Category: Class 9

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Solutions Chapter 7 India: Population

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 7 Text Book Questions

Choose the Correct Answer:

Questions 1.
in which of the following period did the growth of population increase steadily?
(a) 1901-21
(b) 1921-51
(c) 1951-81
(d) 1981-2001
Answer:
(b) 1921-51

Questions 2.
According to 2001 census which is the most densely populated state?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Kerala
(d) West Bengal
Answer:
(a) Uttar Pradesh

Questions 3.
Which state has highest percentage of literacy?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Kerala
(c) Goa
(d) Delhi
Answer:
(b) Kerala

Questions 4.
Which is the most densely populated Union Territory?
(a) Chandigarh
(b) Pondicherry
(c) Delhi
(d) Lakshadweep
Answer:
(c) Delhi

Fill in the blank:

1. Population density is ……………. in India.
2. ………………. has the highest percentage of literacy in India.
3. The president of national population commission is ……………
4. World population day is celebrated on ………………. every year.
5. Population wise India is the country in the world.
6. In India the female population is ………….. ! ………….. then male population.

Answer:

1. 382
2. Kerala
3. Prime Minister
4. 17 July
5. Second
6. Less.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 7 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is birth rate?
Answer:
The number of live births for every thousand persons is called birth rate.

Question 2.
What is death rate?
Answer:
The number of deaths per thousand population in a year is called death rate.

Question 3.
What was the density of population in India in 2011?
Answer:
In the year 2011 population density of India was 382 persons per square km.

Question 4.
What was the sex – ratio in India in 2011?
Answer:
According to census 2011 the sex – ratio of the country was 943 (there are 943 females per thousand males) meaning that the number of females is less than number of males.

Question 5.
Population – wise and Area – wise what is the position of India in the world?
Answer:
Population – wise India is the second largest and area – wise the seventh largest country in the world.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 7 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write about any three problems resulting from population growth.
Answer:
Due to the population growth many problems are coming up in our country. Among many problems, there are given below:

• Poverty
• Unemployment
• Decline of standard of living

Question 2.
Why is the rate of sex – ratio declining in India? Give reasons.
Answer:
The rate of sex – ratio is declining in India due to the following reasons –

• Literacy is low among females.
• High maternal mortality rate.
• Desire of male child in a male dominating society.
• Increasing female foeticide.
• Neglecting girl child and considering girl child as a liability.
• Dowry system in the society causes female foeticide and encourage females towards suicide.

Question 3.
What do you understand by National Population Commission?
Answer:
Following National Population Policy 2000, National Commission on Population has been established. The Prime Minister is the President of this commission. Chief ministers of all States and Union Territories, administrators and ministers, in charge of all related departments and central ministers, renowned demographers and the representatives of public health and professional organizations and non – government organization are its members.

Following the National Population Policy 2000, state level population commissions like the National level population commission have also been formed. The chief ministers of the respective states are their .presidents.

Question 4.
What do you mean by sex – ratio? Explain its distribution in the country.
Answer:
Sex – ratio means number of females per thousand males. According to census 2001 the sex – ratio for the country was 933 (there are 933 females per thousand males) meaning that the number of females is less than number of males. This means that the sex – ratio in India is adverse. When the number of females is more than males the sex – ratio is said to be favorable.

There are wide regional disparities in sex – ratio in India. When we will go through the map of distribution of male-female ratio we find that Kerala records favorable sex – ratio (1058).whereas in Chandigarh it is adverse (773)
The distribution of male – female ratio are as under:

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 7 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give the main causes of population growth in India and the measures being taken to control it.
Answer:
The main causes of population growth in India are:

1. Birth – rate and death – rate:
During 1911 to 1921 birth – rale and death – rate were 48.1 and 47.2 respectively, meaning that both were quite high. From 1921 to 1951 though birth – rate decreased slowly but, death rate decreased rapidly. Between 1991 and 2001 difference between the two increased to 17.4 resulting in continuous growth of population. The cause of decline in death – rate was increase in health facilities and adequacy of facilities of livelihood.

2. Increase in Life Expectancy:
The difference between birth – rate and death-rate is called natural growth rate. The average age of life is known as life expectancy. In our country, life expectancy (average age) was 50 years in 1921 which increased to 62 years in 1991. Hence due to longevity population kept on increasing.

3. Lack of Education:
In education gives birth to superstition.. Most of the uneducated people believe that children are gift of God. Believing this they keep on begetting children and hence population also increases. Desire for son is also responsible for many children in one family. The lower class hesitate from adopting family welfare programmer.

4. Other Causes:
Poverty, lack of means of entertainment, low standard of living, child marriage and migration etc. are among the other causes of population growth. Due to population growth many problems are coming up in our country, such as poverty, unemployment, decline of standard of living, hunger, increasing crimes, housing problem, transport problems, lack of medical facilities and increasing pollution etc.

5. Measures to Control Population Growth:
If the population growth is not checked immediately, flow of development will be hampered in the future. Following measures are essential to control the growth of population.

• Family welfare programmer should be accepted.
• Spread of education especially women education should be increased.
• Child marriage should be prevented.
• Standard of living should be improved.
• Social security should be rapidly extended.

Question 2.
Explain with examples the factors affecting the density of population in India.
Answer:
The factors affecting the density of population in India are –

1. Physical factors.
2. Socioeconomic and cultural factors.

1. Physical Factors:
Terrain, climate, soil and minerals are main physical factors. Terrain affects distribution of population the most. On one hand, dense population is found in the plains of Ganga – Yamuna and coastal areas, whereas on the other hand in the hilly state of Arunachal Pradesh density of population is the lowest. Climatic condition also influences density and distribution of population.

Suitable climate is helpful to the health and efficiency of man. The dry deserts of western Rajastan and Arunachal Pradesh are sparsely population due to bad climate. Fertile soil is ideal for agricultrue. The agriculture crops are the fundamental bases of livelihood and sustenance.

Therefore, population clusters around the fertile plains of rivers. Availability of minerals and industrial development based on them has attracted population in the mineral areas of Chottanagpur Plateau. Thus population has become very dense in Chottanagpur Plateau region.

2. Socioeconomic and Cultural Factors:
Socioeconomic and cultural factors also play important role in the distribution and density of population. The cultural, social, historical and political factors have together raised the size and density of Do population in the Mumbai-Pune industrial area.

Many years from today Mumbai area was non – significant, but after the advent of Europeans its importance kept increasing and gradually it turned into commercial and industrial center, as a result its population increased. Today a large group of people go to stay from one place to another and from one country to another. This is called population migration. Population migration also affects a country’s population growth.

Question 3.
On the basis of population density, in how many parts India can be divided?
Answer:
India can be divided in four parts on the basis of density.
1. High Density Areas:
If we look at the population density map of India, we find that more than 501 persons reside in per square km. area in Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Kerala. The fertile land and availability of water provide enough facilities of sustenance. In these areas urbanization and industrialization have provided people with sufficient employment opportunities and services.

2, Medium Density Areas:
These include areas having population density of 251 to 500 persons per sq. km. Andhra Pradesh, Assam, Goa, Maharashtra, Tamilnadu, Jharkhand, Punjab, Haryana, Tripura, Dadra and Nagar Haveli fall under this category. Developed agriculture, availability of minerals and industrial development are some of the reasons for high (medium) population density in these areas.

3. Areas of Normal Density:
These include all those states which have population density ranging from 101 to 250 persons per sq. km. The States included in this category are M.P., Rajasthan, Orissa, Chhattisgarh, Uttaranchal, Meghalaya, Manipur and Nagaland. These are hilly and dissected semi arid, forest covered regions. Here the means of livelihood are quite limited.

4. Low Density Areas:
These include Jammu and Kashmir, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Sikkim and Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Hilly areas, lack of transport facilities, under – development of agriculture and industries are the responsible factors for low density. The means of livelihood are very limited here. In Arunachal Pradesh, density of population is as low as 13 persons per sq. km.

Question 4.
What is National Population Policy 2000?
Answer:
According to the new population policy, qualitative change of life is essential for socioeconomic development. This will ensure use of man as productive capital for the society. The policy has three objectives.

1. Short term objective:
To develop health and basic infra – structure for the extension of contraceptive measures.

2. Mid term objective:
To reduce the total rate of reproduction till 2010 and onward.

3. Long term objective:
To achieve the target of stable population for sustainable economic development till 2045.
In order to meet the above objectives following socio demographic aims were also declared under the new policy.

1. To pay attention to the incomplete needs related to basic reproduction and health services, supplies and basic infrastructure.
2. To impart free and compulsory school education till the age of 14 years. To reduce the number of dropouts among primary and middle standard boy and girl students up to 20%.
3. To bring down the infant mortality rate below 100 per one lakh live births.
4. To implement universal vaccination against diseases which are preventive.
5. To encourage late marriage among girls. To stress the significance of marriage at the age of 20 plus.
6. To ensure presence of trained midwives at all institutions.
7. To find out expensive alternatives of contraception.
8. 100% registration of birth, death, marriage and conception.
9.  To check the spread of AIDS, encourage integration between Aids control organizations with regards Reproductive Track Infection (RTI) and Venereal Diseases (VD).
10. To make, ample efforts for prevention’ and control of infectious diseases!
11. To integrate various types of Indian medicinal systems for providing’ reproductive and child health services at doorstep.
12. To solidly ‘encourage the norm of small family in order to reduce’ fertility rate.
13. To develop family welfare as people – oriented programmer.

Question 5.
What is the status of growth in literacy rate in India? Suggest your views to increase female literacy.
Answer:
After independence we had fast development in ail fields hut in the field of literacy continuous efforts are still needed.

The Status of Growth in Literacy Rate in India:
Literacy rate has increased in last hundred years. It is evident from the table of status.’of literacy’ in India given on the next page that in the. beginning of the century in 1911 the literacy rate was about .6%. After Independence in’ 1951 it’has increased to 18.13%. It has increased . from 52.21% in 1991 to 65.38% in 2001 in female Literacy rate was 1.1% in 1911 which has increased to 54.16% in 2001. It is out come of the policy of Central Government aiming at providing free primary education to all.

Disparities in Literacy Rates:
There are wide regional dis – parities in literacy rate. See the state – wise distribution of literacy in the map. It varies from 47.5% in Bihar to 90.9 in Kerala. Kerala is closely followed by Lakshadweep (87.5 percent) and Mizoram (88.4 per cent). Bihar ranks last in literacy among the states and union territories of India.

Male – female differentials are also wide. Only 54.16 per cent of the females are literate as against 75.85 per cent of males. There is much difference in the literacy rate of rural and urban population. In 2001 the literacy rate in urban areas was 79.9 per cent, whereas in rural areas it was only 58.7 per cent.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 7 Other Important Questions

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
(i) India is the second most popular country of the world after –
(a) Australia
(b) China
(c) Japan
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) China

Question 2.
The population of Sikkim is –
(a) 2.2 crores
(b) 3.4.crores
(c) 5.4 lacs
(d) 6 crores
Answer:
(c) 5.4 lacs

Question 3.
In our country, life expectancy was 62 in the year –
(a) 1981
(b) 1991
(c) 2001
(d) 1987
Answer:
(b) 1991

Question 4.
Which states ranks first in literacy rate?
(a) West Bengal
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Kerala
(d) Utter Pradesh
Answer:
(c) Kerala

Question 5.
On the basis of population density India can be divided into –
(a) Four Categories
(b) Three Categories
(c) Two Categories
(d) Six Categories
Answer:
(a) Four Categories

Fill in the blank:

1. The first census of India was held in …………….
2. Population census is released in ……………. year.
3. The 500 croreth child was born in ………………..
4. The state with lowest population density in India is …………….
5. The density of population in 2011 was ……………. in Madhya Pradesh.

Answer:

1. 1872
2. 10
3. Yugoslavia
4. Arunachal Pradesh
5. 236.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 7 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Where do we find more population – in the plains or in the hilly or desert – areas?
Answer:
We find more population in the plains.

Question 2.
What is the population of Uttar Pradesh?
Answer:
The population of Uttar Pradesh is 19.9 crores.

Question 3.
Define ‘density of population’?
Answer:
The ratio of population of a country or state and its per unit area (square km.) is called its density.

Question 4.
What is the formula used to calculate density of population of a country or state?
Answer:
The formula is:

Question 5.
What was the population density of India in 2001?
Answer:
It was 324 persons per square km.

Question 6.
Divide India into four categories on the basis of population density.
Answer:
The four categories are:

• Areas of high density.
• Areas of medium density.
• Areas of normal density.
• Areas of low density.

Question 7.
Name the areas of high density.
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Kerala.

Question 8.
Name the areas of low density?
Answer:
Jammu and Kashmir, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Sikkim and Andman and Nicobar Islands.

Question 9.
What is the natural growth rate?
Answer:
The difference between the birth – rate and tire death – rate is called the natural growth rate per year,

Question 10.
Name the state where we find favorable sex – ratio
Answer:
Kerala.

Question 11.
What was the literacy rate in urban areas in 2001?
Answer:
It was 79.9 per cent.

Question 12.
What will happen if the population growth is not checked?
Answer:
If the population growth is not checked flow of development will be hampered in the future.

Question 13.
Give one term for the number of women per thousand of population.
Answer:
Sex – ratio.

Question 14.
What is the life expectancy in India now?
Answer:
67 years.

Question 15.
Which state has the highest sex – ratio in India?
Answer:
Kerala. It is 1058 females to 1000 males.

Question 16.
What is the main cause of rapid population growth in India after independence?
Answer:
There has been – sharp fall in death – rate but very slow fall in birth – rate.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 7 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is density of population? How can density of population be calculated?
Answer:
Density of population is the number of people living per square kilometer of area. It represents the land man ratio. It can be calculated by dividing the total population of a region or country or state by its total area. It is expressed as the number of persons per square kilometer as 180 persons per square kilometer.

The distribution of population of India is extremely uneven. The average density for the country as a whole as per the census 1991 in India is 267 persons per sq. km. The density of population in India can be calculated by dividing total population with total area. Thus density of population = Total population s ÷ Total area.

Question 2.
Describe the areas m normal density.
Answer:
These include all the e states which have population density ranging from 101 to 250 persons per sq. km. The states included in this category are M.P. Rajastan, Orissa, Chhattisgarh, Uttaranchal, Meghalaya, Manipur, and Nagaland.

Question 3.
What measures can be taken to control population growth?
Answer:
Following measures can be taken to control the growth of population:

• Family welfare programmer should be accepted.
• Spread of education especially women education should be increased.
• Child marriage should be prevented.
• Standard of living should be improved.
• Social security should b’e rapidly extended.

Question 4.
‘Literacy’ rate has increased in last hundred years. Justify it.
Answer:
In the beginning of the century in 1911 the literacy rate was about 6%. After independence in 1951 it has increased to 18.3%. It has increased from 52.21% in 1991 to 65.38% in 2001. Female literacy rate was 1.1% in 1911 which has increased to 54.16% in 2001. Thus we can say that literacy rate has increased in last hundred years.

Question 5.
Mention the objectives of the National Population Policy 2000.
Answer:
The National Population Policy 2000 has three objectives –

• Short term objectives – To develop health and basic infrastructure for the extension of the contraceptive measures.
• Mid term objective – To reduce the total rate of reproduction till 2010.
• Long term objective – To achieve the target of stable population for sustainable economic development till 2045.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 7 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define birth and death rate. Explain growth rate. Also make a table to show growth rate in India (1901-2001).
Answer:

1. The birth – rate is calculated in terms of number of live birth per thousand population per year.
2. The death – rate is known as number of deaths per thousand population per year in a given area.
3. The difference between these two is called the natural growth rate per year.

Growth rate in India (1901-2001):

The growth rate of a population may be positive or negative. Positive growth rate means growth in the number of people living in an area, whereas negative growth means the number of people living in that area declines. Find out the population growth rate m India from the table given above and see whenever the growth was negative.

Question 2.
What are the main features of population situation in India?
Answer:
The main features of India’s population can be summarized as below:

1. Size of India’s Population:
India is the second largest populated country in the world, after China. Population of India has been constantly rising since 1921. The following figures indicate the size, of India’s population.
Population of India

It will be seen from the above table that in just 34 years after independence another India was added while the territorial limit of the country remained unchanged. It is estimated that if we grow with this number, we will be more than 100 crore mark at the end of this century.

2. Second Largest Populated Country:
India has 2.4 per cent of the total land area of the world, India caters to the needs of 15% of the total world population. This means every seventh person in the world is an Indian.

3. Population Increasing at a Fast Rate:
It is not the overall absolute size of population which is the cause of concern, equally important is the fact that India’s population has been rising at a relatively very fast rate. It has gone up by a little over 2.0 per cent annum during the period 1951 to 1991 and about 2.1% presently.

4. Density of Population:
The density of population of India in 1961 was 216 persons per.sq. km. It rose to 267 in 1991. Thus the land man has been declining fast which indicates that the land will fall short for the in habitation of mankind of the population grow in this rate.

5. Uneven Distribution of Population:
The population is unevenly distributed. The northern plains, coastal plains and some river valley in lower Himalayas are densely populated while other areas of scanty rainfall or desert plateau and mountainous areas are sparsely populated. Thus there are areas which have great population pressure while other rare less inhabited.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Solutions

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Solutions Chapter 6 India: Natural Vegetation and Wild Life

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 6 Text Book Questions

Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
State with the minimum forest area in India is –
(a) Assam
(b) Rajastan
(c) Jharkhand
(d) Haryana.
Answer:
(d) Haryana.

Question 2.
Sundari trees are found in –
(a) Tropical forests
(b) Himalayan forests
(c) Mangrove forests
(d) Tropical deciduous forests
Answer:
(c) Mangrove forests

Question 3.
Natural vegetation of Rajastan is –
(a) Tropical moist evergreen forests
(b) Tropical moist semi-evergreen
(c) Tropical thorny forest
(d) Alpine forests
Answer:
(c) Tropical thorny forest

Question 4.
Natural habitat reserved for Indian Loin is –
(a) Gujarat Gir forest
(b) Kaziranga forest area of Assam
(c) Sundarban of West Bengal
(d) Nilgiri forest area
Answer:
(a) Gujarat Gir forest

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 6 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by natural vegetation?
Answer:
Plants, trees, grasses and bushes that grow naturally without man’s interference is called natural vegetation.

Question 2
What is a forest?
Answer:
A large area covered by plants and shrubs is called a forest.

Question 3.
What are mangrove forests?
Answer:
Mangrove is a type of vegetation with submerged roots. It is found on the coastal areas of India where the tides occur.

Question 4.
What is the meaning of Endemic and Exotic vegetation?
Answer:

1. Endemic Vegetation:
The vegetation which is basically Indian is known as Endemic Vegetation.

2. Exotic Vegetation:
Plants which are brought from out of India are called Exotic Plants.

Question 5.
What is a sanctuary?
Answer:
A sanctuary is dedicated to protect, wild life and conserve species. Without permission hunting is restricted in a sanctuary.

Question 6.
Classify the forests on the basis of administration.
Answer:
Forests are classified in three categories from the administrative viewpoint:

• Reserved forests
• Protected forests
• Unclassified forests.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 6 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are migratory birds?
Answer:
Birds coming from North Asia to India for a short period of time are called migratory birds.

Question 2.
What is the meaning of forest conservation?
Answer:
Forest is a national wealth. Looking to.the problems originated due to decreasing forest resources, their conservation is very necessary. Human needs are unlimited whereas the natural resources are limited. Hence, efforts for forestation have been encouraged so that forest may be conserved.

Question 3.
Describe the vegetation of Himalayan region of India.
Answer:
Oak and chestnut are found on eastern Himalayas and pine on western Himalayas. At an altitude of 2000 to 3000 meters forests of deodar, silver, fur, and spruce are sparsely attributed. Sal is mainly found at low altitudes. On the slopes of high altitude mountains, where temperatures are low and rain is less than 100 cm dry temperate vegetation is found.

Question 4.
Differentiate between National Park and Sanctuary.
Answer:
A National Park is relatively a large area where different ecosystems exist. Exploitation and acquisition could not change this region. For special scientific, educative and re-creative interests plant and animal species, with their geomorphological sites and habitats are persevered here. Hunting, grazing and human interference are totally banned in national parks.

A Sanctuary is similar to a national park, but is medicated to protect wild-life and conserve species. Without permission hunting is restricted in a Sanctuary but grazing and regular movement of cow and other animals is permitted. Human activities are allowed in a Sanctuary.

Question 5.
Distribution of plants and vegetation depends on which factors in India? Explain.
Answer:
The geographical factors or elements affect the development of vegetation of a particular area. The important elements are rainfall, temperature, humidity, soil, altitude and geological structure.

Question 6.
Differentiate between Evergreen and Deciduous Forest.
Answer:
Differences between Evergreen Forests and Deciduous Forest.

Evergreen Forests:

1. The forests having trees which remain green throughout the year. This means that seasonal shed – ding of leaves does not take place.
2. Shedding of leaves and growth of new leaves is continuous process and it goes side by side throughout the year.
3. Ever green forests are found mainly in equatorial regions where rainfall is very heavy and where there is no dry season.
4. Trees like eucalyptus, oak, wattle, Mahagony, Man – grove and Rosewood are common in these forests.

Deciduous Forests:

1. The forests consisting of trees which loose their leaves at some season of the year are called deciduous forests.
2. Tropical deciduous forests are found in sub – tropical regions with a distinct dry season such as Monsoon regions of Asia, parts of central America, Brazil and North Australia.
3. These forests have fewer than tropical evergreen forests.
4. In case of Monsoon forests, the trees shed their leaves during the. hot season. Teak, Oak, Elm and Beach are important timber products.

Question 7.
Explain the chief characteristics of tropical moist ever green forests.
Answer:
The chief characteristics of tropical moist evergreen forests are:

1. These forests thrive in areas having annual rainfall above 300 cm and dry season is short.
2. These forests are very dense, length of the trees in 60 m or more.
3. Layers of different height can be seen in these forests. Shrubs, climbers and creepers are found under tall trees.
4. Grass is generally not found in this region.
5. The wood of these trees are hard and heavy,
6. These forests do not have a distinct season of shedding of leaves, so these forests appear to be evergreen.
7. The main trees found here are rubber, mahogany, cinchona, bamboo and palm.

Question 8.
Describe how forests are useful to man?
Answer:
Forest is a natural wealth. It has various uses for humans. Forests contribute in the economic development of the country by functioning in two ways production and conservation. we have two types of benefits from the forests – Direct benefit and Indirect benefit.

Direct Benefits:
They give us timber, fuel wood, fodder, raw material for small and cottage industries, valuable minor products (fruits, flower, grass and leaves) and raw material for medicines. It is a main source of livelihood for many people.

Indirect Benefits:

1. Indirect benefits of forests are more important than direct benefits. They are the essential part of our nature and culture. They increase human values, provide spiritual strength and are the habitat of entertainment ancL recreation.
2. Forests affect the temperature of the air control the speed of wind and control the climate by rainfall.
3. Forests control floods and the soil erosion by controlling the flow of rivers.
4. Forests increase the fertility of soil by adding humus formed due to the decomposition of the leaves and branches of the trees.
5. Forests are the natural habitat of birds and animals.
6. Forests are the symbol of natural beauty.
7. Forests are the source of natural balance.

Question 9.
How are the indirect benefits of forests more important as compared to the direct benefits? Explain.
Answer:
Indirect benefits of forests are more important than direct benefits. We know that forests are the essential part of our nature and culture. They increase human values, provide spiritual strength and are the habitat of entertainment and recreation. Forests affect the temperature of the air. They control the speed of wind. They also control the climate by rainfall. Forests control floods and soil erosion by controlling the flow of rivers. They increase the fertility of soil by adding humus.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 6 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe various types of vegetation in India.
Answer:
1. Tropical Evergreen Forests:
These are of two types.

(A) Tropical wet evergreen forests:
The forests thrive in areas having annual rainfall above 300 cm. and dry season is short. These forests are very dense, length of the trees is 60 m or more. Layers of different height can be seen in these forests. Shrubs, climbers and creepers are found under tall trees.

Grass is generally not found in this region. The wood of these trees is hard and heavy’. These forests do not have a distinct season of shedding of leaves, so these forests appear to be evergreen. The main trees found here are Rubber, Mahogony, Cinchona, Bamboo and Palm.

(B) Tropical wet semi-evergreen forests:
These forests are restricted to the areas where annual rainfall is between 200 to 300 cm. So these evergreen forests are found in the Central parts of temperate moist deciduous forests. These forests are found in Mehgalaya, Mizoram and Andaman and Nicobar Islands. They are less dense than wet evergreen forests. The important plants here are Rosewood, Ebony’, Telsur, Champa, Jun, Gurjan, Ice-wood and Laurel.

2. Tropical Deciduous Forests:
This is the largest belt of India, these forests are also known as Monsoon forests. They cover 39% of the total forest area. (See the distribution of these forests in the Vegetation Map) On the basis of availability of water these forests are classified into two parts Moist deciduous forests and Dry deciduous forests.

Moist deciduous forests are found in the area of 100 to 200 cm. rainfall in India, North-east states, foot – hills of Himalayas, Jharkhand, Western Orissa, Chhattisgarh and the eastern slopes of Western Ghats. Teak is the main species of these forests. Other trees are Bamboo, Sal, Shesham, Chandan, Khair, Kusum, Ar-jun and Mulbery.

Trees of these forests shed their leaves during the dry season for 6 to 8 weeks. To fulfill the demand of wood these forests have been exploited and cleared for cultivation. The areas with 70 to 100 cm. rainfall have Dry deciduous forests. The main areas of these forests are Peninsular Plateau, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar. Main trees are Teak, Sal, Pee-pal, Neem and Mango.

3. Mountainous Forests:
(A) Peninsular mountain forests:

• On the high altitudes of Peninsular Plateau open wavy grasslands are found with the shrubs or undeveloped forests.
• Dense vegetation is found under tall trees in these forests. Heterotrophic plants, mosses and plants with small leaves are found in these areas.
•  Maglonia, Laurel, Elm are the common trees whereas Cinchona and Eucalyptus are brought from foreign countries and planted here.
• There forests are found in Nilgiri, Palni, Annamalai, Western Ghats, Mahabaleshwar and Satpura and Maikal ranges.

(B) Mountainous forests of Himalayan Ranges:
In Himalayan mountainous region due to increasing altitude and decreasing temperature a difference in natural vegetation is seen. In Shivalik ranges, at an altitude of 1000 meters in the foothill region, Bhabar and Tarai tropical deciduous forests are found.

It is then succeeded by temperate moist evergreen forests between 1000 and 20000 meters. These are the dense forests with tall trees. Oak and Chestnut are found on eastern Himalayas and Pine on western Himalayas.

At an altitude of 2000 to 3000 meters forests of Deodar, Silver fur, and Spruce are sparsely distributed. Sal is mainly found at low altitudes. On the slopes of the high altitude mountains, where temperatures are low and rainfall is less than 100 cm dry temperate vegetation similar to that of Mediterranean vegetation, is found. Olive,. Babool and hard Savanna grass is found with Oak and Deodar trees.

Alpine vegetation is found between the altitude of 3000 to 4000 meters. These are less dense forests and the height of the trees decreases towards Snowline. At higher altitudes alpine pastures are found. Silver fur, Juniper, Birch and Pine are the main species of these forests.

4. Mangrove Forests or Tidal Forests:
Mangrove or Tidal vegetation is found on the coastal areas of India where the tides occur. Mangrove is a type of vegetation with submerged roots. This vegetation is found in the delta region of the Ganga, Bhahmaputra, Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri rivers. Sundari is a well – known mangrove tree found in the delta region of Ganga-Bhrahmaputra. Coconut, Palm and Agar trees are also found in this region.

Wild Life of Mangrove Forests:
Royal Bengal Tiger is famous in these forests. Tortoise, Crocodile, Alligators and different types of snake are found here.

5.  Tropical Thorny Forests:
The areas with less than 70 cm annual rainfall have thorny forests and shrubs. This type of vegetation is found in the northwestern parts of the Country. It includes Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and semi-arid regions of Haryana. Date, Palms, Babul, Cactus is the main vegetation here. These plants have long roots spread in a radial pattern in search of water.’ Leaves are small to reduce evaporation.

Question 2.
Why is conservation of forest resources necessary? Give examples of different measures for their conservation.
Answer:
Forest conservation is necessary because our life is dependent on it. Forests provide us food. They help in the maintenance of ecosystem. They give oxygen which is necessary for survival of our life. Forests contribute in the economic development of the country. Different measures for their conservation.

Forest is a national wealth. Looking to the problems originated due to decreasing forest resources, their conservation is very necessary. Human needs are unlimited whereas the natural resources are limited. So, efforts for afforestation has been encouraged by the government.

Following measures have been taken for the conservation of forests:

1. Dangerous tendency of the destruction of forests should be immediately controlled. The main objective of the National Forest Policy is the maintenance of environmental stability and restoration of ecological balance.
2. Forest Conservation Act, 1980 is to prevent the destruction of forests and to prevent use of forest land for other purposes.
3. The main objective of Social Forestry and Agro – forestry is to provide fuel wood and minor wooden resources to the farmers. Farmers are encouraged for plantation.
4. Afforestation and development of waste and degraded land.
5. Reforestation in the existing forest areas.
6. Controlled cutting of forests and by scientific method.
7. Establishment of Watch Towers and surveying to prevent forest fire.
8. Ban on grazing, poaching and cutting trees and shrubs for fuel wood.
9. Controlled and limited trade of timber.
10. Controlled jhuming agriculture.
11. Controlling harmful insects like termites, cockroaches and gubrela.
12. Creating awareness in people regarding Agro – forestry, extensive forestry, development of social forestry and forest conservation, Chipko Movement and Van Mahotsava are all included as the measures of forest conservation.

Question 3.
Write about the different measures taken for wild-life conservation.
Answer:
Out of 5 lakh animal species of the world 75,000 are found in India. Similarly about 12,000 species and 900 sub-species of birds are available in India. Beginning of wild – life conservation was an effort of ecologists movement.

1. In 1972 Wild Life Conservation Act was passed in India. This act gives protection and preservation to endangered species of wild – life and ban the trading of related species.

2. Tiger Development Programmer Project was launched in 1973. Today there are 27 Tiger Reserves in 14 slates of the country.

3. Crocodile Breeding and Management Project was started in 1975 to conserve Crocodiles.

4. To increase the number of elephants, Elephant Project was launched-. Economic and scientific assistance was made available for this project.

5. Project Tiger movement was started to conserve the endangered species of Tiger. 17 Tiger Reserves were established for this purpose. The natural habitat of lion in the country is the Gir forest of Gujarat.

6. For the management and upkeep of zoos Central Zoo Authority is established. Responsibility of 200 zoos established in India is given to this authority.

7. There are 14 Biosphere Reserves set up in different regions of the .country. Out of which Sunderbans (West Bengal), Nanda Devi (Uttaranchal), Gulf of Mannar (Tamilnadu), Nilgiri (Kerala, Karnataka and Tamilnadu) are included in the Biosphere Reserves of the world. Other Biosphere Reserves are Nakrak, Great Nicobar, Manas, Simlipal, Dihang – Dibang, Dibru – Saikhova, Augustmalai, Kanchanjunga, Pachmarhi, Achnakmar – Amarkantak. .

Map Work:
Show the following areas in the outline Map of India.

1. Tropical evergreen forests and tidal forest.
2. Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary and Silent Valley.
3. Kanha Kesli and Corbett National Park.
4. Nanda Devi, Nilgiri and Sundarban Biosphere Reserve.

Project Work
Collect the medicinal herbs from your surroundings and prepare a list and write the uses of medicinal herbs.
Answer:
Do yourself.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 6 Other Important Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:
(1) What is the percentage of total area of forest in Tripura?
(a) 44%
(b) 55%
(c) 66%
(d) 48%
Answer:
(b) 55%

Question 2.
Highest forest area found in –
(a) North – East India
(b) South – West India
(c) East – West India
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) North – East India

Question 3.
Which one is not medicinal herb?
(a) Tulsi
(b) Neem
(c) Sarpgandha
(d) Teak
Answer:
(d) Teak

Question 4.
Wild life Conservation Act was passed in India in –
(a) 1975
(b) 1972
(c) 1980
(d) 1985
Answer:
(b) 1972

Question 6.
From administrative viewpoint forests are classified in –
(a) Four categories
(b) Three categories
(c) Two categories
(d) None of the above.

Fill in the blank:

1. …………….. % are is under forest in Madhya Pradesh and Chhatitisgarh.
2. In …………….. year Wild-Life Conservation Act was passed in India.
3. A large area covered by plants, shrubs etc. growing naturally is called a …………….
4. Tulsi is used in ……………… and ………………..
5. Out of 5 lakh animal species of the world …………….. are found in India.

Answer:

1. 30
2. 1972
3. Forest
4. cold, cough
5. 75,000.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 6 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is water hyacinth called in West Bengal?
Answer:
Water hyacinth in West Bengal is called the terror of Bengal.

Question 2.
In which areas do we find plants with long roots?
Answer:
In desert areas we find plants with long roots.

Question 3.
Which is the most dominant and widespread natural vegetation belt in India?
Answer:
The tropical deciduous forest or the monsoon forest provide the most dominant and widespread natural vegetation belt of India.

Question 4.
In what part of the country are the evergreen forests confined?
Answer:
The evergreen forests are confined to altitudes ranging form 500 – 1500 meters along the windward side of the Western Ghats and up to 1100 meters in the north eastern part of the country.

Question 5.
Name two important products of Tropical deciduous forests.
Answer:
Sal and Sagon.

Question 6.
Name the most important species of tree found in the Western Ghat regions.
Answer:
Teak.

Question 7.
Which forests are called the monsoon forests?
Answer:
The tropical deciduous forests are also called the monsoon forests.

Question 8.
Where are the moist deciduous forests found?
Answer:
They are found along the Shivaliks, the Piedmont plains of the Bhabar and Tarai regions in the north, the Chhotanagpur,  the South East Deccan Plateau and along north – south strip on the coast on the east of Western Ghats.

Question 9.
Name the few species of the vegetation in the Himalayan Region.
Answer:
Sal, chir, chil, pine, cedar, silver fir and spruce.

Question 10.
What are two important trees of the thorn forests?
Answer:
Babul and Kikar.

Question 11.
Name the type of forests in which the following trees are grown mahogany, chestnut; shisham, chir, sal, sundari, cam phor, rubber, kikar, teak, lawrel, sandal wood, oak, fur, spurce, palm.
Answer:

Question 12.
Where are the elephants found in India?
Answer:
Elephants in India are found in the Jungles of Assam and those of Kerala and Karnataka.

Question 13.
Name the most endangered species in India?
Answer:
The tiger, the rhino, the bustard and the lion.

Question 14.
Which is the first biological reserve in India?
Answer:
The first biological reserve was set up in the Nilgiries.

Question 15.
Where is the Gulf of Mannar?
Answer:
Tamilnadu.

Question 16.
How many national parks have been established is our country to protect wild – life?
Answer:
Eighty – nine national parks have been established in our country to protect wild – life.

Question 17.
Where is the natural habitat of lion in India?
Answer:
The natural habitat of lion in India is the Gir forest of Gujarat.

Question 18.
Why are national parks and wild-life sanctuaries developed?
Answer:
They are developed to provide safe habitat and to secure species of the wild – life.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 6 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is bio-reserve?
Answer:
Efforts are being made to protect and preserve every plant and animal species found in India so that this natural heritage can be transmitted to, the future generation in all its natural vigor and glory. With these objectives in mind the biosphere reserve or bio-reserve has been set up.

First such reserve was set up in the Nilgiries consisting of 5500 sq km at the tri junction of the Karnataka, Tamilnadu, and Kerala. Thus protection and conservation of the great biological diversity in its natural form is ‘bio-reserve’. After Nilgiri Bio – reserve, the one at Nanda Devi in U.P., Himalaya was set up in 1988. The other Noktek in Meghalaya was set up in this year itself.

Question 2.
Describe the administrative classification of forests.
Answer:
Forests are classified in three categories from the administrative viewpoint.

1. Reserved Forests:
The forest which are permanently reserved for timber or other forest produce and agriculture and grazing is strictly banned are called Reserved Forests.

2. Protected Forests:
The forests where local inhabitants are allowed to graze their animals and permission of agriculture with normal restrictions is given are called Protected Forests.

3. Unclassified Forests:
The forests, which are neither reserved nor protected, are Unclassified Forests.

Question 3.
Write a short note on medicinal herbs.
Answer:
From the ancient times India is famous for medicinal herbs. 2000 Plants species are described in Ayurveda, out of which at least 500 are in continuous use. Some of important plant species used as medicine are Sarpgandha, Tulsi, Neem, Jamun, Babul, Kachnar, and Arjun, etc.

Sarpgandha is used to control blood pressure, Tulsi is used when we are caught cough and cold, Neem is used as an antibiotic, Jamun is used to improve digestion. It is also useful is diabetes Babul is useful in boils. It is also used to increase physical strength. Kachnar is useful in boils and Asthma and Arjun is used to control blood pressure and ear pain.

Question 4.
Explain the characteristics of tropical deciduous forests.
Answer:
The characteristics of tropical deciduous forests are:

• They shed leaves seasonally.
• They are comparatively open with lesser under growth.
• Teak is the most important species. Others are sandal wood rose wood, shisham and mahua.
• Trees are of economic significance and well exploited.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 6 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a short note on conservation of wild – life
Answer:
The wild-life of a country is a part of its heritage. Every effort should therefore be made to protect – and preserve the wild life. Today there are man – endangered species of wild – life birds and animals. The Indian bustard of Rajasthan and Malwa, number of lions and tigers are some of the endangered species.

In order to conserve this resource, government of India has been taking time-to-time suitable measure, to maintain this great biological diversity of our land. Periodic census undertaken to find out the latest position and trends in this regard. The project tiger has been a great success. Now there are 16 tiger reserves in various parts of the country.

Likewise Rhino Project is being implemented in Assam, The Biosphere Reserves have been set up in the Nilgiries. It consists of 5500 km and is spread at the trijunction of Karnataka, Tamilnadu and Kerala. The other bio – reserves have been set up as Nanda Devi in U.P., Noktek in Meghalaya, Andaman and Great Nicobar etc. The country has 63 national parks, 358 wild life sanctuaries and 35 zoological gardens covering 130000 km² of area.

Question 2.
Describe the factors affecting vegetation.
Answer:
The geographical factors or elements affect the development of vegetation of a particular area. The important elements are rainfall, temperature, humidity, soil, altitude and geological structure.

1. Earth Surface:
It includes relief features and nature of soil.

Land:
Land affects vegetation directly and indirectly. Mountains, Plateaus and Plains do not have same type of vegetation. Plain surface is useful for agriculture. Forests and grasslands are found on rugged and uneven surface, which are the habitat of wild – life.

Soil:
Different type of soil is found on different places which is a base for different type of Vegetation. Mangrove forests are found in delta region of rivers. Whereas conical forests on the slope of high mountains plain areas are favorable for agriculture – and deciduous forests are found on plateau region normally.

2. Climate:
Temperature Favorable temperature is required for the germination, growth and reproduction of the plants. Variety of plants grow in the tropical zone because of high temperatures and humidity. Increase in temperature by 6°C to 9°C results in the stunted of the plants. Temperatures are low on high mountains therefore the growth period of the vegetation is short

Sunlight:
Duration of sunlight at any place depends on latitude altitude from sea level and the season. Plants grow rapidly in summer season because in Summers the duration of day light is more. As the Southern slopes of the Himalaya mountainous regions receives more sunlight as compare to northern slopes, dense vegetation is found here.

Rainfall:
In the areas of heavy rainfall the forests are very dense with tall trees. In the areas of low rainfall dwarf trees, grasses and shrubs are found sparsely. In desert areas plants have long roots. To prevent the loss of moisture due to transpiration some plants have wax-coated and thorny leaves. Vegetation of Thar desert is thorny due to scanty water.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Solutions

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Solutions Chapter 5 India: Climate

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 5 Text Book Questions

Choose the Correct Answer:

Questions 1.
The time of the south – west moons – in India is –
(a) October to November
(b) june to September
(c) March to May
(d) December to February
Answer:
(b) june to September

Questions 2.
Which state does receive the lowest rainfall due to southwest monsoon?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Karnataka
(c) Tamilanadu
(d) Punjab
Answer:
(a) Rajasthan

Questions 3.
Coromandal coast in India receives maximum rainfall in –
(a) January – February
(b) June – September
(c) March – May
(d) October – November
Answer:
(d) October – November

Questions 4.
Maximum variation in the amount of rainfall is found in –
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Assam
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Rajastan
Answer:
(d) Rajastan

Match the following:

Answer:
1. (d) Area of very high rainfall.
2. (c) The region which receives rainfall from retreating monsoon.
3. (b) Area of less then 50 cm. rainfall.
4. (a) Hot winds of the summer season in Northern India.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 5 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do yon mean by climate?
Answer:
The average weather conditions, over a long period of time of a’ particular place are known as climate.

Question 2.
Which type of climate region is India called?
Answer:
India called a monsoon type of climate.

Question 3.
What is the meaning of “Monsoon”?
Answer:
Monsoon means the winds bowing on the earths surface’ which change their direction in Summer and Winter season

Question 4.
What are the main branches of Monsoon?
Answer:
There are two main branches of monsoon:

• The Arabian sea branch.
• The Bay of Bengal branch.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 5 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How do the relief features of India affect the climate?
Answer:
The relief features of India influence the temperatures as well as the rainfall. The Himalayas on the northern boundary of the country extending from east to west protect India from cold breeze coming from the North in winter season. They intercept the moisture bearing monsoon winds and help in precipitation.

Question 2.
Why is the climate of northern India uneven?
Answer:
The climate of northern India is of Continental type. Distance from the sea and temperate climate effect its climate. Hence the climate here is uneven.

Question 3.
Why does the Tamilnadu coast receive rainfall in the winter season?
Answer:
Tamilnadu coast receives most of the rainfall by they retreating monsoons. These winds blow in the months of October and November from the land to sea through north – east direction. When they cross over Bay of Bengal they pick up moisture and cause rainfall in Tamilnadu.

Question 4.
Which are the high rainfall areas of India?
Answer:
Bihar, Jharkhand, Orissa, Eastern Uttar Pradesh, Tamilnadu and West Bengal are the highland rainfall areas of India.

Question 5.
Why is Indian agriculture called a gamble of monsoon?
Answer:
In India agriculture depends on monsoon which is most uncertain. Sometimes it arrives on time and it rains in adequate amount. But sometimes it is late and the amount of rainfall is less. It adversely affects the agriculture. That is why Indian agriculture is said to be a gamble of monsoon.

Question 6.
How does climate affect the health?
Answer:
It has been seen that sultry hot weather is followed by widespread rains which give rise to many diseases. Water is stored in the pots and ponds, which becomes the birthplace of mosquitoes and spread diseases. Thus, climate affects our health too.

Question 7.
How do monsoon winds originate?
Answer:
Monsoon winds are related to weather because they blow from land to sea for six months and from sea to land for next six months. There are several concepts of the origin of monsoon but the thermal concept is important. According to this concept, monsoon winds are in fact land and sea breezes on a large scale.

By differential heating of the land and the sea winds blow from sea to land in the daytime and from land to ,sea in the night. Similarly in summer season winds blow’ from high pressure system on sea to low pressure system on lands. During winters, a complete reversal takes place with high pressure on the land and the low pressure over the sea. At this time winds start blowing from land to sea. This is called monsoon.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 5 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the factors influencing the Indian Climate.
Answer:
The factors influencing Indian climate are:
1. Latitude:
India is situated in the northern hemisphere in the south of Asia continent. Tropic of cancer passes through the center of the country. Due to this specific location, its southern part has tropical climate and northern part has continental type of climate.

2. Distance from the sea:
The effect of the distance from the sea is very clearly seen on the distribution of temperature of India. That is northern plains have continental type of climate.

3. Relief features:
Relief features of the country influence the temperatures as well as the rainfall. The Himalayas on the northern boundary of the country extending from east to west protects India from cold breeze coming from the north in winter season. They intercept the moisture bearing monsoon winds and help in precipitation.

4. Distribution of water and land:
India is a part of Asia continent. During summers the north – western plains of India gets more heated and center of low pressure is established here. This low – pressure area attracts the winds coming from the Indian Ocean. During winters this area becomes more colder and center of high pressure develops here and wind starts blowing from land to sea. These winds influence the climate of India. Rainfall occurs due to the winds coming from the sea.

5. Jet streams blowing in the upper atmosphere:
A westerly jet stream blows above northern India in winter season but in rainy season it moves northwards above Tibetan plateau. Easterly jet stream develops at about 15°N latitude. Nature of these jet streams is responsible for summer monsoon. Shifting of jet streams towards north and south is the cause of uncertainty and irregularity of south-west monsoon in India.

6. Monsoon winds:
In India monsoon winds blow in summer from sea to landmass and in winter season from landmass to sea. This change in monsoon winds changes the weather and seasons in India.

Question 2.
Explain the main characteristics of the monsoon and describe the different seasons.
Answer:
Main characteristics of monsoon –

1. Monsoon winds are seasonal winds. They blow according to season.
2. Seasonal winds blowing in summer season are called summer monsoon and winds blowing in winter season arc called winter monsoon.
3. Due to the peninsular shape of India summer monsoon winds divide into two parts. The Arabian Sea Monsoon and the Bay of Bengal Monsoon.
4. In summer season these winds blow from south – west to north – east and in winters from north – east to south – west in India.
5. These winds are hot and humid in summer season as they blow from sea to land whereas in winters they are cold and dry because they blow from land to sea.
6. Rainfall in India is due to monsoon winds. Maximum amount of rainfall is received from south – west monsoon winds.
7. Time of monsoon and amount of rainfall vary.

Different Seasons Of India:
Four main seasons are:

1. Cold Weather Season
2. Hot Weather Season
3. Advancing Monsoon Season
4. Retreating Monsoon Season

1. Cold Weather Season:
December to February. The cold weather persists from December to February throughout India. January is the coldest month. Temperature varies from 10°C to 25°C. Temperature is between 10°C to 15°C in the northern plains and 25°C in the southern parts of the country. There is high pressure the northern plains due to the cold climatic conditions. The cold dry winds blow from the high pressure towards the low pressure equatorial regions.

These winds are north – westerly in the Ganga Plains and north- easterly over the Bay of Bengal. Culy two parts of the country receive rain in this season. First is the north – west part of India which receives rainfall from the Mediterranean cyclones. Second is tire Coast of Tamilnadu which gets rainfall in winter because of the north – east winds which blow over the Bay of Bengal. But in other parts of the country, the weather is pleasant with clear skies and bright sun – shine.

2. Hot Weather Season:
March to May. During this period there is a rapid shift of the belt of heat from south to north. In March, April and May the highest day temperatures occur in the Deccan Plateau (38°C), Gujarat (43°C) and North-West of India (48°C) respectively.

In May the rising temperature leads to low pressure in a wider area from the Thar Desert to Chhotanagpur. Because of this low pressure the moisture – laden winds from the Arabian Sea are attracted towards this area and consequently there is (about 158 ems) rainfall in the Rajmahal and Chhotanagpur Hills lying between the Satpuras and the Vindhyas.

Kerala and Western Ghats also experience the pre – monsoons showers. Assam and Bengal also receive some rainfall by means of evening thunderstorms. Bid the north – west areas remains dry, and hot winds, called the too, engulf the whole areas. Sometimes dust storms in Punjab, Haryan and U.P. are followed by light rain and cool breeze.

3. Advancing Monsoon season:
This season runs from June to September. During these mouths Me south – west monsoon winds blow northwards in two branches from the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal. They make rainfall almost in the whole of northern India.

These winds blow from the oceanic high pressure areas towards the low pressure areas of land and make a heavy rainfall. The Arabian Sea branch causes heavy rainfall exceeding 300 ems along the coastal areas of the Western Ghats but this rainfall decreases as the monsoons go further.

As such Kutch receives less than 40 cm of rainfall. The Bay of Bengal branch causes heavy rainfall in the hills of Assam. Cherrapunji receives more than 1,000 cm of rainfall annually. As the monsoon winds take a turn from east to west because of the Himalayas, the rain goes on decreasing. As such when Kolkata gets, a rainfall of 119 cm Allahabad gets 76 cm due to the uncertainty and uneven distribution of rainfall,, floods and droughts are common during this season.

4. Retreating Monsoon Season:
This seasons is in October and November. In this season the monsoons start to retreat back. Passing over from Bay of Bengal they strike on the coast of Tamilnadu and give sufficient rainfall. This rainfall is not certain and equally distributed.

Question 3.
Show the distribution of rainfall in the Map of India and name the different areas.
Answer:
Areas of Very High Rainfall. Assam, the Ganga Delta, the Western Ghats and the Western Coastal Regions and the north mountainous regions (the Himalayas) receive heavy rainfall of 200 cm and above annually.

Areas of High Rainfall:
Areas which get annual rainfall between 100 cm to 200 cm roughly come under this group. Madhya Pradesh, Onssa, Chhota Nagpur, Western Bengal, Bihar, Eastern U.P., North Eastern Punjab, Eastern parts of Tamilnadu and the eastern slopes of Western Ghats receive moderate rainfall.

Area of Normal Rainfall:
The areas receiving rainfall between 50 cm and 100 cm come under this category. This category consists of Deccan Plateau, Western U.P., South Eastern Punjab, Eastern Rajasthan and parts of Kashmir.

Areas of Low Rainfall:
Western Rajasthan, Kutch, South Eastern parts of Haryana, North-Eastern Kashmir receive annual rainfall of less than 50 cm and hence called areas of scanty rainfall.

Question 4.
Describe the effect of climate on human life.
Answer:
The climate of a country affects its socioeconomic life. The effect of diversities of climatic conditions can be seen in our country also. Monsoon is said to be the center of Indian Economic life.

1. Due to the climates of India agriculture is normally possible throughout the year.
2. Amount of monsoon rainfall is sufficient for agriculture.
3. Different climates create favorable environment for the production of various crops.
4. Maximum rainfall is in the months of June, July and August which is beneficial for early ripening crops like jawar, bazra, and maize.
5. Fodder is also available due to rains which helps in cattle rearing.
6. The country remains dry or there are no rains for long period of the year, during which the grasses dry up resulting in scarcity of fodder. That is why there is no evergreen pastures or grazing land in the country.
7. Sultry hot weather is followed by widespread rains, which give rise to many diseases.
8. The uncertainty of rainfall highly affects the agriculture.
9. Drought and famine are the serious problems of Indian farmers. Heavy rainfall sometimes causes floods.
10. ‘Loo’ in the summer season makes the outdoor life very difficult.
11. Good quality is produced when adequate amount of rain is received in proper time. But if monsoon is late and amount of rainfall is less it adversely affects the agriculture.
12. Climate diversities result in the diversity in the forest resources, animal resources, industries, transport and human life.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 5 Other Important Questions

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Tropic of cancer divides India into –
(a) Two zones
(b) Three zones
(c) Four Zones
(d) Seven zone
Answer:
(a) Two zones

Question 2.
Monsoon winds are related to –
(a) Weather
(b) Climate
(c) Season
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Weather

Question 3.
Retreating, monsoon season ranges from –
(a) March to May
(b) June to September
(c) October to November
(d) May to August
Answer:
(c) October to November

Question 4.
The state which receives sufficient rainfall during retreating monsoon is –
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamilnadu
(c) Bihar
(d) Assam
Answer:
(b) Tamilnadu

Question 5.
Which one is not the area of high rainfall?
(a) Western Ghats
(b) Jharkhand
(c) Bihar
(d) Orissa
Answer:
(a) Western Ghats

Match the – following:

Answer:
1. (c) Tropical climate
2. (a) Formed from the Arabic word
3. (d) Meghalaya
4. (b) Mango shower

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 5 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is weather?
Answer:
Weather is the study of the atmospheric conditions like temperature, pressure, wind, humidity and rainfall over a short period of time or at a specific time at a particular place.

Question 2.
What is climate?
Answer:
The average weather conditions over a long period of time of a particular place is known as climate.

Question 3.
Name the type of climate found in India?
Answer:
Monsoon type of climate.

Question 4.
What are the factors responsible for a great diversity of climatic conditions?
Answer:
There are two factors which are responsible for a great diversity of climatic conditions.

• The typical geographical location
• Vast area of India.

Question 5.
Tropic of Cancer divides India into two zones. Name these zones
Answer:

• Tropical zone
• Sub-tropical zone.

Question 6.
Name the three highest rainfall months.
Answer:
June, July and August.

Question 7.
What are ‘Mango Showers’?
Answer:
Towards the end of the summer season, pre – monsoon showers are a common phenomenon in Kerala and the coastal areas of Karnataka. These showers are locally known as ‘Mango Showers’, since they help in early ripening of mangoes.

Question 8.
What is Kalbaishaki?
Answer:
Kalbaishaki in the local nomenclature means Calamity of the month of Baisakh. The north westerly and northerly winds in Bengal and Assam cause very sharp showers. They are essentially evening thunderstorms.

Question 9.
What are ‘Blossom Showers’?
Answer:
Thunderstorms developed in hot weather season cause some rainfall in Kerala. These rains are known as ‘Blossom Showers’ in Kerala because they are beneficial to the coffee plantation of the state.

Question 10.
Which state in India receives bulk of its rainfall from retreating monsoon?
Answer:
Tamilnadu.

Question 11.
Give one most striking characteristic feature of the monsoons?
Answer:
The most striking characteristic feature of the monsoons is the complete reversal of winds.

Question 12.
What is the average annual rainfall of India?
Answer:
It is 105 cm.

Question 13.
Name the areas of very high rainfall?
Answer:
Western Ghats (Kerala, Goa, Coastal Karnataka and Coastal Maharashtra) Assam, Mehgalaya and Eastern Himalayas.

Question 14.
What are jet streams?
Answer:
Jet streams are fast flowing winds blowing in a narrow zone in the upper atmosphere.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 5 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by western disturbances?
Answer:
The shallow cyclonic depressions which originate over the Mediterranean and travel eastwards across Iran and Pakistan. These winds ultimately reaching the north – west part of India cause rainfall and other weather disturbances.

Question 2.
Name the states on the eastern coast which are frequently – struck by tropical cyclones.
Answer:
The states of Andhra Pradesh, Orissa and Tamilnadu are frequently struck by the tropical cyclones.

Question 3.
Name the four seasons of India.
Answer:
On the basis of the monsoon variations the year is divided into four seasons:

• The cold weather season – December to February.
• The hot weather season – March to May.
• The South-west monsoon season – June to September.
• The retreating south – west monsoon season – October to November.

Question 4.
Write a note on retreating monsoons.
Answer:
The months of October and November are known for the retreating monsoons. During this season the pressure in north – west India becomes weaker and shifts southward. In the first week of September they withdraw from Rajasthan. In November it is above Karnataka and Tamilnadu. By mid – December it retires completely from the peninsular plateau. Tamilnadu receives sufficient rainfall during retreating monsoon. But the rest part of India remains dry.

Question 5.
Describe the cold weather season or winter season of India,
Answer:
The Cold Weather Season. Cold weather season lasts from December to February. Temperature varies from 10° to 15°C in Northern plains to 22°C in the southern part of the Peninsula. Due to cold, high pressure is created in the plains. So the winds blow out towards the equatorial low pressure.

These winds are dry and cold. Most parts of India experience fine weather with clear skies and bright sunshine. This season is dry season for India except North – west part of India which receives rainfall from the Mediterranean and the coast of Tamilnadu which gets rainfall from the Bay of Bengal.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 5 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Narrate the mechanism of the monsoons.
Answer:
The word ‘monsoon’ is derived from the Arabic word ‘mausim’ which means season. The formation of season is the chief characteristic feature of this climate. The world ‘monsoon denotes a season in which the wind regime is completely reversed. The direction of wind is reversed periodically. The reversal of direction of the monsoon winds is attributed to the difference in annual temperature on the land and on the sea.

Tire variation in temperature on the land and the sea creates high atmospherics pressure on the sea during summer and on the land during winter season which gives rise to the change in direction of the winds with a change in pressure of tire land. Thus, India which basically falls in the Trade winds zone experiences sudden reversal of winds from Indian Ocean to the land area.

This wind picks up moisture from the sea and enters the country through Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal. The Arabian Sea branch of the monsoons – is obstructed by the Western Ghats. The windward side of the Sahyadries receive very heavy rain. These winds then cross over the Western Ghats and cause rainfall in the Deccan Plateau, and Madhya Pradesh.

Thereafter they enter tire Ganga Plains and mingle with the Bay of Bengal branch. An other part of the Arabian Sea passes over the west Rajasthan and along the Aravallis, causing only a scanty rainfall. The Bay of Bengal branch moves towards the north – eastern coast and strikes the Arakan Hill along the Burmese coast.

But a big chunk of these winds is deflected and enters into the Indian sub – continent. This branch also splits into two parts, one part moving towards Ganga Plains and other towards Brahmputra Valley. Thus by July the entire country comes under the influence of monsoons.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Solutions

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Solutions Chapter 4 India: Drainage System

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 4 Text Book Questions

Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
River in its last stage form –
(a) Waterfall
(b) Flood plains
(c) Delta or Estuary
(d) Ox-Bow lake
Answer:
(d) Ox-Bow lake

Question 2.
Which of the following is not the characteristics of the rivers of Northern India?
(a) Less number of Waterfalls
(b) Used for transportation
(c) Meanders are not formed
(d) Receives water from snow and rainfall.
Answer:
(c) Meanders are not formed

Question 3.
Which of the following separates India and Sri Lanka?
(a) Gulf of Cambay
(b) Rann of Kutch
(c) Bay of Bengal
(d) Gulf of Mannar
Answer:
(a) Gulf of Cambay

Question 4.
Which of the following river is known as Dakshin Ganga?
(a) The Narmada
(b) The Krishna
(c) The Kaveri
(d) The Godavari
Answer:
(d) The Godavari

Question 5.
Which states are drained by river Krishna?
(a) Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra, Orissa, Andhra Pradesh
(c) Maharashtra, Kerala, Tamil Nadu
(d) Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisagarh, Orissa
Answer:
(a) Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh

Fill in the blank:

1. The state of five rives is known as ……………..
2. The river Ganga rises from ………………. glacier.
3. The Narmada rises from the …………….. pleatue in Madhya Pradesh.
4. Hirakund Dam is built on the river ………………
5. Nagarjun Sagar Dam is built on the river ……………….

Answer:

1. Punjab
2. Gangotri
3. Amarkantak
4. The Mahanadi
5. The Krishna

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 4 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by Drainage System?
Answer:
Drainage System means the river system of a particular area.

Question 2.
What do you mean by river capturing?
Answer:
When one river captures the water of the other river it is called river capturing.

Question 3.
Name four tributaries of river Ganga.
Answer:
Yamuna, Ghaghra, Gandak and Kosi.

Question 4.
Name five tributaries of river Indus.
Answer:
Jhelum, Chinab, Ravi, Beas and Satluj.

Question 5.
What are the different names of river Brahmaputra in Bangladesh?
Answer:
Padma and Meghana are the different names of river Brahmaputra in Bangladesh.

Question 6.
Name five major lakes of India.
Answer:
Wular lake, Chilka lake, Koleru lake, Pullicat lake, Lonar lake.

Question 7.
Name two rivers which drain in Arabian sea.
Answer:
The Narmada and the Tapi.

Question 8.
Which place is known as the region of five rivers?
Answer:
Punjab is known as the region of five rivers.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 4 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the Indus river system.
Answer:
Indus river system comprises the Indus and its tributaries. The length of the Indus river is about 2900 km. It rises in Tibet near Mansarovar and flows towards west forming a beautiful 500 meters deep gorge in the Laddakh district of Jammu and Kashmir. From here it flows towards Southwest, enters Pakistan and finally joins the Arabian Sea. The five tributaries of Indus are Jhelum, Chmab, Ravi, Beas and Satluj. This region of five rivers is known as Punjab.

Question 2.
Describe the characteristics of the rivers of Northern India.
Answer:
The characteristics of the rivers of Northern India are:

• The rivers of Northern India have their origin in Himalayas and the Northern slopes of Peninsular India.
• Waterfalls are less.
• They are navigable.
• These rivers form deep, valleys.
• These rivers form meanders River courses often shift.
• Receive water from ice and snow.

Question 3.
How do rivers affect the economy? Explain.
Answer:
Rivers play an important role in the economy of our country. Alluvial plains formed by rivers are used for agriculture. Rivers provide fresh drinking water. In the ancient times villages and cities were located on the bank of the rivers. Religious and cultural Centers are located on the banks. Dams are built for hydro – electricity and irrigation.

Question 4.
Explain the location of adjoining seas of India?
Answer:
Indian Peninsula is surrounded by seas from three sides. In its south lies the Indian Ocean, Arabian sea in the west and Bay of Bengal in the east. Andaman Sea is in the east of Andaman Nicobar Islands. Gulf of Mannar separates India and Sri Lanka. Gulf of Cam-bay and Rann of Kutch are located in the coastal part of Gujarat.

Question 5.
What is river pollution? How could river pollution be prevented?
Answer:
Effluents from industries and sewage from houses are discharged in the rivers. Dead animals are thrown in the rivers. All this pollute the rivers. Spread of Water Hyacinth also pollute the rivers. To overcome the river pollution, it is essential to stop discharging industrial effluents in the rivers. Water of sewage line should be purified. Rivers should be cleaned time – to – time. Public awareness regarding this problem is much more important.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 4 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the drainage system of Northern India.
Answer:
The rivers of Northern India receive water from rainfall as well as melting of snow from ice-capped mountains. As these rivers flow through high mountains they form deep valleys, gorges and waterfalls. In their nature stage deposition in the plains take place. They form meanders, ox-bow lake and flood plains in their middle and lower course. Three large rivers originate from Himalayas:

1. The Indus River System:
This system comprises the Indus and its tributaires. The length of the Indus river is about 2900 km. It rises in Tribet near Mansarovar and flows towards west forming a beautiful 500 meters deep gorge in the Laddakh district of Jammu and Kashmir. From here it flows towards southwest, enters Pakistan and finally joins the Arabian sea. The five tributaries of Indus are Jhelum, Chin’ab, Ravi, Beas and Satluj. This region of five rivers is known as Punjab.

2. The Gangas River System:
The length of river Ganga is more than 2500 km. Its source is near Gangotri. The Ganga enters the plains near Haridwar. Its main tributaries are Yamuna, Ghaghra, Gandak and Kosi. These rivers form a fertile flood plain. They form meanders and ox-bow lakes. Near Ambala a water divide separates the Ganga and the Indus drainage system.

The Ganga receives some of its tributaries like Chambal, Ken, Betwa, Son and Damodar from the peninsular pleteau. Big dams have been built on these rivers which are used for hydro – electricity and irrigation. Flowing southward it forms a delta and finally joins Bay of Bengal. The main stream of the Ganges enters Bangladesh and when it joins Brahmaputra river it is called Meghana.

3. The Brahmaputra River System:
It rises near the Mansarovar iake and the Kailash mountains. It flows parallel to Himalayas and enters Arunachal Pradesh. In India it flows for 1400 km. Its tributaries include Dibang, Luhit, Dhansiri, Kalang etc. River courses often shift during floods. River islands are also formed. It is known as Tsangpo in Tibet, Brahmaputra in India and Padma and Meghana in Bangladesh. It forms a large delta and finally drains into Bay of Bengal.

Question 2.
Compare the rivers of Northern and Southern India.
Answer:
Rivers of Northern India:

• The rivers of Northern India have their origin in Himalayas and the Northern slopes of Peninsular India.
• Waterfalls are less.
• They are navigable.
• These rivers form deep valleys.
• These rivers form meanders.
• Receive water from melting ice and snow.

Rivers of Southern India:

• The rivers of Southern India have their origin in Western Ghats, Satpura and Peninsular Plateau.
• Waterfalls are more.
• They are not navigable.
• They flow in broad valleys.
• These rivers do not form meanders.
• Flow of water depends only on monsoon rainfall.

Question 3.
What is the importance of rivers in the economy? Explain.
Answer:
Rivers play an important role in the economy of our country. They are the lifeline of a country’s existence. Right from the beginning of the human civilization we have seen that people began to live on the bank of rivers. All the civilizations flourished there. The primary cause for this was that it had been the most convenient and cheapest means of transport. So, the trade and commerce flourished on the bailk of rivers. Most of the industrial towns have been settled along the river banks.

Dams and canals built on the rivers help us in our agriculture, which is the backbone of a country. We produce hydro -electricity from river water. Thus we see that rivers play a significant role in the economy of a country. Hence they must be protected from being polluted at all cost.

Questions related to Skill Development

Show the following in the outline map of India

1. Nilgiri Mountains
2. Narmada River
3. Sardar Sarovar Dam
4. Krishna River
5. Hirakud Dam

Or

1. Himalayan Mountain
2. Satpura Ranges
3. The Ganga Drainage System
4. Chambal River
5. Gandhi Sagar Dam

Project Work:
1. Students will prepare a model of river originating from Himalayas.
2. Prepare a model or chart of dams / canals or different projects made by man on the rivers and give a classroom presentation.
Answer:
Attempt yourself.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 4 other important questions

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The Ganga enters the plains near –
(a) Prayag
(b) Haridwar
(c) Rameshwaram
(d) Kurushetra
Answer:
(b) Haridwar

Question 2.
The two large westward flowing rivers are –
(a) Narmada and Ganga
(b) Tapi and Brahmaputra
(c) Narmada and Tapi
(d) Krishna and Indu.
Answer:
(c) Narmada and Tapi

Question 3.
Hirakund dam has been built on the river –
(a) Mahanadi
(b) Ganga
(c) Brahamputra
(d) Narmada.
Answer:
(a) Mahanadi

Question 4.
Sambhar Lake is in –
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Gujarat
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Utter Pradesh.
Answer:
(a) Rajasthan

Question 5.
Indian Peninsula is surrounded by seas from –
(a) Four sides
(b) Three sides
(c) Two sides
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Three sides

Fill in the blank:

1.  ……………… Lake is situated in Orissa a state.
2. Four tributaries of river Ganga are Yamuna, Ghagra …………… and ……………..
3. Narmada river originates from ………………… state.
4. River of Northern India are less …………………….
5. Sambhar Lake is in ………………..

Answer:

1. Chilka
2. Gandak, Kosi
3. Madhya Pradesh
4. Waterfalls
5. Rajasthan.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 4 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which two factors form the drainage system?
Answer:
Amount of rainfall and topography form the drainage system.

Question 2.
What do you know about water divide?
Answer:
When we observe the river map of India we find that any highland like mountains separates two neighboring drainage basins. This highland is known as water divide.

Question 3.
In which two categories are the Indian rivers divided?
Answer:
The Indian rivers are divided in the following two categories:

• Rivers of Himalayas
• Rivers of Peninsula India

Question 4.
What is the main feature of the Himalayan rivers.
Answer:
The Himalayan rivers receive water throughout the year.

Question 5.
What is the length of the Indus river?
Answer:
The length of the Indus river is about 2900 km.

Question 6.
Where does the Brahmaputra river system rise?
Answer:
The Brahmaputra river system rises near the Mansarovar Lake and the Kailash mountains.

Question 7.
Name the rivers of Peninsular India?
Answer:
Mahanadi, Godawari, Krishna and Kaveri.

Question 8.
Where does the Narmada river drain?
Answer:
The Narmada river drains in Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat.

Question 9.
Which is the largest river systems of the Peninsular India?
Answer:
The Godavari is the largest river system of the Peninsular India.

Question 10.
Name four tributaries of the Godavari?
Answer:
Wardha, Manjra, Venganga and Penganga.

Question 11.
Why are lakes important?
Answer:
Lakes are important for tourism, fish farming / formation of salt etc.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 4 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the Ganga Drainage System.
Answer:
The length of river Ganga in more than 2500 km. Its source is near Gangotri. The Ganga enters the plains near Haridwar. Its main tributaries are Yamuna, Ghaghara, Gandak and Kosi. These rivers form a fertile flood plain. They form meanders and ox-bow lakes. A water divide separates the Ganga and the Indus drainage system near Ambala.

The Ganga receives some of its tributatries like Chambal, Ken, Betwa, Son and Damodar from the Peninsular Plateau. Big dams have been built on these rivers which are used for hydro – electricity and irrigation. Flowing southward it forms a delta and finally join Bay of Bengal.

Question 2.
What are the main features of the rivers of Peninsular India?
Answer:
The main features of the rivers of Peninsular India are:

• They are seasonal.
• They flow frown a dry area.
• They do not form the plains.
• Rivers of Peninsular India like Mahanadi, Godawari, Krishna and Kavari flow eastward and drain into Bay of Bengal. They form Delta.
• The rivers flowing into the west of Western Ghats are small.
• Narmada and Tapi, the two large westward flowing rivers, flow in a rift valley and forming a tidal mouth it joins Arabian Sea.

Question 3.
What are the main features of the rivers of Southern India?
Answer:
The main features of the rivers of Southern India are:

• The rivers of Southern India have their origin in Western Ghats, Satpura and Peninsular Plateau.
• Waterfalls are, more.
• Not navigable.
• They flow in broad valleys
• Meanders are not formed.
• Flow of water depends only on Monsoon rainfall.

Question 4.
Describe the important lakes of India.
Answer:
Wular lake is the glacial lake of Kashmir. There are few lakes in South India. They are the Lonar in Buldhana district of Maharashtra, the Ghilka in Orissa, the Koleru in Andhra Pradesh ahd the Pullicat in Tamil Nadu. Lakes formed due to glacial erosion in Uttrakhand are Nainital, Bhimtal and Rakshastal etc. Sambhar lake of Rajasthan is famous as salt-water lake.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 4 Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
Describe the rivers of Peninsular India.
Answer:
The rivers of Peninsular India are:

• The Narmada,
• The Tapi
• The Godavari,
• The Mahanadi
• The Krishna
• The Kaveri.

1. The Narmada:
It rises from Amarkantak Plateau in Madhya Pradesh flowing 1312 km. through a rift valley and finally drains in the Arabian Sea. It drains Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat. It forms Dhuandhar fall in the marble rocks of Bheraghat near Jabalpur. Its tributaries are very small.

2. The Tapi:
It rises near Multai in Betul district in Satpura range of Madhya Pradesh. It is 724 km. long. It flows in Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and Gujarat and finally reaches Gulf of Cambay.

3. The Godavari:
It rises from Western Ghat near Nasik and flows for 1500 km in Orissa and Andhra Pradesh and drains in Bay of Bengal. Wardha, Manjra, Venganga and Penganga are its tributaries. It is the largest river system in the Peninusular India.

4. The Mahanadi:
It rises in Sihawa, a highland of Chhattisgarh. It is 858 km. long. Its drainage basin lies in Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Orissa, Hirakud Dam is build on this river.

5. The Krishna:
It rises in Maharashtra near Mahabaleshwar. It is 1400 km. long. It flows in Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. Its Major tributaries are Koyna, Panchganga, Malprabha, Ghatphrabha, Bhima, Musi and Tungbhadra. Almati and Nagarjun Sagar Dam are built on this river.

6. The Kaveri:
It rises in the Brahmagiri hills in Co-org district. It is 60 km. long. Its tributaries are Hemavati, Amaravati and Bhavani.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Solutions

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Solutions Chapter 3 India: Location and Physical Divisions

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 3 Text Book Questions

Choose the Correct – Answer:

Question 1.
Standard time of India is calculated from –
(a) 72° E. longitude
(b) 80°30′ W. longitude
(c) 82°30′ E. longitude
(d) 8.5° E. longitude.
Answer:
(c) 82°30′ E. longitude

Question 2.
Tropic of cancer does not pass through which state of India?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Chhattisgarh
(d) Orissa.
Answer:
(b) Maharashtra

Question 3.
Largest Union Territory of India is –
(a) Andaman Nicobar Islands
(b) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(c) Lakshadweep
(d) Pondicherry.
Answer:
(a) Andaman Nicobar Islands

Question 4.
Indian Peninsular Plateau is made of which type of rocks?
(a) Metamorphic
(b) Sedimentary
(c) Oldest rock
(d) Granite.
Answer:
(c) Oldest rock

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 3 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the different names of India?
Answer:
The different names of India are Aryavarta, Hindustan and Bharat.,

Question 2.
What is the area of India?
Answer:
The area of India is 3’2,87,263 km².

Question 3.
How many States and Union territories are there in India?
Answer:
India is a union of 28 states and 7 union territories.

Question 4.
Name two neighboring island countries of India.
Answer:
Srilanka and Maldives.

Question 5.
Name any two lakes situated on the East Coast of India.
Answer:
Chilka and Pullical Lakes.

Question 6.
Which islands of India are formed by Corals?
Answer:
Laksha dweep islands of India are formed by corals.

Question 7.
Name two important peaks of the Himalayan range.
Answer:
Mt. Everest and Kanchanjunga.

Question 8.
What is the West-East extent of India? .
Answer:
West – East extent of India is from 68°7′ West to 97°25′ East.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 3 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the importance of the geographical location of India?
Answer:
The geographical location of India gives it a marked advantage for international trade.

Question 2.
Describe the northern Plain of India.
Answer:
The Great Northern Plain extends from the Punjab Plain in the west to the Brahmaputra Valley in the east. This plain lies to the south of the Himalayas. This plain possesses the alluvial deposits of the Ganga, the Indus and the Satluj etc. These rivers are perennial ones and flow down from the Himalayas. The average elevation of this plain is less than 300 meters above sea-level. The Ganga forms the largest part of it.

This region has rich alluvial soil and abundant water-supply so the means of livelihood are easily available here, and the density of population is the highest. The Punjab Plain forms the other part of the Great Northern Plain. The Brahmaputra Valley in Assam forms’ the eastern part of the Great Northern Plain. It is narrower than the Ganga Plain. It is frequently flooded area.

Question 3.
Describe briefly the Southern Plateau.
Answer:
The Southern Plateau lies to the south of the Indogangetic plain. It is triangular in shape. It is bounded in the north by the Vindhyas and Satpura hills while its eastern and western boundaries are formed by the Eastern and Western Ghats. Its surface is uneven and rocky.

The soil is not as fertile as in the northern plain. Since the Southern Plateau is formed of hard igneous and metamorphic rocks, the soil is black and literate. It is not as fertile as the alluvial soil of north plains. The average height of Southern plateau is about 600 feet. This area comparatively receives less rainfall as it is surrounded by mountains from all around.

Question 4.
What is the importance of Himalayas for India? Explain.
Answer:
Himalayas are of great importance to India. They not only provide natural frontiers for the country but protect us from the cold winds blowing from the Siberia. They cause rainfall in India and are the source of timber, herbs and many other useful products. Himalayan peaks are snow covered throughout the year.

As such they are the source of important rivers like Ganga, the Indus, the Brahmaputra. These rivers bring along them the rich fertile alluvial soil and deposit the same in the great Northern Plain. These rivers have been used for irrigation and Hyde power and are thus important renewable natural resources.

Question 5.
Differentiate between Bangar and Khadar land.

Bangar Land:

• It is the upland of the Northern Plains made by older deposition. Pebbles are also found here.
• Flood water does not reach here.
• Water level is deep.
• It extends mainly in Punjab and the plains of Uttar Pradesh

Khadar Land:

• It is the lowland of the Northern Plains made by the newer alluvium.
• This land is submerged in flood water.
• Underground water level is high.
• It extends in eastern Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and Bengal.

Question 6.
Describe briefly the east coastal plain.
Answer:
The eastern coastal plain extends in the delta region of rivers Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri flowing in the Bay of Bengal. Fertile alluvial soil is found here. Chilka, Kolerio and Pullicat lakes are situated on this coast. The northern part of the east coast is known as the Northern Cir-cars and its southern part is called the Coromandel coast.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 3 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the geographical division of India.
Answer:
India can be divided into the following geographical divisions:

1. The Northern Mountains
2. The Great Northern Plains
3. The Peninsular Plateau
4. The Coastal Region
5. Islands

1. The Northern Mountains:
The Himalayas in the north are the new fold mountains which extend from Kashmir to Arunachal Pradesh in the north of India. Their length is about 2400 km and width varies from 150 to 400 km. The Himalayas have three main ranges:

1. The Greater Himalayas,
2. The Middle Himalayas or the Himachal
3. Shivalik Ranges.

1.The Creator Himalayas or the Inner Himalayas or Himadri:
The Greater Himalayas are series of ranges which are always snow-capped. These ranges contain several high peaks which exceed, 8,000 meters above sea level. Mount Everest is the highest peak (8848 km) among them. In addition to that the Nanga Parbat, Kanchanjunga, Nanda Devi, etc. are some other high peaks. As these ranges remain always covered with snow so they are also called ’Himadri.

2. The Middle Himalayas or the Himachal:
Parallel to the south of the Greater Himalayas lies the rangers known as Middle Himalaya or Himachal. The height of these mountains varies between 3700 meters to 4500 meters and average width is 50 km. The Kashmir Valley and the Kangra and Kullu Valleys of Himachal are situated in these ranges. Pirpanjal and Dhauladhar are important ranges of this area. Hill stations like Shimla, Mussoorie, Nainital and Darjeeling belong to Middle Himalayas.

3. Shivalik Ranges:
These are the foot-hill ranges of Himalayas. They have an average height of 600 meters above the sea level. These ranges are often discontinuous. They have gentle slopes towards the north and steep slopes towards the . south. They represent the latest phase of folding and uplifting of the Himalayas.

In addition to these ranges, tine Zaskar and Ladakh ranges in Kashmir and the Kailash range in Tibet lie beyond the Himalayas. To the North-Eastern side of India lie the Naga, the Mizo and the Lushai hills. These hills are eastern extension of the Himalayas.

2. The Great Northern Plains:
The Great Northern Plains extend from the Punjab Plains m the west to the Brahmaputra valley in the east. This plain lies to the south of the Himalayas. This plain possesses the alluvial deposits of the Ganga, the Indus and the Satluj, etc. These rivers are perennial ones and flow down from the Himalayas. The average elevation of this plain is less than 300 meters above sea-level. The Ganga forms the largest part of it.

This region has rich alluvial soil and abundant water supply. So the means of livelihood are easily available here and the density of population is the highest. The Punjab plains forms the other part of the Great Norhtem Plain. The Brahmaputra valley in Assam forms the eastern part of the Great Northern Plain. It is narrower than the Ganga Plain. It is frequently flood area.

3. The Peninsular Plateau:
The Plateau has the central high lands in the north and the Deccan Plateau in the south. The Narmada Valley divides it into two major sub – divisions. Tire central high lands comprises the Malwa Plateau, the small plateau of Bundelkhand and the Chhotanagpur plateau. The hills of tire Eastern Ghats extend to the west of the Deccan Plateau.

The north western part of the Deccan Plateau in Maharashtra consists of an extensive ‘lava’ belt called the Deccan trap region. The rest of the Deccan Plateau consists of crystalline me tarn opine rocks The coastal plains lie both on the eastern and the western sides of the Deccan Plateau.

The Eastern Coastal Plain is broad. The alluvial delta plains of the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kavery are part of the Eastern Coastal Plains. The Western Coastal plain is, however, not so broad. In fact, the Peninsular Plateau is an old stable block or shield which consists of ancient crystalline rocks.

4. The Coastal Plains:
The Deccan Plateau is flanked by the narrow coastal plains along the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal. The coastal plain on the western coast is narrow and uneven. The fast flowing rivers and streams dissect this strip at many places. It covers the plains of Gujarat in the north.

The eastern coastal plain is relatively wide and more level. It consists of some of the most fertile and well watered deltas of Krishna, Godavari, Mahanadi and Kaveri. The western coast has estuaries in the north and lagoons, the salt water lakes in the south particularly in Kerala.

5. Islands:
The coral islands off the coast of Kerala are Lakshdweep Island each having area of a few kilometers. This is a horse shoe form of island made by the continuous work of coral polyps. In the eastern parts lie Andaman and Nicobar islands in the Bay of Bengal. Some of these Islands are of volcanic origin and are fairly large in shape.

Question 2.
Describe the location and extent of India.
Answer:
India is situated in Northern Hemisphere in the southern part of the continent Asia. Towards its south lies the Indian Ocean. Bay of Bengal is in the east and Arabian sea is in the west. The latitudinal extent of the main land of India is 8°4′ North to 37°6’ North and the longitudinal extent is from 68°7′ East to 97°25′ East. The Tropic of Cancer (23°30’N) divides the country into almost two equal parts.

82°30′ is the standard meridian for Indian Standard Time. Standard time for the country is calculated from the stairdard meridian. Apart from the main land Andaman Nicobar Islands in the Bay of Bengal and Lakshadweep in the Arabian sea are also part of India. Tropic of Cancer divides the country into almost two equal parts.

Less area of India is situated on the eastern part of the standard meridian. The western c-f the country is Gujarat and the eastern state is Arunachal Pradesh. The northern most state of India is Jammu and Kashmir and the southern most state is Tamilnadu. The extreme southern point of India is located in Andman and Nicobar Islands.

India is bounded by Pakistan, Afghanistan in the north-west, China, Nepai and Bhutan in the north, Bangladesh and Myanmar in the east and Sri Lanka in the South. Palk Straight is between India and Sri Lanka. Coastal Boundaries of India , India is the seventh largest country in the world in regard to area. 2.42% area of the world is in India. India covers an area of 32,87,263 km².

Question 3.
Describe the Himalayan Mountain Range.
Answer:
India can be divided into the following geographical divisions:

1. The Northern Mountains
2. The Great Northern Plains.
3. The Peninsular Plateau
4. The Coastal Region
5. Islands.

1. The Northern Mountains:
The Himalyas in the north are the new fold mountains which extend from Kashmir to Arunachal Pradesh in the north of India. Their length is about 2400 km and width varies from 150 to 400 km. The Himalayas have three main ranges:

1. The Greater Himalayas,
2. The Middle Himalayas or the Himachal
3. Shivalik Ranges.

1. The Greater Himalayas or the Inner Himalayas or Himadri:
The Greater Himalayas are series of ranges which are always snow-capped. These ranges contain several high peaks which exceed, 8,000 meters above sea level. Mount Everest is the highest peak (8848 km) among them. In addition to that the Nanga Parbat, Kanchanjunga, Nanda Devi, etc. are some other high peaks. As these ranges remain always covered with snow so they are also called ’Himadri.

2. The Middle Himalayas or the Himachal:
Parallel to the south of the Greater Himalayas lies the rangers known as Middle Himalaya or Himachal. The height of these mountains varies between 3700 meters to 4500 meters and average width is 50 km. The Kashmir Valley and the Kangra and Kullu Valleys of Himachal are situated in these ranges. Pirpanjal and Dhauladhar are important ranges of this area. Hill stations like Shimla, Mussoorie, Nainital and Darjeeling belong to Middle Himalayas.

3. Shivalik Ranges:
These are the foot-hill ranges of Himalayas. They have an average height of 600 meters above the sea level. These ranges are often discontinuous. They have gentle slopes towards the north and steep slopes towards the . south. They represent the latest phase of folding and uplifting of the Himalayas.

In addition to these ranges, tine Zaskar and Ladakh ranges in Kashmir and the Kailash range in Tibet lie beyond the Himalayas. To the North-Eastern side of India lie the Naga, the Mizo and the Lushai hills. These hills are eastern extension of the Himalayas.

2. The Great Northern Plains:
The Great Northern Plains extend from the Punjab Plains m the west to the Brahmaputra valley in the east. This plain lies to the south of the Himalayas. This plain possesses the alluvial deposits of the Ganga, the Indus and the Satluj, etc. These rivers are perennial ones and flow down from the Himalayas. The average elevation of this plain is less than 300 meters above sea-level. The Ganga forms the largest part of it.

This region has rich alluvial soil and abundant water supply. So the means of livelihood are easily available here and the density of population is the highest. The Punjab plains forms the other part of the Great Norhtem Plain. The Brahmaputra valley in Assam forms the eastern part of the Great Northern Plain. It is narrower than the Ganga Plain. It is frequently flood area.

3. The Peninsular Plateau:
The Peninsular Plateau has the central high lands in the north and the Deccan Plateau in the south. The Narmada Valley divides it into two major sub – divisions. Tire central high lands comprises the Malwa Plateau, the small plateau of Bundelkhand and the Chhotanagpur plateau. The hills of tire Eastern Ghats extend to the west of the Deccan Plateau.

The north western part of the Deccan Plateau in Maharashtra consists of an extensive ‘lava’ belt called the Deccan trap region. The rest of the Deccan Plateau consists of crystalline me tarn opine rocks The coastal plains lie both on the eastern and the western sides of the Deccan Plateau.

The Eastern Coastal Plain is broad. The alluvial delta plains of the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kavery are part of the Eastern Coastal Plains. The Western Coastal plain is, however, not so broad. In fact, the Peninsular Plateau is an old stable block or shield which consists of ancient crystalline rocks.

4. The Coastal Plains:
The Deccan Plateau is flanked by the narrow coastal plains along the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal. The coastal plain on the western coast is narrow and uneven. The fast flowing rivers and streams dissect this strip at many places. It covers the plains of Gujarat in the north. The eastern coastal plain is relatively wide and more level.

It consists of some of the most fertile and well watered deltas of Krishna, Godavari, Mahanadi and Kaveri. The western coast has estuaries in the north and lagoons, the salt water lakes in the south particulary in Kerala.

5. Islands:
The coral islands off the coast of Kerala are Laksh dweep Island each having area of a few kilometers. This is a horse shoe form of island made by the continuous work of coral polyps. In the eastern parts lie Andaman and Nicobar islands in the Bay of Bengal. Some of these Islands are of volcanic origin and are fairly large in shape.

Question 4.
Describe the Peninsular Plateau.
Answer:
The Peninsular Plateau is a part of the oldest landmass the Gondwanaland. Its average height from the sea level is 600 to 900 meters. It is surrounded by seas from three sides and by landmass from one side so it is also known as Peninsular Plateau.

It is a triangular plateau with its base in the north, from Delhi, and Rajmahal Hills to northern plain. It is bordered by the Eastern Ghats in the east and by the Western Ghats in the west and Kanya Kumari is at the southern tip. Regarding area, the peninsular plateau is the largest physiographic division of the country.

The peninsular plateau is divided into two parts –

1. The Central Highlands.
2. The Deccan Plateau.

1. The Central Highlands:
The Northern part of the peninsular plateau comprises of plateaus, uncovered mountain ranges and low mountains. It is made up of hard igneous rocks. In the north-west it is flanked by the Aravallis, which are old folded mountains. On the southern boundary of the Central Highlands lies the Vindhyachal Mountains and it continues to the Kaimur range eastward. The Malwa Plateau lies in between Amrawati and Vindhyachal mountains.

This Plateau is drained by the Betwa, Parvati, Kali Sindh, Chambal and Mahi. The eastern part of the Central Highlands is known as Bundelkhand. The Baghelkhand Plateau is situated in the east of Kaimur Bhander hills. In the central part of Highlands Vindhyachal and Kaimur hills form an escarpment between the valleys of Narmada and Son rivers. The Chhotanagpur Pleteau of Jharkhand is also a part of this region. It is rich in minerals.

2. The Deccan Plateau:
It extends from Satpura, Mahadev and Maikal hills in the north to the southern tip of peninsula. The north-western part of the plateau is mainly made up of volcanic deposit. The Western Ghats, from the western edge of the Deccan plateau, which run discontinuously from north to south almost parallel to the Arabian Sea. In Maharashtra and Karnataka they are called Shayadri.

The Ghats are crossed by three gaps:
Thalghat, Bhorghat and Palghat. They are called the Nilgiri’s in Tamilnadu and along Kerala and Tamilnadu borders, they are known as Anamalai and Cardamon Hills. Palghat gap separates Nilgiri and Anamalai Hills. The highest peak of Southern India, The Anai Mudi is in Palni Hills. The Eastern Ghat is 800 km. long. Its highest peak is Mahendragir.

Question 5.
Write Short notes on Indian Coastal Region, Indian Islands.
Answer:
Indian Coastal Region:
The Peninsular Plateau of India from Kutch to Orisa is flanked by a narrow strip of coastal lowlands ‘or plains. Due to difference in their formation, this coastal plain is divided into two parts:

1. The West Coastal Plain.
2. The East Coastal Plains.

1. The West Coastal Plains:
extends from Gujarat to Kerala along with the Arabian Sea. These.plains are narrow and are known as Konkan in the north and Malabar in the south of Goa. The maximum width here is 40 km. Here the rivers are small and fast flowing. This region has very few major river like Narmada and Tapi. The rivers of the west coast form tire tidal mouth. The coastal plains of Kutch and Gujarat are arid.

2. The East Coastal Plain:
extends in the delta region of rivers Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri flowing in the Bay of Bengal. Fertile alluvial soil is found here. Chilka, Koleru and Pullicat lakes are situated on this coast, the northern part of the East Coast is known as the Northern Circars and its southern part is called the Coromandel Coast.

Indian Islands:
The coral islands off the coast of Kerala are Lakshadweep Islands each having area of a few kilometers. This is a horse shoe form of island made by the continuous work of coral polyps. In the eastern parts lie the Andaman Nicobar Islands in the Bay of Bengal.

These islands are scattered in a large area and are far away from the main land. These islands are the peaks of sub merged hilly ranges. Some of them are of volcanic origin. There are nearly 300 known and unknown islands in Andaman and Nicobar covering an area of about 8249 km².

Answer the following questions referring to the Map of India.

Question 1.
Latitude of Northern boundary of India.
Answer:
8°4′ North.

Question 2.
Name the states adjoining China.
Answer:
Arunachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand and Sikkim.

Question 3.
Name the States through which Tropic of cancer pass through.
Answer:
Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattishgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura and Mizoram.

Question 4.
Name the rivers which join Bay of Bengal.
Answer:
Ganga, Mahanadi, Krishna, Kaveri, Godavari etc.

Question 5.
Name any three gaps located in Himalayas.
Answer:
Shopkila, Nathula and Bomdila.

True or False:

1. Indian ocean is situated in the south of India.
2. The seven states of north-west are called “The Seven Sisters”
3. The Andman and Nicobar Islands are situated in the Arabian Sea.
4. Largest union territory of Indian is Andaman Nicobar Islands.
5. The geographical location of India gives it a marked advantage for international trade.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. False
4. True
5. True

Show the following in the outline map of India.

1. Tropic of cancer and 82°30′ E. longitude.
2. Union Territory – Chandigarh and Pondicherry.
3. Bomdila and Nat-hula passes.
4. Raipur and Bhopal
5. Narmada River and Mahanadi.
6. Himalayas and Vindhyans.

Answer:
Do yourself.

Project Work:
Divide the class in five groups and ask them to prepare a model and give presentation in the class on different physiographic features of India.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 3 Other Important Questions

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The western state of India is
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Gujarat
(c) Madhya Pradesh.
(d) Kerala
Answer:
(b) Gujarat

Question 2.
The extreme southern point of India is located in –
(a) And man and Nicobar Islands
(b) Lakshadweep
(c) Kerala
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) And man and Nicobar Islands

Question 3.
The width of the Himalayas varies from –
(a) 400 km in Kashmir.to 150 km in Arunachal Pradesh
(b) 200 km in Kashmir to 100 km in Arunachal Pradesh
(c) 500 km in Kashmir to 150 km in Arunachal Pradesh
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) 400 km in Kashmir.to 150 km in Arunachal: Pradesh.

Question 4.
Mt. Everest the highest peak in the world is located in –
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) Maldives
(c) Nepal
(d) Himachal
Answer:
(c) Nepal

Question 5.
The Chhotanagpur Plateau is in –
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Bihar
(c) Orissa
(d) Uttarakhand
Answer:
(a) Jharkhand

True or False.

1. Tropic of cancer divides India into two equal parts.
2. The highest mountain peak in India is Nanda Devi.
3. The western state of Indian is Kerala.
4. Largest union territory of Indian is Andaman Nicobar Islands.
5. The geographical location of India gives it a marked advantage for international trade.

Answers:

1. True
2. False
3. False
4. True
5. True.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 3 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
In which hemisphere does India lie?
Answer:
India is located in the Northern Hemisphere.

Question 2.
Give Geographical location of India.
Answer:
India is situated in the north of Equator. In its south lies a great ocean called Indian Ocean. It is flanked by Pakistan in the West, Myanmar in the East, Bangladesh in East towards Bay of Bengal, China in the North and Sri Lanka in the South.

Question 3.
Name the countries that constitute Indian sub-continent.
Answer:
Pakistan in the north-west, India at the core, Nepal in the north, Bhutan in the north-east.

Question 4.
Name the standard meridian of India.
Answer:
82°5′ east longitude is the standard meridian of India.

Question 5.
Name the largest delta in the Indian sub-continent.
Answer:
The Sundar Ban Delta.

Question 6.
Which is the highest peak in India?
Answer:
The Kanchanjunga in Sikkim was regarded the highest peak in India till Sikkim was not merged with Indian territory,

Question 7.
What are known as the Great Himalayas or Inner- Himalayas or Himadri?
Answer:
The Northern most ranges are known as the Great Himalayas or Inner Himalayas or Himadri.

Question 8.
Name same important passes in Himalayas.
Answer:
Karakoram (Jammu and Kashmir),’Shopkila (Himachal Pradesh), Nathula (Sikkim), Bpmuila (Arunachal Pradesh).

Question 9.
Define ‘Khadar’ and ‘Bangar’.
Answer:
The region where the flood water reaches every year is known as. ‘Khadar’ and where it does not reach is known as ‘Bangar’.

Question 10.
Where does the Malwa Plateau lie?
Answer:
The Malwa Plateau lies in between Amarawati and Vindhyachal mountains.

Question 11.
What is Maharashtra famous for?
Answer:
Maharashtra is famous for growing cotton.

Question 12.
Name some hill resorts located in plateau region.
Answer:
Ootakmand, Pachmarhi and Mahabaleshwar.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 3 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is a pass? Name some important passes of Indian Sub-continent?
Answer:
Gaps or openings in a mountain range which provide natural routes to pass through them are called Passes. Though Himalayas provide great barrier for the people to cross through from north but these passes made it possible to cross over. The Indian continent has the following important passes: The Karakoram Pass, The Shipkila Pass, The Nathula Pass, The Bomdila Pass.

Question 2.
Why is Central plain called the ‘gift of Himalaya’?
Answer:
Central plain covers approximately one-fourth area of India which supports 45% population of the country. This plain is made up of the alluvial soil of Indus, Satluj, Ganga and Brahmputra rivers and have irrigation facilities. Therefore, it is called the ‘gift of Himalaya.

Question 3.
Describe briefly formation of the Northern Plains.
Answer:
Following the formation of the Himalayas, there started the work of mighty rivers and other agents of denudation. This Work or erosion continued for millions of years and ultimately resulting in deposition of silt. Thus, slowly and steadily were formed the Northern Plains. The work of erosion and deposition’ is still going on.

Question 4.
Distinguish between West Coastal Plain and East Coastal Plain.
Answer:
West Coastal Plain:

1. They extend along the Arabian Coast.
2. This plain is narrow.
3. It is formed due to small but fast flowing rivers.
4. Deltas are not found on this coast.

East Coastal Plain:

1. They extend along the Bay of Bengal.
2. This plain is wider.
3. It is formed due to the deposition by the rivers Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri.
4. Deltas are found here.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 3 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give an account of Deccan Plateau.
Answer:
The Deccan Plateau lies to the south of the Indogangetic plain. It is triangular in shape. It is bounded in the north by the Vindhyas and Satpura hills while its eastern and western boundaries are formed by the Eastern and Western Ghats. Its surface is uneven and rocky.

The soil is not as fertility as in the northern plain. Since the Deccan Plateau is formed of hard igneous and metamorphic rocks, the soil is black and literate. It is not as fertile as the alluvial soil of north plains. The average height of Deccan Plateau is about 600 feet.

This area comparatively receives less rainfall as it is surrounded by mountains from all around. The Krishna, the Godavari, the Mahanadi and Kaveri are the chief rivers. In this region, these rivers are swift and make waterfalls so they are not navigable. These rivers form big deltas at their mouth. The Deccan plateau has a coastal strip in the east and the west. The west coastal plain extends from Gujarat to Kerala.

The coastal strip along the Arabian Sea in the west is known as Konkan in the north and Malabar in the south. In the south, there are south salt water lakes called Lagoons. The coastal strip along the Bay of Bengal is broad and more leveled. The mountain ranges running from north to south along the Arabian sea coast has many names.

In Maharashtra and Karnataka they are called Sahyadri. Further in south, they are called the Nilgiries, in Tamil Nadu along the Kerala and Tamil Nadu border, they are known as Annamalai and Cardamon Hills. The Deccan Plateau is highest along its western edge and slopes towards the Bay of Bengal.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Solutions

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Solutions Chapter 2 Efforts and Successes of Environmental Conservation

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 2 Text Book Questions

Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
In modem agriculture encouragement is given to –
(a) Organic farming
(b) Use of bio-fertilizers
(c) Use of biological pest control
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above.

Question 2.
Last stage of EIA is –
(a) Comprehensive Environmental Assessment
(b) Study of critical aspects
(c) Rapid Environment Assessment
(d) Risk analysis.
Answer:
(a) Comprehensive Environmental Assessment

Question 3.
In India EIA is the responsibility of –
(a) Ministry of Environment and Forest
(b) Ministry of Defense
(c) Ministry of Tourism
(d) Ministry of Agriculture.
Answer:
(c) Ministry of Tourism

Question 4.
Chipko Movement was started in –
(a) Karnataka
(b) Eastern India
(c) Uttarakhand
(d) Kerala.
Answer:
(a) Karnataka

Question 5.
First of all CNG in India was started in –
(a) Mumbai
(b) Delhi
(c) Kolkata
(d) Chennai
Answer:
(b) Delhi

Fill in the blank:

1. Silent valley is a small forest of ………………………..
2. The Chipko Movement was started in ……………………

Answer:

1. Kerala
2. 1974

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 2 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the meaning of environmental conservation? Explain.
Answer:
Environmental conservation is the planned management of the environment and the resources to prevent its destruction and exploitation.

Question 2.
What do you understand by Environmental Impact Assessment?
Answer:
Environmental Impact Assessment is a concept which seeks to find ways to ensure that the developmental process and protection of the environment go in harmony. It aims to achieve sustained development with minimum harm to the environment and to prevent any short-term and long-term adverse effects on the environment.

Question 3.
Which ministry in India is responsible for making EIA?
Answer:
In India, Ministry of Environment and Forest is responsible for making EIA.

Question 4.
What do you understand by organic farming?
Answer:
In this type of farming artificial chemical fertilizers are not used. Instead organic forms of manures such as cow dung or green manures are growing crops.

Question 5.
Name three stages of EIA.
Answer:

1. Initial Scrutiny.
2. Rapid Environmental Impact Assessment.
3. Comprehensive Impact Assessment.

Question 6.
Why do we need environment conservation?
Answer:
We need environmental conservation to restore environmental imbalance, which is the burning problem of the world.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 2 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the Chipko Movement? What are its basic elements?
Answer:
Chipko Movement is a successful strategy for protecting natural resources. It is a movement to save trees as well as to provide the basis for permanent economic welfare by making demand for a total transformation in land policy. This movement was started in 1974.  Its Basic Elements  Prohibition of cutting trees or forests or protection of trees.  Speeding plantation.

Question 2.
To fulfill which important objectives for Environmental Conservation is necessary? Explain.
Answer:
Environmental Conservation is necessary for a variety of plants and animals living on the earth. Man is the most intelligent and powerful living being, but nature has not given him the right to destroy the resources. It is necessary on our part to use them carefully. Today, environmental imbalance is the biggest problem of the world. Therefore, keeping the future needs in mind, it is necessary to conserve plants, animals, humans and other natural resources such as air, water, minerals etc.

Question 3.
What is the role of EIA? What are the basic contents for preparing EIS? Describe.
Answer:
The EIA aims to achieve sustained development with minimum harm to the environment and to prevent any short-term and long – term adverse effects on the environment.

The basic contents for preparing EIS:

1. Effect on land including land degradation.
2. Possibility of earthquakes.
3. Possible effects on surface and ground water quality, soil and air quality.
4. Possible effects on plants, wild-life and endangered species.
5. Estimation of level of noise pollution.
6. Socioeconomic impact.
7. Recycling and reduction of waste.
8. Efficient use of wastes and residuals.
9. Risk analysis and disaster management.

Question 4.
What is the meaning of CNG? In which field its use is maximum in India?
Answer:
CNG stands for Compressed Natrual Gas. It is cheaper, more efficient and less polluting energy resource, which is useful for vehicles. In India the use of CNG is maximum in the field of transportation.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 2 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the meaning of the Chipko Movement? How was it started and what were the reasons of its international fame?
Answer:
Chipko Movement was started in 1974 in Chamoli district of save trees. The women of that district in absence of menfolk came forward to resist cutting of trees by the forest laborer. They were saying that the forest is their parental home. They would not let it cut at any cost. They embraced trees for continuous two days and nights.

This movement was called Chipko Movement, In 1974 an Allahabad-based sports production company named Simond was given contract of cutting trees of Anguspecws in Chamoli district. The decision of auction of hundreds of acres of forest area found in the Renigaon of Chamoli created much dissatisfaction among the people. The forest department tried to pacify their revolt by inviting the menfolk of Renigaon and nearby villages to Chamoli for the payment of compensation for the role they had played during war time.

At the same time forest workers and laborers reached Renigaon to cut trees. The women of that village, in the absence of menfolk, came forward to resist cutting of trees by the forest laborers. They were saying that the forest is their parental home. They embraced trees for continuous two days and nights. They also broke the one arid only bridge of the entrance of the forest.

After this event Rigatoni became the battlefield of Chipko Movement. All over the Uttarakhand, people witnessed a new zeal to protect forests after this event. In order to speed up this movement Sundarlal Bahuguna walked 2800 km. Finally the State Govt, banned felling of forests in Renigaon area. Soon Chipko Movement gained the national publicity.The scope of this movement does not confine to India rather it is extended to Switzerland, Germany and Holland..

Question 2.
Write a note on Silent Valley.
Answer:
Silent Valley is a small forest area of Kerala. It is located in Western Ghat on the south-west slopes, of Nilgiri Hills. Its total area is 90 km2. It is surrounded by high hills from all the sides. Due to unapproachable tracts this area is uninhabited.

This valley is treasure of unique and valuable vegetation and animals. The Kuntipooja river flows the center of the Silent Valley. This valley was declared national park in 1985. Due to public movement the valuable rain forests, rarely available vegetation and animals could be protected.

Question 3.
Describe in detail t’e efforts for water conservation in Madhya Pradesh.
Answer:
When the forest in Jabua district of Madhya Pradesh were ruthlessly cut, the land begar to decrease its fertility. Consequently soil erosion increases and employment opportunities reduced. It was due to this reason that the local population began to migrate. In the year 1994 the Rajeev Gandhi Water Storage Mission was started to elevate the problems of drought and deforestation.

This mission involves consumer at the end point with land and water conservation programmed, specially stressing on his participation in the ongoing process and in maintenance. Under this mission stop dams and ponds were constructed for water storage on local public demand. As a result the quantity of available water increased, soil erosion was prevented, water became easily available for irrigation, plants and animals.

In 1999 the State Government made it compulsory for the Sarpanch of every Panchayat under ‘Ek Panch Ek Talab’ scheme to construct at least one new pond and reform the old during his office of five years. Thus, about 3412 ponds were rebuilt and 500 new ponds were constructed in a duration of less than 15 months. One-fourth of the cost was borne by the people. In the year 2000 under the ‘Pani Roko Abhiyan’ water storage was increased by making small dams.

This resulted in the development of 7 lacs water catchment area. Under the ‘Gaon Ka Pani Gaon Main Evam Khet Ka Pani Khet Mein’ programme, water was stored in the farms by constructing hedges. The efforts of water conservation made in Madhyi Pradesh were followed by other states too.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 2 other important questions

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Pollution-is increasing day by day due to –
(a) Rapid and irrational exploitation
(b) Water scarcity
(c) Plantation
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Rapid and irrational exploitation

Question 2.
Environmental Impact Assessment is conducted in –
(a) Two Stages
(b) Three Stages
(c) Four Stages
(d) Eight stages
Answer:
(a) Two Stages

Question 3.
Sundarlal Bahuguna is associated with –
(a) Pani Roko Abhiyan
(b) Chipko Movement
(c) Non-co-operation Movement
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Chipko Movement

Question 4.
Silent Valley is a small forest area of –
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Chennai
(c) Kerala
(d) Gujarat
Answer:
(c) Kerala

Fill in the blank:

1. …………… is not only the creator of nature but also component.
2. …………… is a successful strategy for protecting natural resources.
3. In India the use of CNG is maximum in the field of …………….
4. Pollution is in increasing day by day due to …………….. and ………….. demand.
5. “Pani Roko Abhiyan” was started in ……………..

Answer:

1. Man
2. Chipko Movement
3. transportation
4. rapid, irrational
5. 2000.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 2 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the burning problem of the world?
Answer:
Environmental imbalance is the burning problem of the world.

Question 2.
How is environmental conservation possible?
Answer:
Environmental conservation is possible only when environmentalists, leaders and policy-makers will make collective efforts.

Question 3.
Name the countries where Chipko Movement became popular.
Answer:
The countries are:
Switzerland, Germany and Holland.

Question 4.
Define environmental conversation.
Answer:
Environment conversation is the planned management of the environment and the resources to prevent its destruction and exploitation.

Question 5.
Name some important days which are necessary to organised.
Answer:
It is necessary to organised world Forest day, Water day, Population day and Environment day with social participation to increase people awareness towards environment.

Question 6.
What is Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) technique?
Answer:
Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is an important technique of maintaining environmental quality.

Question 7.
What are the three stages of Environmental’ Impact Assessment?
Answer:
The three stages of Environment Impact Assessment are – Initial Scrutiny, Rapid Environmental Impact Assessment and Comprehensive Impact Assessment.

Question 8.
Write the full form of CNG.
Answer:
The full form of CNG is Compressed Natural Gas.

Question 9.
Define bio-fertilizer.
Answer:
Bio-fertilizer are the organisms which bring about enrichment of soil nutrients such as fungi and bacteria.

Question 10.
In which year “Pani Roko Abhiyan” was started?
Answer:
In the year 2000.

Question 11.
What is modern farming?
Answer:
The farming which employs modern technology such as machines, large amount of labor, large area of land, etc. is called modern farming.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 2 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What efforts have been done to protect environment?
Answer:
The efforts which have done to protect environment are –

• Chipko Movement.
• Silent Valley Project.
• Use of CNG in Delhi for protection from air pollution.
• Water catchment and conservation efforts of Madhya Pradesh.

Question 2.
Mention any five points which are necessary to keep in mind in order to be friendly with nