motivation, leadership and communication.

6. Facilitates changes : Through effective communication and leadership enterprise can cope with the changing conditions of environment. Effective direction induces the employees to accept changes and challenges.

Question 17.
Distinguish between Monetary motivation and Non-monetary motivation.
Answer:
Differences between Monetary and Non-monetary Motivation

Monetary Motivation

1. It is suitable in case of workers.
2. Monetary incentives are measured in terms of money.
3. Monetary motivation includes salary or wages, allowances, bonus, rewards, profit sharing etc.
4. Monetary motivation helps in satisfying lower level needs like food, shelter and clothing.
5. Monetary motivation provides financial burden to the organization or enterprise.
6. As the monetary incentives are measured in terms of money thus it is visible.
7. Labour unrest and disputes arises due to the.denial of monetary incentives.
8. It not only fulfils the physiological needs but also the need for social status and power.

Non-monetary Motivation

1. It is suitable in case of managers.
2. These incentives cannot be measured in terms of money.
3. Non-monetary motivation includes status, job security, recognition
4. reward or punishment, responsibility etc. Non-monetary motivation helps in satisfying high level needs like love, affection, recognition, status or self esteem needs like position, fame etc.
5. Non-monetary motivation does not provide any financial burden to the organization.
6. As the Non-monetary incentives are not measured in terms of money thus it is invisible.
7. Labour unrest and disputes does not arise due to the denial of non-monetary incentives.
8. It satisfies the emotional and psychological needs of employees.

Question 18.
Distinguish between Leader and Boss.
Answer:
Difference between Leader and Boss
leader

1. High level leaders are present to control leaders.
2. Leader always uses the word ‘we’ in his organization
3. Social responsibility is having an important place in leadership.
4. Leader guide their followers through motivation.
5. Leaders cannot make their followers work through fear or negative motivation.
6. There is no place for punishment of followers in leadership.
7. Suggestions or opinions are invited from followers if necessary in leadership and it is also accepted by the leaders.

Boss

1. No one is above the boss in an enterprise.
2. Boss always uses the word ‘I’ in his organization.
3. There is no place for social responsibility in bossism.
4. Boss guide their subordinates and employees through orders.
5. Boss make their subordinates work through fear and negative motivation.
6. For the errors committed by the subordinates there is provision of punishment in bossism.
7. Suggestions or opinions are generally not invited from subordinates and the decision is taken by the boss himself.

Question 19.
Explain the process of communication.
Answer:
Communication refers to an art of transferring facts, ideas, feelings etc. from one person to another and making him understand them. Communication is the soul of modem large scale enterprises. Communication is a systematic process of creating mutual understanding through creation of messages.
Communication process is required at all stages. According to Kootz O’Doonel, communication process is:

Necessity → Need → Tension Process/act → Satisfaction.
At first when there is necessity of something, then it converts to need. To fulfill this need a person is tension and to get rid of this tension he acts and follows a process and when he achieves the desired target he is satisfied.

Communication helps to make the employee realize the necessity and need to attain the goal. For this motivation and encouragement is given to attain the desired target by which satisfaction is achieved.
This leads to growth of employee and achievements of goals of the organization.

This leads to growth of employee and achievements of goals of the organization.

Question 20.
Describe the barries of an effective communication
or
Discuss any four barriers of the effective communication.
Answer:
The barriers or obstacles to an effective communication are as follows :

1. Barriers to organizational structure : The structure of any organization also affects the communication system. If the organization is big having various level then there will be various obstacles because due to many levels. The message or information will have to move through their levels. Due to many levels correct in information to the right person at right time through right medium becomes difficult.

2. Barriers to language : Language communication is an easy medium of communication. Different languages are spoken in different regions. Technical terms of language causes difficulties in understanding the language is same.

3. Barriers to status : In formal organization there is a formal relation between the officers and employees of top level and lower level. The emotions and behaviours of officers towards employees also effects effective communication.

4. Shortage of time: Due to shortage of time effective communication is not properly performed. Generally its should be kept in mind while sending information that receiver should have enough time to work on the information.

5. Geographical distance : Geographical distance is also an obstacle in the way of communication. Fax, Internet, Satellite system has solved this problems of geographical distance but these facilities are limited to cities and this facility is used by a specific class. These facilities cannot be used by a common man as it is expensive.

MP Board Class 12 Business Studies Important Questions

MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 ऐमीन

Students can also download MP Board 12th Model Papers to help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

ऐमीन NCERT पाठ्यनिहित प्रश्नोत्तर

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित एमीनों को प्राथमिक, द्वितीयक व तृतीयक एमीनों में वर्गीकृत कीजिये

1.

2.

3. (C₂H₅)₂CHNH₂
4. (C₂H₅)₂NH.
उत्तर

1. प्राथमिक (1°)
2. तृतीयक (3°)
3. प्राथमिक (1°)
4. द्वितीयक (2°).

प्रश्न 2.

1. अणुसूत्र C₄H₁₁N से प्राप्त विभिन्न समावयवी एमीनों की संरचना लिखिए।
2. सभी समावयवी के IUPAC नाम लिखिए। .
3. विभिन्न युग्मों द्वारा किस प्रकार की समावयवता प्रदर्शित होती है ?

उत्तर

समावयवता-
(i)-(iv) तथा (vi)-(vii) स्थान समा-वयवता, (v)-(vi) तथा (v)-(vii) मध्यावयवता। (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) तथा (i)-(iii) श्रृंखला समावयवता दर्शाते हैं।

प्रश्न 3.
आप निम्नलिखित परिवर्तन कैसे करेंगे

1. बेंजीन से एनिलीन
2. बेंजीन से N, N डाइमेथिल एनिलीन
3. Cl-(CH₂)₄-CI से हेक्सेन 1, – 6 डाइएमीन।

उत्तर

प्रश्न 4.
निम्नलिखित को उनकी बढ़ती क्षारीयता के क्रम में लिखिये

1. C₂H₅NH₂,C₆H₅NH₂,NH_3, C₆H₅CH₂ NH₂ तथा (C₂H₅)₂NH
2. C₂H₅NH₂, (C₂H₅)₂NH, (C₂H₅)₃N, C₆H₅NH₂
3. CH₃NH₂, (CH₃)₂NH, (CH₃)₃N, C₆H₅NH₂, C₆H₅CH₂NH₂

उत्तर

1. C₆H₅NH₂ < NH₃ < C₆H₅CH₂NH₂ < C₂H₅NH₂< (C₂H₅)₂NH
2. C₆H₅NH₂< C₂H₅NH₂ < (C₂H₅)₃N < (C₂H₅)₂NH
3. C₆H₅NH₂< C₆H₅CH₂NH₂ < (CH₃)₃N < CH₃NH₂< (CH₃)₂NH

प्रश्न 5.
निम्नलिखित अम्ल-क्षार अभिक्रिया को पूर्ण कीजिये तथा उत्पादों के नाम लिखिये

1. CH₃CH₂CH₂NH₂ + HCl →
2. (C₂H₅)N + HCI →

उत्तर

प्रश्न 6.
सोडियम कार्बोनेट विलयन की उपस्थिति में मेथिल आयोडाइड के आधिक्य द्वारा ऐनिलीन के ऐल्किली-करण में उत्पन्न होने वाले उत्पादों के लिये अभिक्रिया लिखिये।
उत्तर

प्रश्न 7.
एनिलीन की बेन्जॉयल क्लोराइड के साथ रासायनिक अभिक्रिया द्वारा उत्पन्न उत्पादों के नाम लिखिए।
उत्तर

प्रश्न 8.
अणुसूत्र C₃H₉N से प्राप्त विभिन्न समावयवों की संरचना लिखिये। उन समावयवों के IUPAC नाम लिखिए, जो नाइट्स अम्ल के साथ नाइट्रोजन गैस मुक्त करते हैं।
उत्तर
(a)C₃H₉N के चार संरचना समावयवी हैं, ये हैं-

प्रश्न 9.
निम्नलिखित परिवर्तन कीजिये”

1. 3-मेथिल एनिलीन से-3-नाइट्रोटॉलुईन
2. एनिलीन से 1, 3, 5 ट्राइब्रोमोबेंजीन।।

उत्तर

ऐमीन पाठ्य-पुस्तक प्रश्नोत्तर

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित यौगिकों को प्राथमिक, द्वितीयक व तृतीयक एमीनों में वर्गीकृत कीजिये तथा इनके IUPAC नाम लिखिये

1. (CH₃)₂CHNH₂
2. CH₃(CH2)₂NH₂
3. CH₃NHCH(CH₃)₂
4. (CH₃)₃CNH₂
5. C₆H₅NH-CH₃
6. (CH₃CH₂)₂NCH₃
7. m-BrC₆H₄NH₂

उत्तर

1. प्रोपेन-2-एमीन (1°)
2. प्रोपेन-1-एमीन (1°)
3. N-मेथिलप्रोपेन-2-एमीन (2°)
4. 2-मेथिल प्रोपेन-2-एमीन (3°)
5. N-मेथिलबेन्जेनामीन या N-मेथिलएनिलीन (2°)
6. N-एथिल-N-मेथिलऐथनामीन (3°)
7. 3-ब्रोमोबेन्जेनामीन या 3-ब्रोमोएनिलीन (1°)

प्रश्न 2.
निम्नलिखित युगलों के यौगिकों में विभेद के लिये एक रासायनिक परीक्षण दीजिये मेथिल एमीन एवं डाइमेथिल एमीन

1. द्वितीयक व तृतीयक एमीन
2. एथिल एमीन एवं ऐनिलीन
3. ऐनिलीन व बेन्जिलएमीन
4. एनिलीन व N-मेथिल एनिलीन।

उत्तर
1. कार्बिल एमीन परीक्षण द्वारा- मेथिलएमीन एक प्राथमिक एमीन है। अतः ये कार्बिल एमीन परीक्षण देंगे। इसके विपरीत डाइमेथिल एमीन एक द्वितीयक एमीन है, अतः ये परीक्षण नहीं देगा।

2. लिबरमैन नाइट्रोसोएमीन परीक्षण द्वारा- 2° एमीन HNO₂ (जो HCI तथा NaNO₂ की क्रिया द्वारा उत्पन्न होता है) के साथ क्रिया द्वारा पीले रंग का तैलीय N-नाइट्रोसोएमीन देता है। उदाहरण

N-नाइट्रोसोडाइएथिल एमीन फिनॉल तथा सान्द्र H₂SO₄ के साथ गर्म किये जाने पर हरा विलयन देता है जिसे जलीय NaOH से क्षारीय करने पर गहरे नीले रंग में तथा तनुकरण पर लाल रंग में बदलता है। तृतीयक एमीन में परीक्षण नहीं देता है।

3. ऐजोरंजक परीक्षण द्वारा-किसी भी प्राथमिक एरोमैटिक एमीन की क्रिया HNO₂(NaNO₂+ dil. HCI) से 273-278 K पर β-नेपथॉल के क्षारीय विलयन से क्रिया कराने पर तीव्र पीला, नारंगी या लाल रंग का रंजक बनाता है।

ऐलिफैटिक प्राथमिक एमीन इस दशा में तीव्रता से N, गैस के साथ प्राथमिक एल्कोहॉल बनाता है। अर्थात् विलयन रंगहीन रहता है।

4. एनिलीन [(iii) में देखिये] रंजक परीक्षण देती है। बेन्जाइल एमीन नाइट्रस अम्ल के साथ क्रिया करके बेन्जॉयल एल्कोहॉल तथा बुलबुले के रूप में N, गैस देती है।
C₆H₅CH₂NH₂ + HNO₂ → C₆H₅CH₂OH + N₂+ H₂O

5. ये कार्बिल एमीन परीक्षण द्वारा विभेदित की जाती है। एनिलीन प्राथमिक एमीन है इसलिये कार्बिल एमीन परीक्षण देती है। अर्थात् जब KOH के एल्कोहॉलिक विलयन CHCl₃ के साथ गर्म करने पर फेनिल आइसोसायनाइड की दुर्गंध देता है।

मेथिल एनिलीन (1° एमीन) नाइट्रस अम्ल के साथ क्रिया द्वारा नाइट्रोसोएमीन (पीला तैलीय द्रव) बनाता है जो कि कमरे के ताप पर स्थायी होता है। अतः ईथर में HCI तथा एल्कोहॉल के साथ क्रिया पर नाइट्रोसो (-NO) समूह पैरा स्थिति पर चला जाता है।

प्रश्न 3.
निम्नलिखित के कारण बताइये

1. ऐनिलीन का pK_a मेथिल ऐमीन की तुलना में अधिक होता है।
2. ऐथिल ऐमीन जल में विलेय है जबकि ऐनिलीन नहीं।
3. मेथिल ऐमीन फेरिक क्लोराइड के साथ जल में अभिक्रिया करने पर जलयोजित फेरिक ऑक्साइड का अवक्षेप देता है।
4. यद्यपि ऐमीनों समूह इलेक्ट्रॉनरागी प्रतिस्थापन अभिक्रियाओं में ऑर्थों एवं पैरा निर्देशक होता है फिर भी ऐनिलीन नाइट्रीकरण द्वारा यथेष्ट मात्रा में मेटानाइट्रो- ऐनिलीन देती है।
5. ऐनिलीन फ्रीडल-क्राफ्ट्स अभिक्रिया प्रदर्शित नहीं करती।
6. ऐरोमैटिक ऐमीनों के डाइऐजोनियम लवण ऐलि-फैटिक ऐमीनों से प्राप्त लवण से अधिक स्थायी होते हैं।
7. प्राथमिक ऐमीन के संश्लेषण में गैब्रियल थैलि-माइड संश्लेषण को प्राथमिकता दी जाती है।

उत्तर
1. एनिलीन में नाइट्रोजन के एकाकी इलेक्ट्रॉन युग्म बेंजीन रिंग पर विस्थापनीकृत होने से नाइट्रोजन पर इलेक्ट्रॉन घनत्व को कम करते हैं।
इसके विपरीत CH₃NH₂ में CH₃ समूह का + प्रभाव नाइट्रोजन पर इलेक्ट्रॉन घनत्व बढ़ाता है। इसलिये एनिलीन मेथिल ऐमीन से दुर्बल क्षार है। अतः एनिलीन का pK_a मान मेथिल एमीन से ज्यादा होता है।

2. अन्तराआण्विक हाइड्रोजन बंध के कारण एथिल ऐमीन पानी में घुलनशील होता है। एनिलीन में बड़ा जलविरोधी भाग (हाइड्रोफोबिक) हाइड्रोजन बंध के विस्तार को घटाता है। अतः एनिलीन जल में अघुलनशील होता है।

3. मेथिल ऐमीन जल से ज्यादा क्षारीय होता है तथा पानी से एक प्रोटॉन ग्रहण कर OH आयन मुक्त करता है।

ये OH आयन जल में उपस्थित Fe⁺³ आयन से संयुक्त होकर जलीयकृत फेरिक ऑक्साइड का भूरा अवक्षेप बनाता है।
FeCl₃ → Fe⁺³+3Cl^–
2Fe⁺³+ 6OH^– → 2Fe(OH)₃ या Fe₂O₃,.3H₂O
जलीय फेरिक ऑक्साइड (भूरा अवक्षेप)

4. प्रबल अम्लीय माध्यम (सान्द्र HNO₃/ सान्द्र H₂SO₄) में एनिलीन बहुतायत में प्रोटॉनीकृत होकर एनि-लीनियम आयन  बनाता है जो m-दिशात्मक व निष्क्रियात्मक समूह होता है जबकि एनिलीन का – NH₂ (एमीन) 0-, p-दिशात्मक तथा सक्रियात्मक समूह है। इसी कारण o-, p-व्युत्पन्न के साथ व्यापक मात्रा में m-व्युत्पन्न भी बनते हैं।

5. एनिलीन लुईस क्षार होता है, अतः लुईस अम्ल AICI₃ के साथ लवण बनाता है।

अतः एनिलीन के नाइट्रोजन पर धनावेश होने के कारण यह इलेक्ट्रोफिलिक प्रतिस्थापन के लिये प्रबल निष्क्रियात्मक समूह का कार्य करता है। इस कारण एनिलीन फ्रीडल-क्रॉफ्ट्स अभिक्रिया नहीं देता है।

6. एरोमैटिक एमीन के डाइएजोनियम लवण एलिफैटिक एमीन की तुलना में अधिक स्थायी होते हैं, क्योंकि इसमें धनावेश बेंजीन रिंग पर विस्थापनीकृत रहता है।

7. गेब्रियल थैलिमाइड अभिक्रिया शुद्ध प्राथमिक एमीन बिना 2° तथा 3° एमीन के मिलावट के देता है। इसलिये 1 एमीन संश्लेषण में इसे प्राथमिकता दी जाती है।

प्रश्न 4.
निम्नलिखित को क्रम में लिखिए
1. pK_b मान के घटते क्रम में-
C₂H₅NH₂, C₆H₅NHCH₃, (C₂H₅)₂NH एवं C₆H₅NH₂

2. क्षारीय प्राबल्य के घटते क्रम में –
C₆H₅NH₂, C₆H₅N(CH₃)₂, (C₂H₅)₂NH₂एवं CH₃ NH₃

3. क्षारीय प्राबल्य के बढ़ते क्रम में –
(क) ऐनिलीन, पैरा-नाइट्रोऐनिलीन एवं पैरा-टॉल्यु-डीन
(ख) C₆H₅NH₂, C₆H₅)NHCH₃ C₆H₅CH₂NH₂

4. गैस अवस्था में घटते हुए क्षारीय प्राबल्य के क्रम में-
C₂H₅NH₂, (C₂H₅)NH, (C₂H₅)₃N एवं NH₃

(v) क्वथनांक के बढ़ते क्रम में-
C₂H₅OH, (CH₃))₂NH, C₂H₅NH₂

(vi) जल में विलेयता के बढ़ते क्रम में
C₆H₅NH₂, (C₂H₅)NH, C₂H₅NH₂
उत्तर –
1. नाइट्रोजन परमाणु के एकाकी इलेक्ट्रॉन युग्म के बेंजीन रिंग पर विस्थापनीकरण के कारण C₆H₅NH₂, तथा C₆H₅NHCH₃, C₂H₅NH₂ तथा (C₂H₅)₂NH की तुलना में कम क्षारीय होंगे। इसी प्रकार

-CH₃ समूह के +I प्रभाव के कारण C₆H₅NHCH₃, C₆H₅NH₂ की तुलना में थोड़ा अधिक क्षारीय होगा।

C₂H₅NH₂ तथा (C₂H₅)₂NH में (C₂H₅)₂NH, C₂H₅NH₂ की तुलना में कम क्षारीय होगा। दो –
C₂H₅ समूह के +I प्रभाव के कारण होगा। सभी प्रभावों को मिलाकर इन चारों एमीन की घटती आपेक्षिक क्षारीय प्रबलता का क्रम होगा
(C₂H₅)NH > C₂H₅NH₂ > C,₆H₅NHCH₃> C₆H₅NH₂
चूंकि प्रबलतम क्षार का pK, मान कम होता है। अतः इनके PK. मान विपरीत क्रम में घटते हैं।
C₆H₅NH₂> C₆H₅NHCH₃ > C₆H₅NH₂> (C₆H₅)NH

2. उत्तर (i) के अनुसार एमीनों की आपेक्षिक क्षारीयता का घटता क्रम हैं
(C₂H₅)₂NH > C₂H₅NHCH₃ > C₅H₅NH₂
CH₃NH₂ तथा (C₂H₅)₂NH में से दो -C₂H₅ समूह के ज्यादा +I प्रभाव के कारण (C₂H₅)₂NH, CH₃NH₂ से अधिक क्षारीय होता है। अत: चारों एमीन की क्षारीय प्रबलता का घटता क्रम हैं
(C₂H₅)₂NH> CH₃NH₂ >C₆H₅N(CH₃)₂>C₆H₅NH₂

3. (क) इलेक्ट्रॉन- दान करने वाले समूह एमीन की क्षारीय प्रबलता को बढ़ाते हैं जबकि इलेक्ट्रॉन ग्रहण करने वाले (इलेक्ट्रॉन आकर्षी समूह) क्षारीय प्रबलता को घटाते हैं। अतः क्षारीयता का बढ़ता क्रम होगा
p- नाइट्रोएनिलीन < एनिलीन

(ख) C₆H₅NH₂ तथा C₆H₅NHCH₃ में N बेंजीन रिंग से सीधे जुड़ा होता है तथा N-परमाणु के एकाकी इलेक्ट्रॉन युग्म बेंजीन रिंग पर विस्थापनीकृत रहते हैं। अत: C₆H₅NH₂ तथा C₆H₅NHCH₃ दोनों C₆H₅CH₂NH₂से दुर्बल क्षार है। आगे-CH₃ समूह के +I प्रभाव के कारण C₆H₅NHCH₃, C₆H₅NH₂से प्रबल क्षार होता है। क्षारीय प्रबलता का बढ़ता क्रम है
C₆H₅NH₂ < C₆H₅NHCH₃ < C₆H₅CH₂NH₂

4. विलायक प्रभाव – गैस प्रावस्था में H-बंध के कारण संयुग्मी अम्लों का स्थायित्व का बढ़ना नहीं पाया जाता है। गैसीय प्रावस्था में क्षारीय प्रबलता मुख्यतः एल्किल समूहों के +I प्रभाव पर निर्भर करती है। अतः गैसीय प्रावस्था में क्षारीय प्रबलता का घटता क्रम है
(C₂H₅)N > (C₂H₅)₂)NH > C₂H₅NH₂> NH₃

5. चूँकि O की विद्युत्-ऋणात्मकता N से ज्यादा होती है, अतः एल्कोहॉल एमीन से प्रबल H-बंध बनाते हैं । इसके अलावा H-बंध का विस्तार N-परमाणु पर उपस्थित H-परमाणुओं की संख्या पर निर्भर करता है। अतः अन्तरा-आण्विक बल का क्रम होगा
C₂H₅OH > C₂H₅NH₂> (CH₃)₂NH
अतः दिये गये तीन यौगिकों के क्वथनांक का बढ़ता क्रम हैं
(CH₃)₂NH < C₂H₅NH₂< C₂H₅OH

6. विलेयता घटती है –

1. जलविरोधी हाइड्रोकार्बन भाग के आकार के बढ़ने के कारण एमीन का आण्विक भार बढ़ना।
2. N-परमाणु जो H-बंध से गुजरते हैं। उन पर उपस्थित H-परमाणुओं की संख्या का घटना।
   दिये गये यौगिकों में से उच्चतम (अधिकतम) आण्विक भार 93,C₆H₅NH₂ का इसके बाद (C₂H₅)₂NH का 73 होता है जबकि C₂H₅NH₂ का निम्नतम आण्विक भार 45 होता है। अतः विलेयता आण्विक भार घटने के साथ बढ़ती है। अतः
   C₆H₅NH₂ < (C₂H₅)₂NH₂ < C₂H₅NH₂

प्रश्न 5.
इन्हें आप कैसे परिवर्तित करेंगे

1. एथेनोइक अम्ल को मेथेनामीन में
2. हेक्सेननाइट्राइल को 1-ऐमीनोपेन्टेन में
3. मेथेनॉल को एथेनोइक अम्ल में ।
4. एथेनामीन को मेथेनामीन में
5. एथेनोइक अम्ल को प्रोपेनोइक अम्ल में
6. मेथेनामीन को ऐथेनामीन में
7. नाइट्रोमेथेन को डाइमेथिलऐमीन में
8. प्रोपेनोइक अम्ल को ऐथेनोइक अम्ल में ?

उत्तर

प्रश्न 6.
प्राथमिक, द्वितीयक एवं तृतीयक ऐमीनों की पहचान की विधि का वर्णन कीजिए। इन अभिक्रियाओं के रासायनिक समीकरण भी लिखिए।
उत्तर
हिंसबर्ग परीक्षण – यह प्राथमिक, द्वितीयक, तृतीयक एमीन में विभेद के लिये एक उत्तम परीक्षण है। एपीन की बेंजीन सल्फोनिल क्लोराइड (हिंसबर्ग अभिकर्मक) के साथ क्रिया जलीय पोटैशियम हाइड्रॉक्साइड विलयन की अधिकता में की जाती है।

प्रश्न 7.
निम्न पर लघु टिप्पणी लिखिए

1. कार्बिल ऐमीन अभिक्रिया
2. डाइऐजोटीकरण
3. हॉफमैन ब्रोमामाइड अभिक्रिया
4. युग्मन अभिक्रिया
5. अमोनी-अपघटन
6. ऐसीलिकरण
7. गैब्रियल थैलिमाइड संश्लेषण।

उत्तर
1. कार्बिल ऐमीन अभिक्रिया- जब प्राथमिक ऐमीन को क्लोरोफार्म तथा ऐल्कोहॉली कॉस्टिक क्षार के साथ गर्म किया जाता है, जो कार्बिल ऐमीन (आइसोसायनाइड) की अरुचिकर गन्ध आती है। यह अभिक्रिया केवल प्राथमिक ऐमीनों द्वारा ही सम्पन्न होती है, इसे कार्बिल ऐमीन परीक्षण कहते हैं।

2. डाइऐजोटीकरण- ऐनिलीन के हाइड्रोक्लोरिक अम्ल के विलयन को हिम मिश्रण द्वारा 5°C तक ठण्डा करके उसमें सोडियम नाइट्राइट का हिमशीत विलयन मिलाने पर बेंजीन डाइऐजोनियम क्लोराइड बनता है। इस प्रकार ऐमीन समूह (-NH₂) का डाइऐजो समूह (-N₂X) द्वारा विस्थापन को डाइऐजोटीकरण कहते हैं।

3. हॉफमैन ब्रोमामाइड अभिक्रिया- इस अभिक्रिया को हॉफमैन ब्रोमामाइड अभिक्रिया कहते हैं, क्योंकि क्रिया के दौरान बनने वाला एक उत्पाद ब्रोमामाइड है, इसे हॉफमैन पुनर्विन्यास भी कहते हैं, क्योंकि अभिक्रिया के एक पद में पुनर्विन्यास होता है। इसी अभिक्रिया को हॉफमैन डिग्रेडेशन भी कहते हैं क्योंकि अंतिम उत्पाद में कार्बन परमाणु कम हो जाता है।
जब कोई एमाइड क्षार की उपस्थिति में ब्रोमीन से अभिक्रिया करता है तो एक कार्बन परमाणु कम होकर प्राथमिक एमीन बनाता है

R-CONH₂+Br₂ +3NaOH →RNH₂ +2NaBr+ NaHCO₃ + H₂O
जैसे- एसीटामाइड से मेथिलामीन तथा बेंजामाइड से एनिलीन बनता है।

4. युग्मन अभिक्रिया-हिमताप पर जब एनिलीन की क्रिया बेंजीन डाइएजोनियम लवण से कराई जाती है तो एक पीला पदार्थ प्राप्त होता है, जिसे हल्का गर्म करने पर चमकदार नारंगी-लाल रंजक बनता है।

5. अमोनी-अपघटन (Ammonolysis)- यह वह क्रिया है जिसमें या तो एल्किल (या एरिल हैलाइड) के हैलोजन अणु में या एल्कोहॉल (या फिनॉल) के हाइड्रॉक्सिल समूह का विस्थापन एमीनों समूह के द्वारा होता है। इस क्रिया में एल्कोहॉलीय अमोनिया अभिकर्मक प्रयुक्त होता है। सामान्यतः प्राथमिक, द्वितीयक या तृतीयक एमीन बनते हैं।

6. एसीटिलीकरण – एलिफैटिक तथा एरोमैटिक प्राथमिक तथा द्वितीयक एमीन अम्ल क्लोराइड, ऐनहाइड्राइड तथा एस्टर के साथ नाभिकस्नेही प्रतिस्थापन अभिक्रिया देते हैं । इस अभिक्रिया में -NH₂ या> NH समूह की परमाणु एसिल समूह द्वारा प्रतिस्थापित होते हैं तथा इस अभिक्रिया को एसीटिलीकरण या एसीलीकरण कहते हैं।

अभिक्रिया एमीन से प्रबल क्षार की उपस्थिति में होती है, जैसे – पिरिडीन, जो बने हुए HCl को निष्कासित करके साम्यावस्था को दायीं तरफ विस्थापित करती है तथा एसीटिलीकरण द्वारा बना उत्पाद एमाइड कहलाता है।

7. गैब्रियल थैलिमाइड संश्लेषण-इस अभिक्रिया में थैलिमाइड KOH से क्रिया करके पोटैशियम थैलिमाइड बनाता है, जो ऐल्किल हैलाइड से अभिक्रिया कर N-ऐल्किल थैलिमाइड देता है, जिसके जल अपघटन से प्राथमिक ऐमीन प्राप्त होते हैं।

प्रश्न 8.
निम्न परिवर्तन निष्पादित कीजिए

1. नाइट्रोबेन्जीन से बेन्जोइक अम्ल
2. बेन्जीन से m-ब्रोमोफीनॉल
3. बेन्जोइक अम्ल से ऐनिलीन
4. ऐनिलीन से 2, 4, 6-ट्राइब्रोमोफ्लुओरोबेन्जीन
5. बेन्जिल क्लोराइड से 2-फेनिलएथेनामीन
6. क्लोरोबेन्जीन से p-क्लोरोऐनिलीन
7. ऐनिलीन से p-ब्रोमोऐनिलीन
8. बेन्जेनामाइड से टॉलूईन
9. ऐनिलीन से बेन्जॉइल ऐल्कोहॉल। NO,

उत्तर

प्रश्न 9.
निम्न अभिक्रियाओं में A, B तथा C की संरचना दीजिए –

उत्तर

प्रश्न 10.
एक ऐरोमैटिक यौगिक ‘A’ जलीय अमोनिया के साथ गर्म करने पर यौगिक ‘B’ बनाता है जो Br, एवं KOH के साथ गर्म करने पर अणु सूत्र C₆H₅N वाला यौगिक ‘C’ बनाता है। A, B एवं cयौगिकों की संरचना एवं इनके IUPAC नाम लिखिए।
उत्तर
यौगिक ‘B’ तथा ‘C’ की संरचनाएँ
1. चूँकि ‘C’, ‘B’ से बना है, उसकी Br₂ + KOH के साथ क्रिया द्वारा (i.e. हॉफमैन ब्रोमामाइड अभिक्रिया)। अत: ‘B’ एक एमाइड तथा ‘C’ एक एमीन होगा। अणुसूत्र C₆H₅NH₂ वाला ही एमीन (बेंजामीन या एनिलीन) होगा।

2. चूँकि ‘C’ एनिलीन है तथा इससे बनने वाले एमाइड बेन्जामाइड (C₆H₅CONH₂) होगा। अतः यौगिक ‘B’ बेन्जामाइड होगा।
‘B’ से ‘C’ में परिवर्तन का रासायनिक समीकरण है

यौगिक A की संरचना – चूँकि ‘A’ को जलीय अमोनिया के साथ गर्म करने पर बेंजामाइड बनाता है। अत: ‘A’ बेन्जोइक अम्ल होगा।

प्रश्न 11.
निम्नलिखित अभिक्रियाओं को पूर्ण कीजिए

1. C₆H₅NH₂ + CHCl₃ + KOH (ऐल्कोहॉली) →
2. C₂H₅N₂CI+ H₃PO₂ + H₂O →
3.  C₆H₅NH₂ + H₂SO₄ (सान्द्र) →
4.  C₆H₅N₂CI+C₂H₅OH →
5.  C₆H₅NH₂+ Br₂(aq) →
6.  C₆H₅NH₂+ (CH₃CO)₂O →

7.

उत्तर

प्रश्न 12.
ऐरोमैटिक प्राथमिक ऐमीन को गैब्रियल थैलिमाइड संश्लेषण से क्यों नहीं बनाया जा सकता?
उत्तर

चूँकि ऐरिल हैलाइड न्यूक्लियोफिलिक प्रतिस्थापन अभिक्रिया सरलता से नहीं करता है। इसलिये ऐरोमैटिक प्राथमिक एमीन गैब्रियल थैलिमाइड अभिक्रिया द्वारा नहीं बनाये जाते हैं।

प्रश्न 13.
ऐलिफैटिक एवं ऐरोमैटिक प्राथमिक ऐमीनों की नाइट्रस अम्ल से अभिक्रिया लिखिए।
उत्तर
एरोमैटिक प्राथमिक एमीन HNO₂ के साथ 273-278K पर क्रिया करके ऐरोमैटिक डाइएजोनियम लवण बनाते हैं

एनिलीन ऐलिफैटिक प्राथमिक एमीन HNO₂ के साथ 273-278 K पर भी क्रिया करके ऐलिफैटिक डाइएजोनियम लवण बनाते हैं। परन्तु ये कम ताप पर भी अस्थायी होते हैं। अतः सरलता ये विघटित होकर यौगिकों की मिश्रण जिसमें एल्किल क्लोराइड, एल्कीन तथा एल्कोहॉल होता है बनाते हैं जिनमें से एल्कोहॉल प्रमुखता से बनता है।

प्रश्न 14.
निम्नलिखित में प्रत्येक का संभावित कारण बताइए

1. समतुल्य अणु द्रव्यमान वाले ऐमीनों की अम्लता ऐल्कोहॉलों से कम होती है।
2. प्राथमिक ऐमीनों का क्वथनांक तृतीयक एमीनों से अधिक होता है।
3. ऐरोमैटिक ऐमीनों की तुलना में ऐलिफैटिक ऐमीनों प्रबल क्षारक होते हैं।

उत्तर
1. एमीन एक प्रोटॉन को त्यागकर एक ऐमाइल आयन बनाते हैं जबकि एल्कोहॉल एक प्रोटॉन त्यागकर एल्कॉक्-साइड आयन देते हैं

चूँकि ‘O’,N तथा से ज्यादा विद्युत्-ऋणात्मक होता है, इसलिये ऋण आवेश को  आयन की तुलना में ज्यादा सरलता से (अनुकूलतम) से ग्रहण किये रहता है।
दूसरे शब्दों में ,  से ज्यादा स्थायी होता है। अतः एल्कोहॉल एमीन से ज्यादा अम्लीय या एमीन एल्को-हॉल से कम अम्लीय होते हैं।

2. प्राथमिक एमीन (R – NH₂) पर दो हाइड्रोजन परमाणु N परमाणु पर होते हैं। अतः ये विस्तारित अन्तःआण्विक हाइड्रोजन बंध में भाग लेते हैं।

तृतीयक एमीन (RN) में हाइड्रोजन परमाणु, N परमाणु पर नहीं होता है, अतः इसमें H-बंध नहीं होता है। परिणामतः प्राथमिक एमीन का क्वथनांक संगत अणुभार वाले तृतीयक एमीन से ज्यादा होते हैं। उदाहरण
n-ब्यूटाइल एमीन का क्वथनांक (351K) तृतीयक ब्यूटाइल एमीन (b.p. 319 K) से ज्यादा उच्च होता है।

3. एरोमैटिक एमीन में नाइट्रोजन के एकाकी इलेक्ट्रॉन युग्म बेंजीन के साथ संयुग्मन में शामिल हो जाते हैं। जिससे नाइट्रोजन पर धनावेश आ जाता है तथा एकाकी इलेक्ट्रॉन युग्म नाइट्रोजन पर दान करने के लिये उपलब्ध नहीं होते हैं। जबकि ऐलिफैटिक एमीन में मेथिल समूह पर +I प्रभाव होने से नाइट्रोजन पर इलेक्ट्रॉन घनत्व बढ़ जाता है इसलिये ये प्रबल क्षारक होते हैं।

ऐमीन अन्य महत्वपूर्ण प्रश्नोत्तर

ऐमीन वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न

1. सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए

प्रश्न 1.
एनिलीन ठण्डे में नाइट्रस अम्ल (NaNO, + HCI) में अभिकृत करने पर देती है-
(a) C₆H₅OH
(b) C₆H₅N₂Cl
(c) C₆H₅NO₂
(d) C₆H₅Cl.
उत्तर
(b) C₆H₅N₂Cl

प्रश्न 2.
एक नाइट्रोजनयुक्त कार्बनिक यौगिक, क्लोरोफार्म व ऐल्कोहॉली KOH के साथ गर्म करने पर अति दुर्गन्धयुक्त वाष्प देता है। यह यौगिक हो सकता है-
(a) नाइट्रो बेंजीन
(b) बेंजेन्एमाइड
(c) N – N डाइमेथिल एनिलीन
(d) एनिलीन।
उत्तर
(d) एनिलीन।

प्रश्न 3.
एथिल एमीन नाइट्रस अम्ल से क्रिया करके बनाता है-
(a) अमोनिया
(b) नाइट्रस ऑक्साइड
(c) एथेन
(d) नाइट्रोजन ।
उत्तर
(d) नाइट्रोजन ।

प्रश्न 4.
कम तापक्रम पर नाइट्रस अम्ल प्रतिक्रिया स्वरूप तेलीय नाइट्रोसैमीन देने वाली यौगिक है-
(a) मेथिल एमीन
(b) डाइमेथिल एमीन
(c) ट्राइमेथिल एमीन
(d) ट्राइएथिल एमीन।
उत्तर
(b) डाइमेथिल एमीन

प्रश्न 5.
निम्नलिखित में से कौन सर्वाधिक क्षारीय है-
(a) C₆H₅NH₂
(b) (CH₃)₂ NH
(C) (CH₃)₃N
(d) NH₃.
उत्तर
(b) (CH₃)₂ NH

प्रश्न 6.
बेंजीन डाइएजोनियम क्लोराइड के जल-अपघटन से प्राप्त होता है
(a) क्लोरोबेंजीन
(b) फीनॉल
(c) ऐल्कोहॉल
(d) बेंजीन।
उत्तर
(b) फीनॉल

प्रश्न 7.
अभिक्रिया C₆H₅CHO + C₆H₅NH₃ →C₆H₅N=CHC₆H₅+H₂0 में C₆H₅N =CHC₆H₅ कहलाता है-
(a) एल्डॉल
(b) शिफ अभिकर्मक
(c) शिफ बेस
(d बेनेडिक्ट अभिकर्मक।
उत्तर
(c) शिफ बेस

प्रश्न 8.
नाइट्रो बेंजीन निम्न में से किसके द्वारा N- फेनिल हाइड्रॉक्सिल ऐमीन देता है
(a) Sn/HCI
(b) C₆H₅CH₂NH-CH₃
(c) Zn / NaOH
(d) Zn/ NH₄Cl.
उत्तर
(c) Zn / NaOH

प्रश्न 9.
कार्बिल एमीन अभिक्रिया ऐल्कोहॉली KOH को इनके मिश्रण के साथ गर्म करके की जाती
(a) क्लोरोफार्म और रजत पूर्ण
(b) ट्राइहैलोजनीकृत मेथेन तथा एक प्राथमिक एमीन
(c) एल्किल हैलाइड और प्राथमिक एमीन
(d) एक एल्किल सायनाइड तथा प्राथमिक एमीन।
उत्तर
(b) ट्राइहैलोजनीकृत मेथेन तथा एक प्राथमिक एमीन

प्रश्न 10.
सन् 1984 में भोपाल त्रासदी में रिसने वाली गैस थी|
(a)
(b)CH₃-C=N=S
(c) CHCl₃
(d) C₆H₅COCl.
उत्तर
(a)

प्रश्न 11.
मीरबेन का तेल है
(a) ऐनिलीन
(b) नाइट्रोबेन्जीन
(c) p-नाइट्रोऐनिलीन
(d) p-ऐमीनो ऐजोबेन्जीन।
उत्तर
(b) नाइट्रोबेन्जीन

प्रश्न 12.
मस्टर्ड तेल अभिक्रिया का उत्पाद है
(a) ऐल्किल आइसो थायोसायनेट
(b) डाइथायो कार्बेमाइड
(c) डाइथायो एथिल ऐसीटेट
(d) p-नाइट्रो फीनॉल।
उत्तर
(c) डाइथायो एथिल ऐसीटेट

प्रश्न 13.
ऐनिलीन का शुद्धिकरण करते हैं
(a) वाष्प आसवन से
(b) निर्वात आसवन से
(c) साधारण आसवन से
(d) विलायक निष्कर्षण से।
उत्तर
(a) वाष्प आसवन से

प्रश्न 14.
जो ऐमीन ऐसीटिल क्लोराइड से क्रिया नहीं करेगा, वह है
(a) CH₃NH₂
(b) (CH₃)₂NH
(c) (CH₃)₂N
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं।
उत्तर
(a) CH₃NH₂

प्रश्न 15.
अभिक्रिया है
(a) गाटरमैन
(b) सेण्डमेयर
(c) वुर्ट्ज
(d) फ्रेंकलेंड।
उत्तर
(b) सेण्डमेयर

 

2. रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिए

1. एरोमैटिक एमीन जल में ………… होते हैं।
2. NaOH की उपस्थिति में एमीन का बेंजाइलीकरण किया जाता है यह ………… अभिक्रिया __कहलाती है।
3. नाइट्रस अम्ल से क्रिया करके 1° एमीन ऐल्कोहॉल 2° एमीन ……….. बनाते हैं।
4. 2⁰ एमीन की नाइट्स अम्ल से क्रिया …………को प्रदर्शित करती है।
5. एनिलीन सान्द्र सल्फ्यूरिक अम्ल के साथ ….. सल्फोनीकरण करने पर …….. बनता है।
6. धातु (संक्रमण धातुएँ) आयनों के साथ एमीन उपसहसंयोजकता ……… स्थापित कर ….. बनाते हैं।
7. अपचयन द्वारा सायनाइड ………… तथा आइसो सायनाइड ………… बनाते हैं।
8. बेंजोइक अम्ल, हाइड्रेजोइक अम्ल से क्रिया करके ………… बनाता है।
9. सभी ऐलीफैटिक एमीन अमोनिया से अधिक ……….. प्रकृति होते हैं।
10. 1° और 2° एमीन ग्रिगनार्ड अभिकर्मक से क्रिया करके ……….बनाते हैं।
11. एमीन की क्षारीय प्रवृत्ति नाइट्रोजन परमाणु पर …… के कारण होती है।
12. प्राथमिक एमीन को ……… व……. के साथ गर्म करने पर एल्किल आइसोसाइनाइड प्राप्त होता है।
13. C₆H₅ COOH+ ………→ +C₆H₆-NH2 + N₂ + CO₂
14. T.N.T तथा अमोनियम नाइट्रेट का मिश्रण …………….. कहलाता है।
15. एनिलीन की अभिक्रिया 0°C ताप या HCL तथा NaNO₂ से कराने पर बेंजीन डाई-एजोनियम क्लोराइड बनाता है। यह …………. अभिक्रिया कहलाती है।
16. एथिल एमीन अमोनिया की तुलना में ………….. क्षारीय होता है।
17. ट्राईनाइट्रो टालुईन एक ………. यौगिक है।
18. एल्किल आइसोसायनाइड को 250° पर गर्म करने पर …….. बनता है।

उत्तर

1. अविलेय
2. शॉटन-बामन
3. नाइट्रोसैमीन
4. लीबरमान नाइट्रोसो परीक्षण
5. सल्फोनिलिक अम्ल
6. संकुल आयन
7. प्राथमिक एमीन, द्वितीयक एमीन
8. एनिलीन
9. क्षारीय
10. एल्केन
11. एकांकी CIयुग्म
12. क्लोरोफार्म व कास्टिक क्षार
13. N₃H
14. एमेटॉल
15. डाइएजोटाइजेशन
16. प्रबल
17. विस्फोटक
18. एल्किल सायनाइड ।

3. उचित सम्बन्ध जोडिएI

उत्तर

1. (e)
2. (d)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (a)
6. (g)
7. (1).

उत्तर

1. (e)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (c)
5. (b).

उत्तर

1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (c)
5. (1)
6. (b).

4. एक शब्द / वाक्य में उत्तर दीजिए

1. हवा में खुला छोड़ने पर एनिलीन काला भूरा पड़ जाता है।
2. तृतीयक एमीन का एसीटिलीकरण नहीं होता क्यों ?
3. C₃H₇N का कौन-सा समावयवी सबसे कम क्षारीय तथा सबसे कम क्वथनांक वाला होगा।
4. कौन-सा एमीन डाइएजोटीकरण क्रिया देता है।
5. प्राथमिक ऐरोमैटिक एमीन को ट्राइक्लोरो मेथेन और ऐल्कोहॉली कास्टिक पोटाश के साथ गर्म करने पर प्राप्त होता है।
6. द्वितीयक एमीन की पहचान की जा सकती है।
7. नाइट्रीकरण मिश्रण किसे कहते हैं।
8. नाइट्रोबेन्जीन कहलाता है।
9. अभिक्रिया का नाम है। 0-5°C
10. प्राथमिक नाइट्रोऐल्केन नाइट्रस अम्ल से क्रिया करके कौन-सा यौगिक बनाते हैं ?
11. ऐमीन की प्रकृति लिखिए।
12.  प्राथमिक, द्वितीयक तथा तृतीयक एमीन के पृथक्करण हेतु प्रयुक्त अभिकर्मक है।
13. 11° व 2° एमीन फास्जीन से क्रिया करके क्या बनाते हैं।
14. उक्त अभिक्रिया का नाम लिखिए।
15. एमीनों की CHCl₃ के साथ अभिक्रिया कराने पर क्या प्राप्त होता है।
16. एमीनों का उपयोग कार्बनिक संश्लेषण में किस रूप में प्रयोग होता है।
17. KMnO₄ की उपस्थिति में ऑक्सीकरण करने पर एथिल ऐमीन क्या बनाता है।
18. C₆H₅NH₂ के जलीय विलयन में Br₂ जल मिलाने पर किसके अवक्षेप मिलते हैं।
19. सायनाइड का Pt या Ni की उपस्थिति में अपचयन करने पर कौन-सा एमीन बनता है।
20. में x उत्पाद का सूत्र लिखिए।
21. अभिक्रिया का नाम लिखिये।
22. मेथिल आइसो साइनाइड बनाने की क्रिया का क्या नाम है ?

उत्तर-

1. एनिलीन वायु द्वारा ऑक्सीकृत हो जाता है
2. सक्रिय H परमाणु नहीं होता
3. तृतीयक एमीन
4. सभी प्राथमिक ऐरोमैटिक एमीन
5. फेनिल आइसो सायनाइड
6. लीबरमान परीक्षण से
7. सान्द्र HNO₃ तथा सान्द्र H₂SO₄
8. मीरबेन का तेल
9. डाइ ऐजोटाइजेशन
10. नाइट्रोलिक अम्ल
11. क्षारीय
12. हिन्सबर्ग अभिकर्मक
13. प्रतिस्थापित यूरिया
14. कार्बिल एमीन अभिक्रिया
15. एल्किल आइसोसायनायड
16. अभिकर्मक एल्केन
17. ऐल्डिहाइड
18. सममित ट्राइब्रोमोंएनीलीन
19. 1° एमीन
20. C₆H₅NH₂, (एनिलीन)
21. श्मिट अभिक्रिया
22. कार्बिल एमीन अभिक्रिया।

ऐमीन लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
ऐनिलीन जल में अविलेय है, लेकिन HCI में विलेयशील है, क्यों?
उत्तर
ऐनिलीन की क्षारीय प्रकृति के कारण यह HCI जैसे प्रबल अम्लों के साथ विलेयशील लवण बनाती है जबकि जल के साथ ऐसा लवण नहीं बनता। अत: यह HCI में विलेय एवं जल में अविलेय है।

प्रश्न 2.
शॉटन-बॉमन अभिक्रिया पर संक्षिप्त टिप्पणी लिखिये।
उत्तर
शॉटन-बॉमन अभिक्रिया (Schotten-Buamann Reaction)-किसी ऐरोमैटिक ऐमीन की बेन्जॉयल क्लोराइड के साथ बेन्जॉयलीकरण की क्रिया को शॉटन-बॉमन अभिक्रिया कहते हैं।

प्रश्न 3.

1. ऐल्किल सायनाइडों के क्वथनांक लगभग समान अणुभार वाले ऐल्किल हैलाइडों की तुलना में अधिक होते हैं, क्यों?
2. आइसोसायनाइड यौगिकों में अपने समावयवी सायनाइड यौमिकों की अपेक्षा क्वथनांक एवं गलनांक कम क्यों होते हैं ?

उत्तर
1. सायनाइड समूह  ध्रुवीय होता है। अतः ऐल्किल सायनाइडों का द्विध्रुव आघूर्ण उच्च होता है, जिसके कारण इनके मध्य अन्तराण्विक आकर्षण बल उच्च होता है, फलस्वरूप ऐल्किल सायनाइडों का क्वथनांक लगभग समान अणुभार वाले ऐल्किल हैलाइडों से उच्च होता है।

2. आइसोसायनाइड यौगिक अपने समावयवी सायनाइडों की अपेक्षा कम ध्रुवीय होते हैं। अतः क्वथनांक एवं गलनांक भी संगत सायनाइड की अपेक्षा कम होते हैं।

प्रश्न 4.
समीकरणों को पूर्ण कीजिए
(a) C₂H₅I+H₂NC₂H₅ →
(b) CH₃NH₂ + (NaNO₂ + HCI) →
उत्तर
(a) सभी ऐमीन एल्किल हैलाइड (जैसे- C₂H₅I) से क्रिया करके चतुष्क (quatermary) अमोनियम लवण बनाते हैं। यह क्रिया ऐल्किलीकरण (alkylation) कहलाती है।

(b) CH₃NH₂ +OHNO →CH₃OH + N₂ + H₃O
NaNO₂ + HCI से नाइट्रस अम्ल (OHNO) प्राप्त होता है।

प्रश्न 5.
एथिल ऐमीन अमोनिया की अपेक्षा अधिक क्षारीय होता है, क्यों?
उत्तर
मेथिल ऐमीन या एथिल ऐमीन का वियोजन स्थिरांक K _b = 4.5×10-⁴ है, जबकि अमोनिया का वियोजन स्थिरांक 1.8×10-⁵है। अतः स्पष्ट है कि C₂H₅NH₂अमोनिया की तुलना में अधिक क्षारीय है। ऐथिल ऐमीन में एथिल समूह के + I प्रेरणिक प्रभाव के कारण नाइट्रोजन परमाणु पर एकाकी इलेक्ट्रॉन युग्म की उपलब्धता बढ़ जाती है और वे प्रोटॉन को अपेक्षाकृत और अधिक शीघ्रता से ग्रहण कर लेते हैं । इसलिए एथिल ऐमीन अमोनिया की अपेक्षा अधिक क्षारीय होता है।

प्रश्न 6.
संक्षिप्त टिप्पणी लिखिए

1. श्मिट अभिक्रिया,
2. मस्टर्ड ऑयल अभिक्रिया।

उत्तर
1. श्मिट अभिक्रिया- जब CHCI₃ या C₆H₆ में विलेय हाइड्रोजोइक अम्ल की मोनोकार्बोक्सिलिक .. अम्ल पर

2. मस्टर्ड ऑयल अभिक्रिया-ऐलिफैटिक प्राथमिक ऐमीन को -CS₂ तथा HgCI₂ के साथ गर्म करने पर सरसों के तेल जैसी गन्धयुक्त मेथिल आइसोथायोसायनेट बनता है। इसलिए इस अभिक्रिया को मस्टर्ड ऑयल अभिक्रिया कहते हैं।

प्रश्न 7.
प्राथमिक, द्वितीयक एवं तृतीयक एमीन का हिन्सबर्ग परीक्षण लिखिए।
उत्तर
हिन्सबर्ग परीक्षण-यह परीक्षण प्राथमिक, द्वितीयक एवं तृतीयक एमीन में विभेद करता है। इस परीक्षण में क्षार की अधिकता में एमीन को बेंजीन सल्फोनिल क्लोराइड (हिन्सबर्ग अभिकर्मक) के साथ गर्म करने पर विभिन्न एमीन अलग-अलग अवलोकन प्रदर्शित करते हैं।

1. प्राथमिक एमीन- सल्फोनैमाइड बनाते हैं जो KOH में विलेय है।

2. द्वितीयक एमीन- ये भी सल्फोनैमाइड बनाते हैं जो KOH में अविलेय है।

3. तृतीयक एमीन- ये कोई अभिक्रिया नहीं देते।।
C₆H₅SO₂Cl+R₃N → कोई अभिक्रिया नहीं।

प्रश्न 8.
ऐल्किल नाइट्राइट और नाइट्रो ऐल्केन में क्या अन्तर है ?
उत्तर
नाइट्रस अम्ल दो समावयवी रूपों में पाया जाता है।

अतः नाइट्रस अम्ल के दो ऐल्किल व्युत्पन्न बनते हैं।

अतः स्पष्ट है कि नाइट्रोऐल्केन में ऐल्किल मूलक नाइट्रोजन परमाणु से जुड़ा होता है, जबकि ऐल्किल . नाइट्राइट में ऐल्किल मूलक ऑक्सीजन परमाणु से जुड़ा होता है। ऐल्किल नाइट्राइट एस्टर है, जबकि नाइट्रो ऐल्केन पैराफिन का व्युत्पन्न है।

प्रश्न 9.
निम्नलिखित परिवर्तनों के केवल समीकरण लिखिए।

1. मेथिल सायनाइड का C₂H₅ NH₂ में परिवर्तन।
2. C₆H₅NH₂ का क्लोरोबेंजीन में परिवर्तन।

उत्तर

प्रश्न 10.
प्राथमिक, द्वितीयक और तृतीयक नाइट्रोऐल्केन में विभेद स्पष्ट करने की विधि का वर्णन कीजिए।
उत्तर
प्राथमिक, द्वितीयक और तृतीयक नाइट्रोऐल्केन में नाइट्रस अम्ल की क्रिया द्वारा अन्तर स्पष्ट कर सकते हैं।

1. प्राथमिक नाइट्रोऐल्केन नाइट्रस अम्ल से अभिक्रिया कर नाइट्रोलिक अम्ल बनाते हैं, जो क्षार के साथ लाल रंग उत्पन्न करते हैं ।

2. द्वितीयक नाइट्रो यौगिक नाइट्रस अम्ल के साथ क्रिस्टलीय स्यूडोनाइट्रोल (Pseudonitrols) देते हैं, जो क्षार में घुलकर नीला रंग उत्पन्न करते हैं, किन्तु लवण निर्माण नहीं होता ।

3. तृतीयक नाइट्रोऐल्केन नाइट्रस अम्ल से अभिक्रिया नहीं करते, क्योंकि α – हाइड्रोजन परमाणु नहीं होता ।

प्रश्न 11.
एथिल ऐमीन तथा ऐनिलीन में अन्तर स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर
एथिल ऐमीन तथा ऐनिलीन में अन्तर –

प्रश्न 12.
एथिल नाइट्राइट और नाइट्रो एथेन में अन्तर के कोई चार बिन्दु लिखिए।
उत्तर
नाइट्रो एथेन और एथिल नाइट्राइट में अन्तर
1. संरचना-
2. क्वथनांक- नाइट्रो एथेन का क्वथनांक एथिल नाइट्रेट से उच्च होता है।
3. अपचयन- नाइट्रो एथेन प्राथमिक एमीन तथा एथिल नाइट्राइट अमोनिया बनाता है

4. जल अपघटन-नाइट्रो एथेन NaOH के साथ ऐल्कोहॉल नहीं बनाता जबकि एथिल नाइट्राइट NaOH के साथ ऐल्कोहॉल बनाता है|
C₂H₅-O-N= O+NaOH→C₂H₅OH+NaNO₂.

प्रश्न 13.
मेण्डियस अभिक्रिया क्या है ?
उत्तर
ऐल्किल सायनाइड (RCN) का अपचयन सोडियम तथा ऐल्कोहॉल द्वारा करने पर प्राथमिक ऐमीन प्राप्त होता है । जैसे- मेथिल सायनाइड के अपचयन से एथिल ऐमीन बनता है । यह अभिक्रिया मेण्डियस अभिक्रिया कहलाती है ।

प्रश्न 14.
कैसे प्राप्त करेंगे
(a) मेथिल सायनाइड से एथिल ऐमीन
(b) ऐसीटामाइड से मेथिल ऐमीन ।
(c) एथिल ऐल्कोहॉल से एथिल ऐमीन
(d) मेथिल ऐमीन से एथिल ऐमीन ।
उत्तर

प्रश्न 15.
सायनाइड और आइसोसायनाइड के बीच कोई चार अन्तर लिखिये । अथवा एथिल सायनाइड और एथिल आइसोसायनाइड में अन्तर लिखिये ।
उत्तर
एथिल सायनाइड और एथिल आइसोसायनाइड में अन्तर –

प्रश्न 16.
एथिल ऐमीन किस प्रकार क्रिया करता है
(a) HNO₂ से,
(b) CH₃COCI से
(c) CS₂ से ।
उत्तर
(a) C₂H₅NH₂ + OHNO → C₂H₅OH + N₂ + H₂O

(b)

(c)

प्रश्न 17.
एथिल ऐमीन, ऐनिलीन से अधिक क्षारीय है, क्यों? अथवा ऐनिलीन, एथिल ऐमीन से कम क्षारीय होता है, क्यों?
उत्तर
ऐनिलीन एथिल ऐमीन की अपेक्षा कम क्षारीय होता है, क्योंकि बेंजीन नाभिक में अनुनाद के कारण नाइट्रोजन परमाणु का एकाकी इलेक्ट्रॉन युग्म नाभिक की ओर आकर्षित होकर समस्त रिंग में विस्थापित हो जाता है।

इस कारण यह इलेक्ट्रॉन युग्म एथिल ऐमीन के इलेक्ट्रॉन युग्म की अपेक्षा कठिनाई से त्यागा जाता है, जिससे ऐनिलीन का क्षारीय गुण अपेक्षाकृत कम हो जाता है । ऐनिलीन में इलेक्ट्रॉनों का विस्थापन निम्नलिखित प्रकार से प्रदर्शित किया जा सकता हैr

प्रश्न 18.
ऐमीनों के क्वथनांक संगत आण्विक द्रव्यमान के हाइड्रोकार्बनों की अपेक्षा उच्च होते हैं; परन्तु संगत ऐल्कोहॉलों एवं कार्बोक्सिलिक अम्लों से निम्न होते हैं । इस कथन का स्पष्टीकरण दीजिए ।
उत्तर
प्राथमिक ऐमीन ध्रुवीय होते हैं तथा इनमें द्विध्रुवीय  बन्ध उपस्थित होते हैं, जिससे ऐमीन में हाइड्रोजन बन्ध द्वारा अणुओं का संगुणन हो जाता है । इसी कारण इनका क्वथनांक समतुल्य अणुभार वाले ऐल्केन से अधिक होता है।

नाइट्रोजन की विद्युत्ऋणता का मान ऑक्सीजन से कम होने के कारण ऐल्कोहॉल एवं कार्बोक्सिलिक अम्लों में प्रबल H-बन्ध द्वारा संगुणन हो जाता है, जबकि ऐमीनों में दुर्बल H-बन्ध द्वारा संगुणन होता है । इसलिये ऐमीनों का क्वथनांक एवं गलनांक संगत ऐल्कोहॉलों एवं कार्बोक्सिलिक अम्लों से निम्न होता है।

प्रश्न 19.
ऐनिलीन के नाइट्रीकरण को स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर
ऐनिलीन का सीधा नाइट्रीकरण सम्भव नहीं है, क्योंकि -NH₂ समूह HNO₃ द्वारा ऑक्सीकृत हो जाता है, परन्तु नियंत्रित परिस्थितियों में नाइट्रीकरण कराने पर o- वp- के स्थान पर m-नाइट्रो व्युत्पन्न बनता है। अम्लीय माध्यम में – NH₂ समूह का प्रोटोनीकरण हो जाने के कारण बने —N⁺ H₃ समूह की इलेक्ट्रॉन आकर्षित करने की प्रवृत्ति बढ़ जाती है, जिससे ऐनिलीन o- वp-निर्देशक के स्थान पर m-निर्देशक की तरह कार्य करने लगता है ।

प्रश्न 20.
ऐनिलीन के नाइट्रीकरण से पूर्व उसका ऐसीटिलीकरण क्यों किया जाता है ? आवश्यक समीकरण भी दीजिए।

उत्तर
एनिलीन का सीधा नाइट्रीकरण सम्भव नहीं है, क्योंकि ऐनिलीन का ऐमीनो समूह नाइट्रिक अम्ल से ऑक्सीकृत हो जाता है । ऐनिलीन का नाइट्रीकरण करने के लिए पहले -NH, समूह को ऐसीटिलीकरण द्वारा सुरक्षित करते हैं। फिर नाइट्रीकरण करते हैं।

प्रश्न 21.
कैसे प्राप्त करेंगे केवल समीकरण लिखिए
(a) एथिल ऐमीन से मेथिल ऐमीन
(b) ऐनिलीन से फीनॉल
(c) मेथिल ऐमीन से एथिल ऐमीन ।
उत्तर

प्रश्न 22.
निम्न को समझाइए-
(a) ऐल्किल हैलाइड के अमोनी अपघटन से शुद्ध ऐमीन बनना कठिन है ।
(b) मेथिल ऐमीन जलं में FeCl, से क्रिया करके फेरिक हाइड्रॉक्साइड का अवक्षेप देता है ।
(c) AgCI मेथिल ऐमीन में विलेय है।
उत्तर
(a) ऐल्किल हैलाइड के अमोनीकरण से प्राथमिक, द्वितीयक एवं तृतीयक ऐमीनों का मिश्रण प्राप्त होता है।

इन ऐमीनों का पृथक्करण बहुत कठिन है, इस कारण ऐल्किल हैलाइड के अमोनी अपघटन से शुद्ध ऐमीन बनना कठिन है।

(b) मेथिल ऐमीन जल में OH^– आयन देता है, जो FeCl₃ से निम्न प्रकार क्रिया करके Fe(OH)₃ का अवक्षेप देता है।

(c) मेथिल ऐमीन AgCl के साथ एक विलेय संकुल बनाता है और इस प्रकार AgCl मेथिल ऐमीन में विलेय हो जाता है।

ऐमीन दीर्घ उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
नाइट्रोबेंजीन के अम्लीय, उदासीन एवं क्षारीय माध्यम में अपचयन अभिक्रिया लिखिये।
उत्तर
(a) अम्लीय माध्यम में अपचयन-नाइट्रोबेंजीन अम्लीय माध्यम में (Sn + HCI, Zn + HCI या SnCl₂+ HCI) अपचयित होकर ऐनिलीन बनाता है।

(b) उदासीन माध्यम में अपचयन-ऐल्युमिनियम मरकरी युग्म या जिंक रज तथा अमोनियम क्लोराइड के साथ अपचयित होकर फेनिल हाइड्रॉक्सिल ऐमीन बनाता है।

(c) क्षारीय माध्यम में अपचयन–
1. क्षारीय सोडियम आर्सेनाइट द्वारा अपचयन करने पर ऐजॉक्सीबेंजीन बनता है।

2. CH₃ OH में बने Zn रज व NaOHविलयन द्वारा अपचयन करने पर ऐजोबेंजीन बनता है।

3. जिंक रज व कॉस्टिक सोडा द्वारा अपचयन करने पर हाइड्रोऐजोबेंजीन बनता है ।
2C₆H₅NO₂+10[H] →C₆H₅NH-NH-C₆H₅+4H₂O

प्रश्न 2.
आप ऐनिलीन से निम्नलिखित कैसे प्राप्त करेंगे? केवल समीकरण दीजिए।
(a) फीनॉल
(b) मेथेन
(c) ट्राइब्रोमो ऐनिलीन
(d) फेनिल आइसोसायनाइड ।
उत्तर
(a) फीनॉल

(b) मेथेन

(c) ट्राइबोमो ऐनिलीन

(d) फेनिल आइसोसायनाइड-

प्रश्न 3.
एक कार्बनिक यौगिक
(A) जिसका अणुसूत्र C,HO,N है, अपचयन पर
(B) यौगिक देता है, जो HNO, से क्रिया करके यौगिक
(C) बनाता है । यौगिक (B) क्लोरोफॉर्म और ऐल्कोहॉलिक KOH के साथ दुर्गन्धयुक्त यौगिक
(D) बनाता है, जो अपचयन पर यौगिक
(E) ऐमीन बनाता है ।आप यौगिक (A), (B), (C), (D) तथा
(E) के क्या सूत्र निरूपित करेंगे ? क्रियाएँ समझाइये ।
उत्तर

प्रश्न 4.
निम्नलिखित को कैसे प्राप्त करेंगे”

1. ऐनिलीन से सल्फैनिलिक अम्ल
2. ऐनिलीन से p-ऐमीनो ऐजो बेंजीन

उत्तर

प्रश्न 5.
क्या होता है, जब
(a) अमोनियम ऐसीटेट की ऐलुमिना से 500°C पर क्रिया कराते हैं।
(b) मेथिल सायनाइड का क्षारीय जल-अपघटन कराते हैं।
(c) बेंजेमाइड की P₂O₂ से क्रिया कराते हैं।
(d) Ni की उपस्थिति में फेनिल आइसोसायनाइड पर H, गैस प्रवाहित करते हैं।
(e) मेथिल आइसोसायनाइड को 250°C पर गर्म करते हैं।
उत्तर

प्रश्न 6.

1. नाइट्रोऐल्केन से प्राथमिक ऐमीन कैसे प्राप्त करेंगे ? समीकरण दीजिए।
2. प्राथमिक ऐमीन से प्राथमिक ऐल्कोहॉल कैसे प्राप्त किया जाता है ? समीकरण दीजिए।
3. N-प्रोपिल ऐमीन और आइसोप्रोपिल ऐमीन में कौन-सा अधिक क्षारीय होगा?

उत्तर
1. नाइट्रोऐल्केन का LiAIH₄ द्वारा या Ni या Pt की उपस्थिति में H₂ द्वारा अपचयन करने से प्राथमिक ऐमीन बनते हैं।

2. प्राथमिक ऐलिफैटिक ऐमीन नाइट्रस अम्ल से अभिक्रिया करके प्राथमिक ऐल्कोहॉल बनाते हैं।
C₂H₅NH₂+ HONO→C₂H₅OH+N₂+H₂O

3. नॉर्मल प्रोपिल ऐमीन अधिक क्षारीय होगा।

प्रश्न 7.
निम्नलिखित को कैसे प्राप्त करेंगे (केवल समीकरण दीजिए)
(a) नाइट्रोएथेन से एथिल ऐमीन
(b) नाइट्रोऐथेन से N-एथिल हाइड्रॉक्सिल ऐमीन
(c) नाइट्रोमेथेन से क्लोरोपिक्रिन
(d) बेंजीन डाइऐजोनियम क्लोराइड से नाइट्रोबेंजीन
(e) नाइट्रोबेंजीन से ट्राइनाइट्रोबेंजीन (T.N.B.) ।
उत्तर

प्रश्न 8.
एथिल ऐमीन बनाने की प्रयोगशाला विधिका निम्न बिन्दुओं के आधार पर वर्णन कीजिए(a) विधि, (b) अभिक्रिया का समीकरण, (c) चित्र, (d) भौतिक गुण ।
उत्तर-
एथिल ऐमीन (Ethyl Amine), C,H,NH, बनाने की प्रयोगशाला विधि- प्रयोगशाला में एथिल ऐमीन हॉफमैन ब्रोमाइड अभिक्रिया द्वारा बनायी जाती है । इस अभिक्रिया में प्रोपिओनैमाइड की ब्रोमीन एवं कास्टिक पोटॉश विलयन से अभिक्रिया होती है । अभिक्रिया अग्र पदों में पूरी होती है
C₂H₅CONH₂ + Br₂ → C₂H₅CONHBr + HBr
KOH + HBr→KBr + H₂O
C₂H₅CONHBr +KOH →C₂H₅NCO+KBr + H₂O
C₂H₅NCO+2KOH→C₂H₅NH₂+K₂CO₃
C₂H₅CONH₂+ Br₂ +4KOH → C₂H₅NH₂+ 2KBr+K₂CO₃+2H₂O

विधि- गोल पेंदी के एक आसवन फ्लास्क में ब्रोमीन तथा प्रोपिओनैमाइड की तुल्य मात्राएँ लेकर उसमें 10% KOH विलयन तब तक डालते हैं जब तक की ब्रोमीन का लाल रंग लुप्त न हो जाए। इस विलयन में सान्द्र (50%) KOH विलयन अधिक मात्रा में डालते हैं और उसको जल-ऊष्मक पर ब्रोमो-प्रोपिओनैमाइड 57.67°C तक गर्म करते हैं । फ्लास्क का विलयन जब रंगहीन हो जाता है, तब एथिल ऐमीन आसंवित होने लगती है, जिसे तनु HCI पर अवशोषित कर लिया जाता है।

भौतिक गुण-यह रंगहीन, अमोनिया जैसी गंध वाला तनु  द्रव है, जो जल एवं कार्बनिक विलायकों में विलेय है । यह ‘ ज्वलनशील पदार्थ है। इसका क्वथनांक 19°C है।

प्रश्न 9.
प्रयोगशाला में ऐनिलीन बनाने की विधि का सचित्र वर्णन कीजिए।
उत्तर
ऐनिलीन, ऐमीनो बेंजीन अथवा फेनिल ऐमीन (C₆H₅NH₂) प्रयोगशाला में बनानाप्रयोग-शाला में ऐनिलीन नाइट्रोबेंजीन को टिन और हाइड्रोक्लोरिक अम्ल द्वारा उत्पन्न नवजात हाइड्रोजन से अपचयित कर प्राप्त किया जाता है।

विधि (Procedure)-एक गोल पेंदे के फ्लास्क में 30g नाइट्रोबेंजीन सान्द्र HCI (4 भाग) व 60 g जिंक लेकर उसमें 150 ml सान्द्र HCI वायु संघनित्र द्वारा डालते हैं
पश्चवाही संघनित्र ।थोड़ा-थोड़ा HCI डालकर हिलाते जाते हैं और फ्लास्क को नल से ठण्डा नाइट्रोबेंजीन (1 भाग) करते जाते हैं । समस्त अम्ल डालने के बाद उसे जल-ऊष्मक पर तब तक गर्म ! करते हैं, जब तक कि नाइट्रोबेंजीन की तेलीय बूंदें गायब न हो जायें । इस प्रक्रम Y -टिन (2 भाग) में बने हुए ऐनिलीन व SnCl₄, HCl की उपस्थिति में परस्पर संयुक्त | होकर लवण (C₆H₅ NH₃), SnCl₆ बना लेते हैं । इसे विघटित करने के + लिए इस मिश्रण में 40% कॉस्टिक सोडा विलयन धीरे-धीरे करके तब तक डालते हैं जब तक कि बना हुआ अवक्षेप पुनः घुल न जाय आर _योगाला में विलीन बनाना विलयन उदासीन न हो जाये

(C₂H₅NH₃)₂SnCl₆+8NaOH → 2C₆H₅NH₂+ 6NaCl + Na₂SnO₃ +5H₂O
इस मिश्रण के वाष्प-आवसन से एनिलीन प्राप्त हो जाती है।

प्रश्न 10.
प्राथमिक, द्वितीयक एवं तृतीयक ऐमीनों में किन्हीं पाँच बिंदुओं में विभेद कीजिये।
उत्तर

प्रश्न 11.
नाइट्रोबेंजीन बनाने की प्रयोगशाला विधि का समीकरण दीजिए एवं नाइट्रो-बेंजीन द्वारा होने वाली निम्नलिखित की रासायनिक अभिक्रिया दीजिए
(1) नाइट्रीकरण
(2) सल्फोनीकरण।
उत्तर
प्रयोगशाला में नाइट्रोबेंजीन बनाना-प्रयोगशाला में नाइट्रोबेंजीन सान्द्र नाइट्रिक अम्ल और सान्द्र सल्फ्यूरिक अम्ल के मिश्रण द्वारा 60°C से कम ताप पर बेंजीन का नाइट्रीकरण करने से बनता है।

नाइट्रोबेंजीन की निम्न के साथ क्रिया
1. नाइट्रीकरण- नाइट्रोबेंजीन को सधूम HNO₃ के साथ सान्द्र H₂SO₄ की उपस्थिति में गर्म करने पर m-डाइ नाइट्रोबेंजीन बनती है।

m-डाइ नाइट्रोबेंजीन का नाइट्रीकरण करने पर 1, 3, 5-ट्राइ नाइट्रोबेंजीन (T.N.B.) बनती है।

2. सल्फोनीकरण-नाइट्रोबेंजीन को सधूम H₂SO₄ के साथ गर्म करने पर m-नाइट्रोबेंजीन सल्फोनिक अम्ल बनता है।

प्रश्न 12.
C₄H₁₁N के संभव समावयवी लिखिए।
उत्तर
1. स्थान समावयवी
CH₃-CH₂-CH₂-CH₂-NH₂Butane-1 amine

2. श्रृंखला समावयवी

3. मध्यावयवी

प्रश्न 13.
C₃H₉N के संभव समावयवी लिखिए एवं समावयवता का प्रकार लिखिए।
उत्तर
1. क्रियात्मक समूह समावयवता-

2. स्थान समावयवता-

MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions

MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 8 d एवं f-ब्लॉक के तत्त्व

d एवं f-ब्लॉक के तत्त्व NCERT पाठ्यनिहित प्रश्नोत्तर

प्रश्न 1.
आद्य अवस्था में सिल्वर परमाणु में पूर्ण भरे d-कक्षक (4d¹⁰) होते हैं। इसे आप कैसे कह सकते हैं कि यह संक्रमण तत्व है?
उत्तर
सिल्वर +2 ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था रखता है। 4d-उपकक्ष में नौ इलेक्ट्रॉन होते हैं, जैसे 4dकक्षकों का एक कक्ष आंशिक भरा होता है। अतः इसे संक्रमण तत्व नहीं मान सकते।

प्रश्न 2.
श्रेणी Sc(Z = 21) से Zn(Z = 30) में, Zn की परमाणुकरण की एन्थैल्पी कम होती है, 126 kJmol^-1 क्यों?
उत्तर
जिंक में 3d-इलेक्ट्रॉन धात्विक बन्ध में भाग नहीं लेते क्योंकि d¹⁰ विन्यास होता है। दुर्बल धात्विक बंध के कारण जिंक की परमाणुकरण की एन्थैल्पी निम्न होती है।

प्रश्न 3.
संक्रमण धातुओं की 3d श्रेणी में किसकी अधिकतम संख्या में ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था होती है एवं क्यों ?
उत्तर
Mn(Z = 25) अधिक संख्या में ऑक्सीकरण अवस्थायें रखते हैं, क्योंकि इसमें अधिकतम संख्या में अयुग्मित इलेक्ट्रॉन होते हैं। अत: यह +2 से +7 तक ऑक्सीकरण अवस्थायें दर्शाता है।

प्रश्न 4.
E°(M²⁺/M) का मान कॉपर के लिए धनात्मक (+034V) है। इसका संभावित कारण क्या है ? (संकेत : इसकी उच्च Δ_aH^⊖ एवं निम्न Δ_hydH^⊖ मानने पर) –
उत्तर
किसी धातु की E° (M²⁺/M) पूर्ण परमाणुकरण की एन्थैल्पी, आयनन एन्थैल्पी एवं जलयोजन एन्थैल्पी पर निर्भर होती है। कॉपर की उच्च परमाणुकरण एन्थैल्पी एवं निम्न आयनन एन्थैल्पी होती है। अतः E° (Cu²⁺ /Cu) धनात्मक है।

प्रशन 5.
संक्रमण तत्वों की प्रथम श्रेणी में (प्रथम एवं द्वितीय) आयनन एन्थैल्पियों में अनियमित क्रमिकता को किस प्रकार देखते हो? ।
उत्तर
आयनन एन्थैल्पी में अनियमित क्रम (प्रथम एवं द्वितीय) का कारण मुख्यतः विभिन्न 3dविन्यासों के भिन्न स्थायित्व की मात्रा के कारण होता है। d⁰, d⁵ एवं d¹⁰ विन्यास अतिरिक्त स्थायित्व रखता है एवं ऐसे प्रकरणों में आयनन एन्थैल्पी के मान सामान्यत: उच्च होते हैं। उदाहरण, Cr के प्रथम आयनन एन्थैल्पी के नाम निम्न होते हैं, क्योंकि 4s- कक्षक से इलेक्ट्रॉन को निकाला जा सकता है, किन्तु द्वितीय आयनन एन्थैल्पी अति उच्च होती है, अत: Cr⁺ में स्थायी d⁵ विन्यास होता है। Zn की प्रथम आयनन एन्थैल्पी अति उच्च होती है, क्योंकि स्थायी विन्यास 3d¹⁰,4s² से इलेक्ट्रॉन हटाया जाता है।

प्रश्न 6.
धातु अपने उच्चतम ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था में केवल ऑक्साइड अथवा फ्लोराइड में रहते हैं, क्यों?
उत्तर
क्योंकि ऑक्सीजन एवं फ्लुओरीन का आकार छोटा एवं ऋण-विद्युतता उच्च होती है, इस प्रकार ये सरलता से धातु को उसकी उच्च ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था में ऑक्सीकृत करता है।

प्रश्न 7.
Cr²⁺ अथवा Fe²⁺ में से कौन-सा प्रबल अपचायक अभिकर्मक है एवं क्यों ?
उत्तर
Fe²⁺ से Cr²⁺ प्रबल अपचायक अभिकर्मक है। इसका कारण है कि Cr²⁺ का विन्यास d⁴ ‘से d³ एवं d³ विन्यास में परिवर्तित होता है, जो स्थायी t³_2(g)(138) अर्द्धपूर्ण t₂₎ स्तर है।

प्रश्न 8.
M²⁺_(aq) आयन (Z = 27) के लिए ‘चक्रण खेल’ चुम्बकीय आघूर्ण की गणना कीजिए।
उत्तर
M²⁺_(aq) आयन (Z = 27) का इलेक्ट्रॉनिक विन्यास है :

इस प्रकार तीन अयुग्मित इलेक्ट्रॉन हैं। ‘चक्रण केवल’ चुम्बकीय आघूर्ण

प्रश्न 9.
Cu⁺ आयन जलीय विलयनों में क्यों स्थायी नहीं हैं, समझाइये?
उत्तर
Cu⁺_(aq) जलीय विलयन में स्थायी नहीं है, क्योंकि इसकी Cu⁺_(aq) की तुलना में निम्न ऋणात्मक जलयोजन एन्थैल्पी है।

प्रश्न 10.
लैन्थेनॉइड संकुचन की तुलना में तत्वों से तत्वों में एक्टीनॉइड संकुचन अधिक है, क्यों ?
उत्तर
लैन्थेनॉयड के 4f इलेक्ट्रॉनों की तुलना में एक्टीनॉयड्स में 5f इलेक्ट्रॉनों का कमजोर परिरक्षण प्रभाव के कारण होता है।

d एवं f-ब्लॉक के तत्त्व NCERT पाठ्य-पुस्तक प्रश्नोत्तर

प्रश्न 1.
इलेक्ट्रॉनिक विन्यास लिखिए –
(i) Cr³⁺
(ii) Cu⁺
(i) CO²⁺
(iv) Mn²⁺
(v) Pm³⁺
(vi) Ce⁴⁺
(vii) Lu²⁺
(viii) Th⁴⁺
उत्तर
(i) Cr⁺³ : [Ar]3d³
(ii) Cu⁺¹ : [Ar]3d¹⁰
(iii) CO⁺² : [Ar]3d⁷
(iv) Mn⁺² : [Ar]3d⁵
(v) Pm⁺³ : [Xe]4f⁴
(vi) Ce⁺⁴ : [Xe]⁵⁴ .
(vii) Lu⁺² : [Xe]4 f¹⁴5d¹
(vii) Th⁺⁴: [Rn].

प्रश्न 2.
+3 अवस्था में Mn⁺² यौगिक Fe⁺² से ऑक्सीकरण में अधिक स्थायी है, क्यों?
उत्तर
Mn⁺² का स्थायी इलेक्ट्रॉनिक विन्यास [Ar]4s⁰,3d⁵ होता हैं एवं यह सरलता से Mn⁺³ में परिवर्तित नहीं होता, Fe⁺²[Ar] 4s⁰,3d⁶ ऑक्सीकरण पर Fe⁺³[Ar] 4s⁰,3d⁵ बनाता है जो अधिक स्थायी विन्यास है।

प्रश्न 3.
परमाणु क्रमांक में वृद्धि से संक्रमण तत्वों के प्रथम श्रेणी के पहले आधे की +2 अवस्था अधिक एवं अधिक स्थायी होती हैं, विस्तृत विवेचना कीजिए।
उत्तर
स्कैण्डियम (जो +3 ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था दर्शाता है) को छोड़कर, प्रथम श्रेणी के सभी संक्रमण तत्व +2 ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था दर्शाते हैं । यह 4s के दो इलेक्ट्रॉनों के त्यागने के कारण होता है। प्रथम चरण में, जब हम Ti⁺² से Mn⁺² की तरफ चलते हैं, तो इलेक्ट्रॉनिक विन्यास 3d² से 3d⁵ में परिवर्तित होता है, जिसका अर्थ है अधिक-से-अधिक d-कक्षकों का अर्द्धपूर्ण भरना है, जो +2 अवस्था को अधिक स्थायित्व प्रदान करते हैं।

प्रश्न 4.
संक्रमण तत्वों की प्रथम श्रेणी में ऑक्सीकरण अवस्थाओं के स्थायित्व का निर्धारण इलेक्ट्रॉनिक विन्यासों से कितना किया जा सकता है ? अपने उत्तर को उदाहरण सहित समझाइए।
उत्तर
संक्रमण श्रेणी में, ऑक्सीकरण अवस्थायें अर्द्धपूर्ण अथवा पूर्ण भरे हुए d-कक्षक अधिक स्थायी है। उदाहरण के लिए, Fe(Z = 26) का इलेक्ट्रॉनिक विन्यास [Ar]3d⁶4s² है। यह दर्शाता है कि विभिन्न ऑक्सीकरण अवस्थाओं में Fe(III) अधिक स्थायी है, क्योंकि यह विन्यास [Ar]3d⁵ रखता है।

प्रश्न 5.
संक्रमण तत्व के स्थायी ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था, आद्य अवस्था में इनके परमाणुओं के d इलेक्ट्रॉन विन्यासों : 3d³,3d⁵,3d⁸ एवं 3d⁴ में से क्या होगी? ।
उत्तर


3d⁴ आद्य अवस्था में कोई d⁴ विन्यास नहीं होता।

प्रश्न 6.
प्रथम श्रेणी के संक्रमण धातुओं के ऑक्सो धातु ऋणायनों के नाम बताइये, जिसमें धातु की ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था समूह संख्या के बराबर होती है।
उत्तर
CrO^2-₇ एवं CrO^2-₄ (समूह संख्या = Cr की ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था = 6) MnO^–₄ (समूह संख्या = Mn की ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था = 7)

प्रश्न 7.
लैन्थेनॉयड संकुचन क्या है ? लैन्थेनॉयड संकुचन के प्रभाव क्या होंगे?
उत्तर
लैन्थेनाइड संकुचन-लैन्थेनाइडों के परमाणु क्रमांक बढ़ने के साथ-साथ उनके परमाणुओं एवं आयनों के आकार में कमी होती है, इसे लैन्थेनाइड संकुचन कहते हैं।।
कारण-लैन्थेनाइडों में आने वाला नया इलेक्ट्रॉन बाह्यतम कक्ष में न जाकर (n-2)f- उपकोश में प्रवेश करता है, फलतः इलेक्ट्रॉन और नाभिक के मध्य आकर्षण बल में वृद्धि होती है, जिससे परमाणु अथवा आयन संकुचित हो जाता है।

लैन्थेनाइड संकुचन का प्रभाव :
(i) लैन्थेनाइडों के गुणों में परिवर्तन-लैन्थेनाइड संकुचन के कारण इनके रासायनिक गुणों में बहुत कम परिवर्तन होता है। अतः इन्हें शुद्ध अवस्था में प्राप्त करना अत्यन्त कठिन होता है।
(ii) अन्य तत्वों के गुणों पर प्रभाव-लैन्थेनाइड संकुचन का लैन्थेनाइडों से पूर्व आने वाले तथा इनके बाद आने वाले तत्वों के आपेक्षिक गुणों पर बहुत महत्वपूर्ण प्रभाव पड़ता है। उदाहरण के लिए, Ti और Zr के गुणों में भिन्नता होती है, जबकि Zr और Hf गुणों में काफी समानता रखते हैं।

प्रश्न 8.
संक्रमण तत्वों के अभिलक्षण क्या हैं एवं इन्हें संक्रमण तत्व क्यों कहते हैं ? कौन से dब्लॉक तत्वों को संक्रमण तत्व नहीं माना जा सकता?
उत्तर
संक्रमण तत्व वे तत्व हैं जिसके अणुओं में (स्थायी ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था में) आंशिक रूप से पूर्ण d-ऑर्बिटल विद्यमान होते हैं। इन तत्वों को d-ब्लॉक के तत्व भी कहते हैं, ये 5-ब्लॉक तथा p-ब्लॉक के तत्वों के गुणों में संक्रमण प्रदर्शित करते हैं। इसलिए इन्हें संक्रमण तत्व कहा जाता है। Zn, Cd एवं Hg जैसे तत्वों को संक्रमण तत्वों की श्रेणी में नहीं रखा जा सकता क्योंकि इनमें पूर्ण पूरित d-उपकक्षक पाये जाते हैं।

प्रश्न 9.
नॉन-संक्रमण तत्वों से संक्रमण तत्वों के इलेक्ट्रॉनिक विन्यास किस प्रकार भिन्न हैं ?
उत्तर
संक्रमण तत्वों में d-कक्षकों को भरते हैं, जबकि प्रतिनिधि तत्वों में 5-एवं p-कक्षकों को भरते हैं। संक्रमण तत्वों के सामान्य इलेक्ट्रॉनिक विन्यास (n-1)d^1-10ns^1-2 है, जबकि प्रतिनिधि तत्वों का सामान्य इलेक्ट्रॉनिक विन्यास ns^1-2 अथवा ns²np^1-6 होता है। प्रतिनिधि तत्वों में केवल अंतिम कक्ष अपूर्ण होता है जबकि संक्रमण तत्वों में उपात्य कक्ष अपूर्ण होता है।

प्रश्न 10.
लैन्थेनॉयड्स कौन-सी विभिन्न ऑक्सीकरण अवस्थायें रखते हैं ?
उत्तर
लैन्थेनॉयड्स का मुख्य ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था + 3 है। इसके अतिरिक्त ये + 2 एवं + 4 ऑक्सीकरण अवस्थायें रखते हैं।

प्रश्न 11.
कारण सहित समझाइए-
(i) संक्रमण धातुओं एवं इनके अनेक यौगिक अनुचुम्बकीय व्यवहार दर्शाते हैं।
(ii) संक्रमण धातुओं के परमाण्वीयकरण की एन्थैल्पी उच्च होती है।
(iii) संक्रमण धातुएँ सामान्यतः रंगीन यौगिक बनाते हैं।
(iv) संक्रमण धातुएँ एवं इसके अनेक यौगिक अच्छे उत्प्रेरक होते हैं।
उत्तर
(i) जब किसी यौगिक को चुम्बकीय क्षेत्र में रखा जाता है तो यौगिक के भीतर का चुम्बकत्व बाहरी चुम्बकीय क्षेत्र से प्रभावित होता है। यदि भीतर का चुम्बकत्व बाहरी चुम्बकीय क्षेत्र का साथ देता है तो उसे अनुचुम्बकीय गुण कहते हैं। यदि यौगिक में अयुग्मित इलेक्ट्रॉन हो तो अनुचुम्बकत्व प्रबल हो जाता है अर्थात् किसी यौगिक के अनुचुम्बकत्व की मात्रा उसमें उपस्थित अयुग्मित इलेक्ट्रॉनों पर निर्भर होती है। संक्रमण तत्वों में अयुग्मित इलेक्ट्रॉन होते हैं, अतः वे अनुचुम्बकीय होते हैं। .

(ii) संक्रमण धातुओं में उच्च प्रभावी न्यूक्लियर आवेश तथा संयोजी इलेक्ट्रॉनों की अधिक संख्या होती है इसलिए ये बहुत मजबूत धात्विक बंध बनाते हैं। परिणामस्वरूप संक्रमण धातुओं के परमाण्विकरण की एन्थैल्पी उच्च होती है।

(iii) संक्रमण धातु आयनों का रंग अपूर्ण रूप से भरे हुए (n-1)d कक्षकों के कारण होता है। संक्रमण धातु आयनों में जिनमें अयुग्मित d-इलेक्ट्रॉन हैं, इस इलेक्ट्रॉन का एक d-कक्षक से दूसरे d-कक्षक में संक्रमण होता है। इस संक्रमण के समय वे दृश्य प्रकाश के कुछ विकिरणों का अवशोषण करते हैं तथा शेष विकिरणों को रंगीन प्रकाश के रूप में उत्सर्जित कर देते हैं। अत: आयन का रंग उसके द्वारा अवशोषित रंग का पूरक (Complementary) होता है। उदाहरणार्थ, [Cu(H₂O)₆]⁺² आयन नीला दिखता है, क्योंकि यह दृश्य प्रकाश के लाल रंग को इलेक्ट्रॉन के उत्तेजना के लिए अवशोषित करता है तथा उसके पूरक (नीले) रंग को उत्सर्जित कर देता है।

कुछ आयनों के रंग –
Cr⁴⁺ नीला : Cr³⁺ बैंगनी
Mn²⁺ बैंगनी : Mn³⁺ गुलाबी
Fe²⁺ हरा : Fe³⁺ पीला

(iv) संक्रमण तत्व परिवर्ती संयोजकता प्रदर्शित करते हैं, क्योंकि (n-1)d-कक्षक तथा ns-कक्षक के इलेक्ट्रॉनों की ऊर्जा में बहुत अधिक अन्तर नहीं होता है, जिससे d-कक्षक के इलेक्ट्रॉन भी संयोजी इलेक्ट्रॉन का कार्य करते हैं। इन तत्वों में Mn अधिकतम परिवर्ती संयोजकता प्रदर्शित करता है।

प्रश्न 12.
अन्तराकाशी यौगिक क्या है ? संक्रमण धातुओं के ऐसे यौगिक क्यों ज्ञात हैं ?
उत्तर
अधिकांश संक्रमण तत्व उच्च ताप पर अधात्विक तत्वों के परमाणुओं जैसे-H, B,C, Ni, Si आदि के साथ अन्तराकाशी यौगिक बनाते हैं। संक्रमण धातु के क्रिस्टल जालक के अन्तराकाशी रिक्तियों में ये अधात्विक तत्वों के छोटे परमाणु ठीक-ठीक फिट हो जाते हैं। ये अन्तराकाशी यौगिक कहलाते हैं।

प्रश्न 13.
नॉन-संक्रमण धातुओं से संक्रमण धातुओं की परिवर्ती ऑक्सीकरण अवस्थायें भिन्न कैसे होती हैं ? उदाहरण देकर समझाइए।
उत्तर
संक्रमण तत्वों में उत्तरोत्तर ऑक्सीकरण अवस्थाओं में इकाई का अन्तर आता है। उदाहरण के लिए, Mn सभी ऑक्सीकरण अवस्थायें +2 से +7 दर्शाता है। जबकि नॉन-संक्रमण धातुएँ परिवर्ती ऑक्सीकरण अवस्थाएँ रखती हैं, जिनमें दो इकाई का अन्तर होता है, उदाहरण के लिए Pb(II), Pb(IV), Sn(II), Sn(IV).

प्रश्न 14.
आयरन क्रोमाइट अयस्क से पोटैशियम डाइक्रोमेट के बनाने की विधि का वर्णन कीजिए। पोटैशियम डाइक्रोमेट विलयन की pH बढ़ाने पर क्या प्रभाव होगा?
उत्तर
बनाने की विधि-

बनाने की विधि-K₂Cr₂O₇ को क्रोमाइट अयस्क (Fe₂Cr₂O₄) या क्रोम आयरन (FeO.Cr₂0₃) से बनाया जाता है, जो निम्नलिखित पदों में होते हैं।

(1) क्रोमाइट अयस्क का सोडियम क्रोमेट में परिवर्तन-क्रोमाइट अयस्क को NaOH या Na₂CO₃ के साथ वायु की उपस्थिति में एक परावर्तनी भट्टी में गर्म करने पर सोडियम क्रोमेट (पीला रंग) बनता है।

पदार्थ को छिद्रमय रखने हेतु कुछ मात्रा में शुष्क चूने को मिलाते हैं । जल के साथ निष्कर्षण करने पर Na₂Cr₂O₃ विलयन में चला जाता है। जबकि Fe₂O₃ रह जाता है जिसे छानकर पृथक् कर लेते हैं।

(2) सोडियम क्रोमेट (Na₂CrO₄) का सोडियम डाइक्रोमेट (Na₂Cr₂O₇) में परिवर्तन-सोडियम क्रोमेट विलयन सान्द्र H₂SO₄ के साथ अपचयित करके सोडियम डाइक्रोमेट बनाते हैं।

2Na₂CrO₄ कम विलेय होता है जिसका वाष्पन करने पर Na₂SO₄10H₂O के रूप में क्रिस्टलीकृत हो जाता है जिसे पृथक् कर लिया जाता है।

(3) Na₂Cr₂O₇ का K₂Cr₂O₇ में परिवर्तन-सोडियम डाइक्रोमेट के जलीय विलयन का उपचार KCI के साथ किये जाने पर पोटैशियम डाइ क्रोमेट प्राप्त होता है। K₂Cr₂O₇ के अल्प विलेय प्रकृति के कारण इसके क्रिस्टल ठण्डे में प्राप्त किये जाते हैं।

K₂Cr₂O₇ की निम्न के साथ होने वाली रासायनिक अभिक्रिया –

(1) अम्लीय फेरस सल्फेट के साथ-K₂Cr₂0₇ अम्लीय माध्यम में यह फेरस सल्फेट को फेरिक सल्फेट में ऑक्सीकृत कर देता है। K₂Cr₂O₇ पहले H₂SO₄ से क्रिया करके नवजात ऑक्सीजन का तीन परमाणु देता है जो Fe²⁺ को Fe³⁺ आयन में ऑक्सीकृत कर देता है।

pH बढ़ाने पर प्रभाव-पोटैशियम क्लोराइड सोडियम क्लोराइड से कम विलेयशील होता है। ये ऑरेंज क्रिस्टल के रूप में प्राप्त होते है तथा इन्हें फिल्ट्रेशन से हटाया जा सकता है। pH 4 पर डाइक्रोमेट आयन (CrO₇^2-) क्रोमेट आयन CrO₄ ^2-के रूप में उपस्थित होते हैं । ये pH के मान में परिवर्तन के अनुसार एक-दूसरे में परिवर्तनशील होते हैं।

प्रश्न 15.
पोटैशियम डाइक्रोमेट की ऑक्सीकरण क्रियायें समझाइये एवं इनकी निम्न के साथ आयनिक अभिक्रियायें लिखिए
(i) आयोडाइड, (ii) आयरन (II) विलयन एवं (ii) H₂S.
उत्तर
दीर्घ उत्तरीय प्रश्न 2 (K₂Cr₂O₇ की निम्न के साथ होने वाली रासायनिक अभिक्रिया) देखें।

प्रश्न 16.
पोटैशियम परमैंगनेट के बनाने की विधि का वर्णन कीजिए।अम्लीकृत परमैंगनेट विलयन निम्न से कैसे क्रिया करता है
(i) आयरन (II) आयनों से, (ii) SO₂ एवं (ii) ऑक्सेलिक अम्ल ? अभिक्रियाओं की आयनिक समीकरणों को लिखिए।
उत्तर
KMnO₄, पायरोलुसाइट से बनाया जा सकता है, अयस्क को KOH के साथ वायुमण्डलीय ऑक्सीजन या ऑक्सीकृत एजेन्ट जैसे- KNO₃ या KClO₄ की उपस्थिति में क्रिया कराकर K₂MnO₄ प्राप्त किया जाता है।

प्राप्त 2K₂MnO₄ (ग्रीन) को जल द्वारा छाना जा सकता है। फिर विद्युत्-अपघटन या क्लोरीन/ओजोन को विलयन मे प्रवाहित कर ऑक्सीकृत किया जाता है।

विद्युत्-अपघटनी ऑक्सीकरण –
2K₂MnO₄ ⇌ 2K⁺ + MnO₄^2-
H₂O → H⁺ + OH^–
एनोड में मैंग्नेट आयन, पर मैंग्नेट आयन में ऑक्सीकृत होता है।
MnO₄^2- → MnO₄^– + e ^–

क्लोरीन द्वारा ऑक्सीकरण –
2K₂MnO₄ + Cl₂ → 2KMnO₄ + 2KCl
2MnO₄^2- + Cl₂ → 2MnO^–₄ + 2Cl^–

ओजोन द्वारा ऑक्सीकरण –
2K₂MnO₄ + O₃ + H₄O → 2KMnO₄ + 2KOH + O₂↑
2MnO₄^2- + O₃ +H₂O → 2MnO₄^2- + 2OH^– + O₂
अम्लीकृत KMnO₄ विलयन Fe(II) आयन को Fe(III) आयन में ऑक्सीकृत करना है अर्थात् फेरस आयन से फेरिक आयन

अम्लीकृत पोटैशियम परमैंग्नेट SO₂ को H₂SO₄ में ऑक्सीकृत करता है।

अम्लीकृत पोटैशियम परमैंग्नेट ऑक्सेलिक अम्ल को कार्बन डाइ-ऑक्साइड में ऑक्सीकृत करता है।

प्रश्न 17.
M2²⁺M एवं M³⁺/M²⁺ तंत्रों के लिए कुछ धातुओं के E° मान निम्न है –

उपर्युक्त आँकड़ों का उपयोग कर निम्न पर टिप्पणी कीजिए –
(i) Cr³⁺ अथवा Mn³⁺ की तुलना में Fe³⁺ का अम्लीय विलयन में स्थायित्व एवं
(ii) वो कौन-सी स्थितियाँ हैं, जहाँ आयरन, समान विधियों में क्रोमियम अथवा मैंगनीज धातु की तुलना में ऑक्सीकृत होता है।
उत्तर
(i) जैसे- \(\mathrm{E}_{\mathrm{Cr}}^{\circ} / \mathrm{Cr}^{+2}\) ऋणात्मक (-04V) है, जिसका अर्थ है cr⁺³ आयन विलयन में सरलता से Cr⁺² में अपचयित नहीं होता, अत: Cr⁺³ आयन अधिक स्थायी है। इसी प्रकार \(\mathrm{E}^{\circ}_{\mathrm{Mn}^{+} 3} / \mathrm{Mn}^{+2}\) धनात्मक (+1:5V) है, Mn⁺³ आयन सरलता से Mn⁺² आयन में Fe⁺³ आयन की तुलना में अपचयित होता है अत: इन आयनों की आपेक्षिक स्थायित्व निम्न है –

(ii) दिए गए जोड़ों का ऑक्सीकरण विभव +09V, +1-2V एवं 0-4V है। अत: इनके ऑक्सीकरण का क्रम निम्न है –

Mn>Cr>Fe

प्रश्न 18.
पहचानिए, निम्न में कौन जलीय विलयन में रंग देते हैं? Ti³⁺,V³⁺, Cu⁺,Sc³⁺,Mn²⁺, Fe³⁺ एवं CO²⁺ प्रत्येक का कारण दीजिए।
उत्तर
ऐसे आयन जिनमें एक या अधिक अयुग्मित इलेक्ट्रॉन होते हैं, जलीय विलयन में d – d संक्रमण के कारण रंगीन होते हैं।

प्रश्न 19.
प्रथम संक्रमण श्रेणी के तत्वों की +2 ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था को स्थायित्व की तुलना कीजिए।
उत्तर
Mn एवं Zn को छोड़कर + 2 अवस्था का स्थायित्व बायें से दायें चलने पर घटता है। मानव अपचयन विभव के ऋणात्मक मान के घटने के कारण दाँयी तरफ स्थायित्व घटता है। कुल ∆₁H₁ + ∆₁H₂ (प्रथम एवं द्वितीय आयनन एन्थैल्पी में वृद्धि के कारण E° के ऋणात्मक मान कम होते हैं।)

प्रश्न 20.
निम्न को ध्यान में रखकर एक्टीनॉयड्स के रसायन की तुलना लैन्थेनॉयड्स के साथ कीजिए
(i) इलेक्ट्रॉनिक विन्यास
(ii) परमाणु एवं आयनिक आकार एवं
(iii) ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था
(iv) रासायनिक क्रियाशीलता।
उत्तर
लैंथेनाइडों एवं एक्टिनाइडों के मध्य भिन्नताएँ

प्रश्न 21.
निम्न से क्या समझते हो –
(i) d⁴ श्रेणी में, Cr²⁺ प्रबल अपचायक है जबकि मैंगनीज (III) प्रबल ऑक्सीकारक है।
(ii) कोबाल्ट (II) जलीय विलयन में स्थायी है, जबकि जटिल अभिकर्मकों की उपस्थिति में यह आसानी से ऑक्सीकृत हो जाता है।
(iii) आयनों में d विन्यास अत्यधिक अस्थायी है।
उत्तर
(i) Cr²⁺ अपचायक प्रकृति का है, इसका विन्यास d⁴ से d³ (अर्द्धपूर्ण t.कक्षकों का स्थायी विन्यास) परिवर्तन होता है। अन्य शब्दों में Mn³⁺ ऑक्सीकारक प्रकृति का है, जिसका विन्यास d⁴ से d⁵ (अर्द्धपूर्ण t_2g से 2_g कक्षकों के स्थायी विन्यास) में परिवर्तन होता है।
(ii) प्रबल लिगेण्ड कोबाल्ट (II) को बल द्वारा 3d- उपकक्ष से एक अथवा अधिक इलेक्ट्रॉन को हटाता है, जिससे d²sp³ संकरण होता है।
(iii) d¹-विन्यास वाला आयन प्रयास करता है कि d-उपकक्ष से एक इलेक्ट्रॉन निकालकर स्थायी अकिय गैस विन्यास प्राप्त कर लेवें।।

प्रश्न 22.
विषमसमानुपाती से क्या तात्पर्य है ? जलीय विलयन में विषमसमानुपाती अभिक्रिया के दो उदाहरण दीजिए।
उत्तर
विषमसमानुपाती अभिक्रियायें वे होती हैं, जिनमें समान पदार्थ ऑक्सीकृत एवं अपचयित होता है। उदाहरण के लिए –

प्रश्न 23.
संक्रमण धातुओं की प्रथम श्रेणी की कौन-सी धातु सामान्य +1 ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था रखते हैं एवं क्यों ?
उत्तर
कॉपर का इलेक्ट्रॉनिक विन्यास [Ar]3d¹⁰4s¹ है। जो एक इलेक्ट्रॉन (4s¹) सरलता से त्याग कर स्थायी विन्यास 3d¹⁰ देता है।

प्रश्न 24.
निम्न गैसीय आयनों में अयुग्मित इलेक्ट्रॉनों की गणना कीजिए- Mn³⁺, Cr³⁺,v³⁺ एवं Ti³⁺ इनमें से कोई एक जलीय विलयन में अधिक स्थायी है ?
उत्तर

Cr²⁺ अत्यधिक स्थायी है, इसमें अर्द्धपूर्ण t_2gस्तर होते हैं।

प्रश्न 25.
संक्रमण धातु रसायन के निम्न के उदाहरण एवं कारणों को दीजिए –
(i) संक्रमण धातु के निम्न ऑक्साइड क्षारीय हैं, उच्च उभयधर्मी/अम्लीय हैं।
(ii) संक्रमण धातु ऑक्साइडों एवं फ्लुओराइडों में उच्च ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था रखते हैं।
(iii) धातु ऑक्सो ऋणायनों में उच्च ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था होती है।
उत्तर
(i) संक्रमण तत्व के निम्न ऑक्साइड क्षारीय होते हैं, क्योंकि धातु परमाणुओं की निम्न

धातु की निम्न ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था में, धातु परमाणु के कुछ संयोजी इलेक्ट्रॉन बन्धन में भाग नहीं लेते। अत: ये इलेक्ट्रॉन को दानकर क्षार की भाँति व्यवहार करते हैं। उच्च ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था में, संयोजी इलेक्ट्रॉन बन्धन में भाग लेते हैं एवं जो उपलब्ध नहीं होते। इसके अतिरिक्त प्रभावी नाभिकीय आवेश अधिक होने पर यह इलेक्ट्रॉन स्वीकार करता है एवं अम्ल की भाँति व्यवहार दर्शाते हैं।

(ii) संक्रमण धातु ऑक्साइडों एवं फ्लुओराइडों में उच्च ऑक्सीकरण अवस्थायें रखते हैं, क्योंकि ऑक्सीजन एवं फ्लुओरीन का आकार छोटा एवं उच्च ऋणविद्युतता है एवं ये धातुओं को सरलता से ऑक्सीकृत करते हैं। उदाहरण के लिए- O₅F₆ [O₅(VI)],V₂O₅ [v(v)] .

(iii) धातुओं के ऑक्सो ऋणायन उच्च ऑक्सीकरण अवस्थायें रखते हैं। उदाहरण के लिए, Cr₂O₇^2- में Cr की ऑक्सी-करण अवस्था + 6 है, जबकि MnO₄^– में Mn की ऑक्सी-करण अवस्था +7 है। क्योंकि ऑक्सीजन की उच्च ऋणविद्युतता एवं उच्च ऑक्सीकारक गुण है।

प्रश्न 26.
बनाने के पदों को दर्शाइये –
(i) क्रोमाइट अयस्क से K₂Cr₂O₇
(ii) पायरोलुसाइट अयस्क से KMnO₄.
उत्तर
दीर्घ उत्तरीय प्रश्न क्र. 2 एवं 4 देखें।

प्रश्न 27.
मिश्रधातुएँ क्या हैं ? प्रमुख मिश्रधातु के नाम लिखते हुए उसके उपयोग लिखिए, जिनमें कुछ लैन्थेनॉयड्स धातुएँ होती हैं।
उत्तर
दो अथवा अधिक धातुओं अथवा धातुओं एवं अधातुओं के समांगी मिश्रण मिश्रधातु है । प्रमुख मिश्रधातु जिसमें लैन्थेनॉयड होता है, मिश्रधातु है, जिसमें 95% लैन्थेनॉयड धातुएँ एवं 5% आयरन के साथ थोड़ी मात्रा में S, C, Ca एवं Al होते हैं । इसका उपयोग Mg-आधारित मिश्रधातु में करते हैं। जो गोली के आवरण एवं लाइटर में उपयोग होती है।

प्रश्न 28.
अन्तर संक्रमण तत्व क्या हैं ? दिए गए निम्न परमाणु संख्याओं में से अन्तर संक्रमण तत्वों की परमाणु संख्याओं का निर्धारण कीजिए- 29,59, 74, 95, 102, 104.
उत्तर
f-ब्लॉक तत्वों में, अन्तिम इलेक्ट्रॉन अन्तर उपात्यकक्ष – उपकक्ष में प्रवेश करते हैं, अतः इन्हें अन्तर संक्रमण तत्व कहते हैं। इनमें लैन्थेनॉयड्स (58-71) एवं एक्टीनॉयड्स (90-103) होते हैं । अतः परमाणु क्रमांक 59, 95 एवं 102 वाले तत्व अन्तर संक्रमण तत्व हैं।

प्रश्न 29.
लैन्थेनॉयड्स की तुलना में एक्टीनॉयड्स तत्वों का रसायन अधिक सरल नहीं है। इस वाक्य को इन तत्वों की ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था के कुछ उदाहरणों द्वारा न्यायोचित सिद्ध कीजिए।
उतर
लैन्थेनॉयड्स निश्चित संख्या में ऑक्सीकरण अवस्थायें दर्शाते हैं, जैसे +2, +3 एवं +4 (+3 मुख्य ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था है)। क्योंकि 5d एवं 4f उपकक्षों के मध्य अधिक ऊर्जा अन्तर होता है। एक्टीनॉयड्स भी प्रमुख ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था +3 दर्शाते हैं, किन्तु अन्य ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था भी दर्शाते हैं । उदाहरण के लिए, यूरेनियम (Z= 92) +3, +4, +5, +6 ऑक्सीकरण अवस्थायें रखता है, एवं नेप्चूनियम (Z= 94) +3, +4, +5, +6 एवं +7 ऑक्सीकरण अवस्थायें दर्शाता है। क्योंकि 4f एवं 6d कक्षकों के मध्य ऊर्जा अन्तर कम होता है।

प्रश्न 30.
एक्टीनॉयड्स श्रेणी का अंतिम तत्व कौन-सा है ? इस तत्व का इलेक्ट्रॉनिक विन्यास लिखिए। इस तत्व की संभावित ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था पर टिप्पणी कीजिए।
उत्तर
एक्टीनॉयड श्रेणी का अंतिम तत्व= लॉरेन्सियम (Z = 103)
इलेक्ट्रॉनिक विन्यास = [Rn]5f¹⁴6d¹7s²
संभावित ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था = +3

प्रश्न 31.
हुण्ड नियम का उपयोग करते हुए Ce* आयन का इलेक्ट्रॉनिक विन्यास लिखिए एवं ‘चक्रण केवल’ सूत्र के आधार पर इसके चुम्बकीय आघूर्ण की गणना कीजिए।
उत्तर
सीरियम का इलेक्ट्रॉनिक विन्यास = [Xe] 4f¹5d¹6s²
Ce³⁺ 344 = [Xe]4f¹
जिसका अर्थ है कि एक अयुग्मित इलेक्ट्रॉन उपस्थित है।

प्रश्न 32.
लैन्थेनॉयड श्रेणी के उन सदस्यों के नाम दीजिए, जो +4 ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था में एवं +2 ऑक्सीकरण अवस्थायें रखते हैं। इस प्रकार के व्यवहार को इन तत्वों के इलेक्ट्रॉनिक विन्यासों से संबंध स्थापित कीजिए।
उत्तर
+4= ₅₈Ce, ₅₉Pr, ₆₀Nd, ₆₅Tb, ₆₆Dy
+2 = ₆₀Nd, ₆₂Sm, ₆₃Eu, ₆₉Tm, ₇₀Yb
+4 ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था दर्शाती है, जब विन्यास बाँयी तरफ के समीप 4f° (अर्थात् 4f⁰4f¹4f²) अथवा 4f⁷ के समीप (अर्थात् 4f⁷ अथवा 4f⁸) होता है।
+2 ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था दर्शाती है, जब विन्यास 5d⁰ 6s² है तथा दो इलेक्ट्रॉन सरलता से त्याग देता है।

प्रश्न 33.
निम्न के सापेक्ष एक्टीनॉयड्स एवं लैन्थेनॉयड्स के रसायन की तुलना कीजिए –
(i) इलेक्ट्रॉनिक विन्यास
(ii) ऑक्सीकरण अवस्थाएँ
(iii) आयनन एन्थैल्पी एवं
(iv) परमाण्विक आकार।
उत्तर
लैंथेनाइडों एवं एक्टिनाइडों के मध्य भिन्नताएँ

प्रश्न 34.
परमाणु क्रमांक 61,91, 101 एवं 109 वाले तत्वों के इलेक्ट्रॉनिक विन्यास लिखिए।
(i) z = 61: [Xe]4f⁵f5⁰6s²
(ii) Z = 91: [Rn]5f²6d¹7s²
(iii) Z = 101: [Rn]5f¹³6d⁰7s²
(iv) Z = 109: [Rn]5f¹⁴6d⁷s²

प्रश्न 35.
ऊर्ध्वाधर कॉलम के सापेक्ष प्रथम संक्रमण धातुओं की श्रेणी के सामान्य गुणों की तुलना द्वितीय एवं तृतीय श्रेणी के धातुओं से कीजिए। निम्न बिन्दुओं को विशिष्टता प्रदान कीजिए –
(i) इलेक्ट्रॉनिक विन्यास,
(ii) ऑक्सीकरण अवस्थायें
(iii) आयनन एन्थैल्पी एवं
(iv) परमाण्विक आकार।
उत्तर
प्रथम संक्रमण धातुओं की श्रेणी के सामान्य गुणों की तुलना –

प्रश्न 36.
निम्न आयनों में प्रत्येक के 3d इलेक्ट्रॉनों की संख्या लिखिए –
Ti²⁺,v²⁺, Cr³⁺,Mn²⁺, Fe²⁺, Fe^3+,Co²⁺,Ni²⁺ एवं Cu²⁺ दर्शाइये कि पाँच 31 कक्षकों को इन हाइड्रेट आयनों (अष्टफलकीय) द्वारा भरा जा सकता है।
उत्तर

प्रश्न 37.
इस वाक्य पर टिप्पणी कीजिए कि प्रथम संक्रमण श्रेणी के तत्वों में अनेक गुण भारी संक्रमण तत्वों से भिन्न होते हैं।
उत्तर

प्रश्न 38.
निम्न संकुल स्पीशीज के चुम्बकीय आघूर्ण के मानों से क्या दर्शाया जाता है ?


उत्तर
K₄[Mn(CN)₆]
Mn⁺² . 3d⁵ , चुम्बकीय आघूर्ण 2.2 दर्शाता है कि इसमें एक अयुग्मित इलेक्ट्रॉन है एवं अन्तर कक्षक संकुल अथवा निम्न चक्रण संकुल बनाता है। इसका विन्यास है –
t²_2g[Fe(H₂ O)₆ ]²⁺

Fe⁺²: 3d⁶ चुम्बकीय आघूर्ण का मान 4 अयुग्मित इलेक्ट्रॉनों के समीप है, अत: यह बाह्य कक्षक संकुल अथवा उच्च चक्रण संकुल बनाता है। इसका विन्यास है  – t⁴_2g e²_g K₂[MnCl₄]

Mn⁺² : 3d⁵ चुम्बकीय आघूर्ण का मान 5 अयुग्मित इलेक्ट्रॉनों के सापेक्ष है। d-कक्षक प्रभावित नहीं होते। अतः यह चतुष्फलकीय संकुल बनाता है। इसका विन्यास है – t³_2g e²_g

d एवं f-ब्लॉक के तत्त्व अन्य महत्वपूर्ण प्रश्नोत्तर

d एवं f-ब्लॉक के तत्त्व वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न

1. सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए-

प्रश्न 1.
मैंगनीज किसमें उच्चतम ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था प्रदर्शित करता है
(a) K₂MnO₄
(b) KMnO₄
(c) MnO₂
(d) MngO₄
उत्तर
(b) KMnO₄

प्रश्न 2.
कौन अन्तराली यौगिक बनाता है
(a) Fe
(b) Ca
(c) Ni
(d) सभी।
उत्तर
(b) Ca

प्रश्न 3.
जब KMnO₄ को उदासीन माध्यम में प्रयुक्त करते हैं, तब उनका तुल्यांक भार होगा –
(a) M
(b) M/2
(c) M/3
(d) M/5.
उत्तर
(c) M/3

प्रश्न 4.
कौन-सी लैन्थेनाइड सर्वाधिक प्रयुक्त की जाती है –
(a) लैन्थेनम
(b) नोबेलियम
(c) थोरियम
(d) सीरियम।
उत्तर
(d) सीरियम।

प्रश्न 5.
गैडोलिनियम का इलेक्ट्रॉनिक विन्यास है –
(a) [Xc]4f⁶5d⁹,6s²
(b) [Xe]4f⁷,5d¹,6s²
(C) [Xe] f³,5d⁵,6s²
(d) [Xe]4f⁶,5d²,6s².
उत्तर
(b) [Xe]4f⁷,5d¹,6s²

प्रश्न 6.
लैन्थेनाइड संकुचन निम्न कारक के लिए उत्तरदायी होता है –
(a) Zr एवं Y की त्रिज्या लगभग समान होती है
(b) Zr एवं Nb की ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था समान होती है
(c) Zr एवं Hf की त्रिज्या लगभग समान होती है
(d)zr एवं Zn की ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था समान होती है।
उत्तर
(c) Zr एवं Hf की त्रिज्या लगभग समान होती है

प्रश्न 7.
3d श्रेणी में उच्चतम ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था किसके द्वारा प्रदर्शित की जाती है –
(a) Mn
(b) Fe²⁺
(c) Ni
(d) Cr
उत्तर
(a) Mn

प्रश्न 8.
कौन-सा संक्रमण धातु आयन रंगीन है –
(a) Cu⁺
(b) v²⁺
(c) Sc⁺³
(d) Ti⁺⁴
उत्तर
(b) v²⁺

प्रश्न 9.
एक संक्रमण धातु जो +3 ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था में हरा किन्तु +6 ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था में नारंगी होता है –
(a) Mn.
(b) Cr
(c) Os
(d) Fe.
उत्तर
(b) Cr

प्रश्न 10.
लैन्थेनाइड श्रेणी में, लैन्थेनाइड हाइड्रॉक्साइडों की क्षारकता –
(a) बढ़ती है
(b) घटती है
(c) पहले बढ़ती है फिर घटती है
(d) पहले घटती है और फिर बढ़ती है।
उत्तर
(b) घटती है

प्रश्न 11.
Fe, Co, Ni किस प्रकार के चुम्बकीय पदार्थ हैं –
(a) अनुचुम्बकीय
(b) लौह चुम्बकीय
(c) प्रति चुम्बकीय
(d) प्रति लौह चुम्बकीय।
उत्तर
(b) लौह चुम्बकीय

प्रश्न 12.
Fe⁺² आयन के अयुग्मित इलेक्ट्रॉन की संख्या है –
(a) 0
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 3.
उत्तर
(b) 4

2. रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिए – 

1. Fe, Co, Ni धातुओं को …………. कहते हैं।
2. परमाणु क्रमांक में वृद्धि के साथ त्रिसंयोजी धनायनों का आकार क्रमशः….,.. जाता है।
3. निम्नतर ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था प्रदर्शित करने वाले संक्रमण धातु …….. प्रकृति के होते हैं।
4. K₂Cr₂0₇ एक प्रबल ……….. है जो केवल अम्लीय माध्यम में नवजात ऑक्सीजन का ……… परमाणु मुक्त करता है।
5. Zn केवल …………. ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था प्रदर्शित करता है।
6. f-ब्लॉक तत्व …………. तत्व कहलाते हैं।
7. संक्रमण तत्व और उनके यौगिक ……….. का कार्य करते हैं।
8. अंतः संक्रमण तत्वों का सामान्य इलेक्ट्रॉनिक विन्यास …………..
9. पोटैशियम मैंगनेट का रासायनिक सूत्र ……….. है।
10. d-ब्लॉक तत्वों को …………. भी कहा जाता है।

उत्तर

1. फेरस धातुएँ
2.  घटता
3. क्षारीय
4. ऑक्सीकारक, तीन
5. +2
6. आन्तर संक्रमण
7. उत्प्रेरक
8. (n-2)f^1-14, (n-1)d^1-2,ns²
9. K₂MnO₄,
10. संक्रमण तत्व।

3. सत्य/असत्य बताइए –

1. पारा द्रव अवस्था में होता है तथा इसकी ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था +1 व + 2 होती है।
2. संक्रमण धातुओं की उच्चतम ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था अम्लीय प्रकृति की होती है।
3. लैन्थेनाइड और एक्टीनाइड दोनों संक्रमण तत्व कहलाते हैं।
4. सभी संक्रमण तत्वों में +2 ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था सामान्यत: अधिक पायी जाती है अथवा सामान्य होती है।
5. Zn, Cd एवं Hg परिवर्ती संयोजकता प्रदर्शित करती है।
6. Cu⁺² आयन रंगहीन और प्रतिचुम्बकीय होता है।
7. प्लूटोनियम का उपयोग परमाणु बम बनाने में तथा परमाणु रियेक्टर में ईंधन के रूप में किया जाता है।
8. संक्रमण तत्व अन्तराली यौगिक बनाते हैं।

उत्तर

1. सत्य,
2. सत्य,
3. असत्य,
4. सत्य,
5. असत्य,
6. असत्य,
7. सत्य,
8. सत्य।

4. उचित संबंध जोडिए –
I.

उत्तर
1. (1), 2. (g), 3. (e), 4. (c), 5. (b), 6, (d), 7. (a).

5. एक शब्द/वाक्य में उत्तर दीजिए – 

1. Cu⁺ तथा Cu²⁺ में कौन-सा आयन रंगहीन है ?
2. एक अभिक्रिया में KMnO₄ को K₂MnO₄ में परिवर्तित किया जाता है तो Mn की ऑक्सी
   करण संख्या में कितना परिवर्तन होगा?
3. लैन्थेनाइड और एक्टीनाइड में कौन-सी श्रेणी उच्च ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था दर्शाती है ?
4. लैन्थेनम की कौन-सी ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था अधिक स्थायी होती है ?
5. K₃Cr₃O₇ का अम्लीय विलयन में तुल्यांकी भार कितना होता है ?
6. Fe⁺³ में अयुग्मित इलेक्ट्रॉनों की अधिकतम संख्या होती है।
7. क्रोमिलं क्लोराइड परीक्षण में प्रयुक्त ऑक्सीकरण का नाम लिखिए।
8. d- ब्लॉक के तत्वों में Zn परिवर्तित संयोजकता प्रदर्शित नहीं करता, क्योंकि।
9. Cu की सर्वाधिक महत्वपूर्ण ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था है।
10. f- ब्लॉक के तत्वों को कितने श्रेणी में बाँटा गया है ?
11. लूनर कॉस्टिक किसे कहते हैं ?
12. d-ब्लॉक के तत्वों में Zn परिवर्ती ऑक्सीकरण संख्या नहीं दर्शाता है, क्यों ?
13. HgCl₂ तथा KI का क्षारीय विलयन क्या कहलाता है ?

उत्तर-

1. Cu⁺
2. 1,
3. एक्टीनाइड,
4. +3,
5. 49,
6. 5,
7. K₂Cr₂O₇,
8. पूर्ण-पूरित d-कक्षक,
9. +2,
10. दो,
11. AgNO₃,
12. d-कक्षक के पूर्ण भरे होने की वजह से,
13. नेसलर अभिकर्मक।

d एवं f-ब्लॉक के तत्त्व लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
सिल्वर परमाणु की मूल अवस्था में पूर्ण-पूरित d-कक्षक है।आप कैसे कह सकते हैं कि यह एक संक्रमण तत्व है ?
उत्तर
सिल्वर +1 ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था में 4d¹⁰ 5s⁰ इलेक्ट्रॉनिक विन्यास दर्शाता है। परन्तु कुछ यौगिकों में यह +2 ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था दर्शाता है। इस अवस्था में यह 4d⁹5s⁰ इलेक्ट्रॉनिक विन्यास दर्शाता है। अतः 4d- से कक्षक के अपूर्ण होने के कारण इसे संक्रमण तत्व माना गया है।

प्रश्न 2.
संक्रमण तत्व किसे कहते हैं ? इनका इलेक्ट्रॉनिक विन्यास लिखिए। ये धात्विक गुण प्रदर्शित करते हैं, क्यों?
उत्तर
वे तत्व, जिनके परमाणु अथवा साधारण आयनों के इलेक्ट्रॉनिक विन्यास में भीतरी d-कक्षक अपूर्ण रूप से भरे होते हैं, संक्रमण तत्व कहलाते हैं । ये समूह 2 और 13 के मध्य स्थित होते हैं।
उदाहरण-Fe, Ni, Co आदि। इलेक्ट्रॉनिक विन्यास-(n-1)^1-10,ns^1-2 है।
किसी तत्व द्वारा अपने परमाणु में से एक अथवा अधिक इलेक्ट्रॉन त्यागकर धनायन बनाने की क्षमता पर उसका धात्विक गुण निर्भर करता है, सभी संक्रमण तत्व धातुएँ हैं, क्योंकि इनकी बाह्यतम कक्षा में एक या दो इलेक्ट्रॉन होते हैं, जो कि आसानी से त्यागे जा सकते हैं, क्योंकि इनकी आयनन ऊर्जा निम्न होती है। अतः ये धात्विक प्रकृति के होते हैं।

प्रश्न 3.
संक्रमण तत्व परिवर्ती संयोजकता प्रदर्शित करते हैं, क्यों?
उत्तर-
संक्रमण तत्व परिवर्ती संयोजकता प्रदर्शित करते हैं, क्योंकि (n-1)d-कक्षक तथा ns-कक्षक के इलेक्ट्रॉनों की ऊर्जा में बहुत अधिक अन्तर नहीं होता है, जिससे d-कक्षक के इलेक्ट्रॉन भी संयोजी इलेक्ट्रॉन का कार्य करते हैं । इन तत्वों में Mn अधिकतम परिवर्ती संयोजकता प्रदर्शित करता है।

प्रश्न 4.
संक्रमण धातुएँ आसानी से मिश्र धातुएँ क्यों बना लेती हैं ?
उत्तर
संक्रमण धातुएँ पिघली हुई अवस्था में एक-दूसरे में मिश्रणीय हैं तथा विभिन्न संक्रमण धातुओं के मिश्रण को ठण्डा करने पर मिश्र धातुएँ बनती हैं । संक्रमण धातुओं का आकार लगभग समान होता है, अतः क्रिस्टल जालक में एक धातु परमाणु को दूसरे धातु परमाणु से आसानी से विस्थापित किया जा सकता है, इस प्रकार मिश्रधातुएँ बनती हैं । जैसे-Cr को Ni में विलेय कर Cr-Ni मिश्रधातु बनाया जाता है। मिश्र धातुएँ अपनी जनक धातुओं की तुलना में अधिक कठोर, उच्च गलनांक वाली तथा अधिक संक्षारण प्रतिरोधी होती हैं।

प्रश्न 5.
संक्रमण धातुओं के चुम्बकीय गुणों को उसके इलेक्ट्रॉनिक विन्यास के आधार पर बताइए।
अथवा, अनुचुम्बकत्व और प्रतिचुम्बकत्व को समझाइए।
उत्तर
चुम्बकीय गुण-संक्रमण धातुएँ चुम्बकीय गुण प्रदर्शित करती हैं।
(a) प्रतिचुम्बकत्व-जब किसी पदार्थ में उपस्थित सभी इलेक्ट्रॉन युग्मित हों तो वह प्रतिचुम्बकत्व दर्शाता है। Zn एक प्रतिचुम्बकीय धातु है।
(b) अनुचुम्बकत्व-यह गुण पदार्थ में उपस्थित अयुग्मित इलेक्ट्रॉनों की संख्या पर निर्भर करता है। अयुग्मित इलेक्ट्रॉन युक्त पदार्थ अनुचुम्बकीय होता है । अयुग्मित इलेक्ट्रॉनों की संख्या बढ़ने से चुम्बकीय गुण भी बढ़ता है।
Fe, Co तथा Ni फेरोचुम्बकीय होते हैं, क्योंकि इन्हें चुम्बकित भी किया जा सकता है । अनुचुम्बकत्व को निम्न सूत्र से दर्शाते हैं –

जिसमें μ = चुम्बकीय आघूर्ण, n = अयुग्मित इलेक्ट्रॉनों की संख्या।

प्रश्न 6.
संक्रमण तत्वों की प्रवृत्ति अक्रिय होती है, क्यों? उत्तर
संक्रमण तत्वों की अक्रिय प्रवृत्ति या कम क्रियाशीलता निम्नलिखित कारणों से होती हैं –

(i) इनके मानक इलेक्ट्रोड विभव का मान कम होता है ।
(ii) इनकी आयनन ऊर्जा उच्च होती है ।
(iii) इनकी वाष्पन या कणिकरण ऊर्जा (Sublimation of Atomization energy) का मान उच्च होता है।
(iv) इनके आयनों की जल योजन ऊर्जा का मान कम होता है ।

प्रश्न 7.
संक्रमण तत्वों की विशेषताएँ लिखिए।
उत्तर
संक्रमण तत्वों की विशेषताएँ-

• इनकी प्रकृति धात्विक होती है जिनका धन विद्युतीय गुण सीमित (Ti) से उत्कृष्ट (Cu) तक होता है।
• ये कठोर होते हैं तथा ऊष्मा और विद्युत् के सुचालक हैं।
• इनके b.p. तथा m.p. उच्च होते हैं ।
• ये परिवर्ती ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था प्रदर्शित करते हैं ।
• ये रंगीन आयन बनाते हैं ।
• ये समन्वयन यौगिक बनाते हैं।
• ये सामान्यत: अनुचुम्बकीय होते हैं ।
• ये अच्छे उत्प्रेरक होते हैं।
• ये मिश्रधातु बनाते हैं।
• ये अधातुओं के साथ अन्तराकाशीय यौगिक बनाते हैं।
• इनमें कार्बधात्विक यौगिक, समाकृतिक यौगिक तथा नॉन-स्टॉइकियोमीट्रिक यौगिक भी पाये जाते हैं। __

प्रश्न 8.
d और f-ब्लॉक तत्वों में कोई पाँच प्रमुख अन्तर दीजिए।
उत्तर
d और ब्लिॉक तत्वों में अन्तर –

प्रश्न 9.
आन्तरिक संक्रमण तत्व क्या होते हैं ?
उत्तर
वे तत्व जिनमें तीनों बाह्यतम कोश अपूर्ण भरे होते हैं अन्तर संक्रमण तत्व कहलाते हैं। संक्रमण तत्वों के भीतर वर्ग 3 व 4 के मध्य 14-14 तत्व f-ब्लॉक में आते हैं। अतः संक्रमण तत्वों के मध्य स्थित होने के कारण इन्हें अन्तर संक्रमण तत्व कहते हैं। चूँकि इनमें अंतिम इलेक्ट्रॉन बाह्यतम कोश से दो अन्दर के कोश उपउपान्त्य कोश अर्थात् (n-2)f-ऑर्बिटल में प्रवेश करते हैं। अत: इन तत्वों को f-ब्लॉक तत्व भी कहते हैं। (n-2)f^1-14(n-12)d^1-10ns² इन्हें दो श्रेणियों में बाँटा गया है –

(1) लैन्थेनाइड श्रेणी-लैन्थेनम के बाद (La₅₇) आने वाले 14 तत्व (Ce₅₈-Lu₇₁) लैन्थेनाइड कहलाते हैं।
(2) ऐक्टिनाइड श्रेणी-ऐक्टिनम के बाद आने वाले 14 तत्व ऐक्टिनाइड्स कहलाते हैं।

प्रश्न 10.
समूह- 12 के सदस्यों के नाम लिखिए। वे सामान्यतः संक्रमण तत्व क्यों नहीं माने जाते हैं ?
उत्तर
समूह- 12 के सदस्यों के नाम Zn, Cd, Hg हैं जिन्हें संक्रमण तत्वों में शामिल नहीं किया गया है, क्योंकि इनकी परमाणु अवस्था तथा द्विसंयोजी आयन अवस्था दोनों में इलेक्ट्रॉनिक संरचना (n-1)d¹⁰ होती है अर्थात् इनके d- कक्षक पूर्णतः भरे होते हैं। इस कारण इन्हें संक्रमण तत्व नहीं माना जाता।

प्रश्न 11.
लैन्थेनाइडों की पाँच विशेषताएँ लिखिए। उत्तर-लैन्थेनाइडों की विशेषताएँ –
(a) ये f-ब्लॉक के तत्व हैं ।
(b) ये चाँदी के समान चमकदार धातुएँ हैं ।
(c) ये ऊष्मा तथा विद्युत् के अच्छे चालक हैं ।
(d) इनका गलनांक तथा घनत्व उच्च होता है ।
(e) La से Lu तक इनकी परमाणु त्रिज्या में लगातार कमी होती है, इसे लैन्थेनाइड संकुचन कहते हैं ।

प्रश्न 12.
क्या कारण है कि 5d श्रेणी के तत्वों की आयनन ऊर्जा का मान 4d श्रेणी से अधिक होता है?
उत्तर
किसी समूह में ऊपर से नीचे जाने पर आयनन ऊर्जा का मान घटता है, लेकिन अपेक्षा के विरुद्ध 5d श्रेणी के संक्रमण तत्वों की आयनन ऊर्जा का मान 4d श्रेणी के तत्वों के मान से अधिक होता है, जिसका कारण इन दोनों श्रेणियों के बीच आने वाले 14 लैन्थेनाइड तत्वों का रहना तथा उनके आकार में अपेक्षित वृद्धि नहीं हो पाना है। अतः नाभिक का आकर्षण बल बाह्यतम कक्षा के इलेक्ट्रॉन के लिए अधिक हो जाता है यही उनके अधिक आयनन विभव का कारण है।

प्रश्न 13.
(i) संक्रमण धातुओं में संकुल यौगिक बनाने की प्रवृत्ति होती है। समझाइए।
(ii) Zn, Cd एवं Hg संक्रमण तत्व का गुण व्यक्त क्यों नहीं करते हैं ?
(iii) Ti को आश्चर्यजनक धातु क्यों कहते हैं ?
उत्तर
(i) संक्रमण तत्वों के संकुल यौगिक बन्गने के कारण –
1. इन तत्वों के आयनों का आकार कम तथा नाभिकीय आवेश उच्च होता है, जिसके कारण ये आयन या अणु (लिगण्ड) को अपनी ओर आकर्षित करते हैं।
2. लिगैण्ड द्वारा दिये जाने वाले इलेक्ट्रॉन युग्म को ग्रहण करने के लिए इन तत्वों के आयनों में रिक्त ऑर्बिटल होते हैं।

(ii) ऐसे तत्व जिनमें (n-1)d- उपकोश आंशिक (Partially) रूप से भरे रहते हैं, उन्हें संक्रपण तत्व कहते हैं।
जबकि Zn में [3d¹⁰4s²], Cd में [4d¹⁰ 5s²] एवं Hg में [5d¹⁰s²] अवस्था पायी जाती है। इसलिए इन्हें संक्रमण तत्व नहीं मानते हैं।
(iii) Ti को आश्चर्यजनक धातु कहते हैं क्योंकि – (1) यह कठोर व उच्च गलनांक वाली धातु है। (2) यह ऊष्मा व विद्युत् की सुचालक होती है। (3) संक्षारण प्रतिरोधी होती है।(4) इसका उपयोग टैंक, तोप, बन्दूक व रक्षात्मक कवच बनाने में किया जाता है।

प्रश्न 14.
Fe²⁺ आयन की त्रिज्या Mn²⁺ आयन की त्रिज्या से कम होती है, क्यों?
उत्तर
Fe का परमाणु क्रमांक (26) Mn के परमाणु क्रमांक (25) से अधिक है। अधिक परमाणुक्रमांक होने से नाभिक में प्रोटॉन की संख्या अधिक होती है, फलतः नाभिक और बाह्य कोश के इलेक्ट्रॉन के बीच कार्य करने वाला आकर्षण बल उतना ही प्रबल होता है। प्रबल आकर्षण बल इलेक्ट्रॉन बल इलेक्ट्रान मेघ को भीतर की ओर खींचता है, जिससे आकार में कमी होती है, इसीलिए Fe+ आयन की त्रिज्या Mn²⁺ आयन से कम होती है।

प्रश्न 15.
लैन्थेनाइड समूह को पृथक् करना क्यों कठिन है ? समझाइए।
उत्तर
लैन्थेनाइड समूह (Ce₅₈ से – ₇₁Lu) तक तत्वों में लैन्थेनाइड संकुचन के कारण रासायनिक गुणों में अत्यधिक समानता होती है। अत: इन्हें शुद्ध अवस्था में प्राप्त करना अत्यधिक कठिन होता है। इन्हें आयन विनिमय विधि द्वारा पृथक् किया जाता है।

प्रश्न 16.
(i) TiO₂ श्वेत है, जबकि TiCl₃ बैंगनी है। क्यों?
(ii) संक्रमण धातुओं की प्रथम पंक्ति में Cr तक अनुचुम्बकत्व बढ़ता है और फिर घटने लगता है, क्यों?
उत्तर
(i) TiO₂ में Ti⁴⁺ अवस्था में है जिसका इलेक्ट्रॉनिक विन्यास 3d⁰ है अतःd-इलेक्ट्रॉन के अभाव में d-d संक्रमण नहीं हो पाने के कारण TiO₂ श्वेत है। जबकि TiCl₃ में Ti³⁺ अवस्था में है जिसका विन्यास 3d¹ है। अतः अयुग्मित d-इलेक्ट्रॉन की उपस्थिति के कारण TiCl₃ बैंगनी रंग का होता है।
(ii) संक्रमण धातुओं की प्रथम पंक्ति में Cr (3d⁵) तक अयुग्मित d-इलेक्ट्रॉनों के संख्या में वृद्धि होती है तथा फिर युग्मन प्रारम्भ होने के कारण इनकी संख्या घटती जाती है। अत: इसी के अनुसार पहले Cr तक अनुचुम्बकत्व बढ़ता है और फिर घटने लगता है।

प्रश्न 17.
किन्हीं पाँच बिन्दुओं पर लैन्थेनाइड और ऐक्टिनाइड की तुलना कीजिए।
उत्तर-लैन्थेनाइडों एवं ऐक्टिनाइडों की तुलना –

प्रश्न 18.
क्रोमिल क्लोराइड परीक्षण समीकरण सहित लिखिए।
उत्तर
जब किसी धातु क्लोराइड को ठोस पोटैशियम डाइक्रोमेट एवं सांद्र H,SO के साथ गर्म किया जाता है तब क्रोमिल क्लोराइड का नारंगी वाष्प बनता है।

प्राप्त वाष्प को NaOH विलयन में प्रवाहित करने पर सोडियम क्रोमेट का पीले रंग का विलयन प्राप्त होता है, जो CH₃COOH की उपस्थिति में लेड ऐसीटेट मिलाने पर, लेड क्रोमेट का पीला अवक्षेप देता है।

प्रश्न 19.
प्रथम संक्रमण श्रेणी में उपस्थित तत्वों के नाम, संकेत तथा इलेक्ट्रॉनिक विन्यास लिखिए।
उत्तर
प्रथम संक्रमण श्रेणी में उपस्थित तत्वों के नाम, संकेत तथा इलेक्ट्रॉनिक विन्यास –

प्रश्न 20.
f-ब्लॉक तत्वों का सामान्य इलेक्ट्रॉनिक विन्यास लिखिए। लैन्थेमाइड्स के कोई दो उपयोग लिखिए। ऐक्टिनाइड्स के कोई तीन उपयोग लिखिए।
उत्तर
ब्लॉक तत्वों का सामान्य विन्यास –
(n-2)f^1-14, (n-1) s²p⁶ d^0-1,ns² होता है।
लैन्थेनाइड्स के दो उपयोग –

(i) ज्वलनशील मिश्रधातु बनाने में
(ii) धूप के चश्मों में
(iii) रंगीन काँच व फिल्टर बनाने में।

ऐक्टिनाइड्स के उपयोग –

(i) नाभिकीय रिएक्टर में
(ii) कैंसर के उपचार में थोरियम का उपयोग
(iii) प्लूटोनियम का उपयोग परमाणु बम, परमाणु भट्ठी में होता है।

प्रश्न 21.
K₂Cr₂O₇ एवं KMnO₄ के उपयोग बताइए। .
उत्तर
K₂Cr₂O₇ के उपयोग- (i) ऑक्सीकारक के रूप में, (ii) रंगाई व छपाई में, (iii) आयतनमितीय विश्लेषण में, (iv) क्रोमेटेजिंग में।
KMnO₄ के उपयोग-(i) ऑक्सीकारक के रूप में, (ii) आयतनात्मक विश्लेषण में, (iii) कार्बनिक यौगिकों के निर्माण में, (iv) संक्रमणरोधी के रूप में।

प्रश्न 22.
अप्रारूपी संक्रमण तत्व एवं प्रारूपी संक्रमण तत्व किसे कहते हैं ?
उत्तर
Zn, Cd तथा Hg के परमाणुओं में (n-1)d उपकक्ष पूर्ण होते है। अत: इन तत्वों को d- समुदाय तत्व नहीं मानना चाहिए। इसी प्रकार ये तत्व d- समुदाय के तत्वों से गुणों के आधार पर बहुत कम समानता रखते हैं। परन्तु फिर भी ये तत्व d- समुदाय के तत्व कहलाते हैं । अत: Zn, Cd तथा Hg को अप्रारूपी संक्रमण तत्व कहा जाता है। जबकि अन्य संक्रमण तत्वों को प्रारूपी संक्रमण तत्व कहा जाता है।

प्रश्न 23.
Cu⁺ रंगहीन है परन्तु Cu²⁺ रंगीन होता है, क्यों?
उत्तर
Cu⁺ का उपकोश पूर्ण भरा होता है। इस प्रकार इनका d – d संक्रमण नहीं होता और वह सफेद अथवा रंगहीन रहता है। जबकि Cu²⁺ में अयुग्मित 3d इलेक्ट्रॉन होने के कारण एवं d-d संक्रमण सम्भव होने के कारण वह रंगीन होता है।

प्रश्न 24.
संक्रमण तत्व क्या है ? इन्हें कितनी श्रेणियों में विभाजित किया गया है ?
उत्तर
वे तत्व जिनमें परमाण्विक अवस्था में d-कक्षक आंशिक रूप से भरे हुए हों, संक्रमण तत्व कहलाते हैं, इन्हें 4 श्रेणियों में वर्गीकृत किया जा सकता है –

1. प्रथम संक्रमण श्रेणी (3d- Series)- इसमें चतुर्थ आवर्त के Sc²¹ स्कैंडियम से जिंक (Zn = 30) तक 10 तत्व हैं।
2. द्वितीय संक्रमण श्रेणी (4d- Series)- इसमें पंचम आवर्त के इट्रियम Y³⁹ से कैडमियम Cd⁴⁸ तक 10 तत्व हैं।
3. तृतीय संक्रमण श्रेणी (5d- Series)- इसमें छठे आवर्त के लैन्थेनम (La = 57) तथा (Hf =72) से मर्करी (Hg = 80) तक के 10 तत्व हैं।
4. चतुर्थ संक्रमण श्रेणी(6d- Series)- इसमें सातवें आवर्त ऐक्टीनियम (Ac=89) तथा रदरफोर्डियम (Rf =72) तथा हाड्रियम (Ha = 105) हैं ये श्रेणी अभी अपूर्ण है।

प्रश्न 25.
संक्षेप में स्पष्ट कीजिए कि प्रथम संक्रमण श्रेणी के प्रथम अर्द्धभाग में बढ़ते हुए परमाणु क्रमांक के साथ +2 ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था कैसे अधिक स्थायी होती जाती है?
उत्तर
(IE₁ + IE₂) आयनन ऊर्जा का मान बढ़ता है। परिमाणस्वरुप मानक अपचयन विभव E⁰ कम होता जाता है। अत: M+2 आयन बनने की क्षमता घटती है। Mn⁺² के लिए उच्च क्षमता अर्द्धपूर्ण इलेक्ट्रॉनिक विन्यास के कारण है। इसलिए प्रथम सदस्य के लिए इलेक्ट्रॉनिक विन्यास 3d¹4s² है, जिनमें तीन इलेक्ट्रॉन दान करने की क्षमता होती है। अतः +2 ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था की तुलना में +3 ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था की प्रबलता अधिक है।

d एवं f-ब्लॉक के तत्त्व दीर्घ उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
लैन्थेनाइड का इलेक्ट्रॉनिक विन्यास देते हुए इसके ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था को समझाइए।
उत्तर
अन्तर संक्रमण तत्त्वों की दो श्रेणियों में एक है लैन्थेनाइड या 4fश्रेणी । इस श्रेणी के तत्त्वों में 4fकक्षक में क्रमशः इलेक्ट्रॉन भरते हैं । इनका सामान्य इलेक्ट्रॉनिक विन्यास [Xe] 4f^1-145d^1-26s² होता है। इनकी कुल संख्या 14 है जो सीरियम (परमाणु क्रमांक 58) से प्रारम्भ होकर ल्यूटीशियम (परमाणु क्रमांक 71) पर समाप्त होती है ।

ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था – लैन्थेनाइड तत्त्वों की सर्वाधिक ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था (+3) होती है। यह लैन्थेनम से दो और एक d-कक्षक के इलेक्ट्रॉन के खोने से बनती है। La³⁺ का विन्यास जेनॉन (Xe = 54) जैसा होता है जो कि अत्यधिक स्थायी होता है। कुछ तत्व (+ 2) और (+4) ऑक्सीकरण भी प्रदर्शित करते हैं क्योंकि ये तत्व 2 या 4 इलेक्ट्रॉन खोने के बाद स्थायी f⁷ या f¹⁴ विन्यास प्राप्त करते हैं।

उदाहरणार्थ – Ce⁴⁺(4f°), Tb⁺ (4f⁷),Eu²⁺ (4f⁷), Yb²⁺ (4f¹⁴), परन्तु Sm²⁺, Tm²⁺ इसके अपवाद हैं।
सामान्यतः लैन्थेनाइड में +4 ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था प्रबल ऑक्सीकरण का कार्य करती है, जैसे Ce⁺⁴ आयन जलीय विलयन का अच्छा ऑक्सीकरक है जो +4 से +3 में परिवर्तित हो जाता है तथा दूसरी ओर लैन्थेनाइड में +2 ऑक्सीकरण अवस्था प्रबल अपचायक की तरह कार्य करती है। जैसे-Sm⁺², Eu⁺² और Yb⁺² आयन अच्छा अपचायक है जो जलीय विलयन में +2 से +3 में ऑक्सीकृत हो जाता है।

प्रश्न 2.
क्रोमाइट अयस्क से K₂Cr₂O₇ बनाने की विधि लिखिए तथा K₂Cr₂O₇ की अम्लीय FeSO₄ KI एवं H₂S के मध्य अभिक्रिया के लिए संतुलित समीकरण लिखिए।
उत्तर
बनाने की विधि-K₂Cr₂O₇ को क्रोमाइट अयस्क (Fe₂Cr₂O₄) या क्रोम आयरन (FeO.Cr₂0₃) से बनाया जाता है, जो निम्नलिखित पदों में होते हैं।

(1) क्रोमाइट अयस्क का सोडियम क्रोमेट में परिवर्तन-क्रोमाइट अयस्क को NaOH या Na₂CO₃ के साथ वायु की उपस्थिति में एक परावर्तनी भट्टी में गर्म करने पर सोडियम क्रोमेट (पीला रंग) बनता है।

पदार्थ को छिद्रमय रखने हेतु कुछ मात्रा में शुष्क चूने को मिलाते हैं । जल के साथ निष्कर्षण करने पर Na₂Cr₂O₃ विलयन में चला जाता है। जबकि Fe₂O₃ रह जाता है जिसे छानकर पृथक् कर लेते हैं।

(2) सोडियम क्रोमेट (Na₂CrO₄) का सोडियम डाइक्रोमेट (Na₂Cr₂O₇) में परिवर्तन-सोडियम क्रोमेट विलयन सान्द्र H₂SO₄ के साथ अपचयित करके सोडियम डाइक्रोमेट बनाते हैं।

2Na₂CrO₄ कम विलेय होता है जिसका वाष्पन करने पर Na₂SO₄10H₂O के रूप में क्रिस्टलीकृत हो जाता है जिसे पृथक् कर लिया जाता है।

(3) Na₂Cr₂O₇ का K₂Cr₂O₇ में परिवर्तन-सोडियम डाइक्रोमेट के जलीय विलयन का उपचार KCI के साथ किये जाने पर पोटैशियम डाइ क्रोमेट प्राप्त होता है। K₂Cr₂0₇ के अल्प विलेय प्रकृति के कारण इसके क्रिस्टल ठण्डे में प्राप्त किये जाते हैं।

K₂Cr₂O₇ की निम्न के साथ होने वाली रासायनिक अभिक्रिया –

(1) अम्लीय फेरस सल्फेट के साथ-K₂Cr₂0₇ अम्लीय माध्यम में यह फेरस सल्फेट को फेरिक सल्फेट में ऑक्सीकृत कर देता है। K₂Cr₂O₇ पहले H₂SO₄ से क्रिया करके नवजात ऑक्सीजन का तीन परमाणु देता है जो Fe²⁺ को Fe³⁺ आयन में ऑक्सीकृत कर देता है।

प्रश्न 3.
अम्लीय, क्षारीय तथा उदासीन माध्यम में KMnO के ऑक्सीकारक गुण को दो-दो उदाहरण द्वारा समझाइए।
अथवा, पोटैशियम परमैंगनेट के अम्लीय माध्यम में कोई ऑक्सीकारक गुणों को समीकरण द्वारा समझाइए।
उत्तर
KMnO₄ का विलयन उदासीन हो, क्षारीय हो या अम्लीय हो, प्रत्येक परिस्थिति में यह तीव्र ऑक्सीकारक का कार्य करता है।
(1) अम्लीय माध्यम में-तनु H₂SO₄ की उपस्थिति में KMnO₄ अपचयित हो जाता है तथा इसके दो अणुओं से ऑक्सीजन के पाँच परमाणु प्राप्त होते हैं।
2KMnO₄ + 3H₂SO₄→K₂SO₄ + 2MnSO₄ + 3H₂O + 5[0]

उदाहरण – (i) फेरस लवण का फेरिक लवण में ऑक्सीकरण –
अम्लीय KMnO₄ से प्राप्त नवजात ऑक्सीजन फेरस लवण को फेरिक लवण में ऑक्सीकृत करता है।

(ii) ऑक्जेलिक अम्ल का ऑक्सीकरण-अम्लीय माध्यम में KMnO₄ ऑक्जेलिक अम्ल को CO₂ में ऑक्सीकृत कर देता है।

(iii) आयोडाइड आयन का आयोडीन में परिवर्तन

(iv) नाइट्राइट का नाइट्रेट में ऑक्सीकरण

(2) क्षारीय माध्यम में-क्षारीय माध्यम में KMnOa, MnO, में अपचयित होता है तथा 3 नवजात ऑक्सीजन देता है।

उदाहरण-(i) आयोडाइड का आयोडेट में ऑक्सीकरणक्षारीय माध्यम में KI का आयोडेट में ऑक्सीकरण होता है।
2KMnO₄ + H₂O +KI→KIO₃ +2MnO₂ + 2KOH

(ii) एथिलीन का ग्लाइकॉल में ऑक्सीकरण –
क्षारीय KMnO₄ एथिलीन का एथिलीन ग्लाइकॉल में ऑक्सीकरण करता है।

(3) उदासीन माध्यम में-उदासीन माध्यम में भी KMnO₄ ऑक्सीकारक की तरह कार्य करता है। अभिक्रिया में बना KOH विलयन को क्षारीय बना देता है। KMnO₄, MnO₂ में अपचयित हो जाता है एवं 2 मोल KMnO₄ से 2 मोल नवजात ऑक्सीजन मुक्त होते हैं।

प्रश्न 4.
पायरोलुसाइट से KMnO₄ बनाने की विधि लिखिए तथा KMnO₄ की अम्लीय, क्षारीय तथा उदासीन माध्यम में ऑक्सीकारक गुणों को एक-एक उदाहरण देकर समझाइए।
उत्तर
पायरोलुसाइट से KMnO₄ का निर्माण
1. पायरोलुसाइट का KMnO₄ (हरे पदार्थ) में परिवर्तन-पायरोलुसाइट को वायुमण्डलीय O₂ में KOH या K₂CO₃ के साथ गलित करने पर पोटैशियम मैंगनेट का हरा पदार्थ बनता है।

2. K₂MnO₄ का KMnO₄ में परिवर्तन-K₂MnO₄ के हरे पदार्थ को जल के साथ निष्कासित करके रासायनिक ऑक्सीकरण या विद्युत्-अपघटनी ऑक्सीकरण द्वारा KMnO₄ में ऑक्सीकृत करते हैं।
(a) रासायनिक ऑक्सीकरण-KMnO₄ के हरे विलयन का उपचार Cl₂, O₂ या CO₂ की धारा में प्रवाहित करके KMnO में ऑक्सीकृत किया गया है।

(b) विद्युत्-अपघटनी ऑक्सीकरण-इस विधि में आयरन कैथोड एवं निकिल ऐनोड के मध्य K₂MnO₄ विलयन का विद्युत्-अपघटन किया जाता है, तो मैंगनेट आयन का ऐनोड पर परमैंगनेट आयन (MnO^–₄) में ऑक्सीकरण हो जाता है तथा कैथोड पर H, मुक्त होती है।

अम्लीय, क्षारीय तथा उदासीन माध्यम में ऑक्सीकारक गुणों के उदाहरण-दीर्घ उत्तरीय प्रश्न क्र. 3 देखिए।

MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions

MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 6 Accounting for Share Capital

Accounting for Share Capital Important Questions

Accounting for Share Capital Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Maximum number of members in a private company is:
(a) 20
(b) 30
(c) 10
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) 10

Question 2.
Owners of company are:
(a) Shareholders
(b) Debenture holders
(c) Directors
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Shareholders

Question 3.
While issue the shares the rate of discount should not be more than:
(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 6%
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) 10%

Question 4.
On calls in arrears according to Article A, the interest may be charged per annum:
(a) 5%
(b) 6%
(c) 10%
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) 5%

Question 5.
On calls paid in advance interest may be charged annum according to article A:
(a) 5%
(b) 8%
(c) 6%
(d) 7%.
Answer:
(c) 6%

Question 6.
Shares on which interest and repayment of money is paid after preference shares are:
(a) Preference shares
(b) Equity shares
(c) Rights share
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Equity shares

Question 7.
The capital beyond which a company cannot issue shares:
(a) Paid Capital
(b) Called up capital
(c) Authorised capital
(d) Issued capital.
Answer:
(c) Authorised capital

Question 8.
When excess application is received than the shares to be issued:
(a) Under subscription
(b) Over subscription
(c) Incomplete subscription
(d) Complete subscription.
Answer:
(b) Over subscription

Question 9.
Part of issued capital without receipt, a public Ltd. company cannot issue shares:
(a) Over subscription
(b) Minimum subscription
(c) Incomplete subscription
(d) Complete subscription.
Answer:
(b) Minimum subscription

Question 10.
Shares can be forfeited:
(a) For non payment of call amount
(b) Due to absence in meeting
(c) Due to inability of paying bank loan
(d) Due to montage of shares as securities.
Answer:
(a) For non payment of call amount

Question 11.
Balance of share forfeiture account is transferred to:
(a) General Reserve
(b) Capital Redemption Reserve
(c) Capital Reserve
(d) Revenue Reserve.
Answer:
(c) Capital Reserve

Question 12.
Written notice regarding forfeiture of shares should be given to the shareholder before:
(a) 21 days
(b) 14 days
(c) 7 days
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) 14 days

Question 13.
Part of Issued capital called from shareholder only on the liquidation of a company:
(a) Capital Reserve
(b) Authorized capital
(c) Reserve capital
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Reserve capital

Question 14.
Proposal related to forfeiture of shares is passed in:
(a) Share holder’s meeting
(b) Debenture holder’s meeting
(c) Creditor’s meeting
(d) Director’s meeting.
Answer:
(d) Director’s meeting.

Question 15.
Before the forfeiture of shares, company must serve a notice to shareholders before:
(a) 21 days
(b) 14 days
(c) 7 days
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) 14 days

Question 16.
When the company is being liquidated, a part of issued capital is demanded from shareholders, it is called:
(a) Authorized capital
(b) None of these.
(c) Capital gain
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Capital gain

Question 17.
When premium amount is not received in forfeiture of shares, share premium account is:
(a) Debited
(b) Credited
(c) Not written
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Debited

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. …………… get first dividend of a company.
2. When amount to be paid in calls is paid before it is called ……………
3. That part of authorized capital issued or offered to public for subscription is ……………
4. A company is said to be …………… if it receives applications for a large number of shares as compared to the  shares offered to public for subscription.
5. Minimum subscription is mentioned in ……………
6. Cancellation of share allotted and forfeiture of amount paid is called ……………
7. As per company Law Board, a company is regarded as on …………… person.
8. Shares have …………… value while stock have no …………… value.
9. When a shareholder voluntarily surrender his share to the company, it is known as ……………
10. Share forfeiture account is shown in …………… side of Balance sheet.
11. Notice regarding forfeiture of shares must be given to the shareholders before ……………
    days.
12. When forfeited shares are re-issued at discount, the …………… account is debited.
13. When the articles contain no provision related to forfeiture of shares, the company can forfeit shares by passing a …………… resolution.
14. To the absence of provisions for forfeiture of shares in articles of association a company may forfeit shares by passing a resolution.
15. When a shareholder find its difficult to pay the amount due on calls shares held by him as such he may …………… the shares at his possession.
16. Balance of share forfeiture A/c is shown in …………… side of balance sheet.
17. The balance of …………… is utilized to write off preliminary expenses, discount on debentures, etc.

Answer:

1. Preference
2. Advance
3. Issued capital
4. Over subscription
5. Prospectus
6. Forfeiture of shares
7. Artificial
8. Face, Face
9. Surrender of shares
10. Liability
11. 14
12. Share forfeiture
13. Special
14. Special
15. surrender
16. liability
17. capital reserve.

Question 3.
Match the columns:

Answer:

1. (b) Equity shareholders
2. (c) Over subscription
3. (e) Under subscription
4. (a) Preference shareholders
5. (d) Unpaid calls account
6. (f) At time of dissolution. (MP 2015)

Answer:

1. (e) Forfeiture of shares.
2. (c) Shares issued at premium
3. (b) Shares issued at discount
4. (a) Surrender of shares
5. (d) Capital reserve account

Question 4.
Write true or false:

1. Rate of dividend is fixed in preference shares.
2. There are more chances of speculation in equity shares.
3. According to table A, a company cannot call more than 25% of the nominal value of shares at a time.
4. Between two calls there should be a difference of not less than 15 days.
5. If shares of Rs. 100 are issued at Rs. 110 then it is said that shares are issued at discount. .
6. After forfeiture of shares the responsible shareholder becomes free from remaining amount.
   Premium is a type of capital gain.
7. After reissue of forfeited shares balance of share forfeited A/c is transferred to Reserve capital A/c.
8. The discount allowed on the reissue of forfeited shares should never exceed the amount actually forfeited on such shares.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. True
4. False
5. False
6. False
7. True
8. False
9. True.

Question 5.
Write the answer in one word / sentence:

1. Name the part of issued capital without the receipt of which share cannot be allotted.
2. Name the company if at least 51% of its paid up capital is owned by the central or State governments or both.
3. Name the company which has acquired more than half number of other company’s share. On which shares rate of dividend is not fixed ?
4. Name the capital which the company does not issues in whole life of company.
5. When a shareholder fails to pay the amount called by the company on shares held then the process of cancellation is called ?
6. How are capital losses written off ?
7. What is the issue of forfeited shares to public for subscription called ?
8. Who proposes for the forfeiture of shares ?

Answer:

1. Minimum subscription
2. Government companies
3. Holding companies
4. Equity shares
5. Reserve capital
6. Share forfeiture
7. Capital reserve
8. Reissue of shares
9. Board of Directors.

Accounting for Share Capital Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by share capital ?
Answer:
The total capital of a company is divided into small units. One unit is called as share and the total amount of the shares are called as share capital. Normally company issue share certificate and get this amount.

Question 2.
What is share ?
Answer:
The capital of a company can be divided into different units with different value, which are known as shares. They are the part of total capital.

Question 3.
What is share certificate ?
Answer:
Share certificate means the certificate issued by a company to its shareholders in which numbers of shares. Purchased its value is written along with the shareholder’s name.

Question 4.
What is equity shares ?
Answer:
They are also known as ordinary shares or risk shares. They get dividend only after paying the dividend or preference shares. If after paying dividend on preference shares, no profit is left, no dividend will be paid on equity shares.

Question 5.
What do you understand by the term ‘Sweet share’ ?
Answer:
Those shares which are issued by the company to its employees and officers at a discounted rate to encourage them to work devotion ally for the betterment of the company are called ‘sweet shares’. Such shares cannot be sold by the holders for at least one year.

Question 6.
Write two characteristics of equity shares.
Answer:

• Equity shareholders enjoy voting right over the others.
• On such shares dividend is not fixed.

Question 7.
Write any two merits of equity shares.
Answer:

• Equity shareholders are actual s owners of company.
• Shareholders have a full control over management of company.

Question 8.
Define preference shares.
Answer:
Preference shares are the shares on which a fixed rate of dividend is payable before anything is payable to the equality shareholders.

Question 9.
What do you mean by call in arrear ?
Answer:
The amount which is due on shareholders and which is called up by the company but shareholders could not paid till the fixed date (due date) then, such amount is called calls in Arrear.

Question 10.
What do you mean by authorised capital ?
Answer:
Authorised capital refers, to that capital which is stated in the memorandum of association. This is the maximum amount of capital which the company will have during its lifetime unless it is increased. It must be distinctly shown in the balance sheet of the company under the head ‘Share Capital’. It is also known as nominal capital or registered capital.

Question 11.
What do you mean by ‘Issued capital’ ?
Answer:
Issued capital refers to that part of authorised capital which is issued to public for subscription or sale. Issued capital is generally less than authorised capital or at the most, it may be equal to it but can never be more than authorised capital.

Question 12.
What do you mean by ‘Under subscription’ ?
Answer:
Under subscription means subscription by public for a number of shares which is smaller than the number of shares offered by the company for subscription. For example, when a company offers 20,000 shares of Rs. 10 each for public subscription, but the public applies for 19,000 shares such a situation is called ‘Under subscription’.

Question 13.
What is allotment of share ?
Answer:
After getting application from the specified person and institution then distribution of the shares is done on the basis of Application received this is called as allotment of shares.

Question 14.
What is prorata Allotment ?
Answer:
Prorata allotment:
In case of over subscription of shares, the directors allot small number of shares to the applicants. In other words, the directors accept the applications partially. In such cases the excess of application money is utilized against the amount due to allotment and future calls by the transferring the excess amount from the share application account. Thus, when the company allots shares proportionately or rationally to all the applicants, it is known as prorata allotment.

Question 15.
What is dividend ?
Answer:
When the company distributes a part of its profit on a certain rate to its share-holder, it is called dividend. The rate of dividend is fixed for preference shareholders while this facility is not available for equity shareholders. They get their dividend when the company make profit.

Question 16.
Define Company.
Answer:
Section 1 (i) of Indian Companies Act of 1956, defines a company as “Company formed and registered under this Act or an existing company.” An existing company means a company formed and registered under any of the former companies acts.

Question 17.
What do you mean by issue of shares at par ?
Answer:
When the shares of a company are issued at their nominal value (face value), then those are called issue of shares at par. For example if a share of Rs. 100 is issued for Rs. 100, then it is known as issue of shares at par.

Question 18.
What do you mean by issue of shares at premium ?
Answer:
When the shares are issued at a price higher than its face value, it is called issue at premium. From the issued price, the face value of the share is subtracted and the difference excess amount is the premium.

Question 19.
What do you mean by issue of shares at discount ?
Answer:
When the shares are issued at a price less than its face value, it is called issue at discount. For example : If a share of Rs. 100 is issued at Rs. 90 then it is issued at discount and the difference (Rs. 100 – Rs. 90) is the amount of discount i.e., Rs. 10.

Question 20.
What do you mean by forfeiture of shares ?
Answer:
If any shareholder falls to pay the amount due on allotment or any calls within the specified period, the company may cancel them. This is known as forfeiture of shares. In this condition, the amount already paid is taken over by the company.

Question 21.
What do you mean by reissue of forfeiture shares ?
Answer:
When the company reissues the forfeited shares it is known as ‘Reissue of for-feited shares.’ It can be done at par, at premium or at a discount.

Question 22.
What do you understand by surrender of shares ?
Answer:
When the shareholder voluntarily wants to gaining up the rights of being a share-holder and surrenders all his shares (Share certificates) to the company, then it is known as surrender of shares. The accounting of such surrender is alike forfeiture of shares.

Question 23.
What is ‘Reserve Capital’ ?
Answer:
That part of issued capital which is called from the shareholders on the event of dissolution of the company is called Reserve capital. This capital cannot be issued for issuing Bonus shares or writing off capital losses.

Question 24.
What is ‘Capital Reserve’ ?
Answer:
A Reserve fund created out of capital profit other than normal profit of the business is called capital reserve. It is displayed on the liabilities side of company’s Balance sheet. This fund can be utilized for issuing Bonus shares and writing off capital losses of the company.

Question 25.
Is there any provision of cancellation of forfeiture order ?
Answer:
The Articles of Association provides the Board of Directors, the right to forfeiture the shares of defaulting shareholders. The same article also provides the right to Board of Directors for cancellation of forfeiture order only if the defaulting shareholder pay all his previous dues along with interest and any penalty imposed on him.

Question 26.
Why reissue of forfeited shares are not called allotment ?
Answer:
Allotment is made only for ‘Primary’ and new issue of shares. But forfeited shares are existing shares (old). So, these can be reissued only.

Accounting for Share Capital Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write any four characteristics of a company.
Answer:
Following are the four characteristics of a company:

• Legal, artificial personality: A company is established by the company law and it has independent legal existence.
• Voluntary association: Any person by purchasing the shares of a company can become its member.
• Limited liability: The liability of each member is limited to the extent of the paid value of his shares.
• Representative arrangement: The representatives of the members look after the management of the company, these representatives are called ‘Directors’ of the company.

Question 2.
Differentiate between Shares and Stock. (Three points).
Answer:

Question 3.
What are the characteristics of preference shares ?
Answer:
The following are the characteristics of preference shares:

• The rate of dividend on these type of shares is fixed in advance
• The dividend on these shares are paid first
• The shareholders of these shares have no voting right
• The income on these shares are limited and fixed
• At the time of winding up a company preference shareholders paid first.

Question 4.
Explain any three types of preference shares. (CG 2005 Set A, Supple 13)
Answer:
1.  Cumulative preference shares:
If on such shares in any year dividend is not paid due to less profit, as such in the next year the unpaid arrears of dividend shall be paid before making payment to the holders of any other class of shares.

2. Non – cumulative preference shares:
On these shares, the dividend is paid at a fixed percentage but the arrears of dividend, the dividend shall not accumulate in the coming years.

3. Convertible preference shares:
The holders of such shares have a right to get their preference shares converted into equity shares within a certain period.

Question 5.
Write any three merits of preference share. (CG 2010 Set C, Imp., Supple 13)
Answer:
Following are the three merits of preference share :

• Easy in management: These shareholders have no right to take part in company’s management. So, only limited persons are involved in management which is a favor for the company.
• Good sources of income: It is better for those shareholders who want a fixed and regular income.
• First preference in profit and payment: On these shares the profit is paid first and in the same way in the case of winding up, the share capital of preference shareholder is paid first.

Question 6.
Write any three demerits of equity shares.
Answer:
The following are the three demerits of equity shares :

• Uncertainty of dividend: It is not suitable for those person who require regular income, because in this shares the income is irregular and uncertain.
• Payment of dividend: Payment of dividend is made on these shares only after the payment on preference shares.
• Final payment: In this the shareholders get the payment only at the time of winding up of the company.

Question 7.
Write three demerits of preference shares.
Answer:
The three demerits of preference shares are:

• Fixed charge: They receive dividend at fixed rate every year. Hence, the burden on account of preference dividend  is fixed on the company.
• No right in the management: The preference shareholders do not enjoy the right to participate in the administration or management of the company.
• Less dividend: In the years of excessive profits, the preference shareholders receive less profit as compared to those of equity shares.

Question 8.
What is calls in advance ?
Answer:
Sometimes the share amount is paid in advance before the call money becomes due, such type of advance is called call paid in advance. Articles ‘A’ of companies act gives permission regarding it, according to this articles interest will be allowed @ 6% p.a.

Question 9.
What is over-subscription ?
Or
What do you understand by over-subscription ?
Answer:
A company according to its own requirement issues shares. Sometimes company receives applications for a large number of shares than offered by it for subscription. In such case, the work of allotment of shares by directors becomes difficult because all the applicants cannot be allotted on the basis of their applications. In this case, the directors will allot only those shares which are issued by the company. Hence, allotment will be made on the basis of terms decided in the meeting of directors.

Question 10.
What is minimum subscription ?
Answer:
Minimum subscription is that minimum part of the issued capital which is necessary to raise by the way of issue of shares to meet the following expenses:

• To pay-off the necessary assets purchased for the company.
• To pay-off the preliminary expenses and commission to under-writers for sale of shares.
• The amount sufficient as working capital.
• To pay the loan taken for the purchase of necessary assets and for meeting the preliminary expenses.
• An amount necessary for any other purpose.

Question 11.
Write the difference between Authorized Capital and Issued Capital.
Answer:

Question 12.
Briefly explain the types of share capital.
Or
Discuss the kinds of capital of a company.
Answer:
Share capital means the capital raised by a company by the issue of shares. From the accounting point of view, the different kinds of share capital are as follows:

1. Authorised capital:
It is the capital which the company can raise from the public by the issue of shares. It is the maximum amount. It is stated in the memorandum of association. It is separately shown in the balance sheet. It is also known as nominal capital or registered capital. It is the capital on which the company is registered.

2. Issued capital:
It is the part of the authorised capital, that the company offered to the public for subscription.

3. Subscribed capital:
It is that portion of capital issued, which has actually subscribed by the public. It may be equal or less than the issued capital but never be more than the issued capital.

4. Called – up capital:
The company doesn’t require the full value of the shares they subscribed for at one instalment. Thus, the portion of the subscribed capital, which the share¬holders are called to pay is known as ‘Called-up Capital’.

5. Uncalled capital:
That part of the capital which is not called by the company from the shareholders is known as ‘Uncalled Capital’.

6. Paid – up capital:
It is that part of called-up capital, which is actually paid by the shareholders, is called ‘Paid-up capital’.

7. Reserve capital:
Sometimes, a company by means of a special resolution, decides that its uncalled capital will not be called-up; during its existence and that would be avail-able as an additional security to its creditors in the event of its liquidation. This capital is termed to be reserve capital.

Question 13.
When a company can issue its shares at a discount, what journal entries are passed in this regard ?
Answer:
Under section 79 of the companies Act of 1956, a company can issue shares at a discount subject to the following conditions:

1. The company is completed one year of its business.
2. The issue of shares at a discount has been authorised by the shareholders in a general meeting of the company and also has been sanctioned by the court.
3. The rate of discount must not exceed 10% of the face value of the shares which is permitted by the Company Law Board. The maximum rate has to be specified by the share holders resolution permitting the issue.
4. The shares are issued within two months of the date on which the issue is sanctioned by the Company Law Board or within such extended time as the board may allow.
5. Shares to be issued at a discount must be of a class already issued.

Journal Entry:
When shares are issued at discount
Share Allotment A/c – Dr.
Discount on Issue of Shares A/c – Dr.
To Share Capital A/c

Question 14.
Discuss the procedure of issue of shares.
Answer:
Following steps are taken by a public company for the issue of shares:
1. Issue of prospectus:
The company issues a prospectus by which it invites public to subscribe to its shares. The prospectus describes the profitability and soundness of the business of the company to attract the investing public.

2. Receipt of application:
All application and the amount of share application money must be deposited by the public in a Company’s Scheduled Bank. After the last day for receipt of share applications the bank sends all applications to the company.

3. Allotment of shares:
The directors of the company have the right to accept application wholly or partially or reject it. Those who are allotted shares are sent ‘Letters of Allotment’ and those who are not allotted shares they are sent ‘Letters of Regret’ along with a cheque for the refund of application money.

Question 15.
Differentiate between equity shares and preference shares. (Any 4)
Answer:
Differences between equity shares and preference shares:

Question 16.
Write the difference between over subscription and under subscription.
Answer:
Difference between Over subscription & Under subscription:

Question 17.
What is forfeiture of shares ?
Answer:
If any shareholder fails to pay the amount due on allotment or calls within a specified period, the company may cancel them and the amount paid is taken over by the company. This is called forfeiture of shares.

The following conditions must be satisfied for the forfeiture of shares:

• The power to forfeit the shares must be given in the Articles of Association
• If the procedure of forfeiture is not given in the articles, table ‘A’ should be followed
• There should be default in payment of any allotment or call money by the shareholder
• Notice must be given to the respective shareholder for 14 days in advance
• The Board of Directors must pass a resolution for such forfeiture.

Question 18.
Explain the legal procedure of forfeiture of shares.
Answer:
The following are the legal provisions regarding forfeiture of shares:

• Shares can be forfeited only when the default is made by the shareholders in payments of a valid call
• Shares can be forfeited only if the power is expressly given by the Articles of the company
• If provisions are not made in.the Article of the company, then by passing a special resolution company can forfeit the shares
• The written notice of 14 days mentioning about forfeiture of shares must be given to the shareholders
• The share can be forfeited on the basis of the resolution passed by the board of directors.

Question 19.
Explain the procedure of forfeiture of shares.
Or
What steps are necessary for forfeiture of shares ?
Answer:
Following are the methods of forfeiture of shares:

1. Preparation of list: Firstly a list of defaulting shareholders is produced by the company secretary in the meeting of the board of directors.

2. Notice for payments: The board of directors orders to serve notice for payment of unpaid calls and interest.

3. Issued reminder: After the issue of above notice if shareholders unable to pay the call money then the board of directors orders again to serve final notice for payment.

4. Passing a resolution for forfeiture of the shares: If the final notice gets no response, the board will then pass a resolution for forfeiture of the shares and the share holders concerned will be intimated of the decision asking them to return to the company the share certificate issued to him on allotment of shares.

Question 20.
Describe the effects of forfeiture of shares.
Answer:
Rights and duties of defaulter shareholder w hen share is forfeited will be affected in the following way:

• Cancellation of membership:
  At the time of forfeiture of shares, the membership of defaulter shareholder is cancelled.
• Responsibility of payment:
  Till the date of forfeiture of shares, the shareholders is responsible for the payment of balance amount.
• No right on dividend:
  The defaulter shareholder who’s shares are forfeited have no right on dividend.

Question 21.
Explain the reissue of forfeited shares.
Answer:
Company has full right to reissue the forfeited shares at proper time. Issue of forfeited shares to public is called reissue of share. There can be reissued at par, at discount or at premium.

Question 22.
Can the forfeited shares be reissued at discount ? Explain.
Answer:
Forfeited shares can be reissued at discount. Board of directors have the right to reissue the forfeited shares at discount, but the amount of discount on reissue should not exceed the amount forfeited on those shares. Thus, discount on reissue can be given maxi-mum up to the amount forfeited and not more than that.

Question 23.
Distinguish between Capital Reserve and Reserved Capital.
Answer:
Differences between capital reserve and reserved capital:
Capital Reserve:

• It can be utilized only in writing-off the capital losses.
• It is shown in the liability side of balance sheet.
• It is represents the amount which has already been received.

Reserved Capital:

1. It can be utilized only at the time of liquidation of that company.
2. It is not shown in the book of account.
3. The amount of reserved capital is not received till the time of liquidation.

Question 24.
Differentiate between forfeiture of Shares and Surrender of Shares.
Answer:
Differences between forfeiture of Shares and Surrender of Shares:

Accounting for Share Capital Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Show journal entries for the reissue of forfeited shares.
Answer:
Forfeited shares can be reissued at par, at premium or at discount. Journal entries on all the above cases is given below:

(1) Reissue of Forfeited Shares at Par:

(2) Reissue of Forfeited shares at Discount:

(3) Reissue of Forfeited Shares at Premium:

(4) When the balance of Forfeited Shares A/c is transferred to Capital Reserve:

MP Board Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions

MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 11 Cash Flow Statement

Cash Flow Statement Important Questions

Cash Flow Statement Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Cash flow analysis means:
(a) To disclose the changes in the amount of cash in an organization
(b) To find out embezzlement of cash
(c) To trade in cash
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) To disclose the changes in the amount of cash in an organization

Question 2.
Cash received from operating activities refers to:
(a) Cash flow during a specific period
(b) Cash resulting out of business activities during a specific period
(c) Deposit of cash in the bank
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Cash resulting out of business activities during a specific period

Question 3.
In flow of cash in cash flow statement means:
(a) Transactions that result in the increase of sources of cash and cash balance
(b) Transactions that result in the decrease of sources of cash inflow
(c) Transactions which have no effect on the sources of cash inflow
(d) Transactions that results in increase of fixed assets.
Answer:
(a) Transactions that result in the increase of sources of cash and cash balance

Question 4.
In how many ways is the cash flow statement prepared:
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Four
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Two

Question 5.
It is compulsory to prepare and present cash flow statement for:
(a) Pvt. company
(b) All listed company
(c) Public Ltd company
(d) Foreign company.
Answer:
(b) All listed company

Question 6.
Cash flow statement is prepared by:
(a) All company
(b) Every commercial organization
(c) Every partnership firm
(d) Every co-operative organization.
Answer:
(a) All company

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. The statement which is prepared to know the difference between current assets and current liabilities is known as …………….
2. The statement in which changes in inflow (receipts) and outflow (payments) of cash are known is called …………….
3. The situation in which there is decrease in cash balance of business is called …………….
4. In the condition of ……………. the balance of cash increases in business.
5. Cash flow statement is prepared in ……………. steps.
6. If the net profit earned during the year is Rs. 50,000. The initial and final account holders of Debtors are Rs. 10,000 and Rs. 20,000 respectively. Then the cash flow will be equal to ……………. from operarting activities.
7. At the end of the year prepaid expenses ares ……………. from the earned profit for the
   year.
8. The accured income of a year is ……………. from the net profit.
9. For the calculation of cash flow from operating activities, writing off the goodwill is ……………. during the year.
10. For the calculation of cash flow from operating activities, the provision for bad debts are ……………. to the earned profit the year.
11. Creditors are the ……………. of a company.
12. Realization of loan is included in ……………. activities.
13. Cash flow statement depict the ……………. changes between cash & cash equivalents.
14. Redemption of preference share is known as ……………. activities.
15. In a commercial organization, the operating activities are its ……………. activities.

Answer:

1. Fund flow situation
2. Cash flow statement
3. Out flow of cash
4. Inflow of cash
5. Three
6. Rs. 40,000
7. Deducted
8. Added
9. Added
10. Added
11. Liabilities
12. Financial
13. Historical
14. Financial
15. Main / Chief.

Question 3.
Match the columns:

Answer:

1. (b) In flow of cash
2. (a) Outflow of cash
3. (d) Fund flow statement
4. (c) Cash flow analysis
5. (e) Exclude non operating items

Question 4.
Write true or false:

1. Profit earned during the accounting year is called net profit.
2. Cash flow analysis does not provide information regarding the direction and condition of changes in cash.
3. The position of working capital of business can be known through cash flow statement.
4. Cash received from operating activities is the result of cash generated through business activities.
5. In single column cash flow statement, inflow of cash is added.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. False
4. True
5. True.

Question 5.
Write the answer in one word / sentence:

1. A statement which shows the financial condition through inflow and outflow of funds.
2. Statement showing changes in cash positions.
3. Cash resulting out of business activities is called as
4. Issue of shares and debentures in consideration other than cash and assets shown in the cash flow statement against issue of shares and debentures are called
5. Which statement is related to each item of working capital.

Answer:

1. Fund flow statement
2. Cash flow statement
3. Cash from operation
4. Non current assets
5. Fund flow statement.

Cash Flow Statement Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by cash flow statement ?
Answer:
Cash flow statement means statement of change in cash position of the enterprise. It analyses the causes of changes in cash position between the two financial statements. It is a statement which shows inflows and outflows of cash and cash equivalents in an enterprise during a specified period of time. This statement is the summary of sources of cash and application of cash in various fields.

Question 2.
What is the meaning of flow in cash flow statement ?
Answer:
In the cash flow statement, there is a combination of two words ‘Cash’ and ‘Flow’. The meaning of the word ‘Cash’ is cash balance and bank balance. The word ‘Flow’ refers to the change or movement. In this way ‘cash flow statement’ (CFS) means the changes occurred during any period in the cash position business or institution which exhibits the cause and amount of changes and direction.

In this statement he sources of cash, uses of cash and net cash position is included, which is the difference of total sources and uses. This statement is also known by the name statement of sources and uses of cash of statement of sources and application of cash.

Flow of cash:
Cash Flow is created when the net effect of any transaction either bring increase or decrease in the cash amount. That transaction which apart from cash account, affects other current accounts or non-current accounts or both, it creates change in cash position.

Through those transactions by which there is an increase in the cash balances of the business or inflow of cash or by those transactions, there from comes decrease in cash balance of business, they are presumed to be the uses of cash or outflow of cash. In other words, the receipt of cash can be called flow of cash and payment can be called as the use of cash.

Question 3.
Write the major source of cash.
Answer:
The major source of cash are as under:

• Issue of equity and preference shares for cash
• Raising of long term debts – issue of debentures for cash, accepting deposits from public
• Sale of fixed assets in cash
• Non-operating incomes-Dividends and interest on investment
• Cash from operating activities of the business.

Question 4.
Write any four utilities of cash flow statement.
Answer:
Utilities of cash flow statement are as follows:

• Evaluation of cash position
• Enable management in planning and control.
• Disclose failure or success of management by performance evaluation
• Helps in framing long term planning
• Helps in determining cash flows from different activities separately.
• Evaluation of liquidity position of the firm.

Question 5.
What is meant by ‘Cash flow from operating activities’ ?
Answer:
As per AS – 3, operating activities are the principal revenue producing activities of the enterprise, e.g., for a company dealing in manufacturing of garments, purchase of raw materials, payment of manufacturing expenses, sale of garments etc. are the principal revenue producing activities. Cash inflows and outflows from these activities will affect the calculation of profits or loss of the business.

Question 6.
Mention the four objects / importance of cash flow statement.
Or
What are the uses of cash flow statement ?
Answer:
The followings are the objectives of cash flow statement:

• This is useful in the evaluation of cash of the institution. By this, through budget, the need of the cash of the institution can be estimated,
• The use of cash can be controlled according to plan
• This analysis is also helpful in the evaluation of financial policies.
• By cash flow analysis, the knowledge of redemption capacity of the institution is also possible.

Question 7.
Differentiate between net profit and cash received from operation
Answer:
The differences between net profit and cash from operation:

Question 8.
Write the limitations of cash flow statement.
Answer:
The limitations of cash flow statement are as follows:
1. Non – cash transactions are ignored:
Cash flow statement shows only inflows and outflows of cash and cash equivalent. It ignores non-cash transactions like conversion of shares into debentures, purchase of building by issue of shares.

2. Lack of Accuracy:
Cash flow statement is prepared on the basis of financial statement. So if financial statement is incorrect, the cash flow statement may be incorrect.

3. Long-term analysis not possible:
Through cash flow statement long-term analysis is not possible. It ascertain only the short-term financial position of the business.

Question 9.
When does investment is equivalent to cash ?
Answer:
There are two stages are as follows:

• When invest is for short-period of time like 3 months or less than 3 months
• When invest can converted into cash without any risk
• When goods purchased for issuing shares.

Question 10.
Explain operating activities.
Answer:
Operating activities are the main revenue producing activities of the enterprise. This activities comprises of all those transaction and events which determine net profit or loss of the business. Example of cash receipt from operating activities are cash received on sale of goods and rendering of services, cash receipt from royalties, fees, commission etc., cash receipt from sale of securities.

Question 11.
Explain any four objectives of cash flow statements.
Answer:
Objectives of cash flow statements are:
1. Analysis of cash position:
Cash flow statement explains the reason for lower or higher cash balance with the firm. Sometimes a firm may have lower cash balance in spite of higher profits or a higher cash balance in spite of lower net profits. Cash flow statement does help in explaining the causes of such quotation.

2. Short term cash planning and management:
Cash flow statement is very useful for short term financial planning and management. This statement reveals the position of surplus or deficiency of cash so that the management may be able to make plan for proper investment of surplus cash or to tap the sources where from the deficiency is to be met with.

3. Evaluation of liquidity:
Liquidity means ability to meet current obligations at due time i.e., payment to creditors, repayment of bank loan etc. Cash flow statement disclose the position of liquidity in a better way and that is why banks and other financial institutions use cash flow statements for the evaluation of liquidity of any firm.

4. Comparison of operating performance:
Cash flow statement enhances the comparability of the reporting of operating performance by different enterprises because it eliminates the effects of using different accounting treatment of the same transactions and events.

Question 12.
Give any two methods of financial statement analysis.
Answer:
The two methods of financial statement analysis are as follows :

1. Comparative statement
2. Common size statement.

1. Comparative statement:
Comparative financial statements refer to those statement which exhibit the financial position of a business concern at different periods of times. The statements are prepared in comparative form in this comparatively side by side so as draw conclusion about the profit earning capacity of firm.

2. Common size statement:
Common size statement refer to those statement in which figures reported are converted into percentage to some common base like net sales for income statement and total assets for Balance sheet. In this statement net sales assumed as 100 and other figures are expressed as percentage on net sales.

Question 13.
Write the name of any four sources of cash receipts in a business.
Answer:
Sources for Procuring cash are as follows:

• Sale of fixed assets
• Interest on investment
• Increase in share capital
• Issue of shares and debentures
• Dividend received.

Question 14.
By which method cash flow by operating activities can be calculated ?
Answer:
As per accounting standard-3 operating activities are the principal revenue generating activities of the business. All such activities are included in operating activities of the business which are not related to investment and financial activities and generate income. Cash flow from the operating activities indicates that there is sufficient cash generation which helps the business in its smooth operation.

The cash inflow includes cash receipts from sale of goods and services, cash receipts from royalties, fees, commission etc. and cash outflow includes cash payment for purchases of goods and services, cash payments for wages, salaries and other payments to employee, cash payment of taxes etc.

Question 15.
What do you mean by financial activities ?
Answer:
Financing activities are those activities which relates to long term funds or capital of an enterprise, cash received from issue of equity shares, debentures, raising loan (long term) etc.

Question 16.
What do you mean by non-cash transactions ?
Answer:
The transactions which do not part of Financing or Investing activities are called non-cash items or transaction. For Example : Depreciation, conversion of debenture into shares.

Cash Flow Statement Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write difference between fund flow statement and cash flow statement.
Answer:
The differences between fund flow statement and cash flow statement are:

Question 2.
What are the uses of cash flow statement ?
Answer:
The uses of cash flow statement may be studied under following:
1. Analysis of cash position:
Cash flow statement explains the reason for lower or higher cash balances. Since it is prepared on cash basis of accounting, it proves very useful for the evaluation of cash position of a business enterprise.

2. Assessment of liquidity:
Liquidity means ability to meet current obligations on due time, i. e., payment to creditors, repayment of bank loan etc. It can be assessed with the help of cash flow statement.

3. Tool of short-term financial planning:
Cash flow statement is helpful in planning short-term need of cash of the enterprise. This statement reveals the position of surplus or deficiency of cash. It is the most appropriate device for short-term analysis.

4. Helpful in estimating future cash flow:
Historical cash flow information provides useful indicators of the amount, timing and certainty of future cash flows. It is also useful in checking the accuracy of parts assessments of future cash flows.

5. Helpful in the formation of policies:
Cash flow statement help in formation of various policies such as repayment of long-term loans, expansion or replacement of fixed assets declaration of dividend etc. which can be successfully implemented with sufficient cash resources.

6. Knowledge of progress of business:
Cash flow statement determine the inflow and outflow of cash from operating activities which show the progress of the enterprise or otherwise.

7. Useful to external analysis:
It is also useful to external analysis particularly to the bankers investors and creditors because they review the financial position of the concern and such review is greatly facilitated by cash flow statement.

Question 3.
Give the format of cash flow statement
Answer:
Format of cash flow statement: Indirect method:

Question 4.
Describe the importance of fund flow statement.
Or
Explain any four objectives of fund flow statement.
Answer:
The objectives of preparing a fund flow statement are as follows:

(1) Helpful in financial analysis:
Financial analysis is facilitated by fund flow statement. The balance sheet do show the financial position but changes in various assets and liabilities is not shown by the balance sheet. The fund flow statement provides information as regard to the changes in various items of assets and liabilities.

(2) Determination of fund from operation:
Fund flow statement provides the information of actual profit earned through operational activities. Fund flow statement determines the fund from operational not activities by re-adjusting those non-trading income, expenses and losses.

(3) Management of working capital:
In fund item statement the word ‘fund’ refers to working capital. Through fund flow statement it can be determined whether there is sufficient amount of working capital within the business or not.

(4) Knowledge of sources and use of fund:
An analysis of various searess of receipt and application of fund can be made through fund flow statement. From the statement the business can determine the various sources and the receipt of as well as sources and quantum of payment.

(5) Knowledge of some important funds:
The fund flow statement provide various significant information to the managers owners and other related parties. These information are:

• Major heads of income and expenses during a period.
• Determination of total fund received from various sources.
• Application of amount on various items.
• How the profit has been used
• Dependency of firms on borrowings.
• Burden of cost of capital etc.

Question 5.
State some differences between cash flow statement and cash budget.
Answer:
The differences between cash flow statement and cash budget:

MP Board Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions

MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 10 Analysis of Accounting Ratios

Analysis of Accounting Ratios Important Questions

Analysis of Accounting Ratios Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Ratio analysis means:
(a) To establish mathematical relation between two figures
(b) To establish qualitative relation between two figures
(c) To establish inverse relation between two figures
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) To establish mathematical relation between two figures

Question 2.
Current ratio represents:
(a) Surplus of fixed assets over fixed liabilities
(b) Surplus of current assets over current liabilities
(c) Surplus of artificial assets over current liabilities
(d) Surplus of assets over liabilities.
Answer:
(b) Surplus of current assets over current liabilities

Question 3.
Liquid assets refers to:
(a) The assets which can be converted into cash immediately
(b) The assets which cannot be converted into cash immediately
(c) The assets which can be sold at profit
(d) The assets which can be sold at cost price.
Answer:
(a) The assets which can be converted into cash immediately

Question 4.
Meaning of solvency ratio is:
(a) Capability of paying internal debts
(b) Capability of paying external debts
(c) Capability of acquiring assets
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Capability of paying external debts

Question 5.
Capital turnover ratio establishes relationship between:
(a) Sales and purchase
(b) Net sales and capital employed
(c) Gross sales and capital employed
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Net sales and capital employed

Question 6.
The given below classes of ratio mainly calculate the risks:
(a) Liquidity, Activity and Profitability
(b) Liquidity, Activity and Stock
(c) Liquidity, Activity and Solvency
(d) Liquidity, Solvency and Profitability.
Answer:
(d) Liquidity* Solvency and Profitability.

Question 7.
The ……………. ratio calculates the main and suffix gains:
(a) Liquidity
(b) Activity
(c) Solvency
(d) Profitability.
Answer:
(d) Profitability.

Question 8.
In a commercial firm calculation of …………… is done on the basis of its paying capacities of short term liabilities:
(a) Activeness
(b) Liquidity
(c) Debts
(d) Profitability.
Answer:
(b) Liquidity

Question 9.
………….. ratios are an indicator of the intensity of change in proceeds or cash coming from the practice of diverse account:
(a) Activity
(b) Liquidity
(c) Solvency
(d) Profitability.
Answer:
(a) Activity

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. Liquidity refers to the ability of concerting assets into …………………
2. The capability of paying external debt is found out through …………………
3. Current ratio is also called as ………………… ratio.
4. Gross profit ratio is calculated on ………………… sales.
5.  ………………… ratio can be found out by dividing cost of goods sold by average stock.

Answer:

1. Cash
2. Solvency ratio
3. Working capital
4. Net sales
5. Stock turnover ratio.

Question 3.
Match the columns:

Answer:

1. (b) Capability of paying internal liabilities
2. (a) Description of relationship between current assets and current liabilities
3. (d) Relationship between owner’s fund and total assets
4. (c) Relationship between net sales and capital employed
5. (e) Description relationship between net sales and working capital.

Question 4.
Write true or false:

1. Liquidity ratio refers to the ability of converting assets into cash.
2. Solvency ratio refers to the ability of paying internal debts.
3. Working capital is related to current assets and current liabilities.
4. Debtor’s turnover ratio does not show relationship between net credit sales and average trade debtors.
5. The main purpose of financial reporting is to inform the directors of the organization about the progress of its functionality.
6. Analysis of the data provided in the financial statement is known as financial Analysis.
7. Long term loan of the firm had a deep concern on the Interest and principal sum paying capacity of the firm.
8. A ratio is always expressed as the product of the division of a second number by a number.
9. A ratio shows both quantitative and qualitative aspects.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. False
6. True
7. True
8. False
9. False.

Question 5.
Write the answer in one word/sentence:

1. The assets which can be converted into cash immediately.
2. Surplus of current assets over current liabilities.
3. The ratio which is used to calculate relationship between net sales and capital employed.
4. Which ratio is related to paying of external debts.
5. Which ratio is related to cost of goods sold and average stock.

Answer:

1. Liquid assets
2. Working capital
3. Capital ratio
4. Solvency ratio
5. Stock turnover ratio.

Analysis of Accounting Ratios Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain liquidity ratio.
Answer:
Liquidity means the ability of an enterprise to meet its current liabilities out of current assets. Liquidity ratios are computed to find out the short-term solvency of the enterprise short-term creditors and managers / directors are interested to know liquidity 1 position of the enterprise. These ratios disclose the sufficiency of working capital. Liquid it is the case where assets may be converted into cash without loss. The following ratios are calculated for liquidity test:

• Current ratio or working capital ratio
• Liquid ratio or quick ratio
  

Question 2.
Write differences between current ratio and quick ratio.
Answer:
The difference between current ratio and quick ratio:

Question 3.
What is solvency ratio ?
Answer:
Solvency means the ability of an enterprise to meet its long-term obligations and thus solvency ratios reveals an enterprises ability to meet the long-term indebtness. Principally an enterprise should have sufficient funds to meet the long-term liabilities main solvency ratio are:

• Debt equity ratio
• Total assets to debt ratio
• Proprietary ratio.

Question 4.
What is activity ratio ?
Answer:
Activity ratios are concerned with measuring the efficiency in assets management. It is concerned with employment of assets efficiently and in a profitable way. These ratios are calculated on the basis of sales or cost of goods sold, various assets like stock debtors, bills receivable, fixed assets etc and investments of the concern. These ratios are also known as turnover ratio or performance ratios. Following are important activity ratios:

• Stock turnover ratio
• Debtors turnover ratio
• Creditors turnover ratio
• Net working capital ratio
• Fixed assets turnover ratio
• Current assets turnover ratio
• Capital turnover ratio.

Question 5.
What is profitability ratio ?
Answer:
Profitability means possibility of earning profit on the fund invested in the business. Profitability of a business can be determined on the basis of sales or investment. Usually it is determined on the basis of safes. The condition of profitability of a business concern depend on the sales volume, costing methods and proper use of various financial resources. Hence calculation of the ratio relating to sales, investments and funds of equity shareholders is called profitability ratio. Some important ratios are as given below:

• Gross profit ratio
• Operating ratio
• Net profit ratio
• Return on investments
• Earning per share
• Dividend per share
• Price earning ratio.

Question 6.
What do you mean by current asset in current ratio ?
Answer:
Current ratio establishes relationship between movable assets and movable liabilities. Current ratio includes cash-in-hand, bank, debtors, receivable bills and other properties in current assets.

Question 7.
What is current ratio ? How is it calculated ?
Answer:
Current ratio is used to measure the efficiency of the firm to pay off its short-term liabilities. This ratio establishes the relationship between current assets and current liabilities. This ratio shows whether the current assets of the firm are adequate to meet out its current liabilities or not. This ratio can be calculated by using this following formula:

Question 8.
Which items are included in current liabilities ? (any four)
Answer:
Following items are usually included in current liabilities:

• Creditors
• Bills payable
• Outstanding expenses
• Bank loan
• Bank overdraft
• Unearned income
• Provision for taxation.

Analysis of Accounting Ratios Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the importance of ratio analysis.
Or
Write two objectives of ratio analysis.
Answer:
me importance of ratio analysis for different interest groups is as below:

1. For short-term creditors:
Liquidity ratio i.e., current ratio and quick ratio are computed to find out the short-term solvency of the enterprise. Short-term creditors are interested in liquidity position of the concern. It helps to assess the ability of enterprise to meet its short-term liabilities promptly.

2. For long-term creditors:
Accounting ratios i. e„ solvency ratio discloses an enterprises ability to meet the long-term in debtedness with the help of debt equity ratio and interest ratio, solvency of enterprise can be assessed easily.

3. For managers:
Management takes many decisions in respect of business. Information regarding availability of working capital, compassion with other business unit etc. are received with the help of ratio analysis. With the help of ratio analysis the administrative work can be controlled easily.

4. For investors:
Ratio analysis proves helpful to know the short-term and long-term financial position of a business undertaking which helps investors for investing their money with the expectation of a good return. It enables the investors to study the result of various ratios and to tops proper decision.

Question 2.
Explain the meaning and purpose of the following ratio:

• Current ratio
• Debt equity ratio
• Proprietary ratio
• Capital turnover ratio
• Fixed assets turnover ratio
• Working capital turnover ratio.

Answer:
Meaning and objective or purpose of the ratios are as follows:
1. Current ratio:
Current ratio refers to the relationship between current assets and current liabilities. It measures the firm’s ability to full fill short-term commitment out of its current assets.

Objective:
The objective of current ratio is to assets the ability of enterprise to meet its short-term liabilities promptly.

2. Debt equity ratio:
This ratio expresses a relationship between debt and the equity. Debt means long-term loans, debentures and equity means shareholder’s fund, preference share capital, equity share capital, reserves less losses and fictitious asset like preliminary expenditure.

Objective:
This ratio judges the long-term financial position and soundness of the enterprise. It indicates the proportion between shareholders fund and long – term debts.

3. Proprietary ratio:
This ratio expresses the relationship between the total amount of owner’s funds and total assets. It shows the extent to which the shareholders own the business.

Objective:
Proprietary ratio expresses the general financial position of the enter-prise. It indicates what percentage of total asset has been financed by the shareholders fund.

4. Capital turnover ratio:
This ratio shows the efficiency of capital employed in the enterprise by how many times it is used to produce the sales. It establishes the relationship between sales and cost of sales and capital employed.

Objective:
Capital turnover ratio indicates the efficiency of capital employed in the enterprise by computing how many times the capital being turned overed.

5. Fixed assets turnover ratio:
The relationship between cost of sales or sales and fixed assets is known as fixed assets turnover ratio.

Objective:
This ratio, indicates how efficiently the fixed assets were used in business.

6. Working capital turnover ratio:
Working capital turnover ratio expresses the relationship between working capital and sales. It shows whether or not the working capital is utilized to increase sales.

Objective:
The objective of the ratio in to assertion whether or not working capital has been effectively utilized in promoting sales

Question 3.
What is average collection period?
Answer:
Debtor turnover ratio is related to average collection period which shows that in how many days the firm is realising its debts from debtors. It also highlights upon the quality of the debtors. The lower the .collection period the good the debtors are which is indicative of the fact that debtors are being realized soon. If this period is high, then it indicates that the fing liberal policy of collection realisation from debtors takes lot of time.

Question 4.
Discuss four limitations of Accounting ratios.
Answer:
limitations of Accounting ratios are:

1. Only quantitative analysis and not qualitative:
Under this, attention is not paid on the qualitative reasons. For example, while selling goods on credit to any customer, the attention is paid on his financial position and not on his character and conduct, which are also important.

2. Do not reflect price level changes:
Usually, in the financial statement, price level change is pot included therefore, it may give confusing and misleading results. The analysis while interpreting should keep in mind, the changes in the price level.

3. Represents only a relative position:
Ratios only exhibit a relative position. Therefore, ratios should be understood as substitution of figures or data. There can be sufficient difference between actual figures and ratios.

4. Limited use of a single ratio:
Only one ratio does not exhibit the whole picture of any position. Therefore, without thinking overall ratios related to the presented problem the conclusions drawn on the basis of only one ratio can present confusing picture. Thus, it is necessary that while drawing conclusions all related ratios be thought over.

Question 5.
What do you understand by profitability ratio and sales ratio ?
Answer:

Profitability ratio:
Business is established for earning profits. Profit is necessary for the progress and the development of the business. All the concerned parties related to business are benefited by the profitability ratio. The owner of the business who has invested capital expect return on his capital in the form of profit, the creditors feel assured about the return of their money by profitability and the salary, bonus etc. of the employees also depend upon the profitability ratio of the business.

Sales ratio:
The analysis of profitability can be done on the basis of the sales. The profitability of the business calculated on the basis of sales is justified. The following ratios are calculated under it.

Gross Profit ratio:
This ratio establishes the relation between gross profit and net sales. The computation of this profit is done by deducting direct expenses related to the cost of the goods sold out of net sales. The contribution of gross profit will be more in the net profit when the gross profit will be high. It is calculated as under:

If gross profit is not given then it can be calculated as Sales – Cost of goods sold. Cost of goods sold = Opening stock + Purchases + Direct expenses – Closing stock. Gross profit = Sales + Closing stock – (Opening stock + Purchases + Direct expenses) or Gross profit = Sales – Cost of goods sold.
Net sales is calculated as Net sales = Total sales – Sales returns.

Net profit ratio:
Net profit ratio before tax and after tax establishes the relation between Net profit and Net sales. The objective of computation of this ratio is to determine the efficiency of the whole activities of the institution. In other words to determine the over all profitability. The following point highlight its importance:

• It is also known as the margin of net profit.
• This ratio reveals what part of sales is utilized for generating dividend and how many share is utilized as reserves.
• The financial position of the institution is favorable to face the financial conditions or not.
• Cost of production is increasing due to sale price, demand is decreasing due to production, then what part of sales could be left to face such situation.
• High net profit ratio is a symbol of favorable condition of the institution to face any adverse circumstances. If the ratio is low then it is hot fit for such circumstances.

MP Board Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions

MP Board Class 12th Business Studies Important Questions Chapter 6 Staffing

Staffing Important Questions

Staffing Objective Type Questions

Questions 1.
Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
Recruitment is the process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating them to apply for jobs in the organization is said by :
(a) Theo Haimann
(b) Koontz O’ Donnell
(c) George R Terry
(d) Edwin B Fillipo.
Answer:
(a) Theo Haimann

Question 2.
Various sources of recruitment:
(a) Advertisement
(b) Employment office
(c) Reference
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 3.
Aim/objective of interview :
(a) Utility of candidate
(b) To give complete information to candidate about post and organization
(c) Happiness of candidate
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question 4.
Employment office is a source of recruitment:
(a) Internal
(b) External
(c) (a) and (b) Both
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) External

Question 5.
Best option of selection is choosen by :
(a) Prior analysis
(b) Based on procedure
(c) Analysis of evaluation
(d) Policy.
Answer:
(c) Analysis of evaluation

Question 6.
Training emphasis on :
(a) Theoretical knowledge
(b) General knowledge
(c) All round knowledge
(d) Practical/Behavioral knowledge.
Answer:
(c) All round knowledge

Question 7.
Out of the following on job training :
(a) Case study
(b) Inter ship training
(c) training development
(d) seminar and workshop
Answer:
(c) training development

Question 8.
Staffing is related to :
(a) Political aspect .
(b) Economic aspect
(c) Geographical aspect
(d) Human aspect.
Answer:
(d) Human aspect.

Question 9.
From the following which is a monetary motivation :
(a) Bonus
(b) Pension
(c) Earned leave
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question 10.
Recruitment is the process of searching :
(a) Senior employees
(b) Retired employees
(c) Future employees
(d) Special employees.
Answer:
(c) Future employees

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks :

1. ……………. means reasonable appointment and recruitment of employees for implementations of policies.
2. There are…………. sources of recruitment in an enterprises.
3. Reappointment of former employees is an…………. source of recruitment.
4. …………………. is the process in which candidates for employment are divided into two classes. Those who are to be offered employment and those who are not.
5. The process of improving the present skills of employees for higher posts in future is called…………

Answers:

1. Staffing
2. Two
3. Internal
4. Selection
5. Development.

Question 3.
Write the answer in one word/sentence :

1. Write any one internal sources of recruitment.
2. Write any one external source of recruitment.
3. What is the last stage of selection ?
4. Name the method of training in which the training is imparted to employee by giving various jobs in the organization.
5. Name the method of training in which training is given with the help of machines and equipment identical to those used in the place of work.
6. What does training increases morale or work load ?
7. What is develop among workers by training ?
8. Where is on the job training imparted ?
9. What is the modern source of recruitment ?
10. Transfer is which source of recruitment ?
11. How many method are there in training ?
12. By which source of recruitment workers are motivated ?
13. Write one advantage of training to workers ?
14. What is staffing ?
15. Write the name of one external source of recruitment.

Answer:

1. Transfer
2. Recruitment through advertisement
3. Placement
4. Job rotation
5. Vestibule training
6. Morale
7. Self confidence
8. Work place
9. Internet
10. Internal source
11. Two
12. Internal source
13. By training efficiency and capability of worker increases
14. Staffing means reasonable appointment and recruitment of employees
15. Employment exchange.

Question 4.
Write true or false :

1. By training knowledge, efficiency and capacity of workers increases.
2. Recruitment is the part of human resource.
3. Recruitment develops the feeling of owners among the workers.
4. Recruitment and selection of workers is same.
5. Expenditure done on recruitment is waste of money.
6. There is no difference between training and development.
7. Internship training provides both theoretical and practical training of work.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. True
4. False
5. False
6. False
7. True

Question 5.
Match the coloums:

Answers:

1. (b)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (e)
5. (d)
6. (f)

Staffing Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is training ?
Answer:
Training is the workshop of gaining more and high knowledge. Training is the act of increasing the knowledge and skill of an employee for doing a particular job.

Question 2.
What do you mean by ’transfer’ as a form of internal sources ?
Answer:
Transfer involves the shifting of an employee from one job to another. At the time of transfer, it is ensured that the employee to be transferred to the new job is capable of performing the jobs. When transfer is done at the same post then there is not much difference in salary and facility.

Question 3.
What do you mean by orientation in the process of staffing ?
Answer:
Orientation means to acquaint the employees with their work and organization. In order to work as a term new employees are introduced to their subordinates and seniors. The employee is acquainted with the policies, aims and objectives of the organization.

Question 4.
What do you mean by ’Placement’ as a step of staffing ?
Answer:
After the selection of the candidates for the post ‘Placement’ takes place. As per the terms and conditions and date of joining mentioned in the appointment letter the candidate has to join the duty. From the very date of his joining, he is treated as an employee of that office.

Question 5.
What is campus recruitment ? .
Answer:
A business organization may liaise with universities, colleges, vocation or management institutions to recruit newly qualifies students for technical profession or managerial position. Campus recruitment is a well established practice followed by business to appoint fresh talent in the organization.

Question 6.
What are the three important aspects of staffing.
Answer:
The important aspects of staffing are :

1. Recruitment
2. Selection
3. Training

Question 7.
What do you mean by apprenticeship training ?
Answer:
This is one of the oldest method of training. The main purpose of this training is to make the employees well versed in a specific art or technique. This method is used in those cases where long-term training is required to attain proficiency to perform a particular task. In this training stipend is paid to the candidates.

Question 8.
Out of the two, recruitment and selection which process positive and why ?
Answer:
Recruitment is positive process because large number of candidates are invited and motivated to apply for a post.

Question 9.
Why is selection called negative process ?
Answer:
Selection is a negative process because in this process qualifiers are lesser as compared to rejected.

Question 10.
State the difference between work load analysis and work force analysis.
Answer:
Work load analysis assesses the number and type of human resources required to perform jobs in the organization. Work force analysis estimates the number and type of human resources available in the organization.

Question 11.
Internal recruitment is better than external recruitment in many ways. Explain one reason.
Answer:
External recruitment demands expense for advertisement and conduction of examination where we can eliminate these expenses in internal recruitment.

Question 12.
Which source of recruitment motivates the employees ?
Answer:
Internal source of recruitment encourages and motivates the employees as it provides an opportunity to reach to higher posts.

Question 13.
What is meaning of Training ? How is it different from education ?
Answer:
Meaning of Training: Training is a systematic programme to increase the knowledge, skills, abilities and aptitudes of workers to perform specific jobs. The purpose of training is to achieve a change in the behaviour of those trained and to enable them to do their jobs in a better way.

Definitions : According to Jucius, “The term training is used here to indicate only process by which the aptitudes, skills and abilities of employees, to perform specific jobs are increased.”

Training

1. This enhances the ability and skill of the employee
2. The teacher new skills and process

Education

1. This help to ingress the knowledge of employee
2. This enable the capability to debate and analyze

Question 14.
What are the elements of a good training programme ?
Answer:
Following are the elements of a good training programme :

1. Training programme should be according to aims and objectives of organization.
2. More attention should be paid to train the weak employees.
3. Training programme should go on continuously.
4. Training programme should be flexible.
5. Training programme should be given by a specific person.

Question 15.
What is Orientation / Induction ?
Answer:
Orientation / Induction is a method of trainning to familarize the new employee with the surroundings of the organization, provide information about the organization, its rules and regulations.

Question 16.
What do you mean by recruitment ? How many sources of recruitment are there ?
Answer:
Recruitment is the process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating them to apply for jobs in organization.

There are two sources of recruitment:

Internal source: An internal source of recruitment means inviting applications from personnel working within the organization.
External source : An external source of recruitment means filling all the vacancies created in the organization which are not filled by internal sources. To fill the vacant positions the business organization may have to rely on external source.

Question 17.
On the job training methods and off the job training methods. Explain.
Answer:
On the job training method : Under this the employees are trained while they are actually performing the job assigned to them. They learn in real work environment and gain practical experience.
Off the job training method : Under this method employees are trained in specially designed training locations which are away from work.

Question 18.
In which source of recruitment employee becomes inactive ?
Answer:
In internal source of recruitment employee becomes inactive because they know that they are going to be promoted to higher posts after a certain period of time.

Question 19.
When is transfer technique important ?
Answer:
Transfer technique means shifting an existing employee within the organization from one job to another, one shift to another or from one department to another. It helps to maintain optimal staff in the organization and trains employee for different types of jobs. It is the horizontal movement of staff.

Question 20.
Write any three characteristics of recruitment.
Answer:
Characteristics:

1. It is a process of searching employees and there are many sources of it.
2. Recruitment is positive and it precedes selection.
3. The number of candidates are maximum in recruitment and it is limited to the extent of calling an application.

Question 21.
What do you mean by recruitment through demotion ?
Answer:
When a person is recruited at a lower post then his current status, it is known as demotion recruitment. In this an incapable person is demoted from a higher position to a lower and a capable person is promoted to the vacant positions.

Question 22.
Why there is lack of favor during recruitment through external sources ?
Answer:
The recruitment through external source lacks favor for the recruitee as the management is unaware about him and has no previous details about him.

Question 23.
What is the expense on training known as ? Expenditure or investment.
Answer:
The expense on training is known as investment.

Question 24.
Why are internal sources considered more economical than external sources ?
Answer:
Internal sources of recruitment are the sources considered available within the organization, they are considered to be more economical for the following reasons :

1. It saves money as it does not require any kind of formal advertising of vacant position.
2. It saves time as it shortens the process of recruitment and selection.
3. It does not require any kind of orientation or induction training.

Question 25.
What do you mean by interview ?
Answer:
After basic screening and written tests, the selected candidate go through the formal interview process. It is the in depth conversation between interviewer and interviewee where interviewer may seek information from interviewee and the interviewee is expected to provide the same.

 Staffing Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain in short three internal sources of recruitment.
Answer:

1. Promotion: Competent and experienced persons of the enterprise are promoted to higher post to fill up the vacancy.

2. Transfer: Transfer involves the shifting of an employee from one job to another. At the time of transfer it is ensured that the employee to be transferred to the new job is capable of performing the job.

3. Recommendation of existing staff: Any vacancy can be filled up by appointing the relatives or friend on the basis of recommendation of existing staff.

Question 2.
Explain any four external sources of recruitment.
Answer:
External sources of recruitment are as follows :

1. Re appointment of former employees : Sometimes ex employees are reappointed in an organization. This is beneficial in two ways:

1. Experienced personnel become available and
2. Economy is achieved.

2. Direct recruitment in the office: This type of recruitment is done by the personnel department or selection section.

3. Recruitment through employment exchange: Public employment exchanges are also an important source of recruitment.

4. Friends and relatives of present employees: Present employee invite their friends and relatives for recruitment.

Question 3.
Explain the following method of training in brief:

1. Vestibule training
2. Internship training.

Answer:

1. Vestibule training: Vestibule training is such type of training which is given with the help of machines and equipment identical to those used in the place of work in specially created laboratories called vestibule laboratories etc. This type of training does not effect the production.

2. Internship training : The main aim of this training is to provide both theoretical and practical type of training with the joint effort of some technical institutes and business I undertakings this type of training is provided to the students to learn theoretical as well as practical aspects of job. For e.g.: In medical colleges medical students are given theoretical knowledge and in hospitals they are provided practical knowledge due to which students get I the practical training of theoretical knowledge.

Question 4.
Why is selection called the Negative process ?
Answer:
Selection is a Negative process because in this process the number of candidates | who are suitable for the jobs are less than the rejected people.

Question 5.
Why is internal source of recruitment more reliable ?
Answer:
Internal source of recruitment is more reliable than external source because the organisation already have full knowledge about the workers. The workers also have full knowledge about the system and working of organisation.

Question 6.
What is recruitment ?
Answer:
Recruitment is the process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating [ them to apply for job in the organization. The objectives of recruitment is to provide with the
organization, a large number of eligible people, from whom the most appropriate one may be selected.

Question 7.
Write short note on employment exchange.
Answer:
Employment exchange is an important source for the recruitment of employees. Employment exchange registers the different persons desirous to work in different posts. Institutions may contact employment exchange for suitable employees to fulfil their vacant posts.

Question 8.
Define staffing.
Answer:
Staffing may be defined as the managerial function hiring and developing the required personnel to fill in various positions in the organization.

Question 9.
What is selection ?
Answer:
Selection is the process in which candidates for employment are divided into two classes. Those who are to be offered employment and those who are not.In the present day, this system has become very much popular. Through this test general intelligence of the candidate is measured so that it can be known that how intelligent the candidate and how much he is cautious.

Question 10.
What is aptitude test ?
Answer:
This test is essential for knowing the aptitude towards work and to collect infor-mation about work. This type of test is according to the nature of work and post. Aptitude test is conducted to check the interest of employees towards work.

Question 12.
What do you mean by physical verification ?
Answer:
Physical verification : The complete bio-data of the candidate is called in this test. Side by side, police verification is made for the verification of candidate’s character. Two references, may be called for the candidate for the verification of character. If the candidate has worked somewhere else, then reference may be called from the previous employers.

Question 13.
What is pre test ?
Answer:
When the number of application of applicants are maximum and it is necessary to minimize the incompetent candidates by,

1. Physical measurement,
2. Intelligence and skill test,
   e.g., PET, PMT, Pre-PSC etc.

Question 14.
What is interest test ?
Answer:
In this test candidate’s interest, hobby and habit are tested for this some questions relating to interest are given and candidates are asked to solve only 25% of questions. Candidates will solve only those 25% of questions in w hich the candidate is having interest.

Question 15.
Explain the methods of off the training in short ?
Answer:
1. Case study method : This is the modem method of training. This method was developed in Harvard School of America in the year 1920-25. In this method the worker is entrusted with the problem and asked to study its various aspects and suggest the solutions. If the worker does not gives right solution then he is guided how to make right decision. This method is suitable where number of trainee is less. It is an expensive method.

2. Seminar and conference method : In this method 20-30 employees shares their views and opinions. Workers can also get solutions of the problems by asking questions. Through this method out of various alternatives the best alternative is selected various enterprises holds these type of seminars and conferences.

3. Induction training : After selection of employee if he is said to perform the work then he will feel uneasy. Thus while dividing the work, for some days he is introduced with the working environment, subordinates, objectives, seniors so that he can perform the work effectively.

Question 16.
Why are internal sources of recruitment economical ? Give three reasons.
Answer:
The internal sources of recruitment are economical because :

1. No, expenditure on advertisement and inviting on application form.
2. There is no expenditure done on training. Even if it is there it is very nominal.
3. Workers are aware of general rules and regulations of the organization. So no expenditure is done on it.

Question 17.
Do you say that external source of recruitment is more time consuming ?
Answer:
Yes I do agree with it because in external sources application forms are invited. After getting application of candidates they are scrutinized. Some candidates are rejected. The suitable candidates are called for interviews, their medical checkup is done. All these activities take lot of time. So it is said that external sources are time consuming.

Question 18.
How is direct recruitment done in the office ?
Answer:
This type of recruitment is done by the personnel department or selection section. The following process is adopted in this system :

1. To call applications on the basis of advertisement.
2. To conduct written examination in the case the number of applicants are maximum as if it is necessary.
3. To take personal interview of the candidates who pass the written examination.
4. To take different test, if it is necessary.

Question 19.
Why are employees of an enterprise transferred ?
Answer:
Employees are transferred due to the following reasons :

1. To expose the person to a variety of jobs.
2. To avoid monotony associated with the execution of a particular job.
3. To penalize him, sometimes transfer orders are issued as penalty for an undesirable action.
4. A request by the employee himself, expressing his desire to work at some other work spot.

Question 20.
Explain the advantages of recruitment through internal sources.
Answer:

1. Knowledge of general rules : Due to years of service, employees know the rules and policies of the organization. So, it is not necessary to give them knowledge like fresh employees. This saves time and money.

2. Minimum cost: Recruitment process requires high expenses. There expenses can be saved.

3. Reduction in training cost: Employees of the organization know well, the working methods and techniques. So, they don’t require training for general work.

4. Increase in efficiency: Employees are aware of the fact that they will get promotion in future if they perform their work sincerely and with full dedication. This improves their
efficiency

Question 21.
Write in short about the various tests for selection,
Answer:
Following are the tests of selection :

1. Main test: The main basis of selection is main test. This test is generally taken in the written form. In this test, the following tests are taken :

(i) Ability test: The general ability of the candidate is highlighted in this test

(ii) Trade-test: This test is very important because through this test it is known that whether the candidate is competent for the work or not. As test is taken for the post of Draftsman by making drawings, for the post of operator by driving machines etc.

(iii) Interest test: In this test, candidate’s interest, hobby and habit are tested. For this, some questions relating to interest are given and candidates are asked to solve only 25% of questions. Candidates will solve only those 25% of questions, in which the candidate is having interest.

(iv) Personality test : In this test, candidate’s family, social, intellectual and emotional status are measured.

(v) Intelligence test: In the present day, this system has become very much popular. Through this test general intelligence of the candidate is measured so that it can be known that how intelligent the candidate is and how much he is cautious.

(vi) Language ability : Language ability has also great importance, because for work, the knowledge of local language is very important. If a person does not know English and is appointed at Air Port, then he can not perform his duty satisfactorily.

(vii) Aptitude test: For knowing the aptitude towards work, this test is important.

Question 22.
What do you mean by training on job ? Explain its type.
Answer:

On the job training : In this method of training workers learn by doing. On the job training aims at learning and earning simultaneously. Trainees work under the guidance and supervision of experts. The trainees follow the orders and instructions of experts. This method is less expensive. The trainee gets practical training more but lacks in theoretical training.

1. Apprenticeship training : This is one of the older method of training. It is still prevalent nowadays also. The main purpose of this training is to make the employees well versed in a specific art or technique. This method is used in those cases where long term training is required to attain proficiency to perform a particular task. In this method work is entrusted to each trainee according to prescribed programme and training is managed. Generally stipend is paid to the candidates. This training provides theoretical as well as practical knowledge to employees.

2. Job rotation method : In an enterprise when training is given to employee of various jobs, it is called as job rotation method. The main demerit of this method is that due to this method the employees lack specialization in one field. This type of method is very popular in banks. .

3. Training on training centres : First of all according to the necessity training centres are established in this method. These training centres are established by government or commercial enterprises. More stress is given on practical training than on theoretical training. Since training is given in training centres thus it does not effects the production.

4. Training by experienced workmen : Training by experienced workmen will be important and useful in that condition when experienced workmen requires helpers. The object of the training is to make the employee aware and believe in the ideologies of the working.

5. Training by supervisors : This type of training is provided by supervisors or experienced officers. These officers or supervisors are close to the trainee thus it helps the trainee to make communication with officers. This method helps in determining the abilities and efficiency of trainee during the work performed in training.

6. Internship training : The main aim of this training is to provide both theoretical and practical type of training with the joint effort of some technical institutes and business undertakings this type of training is provided to the students to learn theoretical as well as practical aspects of job. e.g., In medical colleges medical students are given theoretical knowledge and in hospitals they are provided practical knowledge due to which students gets the practical training of theoretical knowledge.

Question 23.
What is web publishing as external source of recruitment ?
Answer:
Internet is one of the most used source of recruitment. There are various websites like naukri.com, monster.com, career builder.com etc. specially designed and dedicated to
provide information about job seekers and job openings. Prospective employees and organization looking for desirable candidates may visit these websites to select the right person for the right job. The companies may have information about positions vacant on their own websites as well.

Question 24.
The functions of staffing should be done by all organizations and management efficiently.
Answer:
The work of staffing should be done by all managers effectively because if the suitable and efficient candidates are not selected then there will be wastage of time, material and efforts. Due to it the production will be reduced and cost of production will be increased. The manufactures will not be able to sell the product by profit. So it is essential that capable persons should be appointed for the work and they should be provided proper training.

Question 25.
What information is given to the workers under induction orientation programme ?
Answer:
Under induction orientation programme the following information can be given :

1. Short history of the company,
2. Policies of the company
3. Functional structure of the company
4. Location of the departments
5. Facilities provided to workers
6. Rights and duties of the new employees
7. Working hours
8. Rules of leaves
9. Rules related to discipline.

Question 26.
Distinguish between on the job and off the job training methods.
Answer:
Difference between On the job training and Off the training :

On the job training

1. By it we mean those methods which training is given on working places
2. In it during the working period the principle of learning through work is adopted
3. On the job training aims at learning and earning simultaneously
4. Trainees work under the guidance and supervision of experts during the work

Off the job training

1. By it we mean those methods by which training is given out side the working place
2. In it principles of learning are adopted before doing work
3. Off the job training aims at learning and earning separately
4. Employees work under the guidance of experts but they are already trained before the job.

Question 27.
Write the import acceptance of stalling.
Answer:

1. It helps in .achieving targets
2. It reduces cost of production
3. It helps in job satisfaction
4. It promotes individual growth
5. It helps in obtaining corporate recognition
6. Reduces labour turnover
7. Maximum productivity.

Question 28.
Explain the advantages of training to organization.
Answer:
Advantages of training to organization : Training is a process which aims to incorporate or improve the attitude, skills and abilities amongst employees to perform specific jobs.
Advantages of training to organization :

1. Systematic learning process
2. Enhances productivity
3. Develops future managers
4. Higher profits
5. Less wastage and reduced risks of accidents
6. Reduce absenteeism and employee turnover
7. Helps to adapt changes in business environment.

Question 29.
What is the advantage of training to employees ?
Answer:
Advantages to employee :

1. Growth opportunities
2. Higher income
3. Increases efficiency and reduces risks
4. High morale and job satisfaction
5. Makes new employees comfortable in new environment.

Question 30.
Throw light on reappointment of former employees in recruitment process as external source.
Answer:
Reappointment of former employees : Sometimes, employees are reappointed in an organization after a break in their service. Many a time, retiring personnel are also given an option to continue in the same firm, but at a lower remuneration. This proves beneficial to organization in two ways:

1. Experienced personnel become available,
2. Economy is achieved.

Question 31.
What do you understand by checking of reference ?
Answer:
In application form the candidates have to give two names of reference. If the candidate passes the interview then organization tries to find out about the characters of the candidates. For getting the information he gives preferences to references. Organization gets information about the characters of the candidates through other people or names of people given as references.
Physical verification : The complete bio-data of the candidate is called in this test. Side by side, police verification is made for the verification of candidate’s character. Two references, may be called for the candidate for the verification of character. If the candidate has worked somewhere else, then reference may be called from the previous employers.

Question 32.
What is the role of friends and relatives in recruitment ?
Answer:
Friends and relatives of present employees : Present employees invite their friends and relative for recruitment. This system is also beneficial for the organization, because recruitment of employees from acquainted persons, gives a fair chance to recruit good employees. Besides, for any error, done by the new employee, the present employee becomes responsible for such error.

Question 33.
Write the role of advertisement in recruitment.
Answer:
Advertisement is an important source of recruitment. It is an effective method of searching workers outside organization. Through advertisement large No. of people are attracted to words organization for middle level and lower level posts advertisement is done through newspapers, televisions employment news and other magazines. In advertisement information is given about nature of work, remuneration time of working etc.

Staffing Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain internal and external sources of recruitment.
Answer:
(a) Internal sources : Internal source of recruitment refers to recruitment from within the enterprise. There are two important internal sources :

1. Promotion : Competent and experienced persons of the enterprise are promoted to higher post on the basis of their qualifications and seniority to fill up the vacancy. This system is almost applied by all the enterprises. Some posts, where experience is important in filled up by promotion only. For e.g., the post of the Principal in school or college, the post of Vice-Chancellor in a University.

2. Transfer: Transfer involves the shifting of an employee from one job to another. At the time of transfer, it is ensured that the employee to be transferred to the new job is capable of performing the jobs. Transfers become essential due to the following reasons :

1. To expose the person to a variety of jobs.
2. To avoid the monotony associated with the execution of a particular job.
3. To penalize him, sometimes transfer orders are issued as a penalty for an undesirable action.
4. A request by the employee himself, expressing his desire to work at some other work spot.
5. To.accommodate the excess staff at hand.

(b) External Sources: If the organization feels that the needed human resources are not available within the enterprise, it will have to depend on outside sources. The following are the external sources for recruitment:

1. Reappointment of former employees: Sometimes, ex-employees are reappointed in an organization after a break in their service. Many a time, retiring personnel are also
given an option to continue in the same firm, but at a lower remuneration. This proves beneficial to the organization in two ways :

1. Experienced personnel become available
2. Economy is achieved.

2. Friends and relatives of present employees: Present employees invite their friends and relatives for recruitment. This system is also beneficial for the organization, because
recruitment of employees from acquainted persons, gives a fair chance to recruit good employees. Besides, for any error, done by the hew employee, the present employee becomes responsible for such error.

3. Direct Recruitment in the office: This type of recruitment is done by the personnel department or selection section. For external appointment, information is affixed in the notice board of the office relating to vacant post, conditions, etc. Side by side, advertisement is also given in the daily newspaper, so that the best selection can be made.

4. Recruitment through employment exchange : Public employment exchanges are also an important source of recruitment of personnel. Job seekers register their names with these exchanges and the names of these persons will be supplied to business concerns on the basis of their requisition.

5. By advertisement: This system is very popular nowadays. Advertisement is made in newspapers, journals and trade and professional periodicals stating the available job, duties and responsibilities, emoluments, qualification and experience required for the job. This is one of the popular method used by business concerns to recruit personnel from external sources.

6. By trade unions : In some areas, trade unions are very influential and they think it correct to recruit labour through them so that trade union may be much stronger. Some producers, to reduce their burdens direct trade unions for recruitment. While making recruitment ‘through this system care should be taken that incompetent and inefficient person may not get appointment and from trade union there should be no pressure for recruiting such type of personnel.

7. Through educational and vocational institutes : Today, employment bureau has been opened in colleges and universities. In this, information related to employment are given to the desired people. Similarly, some commercial organizations are also in existence which help to get employment to unemployed persons.

8. Through other undertaking: In some commercial organizations, there is a system of exchange of employees. Its object is to exchange the art and talent in each other business. This recruitment is done for one or two persons. Sometimes when the promotional prospects become nil in one company and if promotional prospects are high in other company, a recruitment from the first company is done.

9. Retired defense personnel: The defense personnel retires at the age of 35 to 45 years. These personnel show great interest to get employment elsewhere. These personnel always remain disciplined, honest and laborious. Central and State Govt, also appoint defense personnel to some post (as Chancellor, Vice-Chancellor) which needs the quality of discipline. Hence, this is also an external source.

Question 2.
Distinguish between internal and external source of recruitment.
Answer:
Differences between Internal Sources and External Sources

Internal Sources

1. Vacant posts are filled with employees available within the organization in case of internal sources.
2. It is the most economical source because the organization does not have to spend any amount on search for sources of recruitment.
3. There is no risk for selection in high post as the organization has full information about the employees working there.
4. The major demerit of internal recruitment is that it stops the entry of young blood in the organization.
5. It is fastest and time saving process.
6. This recruitment system linders the entry of better qualified employees which hampers the sense of competition.
7. This process of recruitment encourages other works for improving their skills.

External Sources

1. It means inviting applications for filling up the vacancies from candidates outside the organization.
2. It is an expensive process as it involves . advertisement and at long selection process and training.
3. There is always a possibility of wrong selection as there is no complete information about the external candidates.
4. It helps the young and fresh talents to enter the company or organisation.
5. It is very lengthy and time consuming process.
6. Through this process new employees are recruited which develops competitive sport among existing and new employees.
7. When new employees are selected through this process a feeling of frustration and dissatisfaction develop. New organizations have to make use of the external source.

Question 3.
What advantages employees and organization get through training
Answer:
Advantages of training to organization : Training is a process which aims to incorporate or improve the attitude, skills and abilities among employees to perform specific jobs.

Advantages of training to organization :

1. Systematic learning process
2.  Enhances productivity
3. Develops future managers
4. Higher profits
5. Less wastage and reduced risks of accidents
6. Reduce absenteeism and employee turnover
7. Helps to adapt changes in business environment.

Advantages to employee :

1. Growth opportunities
2. Higher income
3. Increases efficiency and reduces risks
4. High morale and job satisfaction
5. Makes new employees comfortable in new environment.

Question 4.
Explain the source of recruitment through chart

Question 5.
Distinguish between recruitment and selection.
Answer:

Recruitment

1. There are many sources of recruitment.
2. It is a process of searching employees.
3. Recruitment is positive.
4. Recruitment precedes selection.
5. Recruitment word is used generally for lower level employees.
6. The number of candidates are maxi-mum in recruitment.
7. The ultimate object of recruitment is to search employees.
8. Recruitment is limited to the extent of calling an application.
9. Recruitment is a means.
10. Recruitment is the first portion of a coin.

Selection

1. There is a specific process of selection of employees.
2. Selection and appointment are given for the present.
3. It is a negative process.
4. Appointment letter is issued after selection.
5. Selection word is used for all levels.
6. The number of candidates are minimum in comparison to recruitment.
7. The ultimate object of selection is to select employees and to appoint.
8. Selection is related with screening of applications, conducting different tests and to make final appointment for work.
9. Selection is itself a device.
10. Selection is the second portion of a coin.

Question 6.
What are various methods of training ?
Answer:
Following are the tests of selection :

1. Main test: The main basis of selection is main test. This test is generally taken in the written form. In this test, the following tests are taken :

(i) Ability test: The general ability of the candidate is highlighted in this test.

(ii) Trade-test: This test is very important because through this test it is known that whether the candidate is competent for the work or not. As test is taken for the post of Draftsman by making drawings, for the post of operator by driving machines etc.

(iii) Interest test: In this test, candidate’s interest, hobby and habit are tested. For this, some questions relating to interest are given and candidates are asked to solve only 25% of questions. Candidates will solve only those 25% of questions, in which the candidate is having interest.

(iv) Personality test : In this test, candidate’s family, social, intellectual and emotional status are measured.

(v) Intelligence test: In the present day, this system has become very much popular. Through this test general intelligence of the candidate is measured so that it can be known that how intelligent the candidate is and how much he is cautious.

(vi) Language ability : Language ability has also great importance, because for work, the knowledge of local language is very important. If a person does not know English and is appointed at Air Port, then he can not perform his duty satisfactorily.

(vii) Aptitude test: For knowing the aptitude towards work, this test is important.

Question 7.
What do you mean by web publishing as external source of recruitment ?
Answer:
On the job training : In this method of training workers learn by doing. On the job training aims at learning and earning simultaneously. Trainees work under the guidance and supervision of experts. The trainees follow the orders and instructions of experts. This method is less expensive. The trainee gets practical training more but lacks in theoretical training.

1. Apprenticeship training : This is one of the older method of training. It is still prevalent nowadays also. The main purpose of this training is to make the employees well versed in a specific art or technique. This method is used in those cases where long term training is required to attain proficiency to perform a particular task. In this method work is entrusted to each trainee according to prescribed programme and training is managed. Generally stipend is paid to the candidates. This training provides theoretical as well as practical knowledge to employees.

2. Job rotation method : In an enterprise when training is given to employee of various jobs, it is called as job rotation method. The main demerit of this method is that due to this method the employees lack specialization in one field. This type of method is very popular in banks. .

3. Training on training centres : First of all according to the necessity training cen-tres are established in this method. These training centres are established by government or commercial enterprises. More stress is given on practical training than on theoretical training. Since training is given in training centres thus it does not effects the production.

4. Training by experienced workmen : Training by experienced workmen will be important and useful in that condition when experienced workmen requires helpers. The object of the training is to make the employee aware and believe in the ideologies of the working.

5. Training by supervisors : This type of training is provided by supervisors or experienced officers. These officers or supervisors are close to the trainee thus it helps the trainee to make communication with officers. This method helps in determining the abilities and efficiency of trainee during the work performed in training.

6. Internship training : The main aim of this training is to provide both theoretical and practical type of training with the joint effort of some technical institutes and business undertakings this type of training is provided to the students to learn theoretical as well as practical aspects of job. e.g., In medical colleges medical students are given theoretical knowledge and in hospitals they are provided practical knowledge due to which students gets the practical training of theoretical knowledge.

Question 8.
What are internal sources of recruitment better than external sources ? Explain by giving reasons.
Answer:

Internal sources of recruitment are better than external sources because of the following reasons: ,

1. Knowledge of general rules : Due to service for many years, these employees know the rules and policies of the organization. So, it is not necessary to give them knowledge like a fresh employee. This saves time and money.

2. Morale is increased : Transparent policies help the employees in knowing as to when their promotions fall due and hence they strive hard for it. Thus, their morale increases.

3. Minimum cost: Expenses in this type of recruitment are kept to a minimum, as filling of jobs internally is cheaper as compared to getting candidate from external sources.

4. Increase in efficiency : In this system, all employees know that they will get promotion in future and side by side efficient and dedicated employee will be promoted shortly. With this hope, they work with full interest and dedication. Through this, their efficiency increases.

5. Reduction in training cost: Employees of the organization, know well the working methods and techniques of work. So, they don’t require training for general work. Training is imparted only to update them with the new technologies and working methods.

Question 9.
Differentiate between Training and Development.
Answer:
Differences between Training and Development:

Question 10.
What is the importance of training ?
Or
Explain the need of training.
Answer:
1. Increase in productivity : The objective of training is to complete the work speedily and effectively. If a work is done speedily and effectively in an enterprise than production will increase which will bring profits to enterprise. Training boosts the morale of employees which increases the efficiency of employees’. This increases the production and productivity of enterprise.

2. Lesser accidents: Training provides complete knowledge about working of plants and machines to employees which increases the operational efficiency and chances of accidents are reduced.

3. Lesser supervision and direction : Supervision and direction is required for the effective completion of work. But after getting training employees have the knowledge about their work and equipment so lesser supervision and direction is needed.

4. Proper use of machines and equipment: Trained employees uses machines and equipment properly and minimizes wastage. A trained employee has the knowledge of operating machines and equipment methodically.

5. Boosts the morale of employees : Training provides self confidence and develops creativity of employees. Training helps in boosting the morale of employees which creates interest towards job.

6. Reduction in supervision cost: Trained employees become more disciplined and take more interest in their job. Employees do not require supervision and direction which reduces the supervision cost.

7. Quality goods : Training provides knowledge about use of machines and equipment which enables the employees to handle machinery and equipment in a better way by minimizing wastage. This helps in production of high quality goods at minimum cost.

8. Better chances of promotion : Trained employees can be promoted to higher posts or grades easily as compared to untrained employees since they have requisite qualification and training.

9. Adaptibility : Training makes the employees keen to Team new things. The trained employees can easily adapt to modem methods, techniques, etc. since training stimulates mental development of employees.

10. Helpful for new employees : Training is necessary for new employees because there is a lot of differences between theoretical and practical knowledge. Training provides practical knowledge to employees about work.

11. Helpful in facing competition: Through training the information about new methods is given and it also provides the knowledge about increasing the production in less time. Thin helps in reducing the cost of production which help in facing competition.

12. Industrial peace : After training each employee is indulged in the activities (Commercial) of enterprise which helps in maintaining industrial peace in enterprise. Training helps in establishing and maintaining harmonious industrial relation.
Above points make it clear that training has advantages both for the enterprise and the employees. Without training the entrepreneurs cannot reach the peak of success.

Question 11.
Write procedure of selection in short.
Or
Discuss the process of selection.
Answer:
“Selection is the process in which candidates for employment are divided into two classes. Those who are to be offered employment and those who are not.”
Selection involves choosing personnel to fill specific jobs in the organization on the basis of educational qualifications, training, skill, abilities and personality of the persons available for the jobs.
Selection process

1. Pretest: When the number of application of applicants are maximum and it is necessary to minimize the incompetent candidates by

1. Physical measurement
2. Intelligence and skill test, etc.

2. Blank application form : After pretest form a blank application is sent to those candidates who have qualified in the pretest. This form is prepared in a most scientific and technical manner. Mainly three types of informations are demanded :

1. Personal informations
2. Psychological informations
3. Working competency information.

3. Main test: This test is generally taken in the written form. In this test the following tests are taken:

1. Ability test
2. Trade test
3. Interest test
4. Personality test
5. Intelligence test
6. Language ability
7. Aptitude test.

4. Interview : No appointment is possible without interview. Interview is the best and most popular method. Interview has a great importance for the post of upper level. In this method, the team of selection and candidate, sit together and discuss with each other. The candidate is evaluated through this discussion.

5. Physical verification : The complete bio data of the candidate is called in this test. Side by side, police verification is made for the verification of candidate’s character. Two references may be called for the candidate for the verification. If the candidate is having any serious disease then his name is cancelled from the selection list.

6. Physical test : Physical test is done of those candidates, who have been finally selected. This is done about the general health of the candidate. Side by side, it is known whether the candidate is having any serious diseases as T.B., AIDS, etc. or not. If the candidate is having any serious disease, then his name is cancelled from the selection list.

Question 12.
Explain any five principles of selection.
Answer:
The principles of selection are :

1. Selection through competent persons : While selecting employees the selector must be a competent person so that an efficient employee can be selected.

2. Fixed standards: Standards should be fixed for selecting employees so that efficient employees can be selected.

3. Impartial : Selection should be fair and impartial. Selector should be far from pride and prejudice.

4. Flexibility : Selection process must be flexible in nature. According to needs of the enterprise and situation necessary changes can be made in selection process.

5. Rules and Laws : Selection process must be according to the rules of enterprise and laws of country.

Question 13.
Explain the methods of recruitment
Answer:
Following are the methods of recruitment:

1. employment of former employees : Employees who have already worked in the organization and have retired or have left the services for some reason posses sufficient experience and skill. Therefore, such employees are re-employed. The governments are also availing the services of retired employees by offering them re-employment. The expenditure for training of such employees is comparatively lesser because they are reliable and possess vast experience. They are especially useful for some technical posts. Often, such posts are filled for vacancies in higher grades.

2. Friends and relatives of present employees : The organization has full confidence in the employees and, therefore, through these employees their friends and relatives who are reliable and competent are employed, the present employees stand guarantee to new employees so recruited. Although the organization gets an opportunity to secure most suitable candidates because they are known to the present employees, sometime favoritism creeps in and incompetent candidate is selected.

3. Direct recruitment in the office : Such recruitment is often done by the Personnel or Services Department of the enterprise. A notice is displayed on the office notice board for such recruitment specifying the number of vacancies and terms and conditions of recruitment. Such notice is published in the daily newspapers also.

4. Recruitment through employment exchange : The employment exchanges are an important source of recruitment. They are established in every district place. They possess list of unemployed candidates with their address, qualification etc. Enterprise or the employers call for applications from such employment exchanges are make direct recruitment.

5. Recruitment through advertisement: Nowadays recruitment through advertisement is very popular and adopted by majority of enterprise. Transparency can be maintained through such recruitment. Organization where technically qualified candidates are needed, recruitment through advertisement is considered to be a better option. Today, recruitment in government or non-government organization through advertisement is considered as the best source. By advertising in newspapers, applications from suitable candidates can be procured in a large number.

6. Recruitment by trade unions : The trade unions also play an important role in recruitment. The recognized trade unions maintained a list of unemployed candidates and they arrange for suitable candidates at the time of recruitment. Reliable candidates may be available by recruitment through trade unions. The trade unions should, on their part, be careful and ensure that no incompetent candidate is recommended by them.

Question 14.
Describe the internal sources of recruitment. What are the advantages of it ?
Answer:
Internal sources of recruitment refers to recruitment from within the enterprise. There are two important internal sources :

1. Promotion : Competent and experienced persons of the enterprises are promoted to higher post on the basis of their qualification and seniority to fill up the vacancy. This system is almost applied by all the enterprise. Some posts where experience is important filling up by promotion only. For e.g. the post of principal in school or college, the post of Vice Chancellor in university.

2. Transfer : It involves the sifting of an employee from one job to another. At the time of transfer it is ensured that the employee to be transferred to the new job is capable of performing the jobs. Transfer becomes essential due to following reasons :

1. To expose the person to variety of jobs.
2. To avoid monotony associated with the execution of a particular job.
3. To penalize employees.
4. A request by employee himself, expressing his desire to work at some other work spot.
5. To accommodate the excess staff at hand.

Advantages : This source of recruitment has certain merits. They are :

1. Knowledge of general rules : Due to service for many years, these employees know the rules and policies of the organization. So, it is not necessary to give them knowledge like a fresh employee. This saves time and money.

2. Morale is increased : Transparent policies help the employees in knowing as to when their promotions fall due and hence they strive hard for it. Thus, their morale increases.

3. Minimum cost : Expenses in this type of recruitment are kept to a minimum, as filling of jobs internally is cheaper as compared to getting candidate from external sources.

4. Increase in efficiency : In this system, all employees know that they will get promotion in future and side by side efficient and dedicated employee will be promoted shortly. With this hope, they work with full interest and dedication. Through this, their efficiency increases.

5. Reduction in training cost: Employees of the organization, know well the working methods and techniques of work. So, they don’t require training for general work. Training is imparted only to update them with the new technologies and working methods.

Question 15.
What is meaning of Training ? What are its chief characteristics ?
Answer:
Meaning of Training : Training is a systematic programme to increase the knowledge, skills, abilities and aptitudes of workers to perform specific jobs. The purpose of training is to achieve a change in the behaviour of those trained and to enable them to do their jobs in a better way. Training is the act of improving or updating the knowledge and skill of an employee for performing a particular job. It is a two-way process because there must be someone to learn and someone to teach. The purpose of training is to mould the behaviour of people so that they can do their jobs in a better way.
Definitions :

1. According to Jucius, “The term training is used here to indicate only process by which the aptitudes, skills and abilities of employees , to perform specific jobs, are increased.”

2. According to Dale, S. Beach, “Training is the organized procedure in which people team knowledge and/or skill for definite purpose.”

3. According to Flippo, “Training is the act of increasing the knowledge and skill of an employee for doing a particular job.”
Characteristics of Training : On the basis of meaning and definitions of training, following are the characteristics :

1. Training is a countinu us process of development of employees.
2. Training is necessary for all the managerial levels.
3. Training is essential for both the old and new employees.
4. Training increases the efficiency of employees.
5. Training and education are different.
6. Training is that expenses incurred on it constitute investment and not wastage.
7. It helps in achieving the objectives of organization.
8. Training provides self satisfaction to employees.
9. All round development of employees is possible through training.

Question 16.
Write the objectives of training.
Answer:

Objectives of training :

1. To make labour force useful: Training familiarises the employee with the object of the organization and work, he has to perform. Workers leam to operate equipments efficiently and increase their utility in the organization.

2. Increasing the efficiency of employees : Workers are acquainted with the real situations of works, its tools, equipments and environment. They have to work pracitically.

3. Familiarity with the working condition : Workers leam to work properly in the real situations of work. Labour force employed in the factory belongs to different parts of the country. They are unfamiliar with each other.

4. To increase in productivity : The objective of training is to complete the work speedily and effectively. If a work is done speedily and effectively in an enterprise than production will increase which will bring profits to enterprise. Training boosts the morale of employees which increase the efficiency of employees. This increases the production and productivity of enterprise.

5. Boosts the morale of employees : Training provides self confidence and develops creativity of employees. Training helps in boosting the morale of employees which creates interest to-words job.

Question 17.
Write the steps of staffing or process of staffing.
Answer:

1. Manpower planning: The first step of staffing process is to estimate manpower requirements. It is ensured that able employees are available in an organization to be placed in right position at the correct time. Manpower planning includes determining the employees to be required in future, which type of qualities are required in employees etc.

2. Recruitment: Edwin B. Fillipo said, explaining the recruitment of labours, “Recruitment is the process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating them to apply for jobs in the organization.” The need for employees is perennial in organization. Dale S. Beael has defined recruitment in this way, “Recruitment is the development and maintenance of adequate manpower resources. It involves the creation of a pool of available labour from where the organization can draw when it needs additional employees.” In a big organization, a separate branch or personnel department assesses the manpower requirements and recruits them. This department is also called Recruitment Section. It is the second step in the process of staffing.

3. Selection : Selection is the third important step of staffing. Selection involves choosing personnel to fill specific jobs in the organization on the basis of educational qualifications, training, skill, abilities and personality of the persons available for the jobs. The selection process involves screening and testing of candidates who have applied for the jobs in the enterprises. Selection is necessary because some of the candidates who have applied may not be suitable for the jobs in the enterprise. Further, the number of candidates who are suitable for the jobs may be more than the vacant jobs to be filled.Dale Yoder has defined the word ‘selection’ in this way, “Selection is the process in which candidates for employment are divided into two classes : those who are to be offered employment and those who are not.”

4. Placement and Orientation : As per the terms and conditions and date of joining mentioned in the appointment letter, the candidate has to join the duty. From the very date of his joining, he is treated as an employee of that office. This newly appointed employee works with the senior employee. So that he may be well acquainted with the working methods.
Orientation means to acquaint the employees with their work and organization. In order to work as a team new employees are introduced to their subordinates and seniors.

5. Training and Development: In order to increase the efficiency and effectiveness of employees training and development facilities are imparted to the employees. Training benefits both the organization and employees. For different categories of employees suitable method of training should be adopted.

6. Determination of remuneration: The remuneration of selected employees should be determined according to the work performed by them. Remuneration may be paid in the form of wages, salaries, fees, allowances, etc.

7. Performance appraisal: The standards are established by the organization. The performance of employees are compared with the standards set. On the basis of their performance. The wages of employees are determined. Thus performance appraisal is an important activity in staffing process.

8. Promotion and Transfer : Competent and experienced persons of the enterprise are promoted to higher posts and shifting of an employee from one job to another are also
the major steps of staffing process.If the employees do not work according to standards set, they are also demoted from their job. Thus in process of staffing promotion, demotion, transfer, retirement, etc. are also included.

Question 18.
Write the characteristics of staffing.
Answer:
Characteristics :

1. Human nature: Staffing is the work done by man for man. In an enterprise though a certain work may be done by livestock, but staffing involves only recruitment, promotion and development of human being. Thus, staffing is concerned with human nature only.

2. Managerial function : Staffing is exclusively a managerial function. It is also called human resource management. In large organization, there is a separate personnel department for staffing which performs the functions from recruitment to development of personnel. Thus staffing is exclusively a managerial function.

3. Continuous activity : Staffing is a continuous activity. This involves continuous recruitment, placement, promotion, transfer, development etc.

4. A process : Staffing is a process in itself. It is concerned with organization structure and its various plans and policies.

5. Social nature : Staffing is exclusively the function of the society for the society. Management is in itself a social function therefore staffing exists within the society.

6. Recruitment at all levels : Staffing is done at all level stop management, middle management and lower level management. Through the method of recruitment may differ, but this is done at all levels of management.

7. Recruitment at present and future vacancies: With fulfilling the present vacancies, the vacancies likely to arise in future are also determined and the work relating to future vacancies is also completed in advance so that the vacancies may be filled as and when needed.

8. Staffing in broader sense : Staffing involves recruitment, promotion, demotion, retirement, transfer, training development, evaluation. Hence staffing has a broader meaning.

9. Complicated : Staffing work is very complicated because in this we have to face with people, personal pressure and tradition.

10. Policy fixation : In staffing apart from selection of employees policies related with their promotion, transfer, retirement, compensation etc is also framed.

Question 19.
Distinguish between education and training.
Answer:
Generally it is assumed that education and training are same but there are some differences between education and training. They are as follows :

1. Education is imparted according to a specific syllabus while in training the technique of performing work is important.
2. Education is a long term plan which is imparted every year while training is for short period.
3. In education there is a relationship between teacher and student which is a symbol of respect between both of them while in training between experts and trainee and both of them have formal relationship.
4. Education is related to general knowledge while training is related to knowledge of specific work.
5. Education is related with overall development of persons while training is related with the knowledge of specific area for persons.
6. Scope of education is wide while scope of training is narrow.
7. Education is related with school, colleges etc. which training is related with training centres.
8. Cost of education is borne by the person himself or the government while cost of training is borne by employer. .
9. Education is a symbol of increase in knowledge while training is a symbol of performing work artistically.

Question 20.
Write the principles of recruitment or policy of recruitment.
Answer:
Following are the principles of recruitment:

1. Recruitment work is a managerial prerogative : Every function relating to recruitment should be done by the top management, so that no conflict arises in the process of recruitment.

2. Information of vacant post from different departments: Top management should call for the information of vacant posts from different departments from time to time, so that recruitment may be done in accordance with the information.

3. Separate department for recruitment : Recruitment is very important. So, for this, experienced and efficient recruitment personnel should be appointed and a separate department or branch should be opened, which may be defined as a personnel department or recruitment branch.

4. Approval of new posts : If work increases and the need for additional posts is felt, then approval for creation of new posts should be obtained from the employers, as due to the creation of additional posts, economic burden increases.

5. Recruitment work by a competent officer : Employees are the backbone of any business. So, their selection should be made after deep thinking and by a competent officer. Recruitment experts from outside may be invited in case of need.

6. Recruitment as per work: Before recruitment, the nature and kind of work should be kept in mind and recruitment should be done accordingly and a competent and efficient person should be selected. For example, if any work is to be done by hand, then a selection of person, maimed by hand will be void.

7. Without partiality: Recruitment should always be impartial. Discrimination should not be present in the recruitment process.

8. Weight age to qualification : In recruitment, qualification should be taken into mind at first. In qualification, along with educational qualifications, sports, work experience etc.should be given weight age.

9. Suggestions from different sources : It is not wrong to call suggestions from competent and acquainted persons for recruitment and subsequently, selection can be made from these recruiters.

10. Different tests : Different tests such as physical test, intelligence test, work test, nature test etc. should be conducted before recruitment to facilitate selection.

MP Board Class 12 Business Studies Important Questions

MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 9 Analysis of Financial Statements

Analysis of Financial Statements Important Questions

Analysis of Financial Statements Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Under which financial analysis, data of two or more than two years are written together for comparative study :
(a) Horizontal analysis
(b) Vertical analysis
(c) Cash analysis
(d) Ratio analysis.
Answer:
(a) Horizontal analysis

Question 2.
The analysis in which one figure is compared with an other figure and which shows the relationship between the two is called:
(a) Break even analysis
(b) Ratio analysis
(c) Trend analysis
(d) General analysis.
Answer:
(b) Ratio analysis

Question 3.
Break even point depicts:
(a) Profit
(b) Loss
(c) No profit no loss
(d) Gross profit.
Answer:
(c) No profit no loss

Question 4.
Analysis of reasons for changes in cash is:
(a) Fund flow statement
(b) Cash flow statement
(c) Trend Analysis
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Cash flow statement

Question 5.
The main objective of financial statement analysis is:
(a) To know about profitability
(b) To check the financial statement
(c) To satisfy various interest holders
(d) To full fill the formalities.
Answer:
(a) To know about profitability

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. The point at which total cost is equal to total revenue is called ……………
2. The analysis depicting the changes in working capital during the year is called ……………
3. The method of financial analysis in which the relationship between various items of balance sheet and profit /
4. loss account is established is called …………… analysis.
5. Only such information are included in financial statement which can be expressed in terms of ……………
6. The analysis which is used to judge the trend of operations of an enterprise and computed in relation to a base year is called ……………

Answer:

1. Break even point
2. Fund flow analysis
3. Vertical
4. Money
5. Trend analysis.

Question 3.
Match the columns:

Answer:

1. (b) Disclosing natural relationship by comparative study of mathematical expression
2. (a) To represent the changes in working capital
3. (c) Cash flow analysis and use of cash
4. (e) Break even as point.
5. (d) Trend analysis no profit and no loss

Question 4.
Write true or false:

1. Liquidity ratio refers to establishing relationship between current assets and current liabilities.
2. Fund flow statement does not represent the changes in working capital.
3. The point at which total cost is equal to total revenue is called break even point.
4. The position of cash balance and various uses of cash cannot be known through cash flow analysis.
5. The trend various items can be expressed in terms of percentage through trend analysis.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. True.

Question 5.
Write the answer in one word/sentence:

1. The method of reviewing and analysing financial statements for a specific period.
2. The other name of vertical analysis is.
3. The analysis which represent the trends of various items in form of percentages is called as.
4. The ratio which discloses relationship between current assets and current liabilities is called.
5. The point at which total cost is equal to total revenue is called.

Answer:

1. Vertical analysis
2. Common size analysis
3. Trend analysis
4. Liquidity ratio
5. Break even point.

Analysis of Financial Statements Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by analysis of financial statements ?
Answer:
Analysis of financial statements is a process in which the data of various head are compared so as to,-find out a relationship in an effective manner by classifying them in a simple form so that significant result may be obtained regarding financial strength or weakness of the company. The process of analysis and interpretation of financial statements help in deriving important conclusions and knowledge about business operations.

Question 2.
Write three characteristics of analysis of financial statements ?
Answer:
The following are the three characteristics of financial statements :

1. To represent the complex data present in financial statements in a simple form.
2. To divide the various items of financial statements under clear and appropriate heads.
3. To compare various items so as to find out changes among them and help in taking out appropriate inferences.

Question 3.
What do you mean by comparative statements ?
Answer:
The statements is which figures for two or more year are places side-by-side to facilitate comparison are called comparative statements. The figures pertaining to production, expenditure, sale profit etc. are shown comparatively side by side so as to draw conclusions about the profit earning capacity liquidity profitability and financial soundness of the concerning  business.

Question 4.
What is fund flow Statement?
Answer:
Fund flow statement is a statement prepared in a summary form which brings into light the cause of changes in working capital during the year. Such statements comprises the sources of funds, uses of funds and the changes in net working capital. This statement also reach the various sources from where the firm received funds and the areas in which these funds were utilized.

Question 5.
What is cash flow analysis ?
Answer:
Cash flow analysis shows inflows and outflows of cash in a concern during a particular accounting period. Cash means cash and cash equivalents, while flow means movement of cash. It explains reasons for the changes in cash position of an enterprise. This analysis helps the managers / directors to find out why there was scarcity of cash in business despite. The firm earned profit and why there is cash balance available despite the firm incurred loss.

Question 6.
What is break even point analysis ?
Answer:
The term break even point refers to that point at which the total cost are just equal to total sales. A business concern neither earns profit nor suffers a loss at this point. It is also called Neutral point.

Question 7.
Name the different tools of financial analysis.
Answer:
The following tools or devices are used for financial analysis :

• Comparative financial statement.
• Trend analysis.
• Common size statement.
• Fund flow statement.
• Cash flow statement.
• Ratio analysis.
• Break even point analysis.

Question 8.
What do you mean by liquid assets ?
Answer:
Liquid assets refers to that assets which can be converted into cash without any diminution in the value of asset for example cash in hand, cash at bank (these two assets are itself liquid), bill receivable and short investment. For calculating liquid asset from current asset stock and prepaid expenses left out.

Analysis of Financial Statements Short Answer Type Questions 

Question 1.
Explain objectives of financial statement analysis.
Answer:
The following are the main objectives of financial statement analysis.

1. Knowledge of earning capacity or profitability of business:
The main object of analysis is to know whether there is appropriate profit on invested capital or not. It enables computation of earning capacity of the business and estimation of future earning capacity as well.

2. Knowledge regarding solvency:
The financial analysis helps to determine the short-term as well as long form solvency of the concern.

3. Knowledge of financial position:
Analysis of financial statement enables us to know the financial strength of the business enterprise. Through analysis of financial statement we can ascertain whether requisite funds will be available for purchasing fined assets from integrate resources of business or not.

4. To know about capability of payment of interest and dividend:
Through analysis of financial statement we can easily ascertain the capability of business under taking to pay interest and dividend regularly. We can ascertain whether there is sufficient profit for this purpose.

5. Knowledge of trend of business:
Analysis of financial statements help us to make a comparative study of balance sheets of business of various years. The trends of purchase, sale gross profit etc. can be easily compared with that of previous year. Such compression help us to investigate the weakness, irregularity and remedial measures can be taken for improvement.

6. Valuable information for management:
One of the principal objective of the analysis of financial statement is to know the weakness or drawbacks of the undertaking. This analysis makes valuable data and information available to the management for further decision and planning.

Question 2.
Explain the importance of analysis of financial statements.
Answer:
Financial analysis is usually significant to the following categories of persons:

1. Significance for management:
The management needs to know what progress of
business has been towards its objectives of profitability, economic soundness turned etc. it is from the analysis they can be made available. On the basis of facts of analysis the management is able to compare the business with other business. Financial analysis reveals the shortcomings which can be removed by making effective policies. ‘

2. Significance for investors:
Investors invest their money with the expectation of a good return. They take decision on the basis of information disclosed for profitability, solvency and trend of business. They can compare the business with other business and the analysis of current year with previous year of the same business and finalize their plans regarding investment.

3. Significance for creditors and debenture holders:
Short term creditors are interested to know liquidity position of the business. This can be obtained through solvency ratios. Similarly the long – term creditors particularly debenture holders want to know the timely return of interest on debentures and the security of money invested in the form of debentures. They can obtain the knowledge regarding long-term solvency of the company through the analysis of the financial statements.

4. Significance for Government:
Government has to take various decisions for the economic development of the country. Government frames the industrial policy. The financial analysis is helpful for the formation and execution of financial and economic policies of Government.

5. Significance for financial institutions:
Financial institutions play important role in industrial and commercial development. Bank, life insurance corporation, ICICI bank, HDFC bank. Industrial development bank advance mid term and long – term loan to business concerns. For deciding the rate of interest, return of loan etc. they take the help of analysis of financial statements.

6. Significance for others:
Financial analysis has importance to other categories of society. The employees are interested to know the profitability of concern. On this basis they can demand for increase in salary. Economists, researches, analysts, tax authorities also receives the useful information through analysis of financial statements of business concerns.

Question 3.
Explain the limitations of financial statement analysis.
Answer:
The following are the limitations of financial statement analysis:

1. Limitations of financial statements:
Financial statement themselves have a number of limitations and so the analysis of financial statements suffers from limitations. Financial statement in fact, are based on accounting concepts and communications and so the analysis of such statement clear not prove meaningful.

2. Affected by window dressing:
It is generally seen that window dressing is adopted in financial statements to conceal the bad aspect of financial position. It adversely affects then analysis of financial statements.

3. Based on past events:
Financial statements represents the record of part events and historical facts. It is based on previous year data and events. The result of financial analysis can not disclose the possibilities of future. Hence, the conclusions derived from them can not be used for the purpose of forecasting.

4. Ignores the changes in price level:
If price level changes are not taken into consideration, the results of analysis of financial statements may be misleading Ratios of different years will not be useful for comparison if the prices of commodities are different. The ratios may improve due to increase in prices whereas the actual efficiency remains unchanged. Correct results of two financial years can be obtained when the price one. Stable other set the result of analysis of financial statement may be misleading.

5. Effect of personal decision of analysts:
Analysis of financial statements are affected by personal decisions taken by accountants analysts themselves such as methods of charging depreciation valuation of stock, writing off revenue expense’s etc The rationality of such decisions depends upon the ability, honesty and experience of the analysts. Thus, financial statements and conclusions derived from then may be biased.

6. Ignores the qualitative element:
Analysis of financial statements does not measure the qualitative aspects of business concern. It disclose only those information which can be expressed in terms of money. It does not exhibit the skill, technical know how and efficiency of staff and management. Hence the analysis is one-sided measure. It shows one sided performance of a business undertaking.

7. Limited use of single year’s analysis of financial statements:
If analysis of financial statements is done for one year then from that analysis correct conclusion cannot be taken. Hence, it is necessary to analysis financial statements of few years.

Question 4.
Write the characteristics of analysis of financial statement
Answer:
Following are the characteristics of financial analysis:

• To present the accounting data in a simple and understandable form.
• To classify the items of profit and loss account and balance sheet in convenient and related groups.
• To make comparison between different groups to interpret different conclusions.
• Financial analysis clarify the changes in the financial items.
• There are various techniques for financial analysis.

Question 5.
Prepare comparative Income statement from the following particulars for the year ended 31st March 2017 and 31st March 2018.

Solution:
Comparative Income Statement

Question 6.
From the following details make out a comparative income statement:

Solution:
Comparative Income Statement

Question 7.
From the following in formation prepare a comparative statement for the year ended 31^st March 2008 and 31st March 2009.

Solution:
Comparative Income Statement For the year ended 2008 and 2009:

MP Board Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions

MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 8 Financial Statements of a Company

Financial Statements of a Company Important Questions

Financial Statements of a Company Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Following are included in the financial statement of a commercial firm:
(a) Balance Sheet
(b) Profit & Loss statement
(c) Cash flow statement
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 2.
The General methods adopted for financial analysis are:
(a) Horizontal Analysis
(b) Vertical Analysis
(c) Ratio Analysis
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Question 3.
Annual Report of a company is issued for:
(a) Director
(b) Auditors
(c) Shareholders
(d) Management.
Answer:
(c) Shareholders

Question 4.
Comparative Analysis is also known as:
(a) Active Analysis
(b) Horizontal Analysis
(c) Vertical Analysis
(d) External Analysis.
Answer:
(b) Horizontal Analysis

Question 5.
Balance Sheet of a firm disclose the information related to financial condition for:
(a) A specific given period
(b) During a specific period
(c) A specific period
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) A specific given period

Question 6.
In which meeting is it compulsory for a company to produce it’s balance sheet and profit and loss account compulsory:
(a) Extra ordinary general meeting
(b) Debenture, holder’s meeting
(c) Annual general meeting
(d) Meeting of board of directors.
Answer:
(c) Annual general meeting

Question 7.
Which of the following is prepared in horizontal or vertical format:
(a) Profit and loss account
(b) Balance sheet
(c) Income and expenditure account
(d) Cash account.
Answer:
(b) Balance sheet

Question 8.
Which of the following capital is not included for totaling of balance sheet:
(a) Paid – up capital
(b) Issued capital
(c) Authorised capital
(d) Share capital.
Answer:
(c) Authorised capital

Question 9.
Which of the following liability is shown below the balance sheet separately :
(a) Current liability
(b) Fixed liability
(c) Contingent liability
(d) Overdraft.
Answer:
(c) Contingent liability

Question 10.
The amount of preliminary expenses and underwriting commission in shown under which heading and which side of balance sheet:
(a) Liability side
(b) Assets side under the head of miscellaneous expenses
(c) None of the sides
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Assets side under the head of miscellaneous expenses

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. Generally analysis mean …………….. of data.
2. Meaning of formulation is …………….. of data.
3. Comparative Analysis is also known as …………….. analysis.
4. The General form of analysis is also known as …………….. analysis.
5. The actual inflow and outflow of cash in an organization / institution is known as …………….. analysis.
6. Underwriter is that person, firm or company who promises to …………….. the shares of a company.
7. The part of profit which is kept for unforeseen exigencies of future is called ……………..
8. The part of profit which is kept for distribution to shareholders is called as ……………..
9. The dividend which is proposed for distribution by company in the following year is called ……………..
10. The arrangement of employees provident fund is called as ……………..

Answer:

1. Simplification
2. Described
3. Horizontal
4. Vertical
5. Cash flow
6. Purchase
7. Reserve
8. Divisible profit
9. Proposed dividend
10. Provision.

Question 3.
Match the columns:

Answer:

1. (a) Underwriter
2. (c) Expenses incurred during formation of company
3. (b) External liability of a company
4. (e) The amount which has not been claimed by shareholders.
5. (d) Amount which is kept for distribution to share holders

Question 4.
Write true or false:

1. Cash flow statement is included in the financial statement of a commercial organization.
2. Comparative statement is a form of horizontal analysis.
3. Ratio analysis establish relation between two financial statements.
4. Financial analysis are used by the creditors only.
5. The financial analysis provide assistance to derive the accurate decision to the analyse.
6. Preliminary expenses are incurred during dissolution of a company.
7. Discount on issue of shares and debentures are shown is assets side of balance sheet.
8. Preliminary expenses are considered as capital expenditure.
9. The balance sheet of a company is prepared as per schedule VI and part I of company’s act 1956.
10. Preparation of balance sheet is not mandatory for a company.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. True
4. False
5. True
6. False
7. True
8. False
9. True
10. False.

Question 5.
Write the answer in one word / sentence:

1. Which are the two basic financial statement of a company ?
2. What are non current Assets ?
3. Give two examples of current liabilities.
4. What is contingent liabilities ?
5. Write two items of the heading ‘Provision’.
6. The capital beyond which the company cannot issue it’s shares.
7. The person who promotes a company ?
8. The capital which has been received by the company ?
9. What condition of a company is disclosed by balance sheet of company ?
10. Which type of expenditure is underwriting commission ?

Answer:

1. Profit & Loss A / c, Balance Sheet
2. Assets kept for more than one year
3. Creditors, Bills Payable
4. Liabilities which depend on the occurrence of certain event in fixture
5. Provision for Taxation, Provision for Divident
6. Authorised capital
7. Promoters
8. Paid-up capital
9. True and correct
10. Deferred Revenue expenditure.

Financial Statements of a Company Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by contingent liabilities ? Give two examples of it
Answer:
These are liabilities which will exist or not, it will depend on any future incident. They are not shown in the liability side of balance sheet. But they are shown below the balance sheet as a foot note. These are the claims of companies outside parties. It can’t be accepted as a loan.

Example:
Amount of bills discounted from the bank, partial payment of shares, etc.

Question 2.
Give the definition of financial statement and five examples of fixed assets.
Answer:
The financial statements are those statements which are prepared to ascertain the profit or loss during an accounting period and position of assets and liabilities at a certain date. These statements are the outcomes of the summarizing process of accounting and are the sources of information based on which conclusion are drawn about the profitability and financial position of a company definitions:

John N. Myer:
‘The financial statement provide a summary of account of a business enterprises, the balance sheet reflecting the assets, liabilities and capital as on a certain date and the income statement showing the results of operations during a certain period.”

As per the Companies Act 2013:
‘‘Financial statement will present a true and appropriate view of the positioning details to the company or companies when it will follow the schedule writing in Section 133 and in the prescribed format of Schedule III of the Act.”

Fixed Assets:
“These are those assets which are used in the business for long duration such as land and buildings, plant and machinery, Furniture, Vehicles, Livestock, Goodwill, Trademark, patent etc.

Question 3.
What do you mean by current assets ?
Answer:
Current assets:
Under this heading we include all such assets which are expected to be converted in cash within a year from the date of balance sheet. The items that come under this heading are divided into following two subheadings :
(A) Current assets
(B) Loans and advances.

(A) Current assets:
The items included in this subheading are as under:

1. Accrued interest on investment
2. Stores and spare parts
3. Loose tools
4. Stock in trade
5. Work-in-progress
6. Sundry Debtors:
   • Debts outstanding for more than six months
   • Other debts Less :  Provision for doubtful debts,
7. Cash and bank balance. In case of debtors, their particulars should also be given regarding their quality
8. such as; (i) Debts fully secured
9. Debts secured on personal security and
10. Debts considered doubtful or bad.

Question 4.
Differentiate between reserves and provisions.
Answer:
The various differences between reserves and provisions are as follows:

Question 5.
Write a short note on:

1. Preliminary expenses
2. Unclaimed dividend.

Answer:
1. Preliminary expenses:
While commencing a company, apart from the value of assets, other expenses which are incurred are called preliminary expenses. It includes expenses in acquisition of buildings, printing expenses of various documents, commission given for the transaction of assets, brokerage and other sundry expenses.

2. Unclaimed dividend:
That amount of declared dividend, where no claim has been made so far, is called unclaimed dividend. It should be paid within a year.

Question 6.
Rearrange the following items under three heads :

1. Fixed Assets
2. Current Assets
3. Loans and Advances.

Livestock, leasehold land, Cash in hand, Loose tools, Trademark, Work-in progress, Goodwill, Stores and spare parts, Plant, Trademark, Furniture, Interest accrued, Bills receivables, Vehicles, Bank balance, Debtors, Loans to subsidiaries, Land.
Solution:

Question 7.
Show how the assets and liabilities are arranged properly according to Section VI, Part-I of Companies Act of 1956 from the following information

Answer:

Question 8.
Under what headings the following items are shown in the Balance sheet of the company:

1. Goodwill
2. Unclaimed dividend
3. Provision for tax
4. Securities premium A/c
5. Loose tools.

Solution:
Balance Sheet of Company:

Question 9.
Under what headings will you show following items in balance sheet:

1. Goodwill
2. Bill receivable
3. Capital reserve
4. Sundry creditors
5. Building
6. Sundry Debtors
7. Debentures
8. Issued capital.

Answer:

1. Goodwill — Fixed assets.
2. Bills receivable — Current assets
3. Capital Reserve — Reserves and provisions
4. Issued capital — Share capital
5. Sundry creditors — Current liabilities
6. Building — Fixed assets
7. Sundry Debtors — Current assets
8. Debentures — Secured loan.

Financial Statements of a Company Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the main items of liability side of balance sheet of a company ?
Answer:
Main Items of Balance Sheet and their Details: The main items of balance sheet as mentioned in the part I of the schedule VI of the Indian Companies Act 1956 is as under:

Main items of liability side:
In the balance sheet, the items of liabilities are mentioned under the following heads:

1. Share capital:
The share capital should be classified into following categories:

(i) Authorized capital:
This is the maximum amount of capital which a company can collect by way of issuing of shares. Under this heading the number and the nominal value of shares is given. This amount of capital is not included in the total of the liability side since only a part of the authorized capital is issued for subscription.

(ii) Issued capital:
It is that part of the authorized capital which has actually been issued to the public for subscription so far. It mentions each category of capital, i.e., equity or preference shares which has been issued. Issued capital can never be greater than the authorized capital.

(iii) Subscribed capital:
Subscribed capital is that part of issued capital for which the applications have been received from the public. Subscribed capital is also not included in the total of the liability side. To keep it separate from the total, double close lines are drawn below this amount.

(iv) Called-up capital: It is that part of subscribed capital which has actually been called from the public. The called-up capital can never exceeds the subscribed capital.

(v) Paid-up capital: It is that part of called-up capital which has actually been paid by the public in response to the calls made by the company.

2. Reserve and surplu:
Reserves are the part of profit which is accumulated out of undistributed profits. The reserves and surplus should be categorically mentioned in the balance sheet as:

• Capital Reserve
• Capital Redemption Reserve
• Share Premium Account
• Other specific reserves
• Proposed additions to reserves
• Sinking fund.

After making other necessary appropriations the balance of profit and loss account is also shown under this head.
In case of each of the above reserves, the additions and deductions made since last balance sheet must be disclosed clearly. The debit balance (if any) of the profit and loss account must be shown as deducted from unspecific free revenue reserve. The surplus of profit and loss account (after appropriation) should also be shown under this head.

3. Secured loans:
Loan obtained against pledge of assets as security or against guarantee of repayment made by the company is called secured loan. It includes debentures as per their condition of repayment, bank loans, loans and advances from subsidiary companies, other loans advances, etc. All secured loans must be shown under proper subheadings. Interest accrued and due on unsecured loans are to be included under the appropriate subheadings.

In addition to it the terms of redemption or conversion of loans should also be mentioned along with the earliest date of Redemption or conversion. Under this heading the loan taken from the directors, managing directors / agents, secretaries, etc. should be shown separately. Against each item of loan the security offered should be specified in the balance sheet.

4. Unsecured loan:
When a company borrows loan without giving any security, such loans are known as unsecured loans. The items included under this heading are; Fixed deposits, loans and advances from subsidiary companies, short-term loans and advances from banks or from others. Other loans and advances from banks. Here, by short-term loan we mean such loans which are due for repayment within a period of one year from the date of the balance sheet.

Unsecured loans from directors, managers, managing directors, secretary, treasures and managers should be shown separately. Interest due, but not paid on unsecured loans should be shown along with the concerned loan amount.

5. Current liabilities and provisions:
This item is divided into two main parts namely:

(i) Current liabilities:
All such liabilities which are payable within a period of one year are included under this heading. The items included in it are; bills payable, sundry creditors, advance income, outstanding expenses, unclaimed dividends, interest accrued but not due on loans, etc.

(ii) Provisions:
It is a charge against profit to meet certain known liability for which the exact burden cannot be ascertained with substantial accuracy. In case, such provision exceeds the actual liability the excess is treated as reserve. Provision is maintained even in the years of loss, since it is a charge against the profit.

Under this head the items like provision for taxation, proposed dividend, provision for contingencies, for P.F. of the employees, for other staff benefit schemes such as employees insurance and pension, etc. are included in it.

Question 2.
Explain the items which are shown on the asset side of balance sheet under the main heads of public limited company.
Answer:
The following items are included on the asset side of the balance sheet of a public limited company under the main heads:

1. Fixed assets:
Under this heading, fixed assets of the company are shown in their cost price. Appreciation or depreciation are added or deducted.

2. Investments:
To earn income securities are purchased for business purpose. They are shown under this heading.

3. Current assets, loans and advances:
This heading is also divided into two subheads:

(i) Current assets:
It means such assets which can be changed into cash within the year or immediately. Stock of goods, sundry debtors, etc. are entered in this head.

(ii) Loans and advances:
Under this heading, it is entered bills receivable, loans and advances from subsidiary companies etc. are shown.

4. Miscellaneous expenditure:
Under this heading, preliminary expenses, commission and brokerage on shares and debentures etc. are shown.

5. Profit and loss account:
When there is a debit balance of profit and loss A/c, it is shown under this heading.

Question 3.
Write the names of accounts which are shown on the assets side and liabilities side of balance sheet of a company under main heads in the horizontal form.
Or
Write some important items (only main headings) showed as Indian company’s Act 1956 schedule VI-I in balance sheet.
Answer:
Under the ahead heads, the items are shown on the assets and liabilities side of a company balance sheet:
Balance Sheet of a Ltd. Company:

Question 4.
Write some elements of sound or good financial statement
Or
Write the characteristic of an ideal financial statement.
Answer:
Elements of sound financial statement are as follows:

• Simplicity : It should be simple and easy to understand. The size of this kind of financial statement not so big.
• Accuracy: It should be accurate whatever the conclusion drawn from it are accusable and effective.
• Understandable: It should be easy to understand. Any body can understand.
• Easy: It should be easy to calculate. An average person can understand and able to calculate it.

Question 5.
Write short notes on following:
(A) Current liabilities and provisions
(B) Current assets, loans and advances.

Answer:
(A) Current Liabilities and Provisions: There are two parts under this head:
(a) Current Liabilities:
These are those liabilities which are repayable within one year. Current liabilities include bills payable, sundry creditors, advance payments, unclaimed dividends, etc. These are shown in part A.

(b) Provisions:
‘Provisions’ are shown in part B and they include provision for taxation, proposed dividend, provident fund, provision for insurance and pension schemes etc.

(B) Current Assets, Loans and Advances:
These are the assets which are likely to be converted into cash within a year from the date of the balance sheet. These are divided into two parts:

(a) Current Assets:
These include, (i) Interest accrued on investments, stores and spare parts, loose tools, stock-in-trade, works-in-progress, sundry debtors (Debts out standing for more than 6 months; other debts), cash and bank balance.

(b) Loans and Advances:
Cash loans given to different persons, advances against purchase of goods and various expenses by the company etc., are included in it. These items should be shown in the balance sheet under separate subheadings:

• Advances and Loans to Subsidiaries,
• Bills of exchange,
• Advances recoverable in cash or in kind for value to be received eg., Rates, Taxes, Insurance etc.
• Balance with customs, port trust etc.

Question 6.
Explain in details, the importance of financial statements.
Answer:
Following are the importance of financial statements for various parties:

1. Management:
The management uses accounting information to take various decision. The management has the responsibility to protect die owner’s investment and to increase its value by managing the business efficiently so that it earns maximum profit.

2. Investors:
The investor includes both long term and short term investors. The main purpose of these investors is to protect the appropriate money and earn enough income on it. For this they need much information about the company’s economic status, profit earing capacity, current value of shares.

3. Bank and other lending institutions:
As bank and financial institutions provide loan to the business they are interested in knowing the performance of the business to know whether it is making progress as projected to ensure the safety and recovery of the advanced I loan.

4. Employees and trade unions:
The employees and trade union gets financial status and financial information from these statements. The various facilities and employee’s demand depend on the financial condition of the business enter prize. Earning capacity are affected by wages, allowances, bonus etc.

5. Government and government agencies:
The government came to know about the economic development of the country from the financial statements. The government agencies studies the security of the interest of the shareholders. The government calculate the national income from the information collected through these statement and also ensures that the legal provisions in the articles are being followed or not.

Question 7.
Explain the limitations of financial statements.
Answer:
The limitation of financial statements are as follows:

1. Do not reflect current situation:
Financial statements are prepared on the basis of historical cost. Since the purchasing power of money is changing, the value of assets and liabilities shown in financial statements do not reflect current market situation.

2. Assets may not realize:
Accounting is done on the basis of certain conventions. Some of the assets may not realise the state value if liquidation is forced on the company. Assets shown in the balance sheet reflect only unexpired cost.

3. Bias:
Financial statements are the outcomes of the recorded facts, accounting concepts and convention used and personal judgement made in different situations by the Accountants. Hence, bias may be observed in the results and the financial position depicted in financial statements may not be realistic.

4. Aggregate information:
Financial statements show aggregate information but not detailed information. Hence they may not help the users in decision making sufficiently.

5. Vital information missing:
Balance sheet does not disclose information relating to loss of markets and cease of agreements which have an important impact on the enter prize.

6. No qualitative information:
Financial statements contain only monetary information but not qualitative information like industrial relations, industrial climate, labor relation, quality of work etc.

Question 8.
Draw the specimen of income statement and explain its elements.
Answer:
Profit and Loss A/c
For the year ending on of company Ltd.

MP Board Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions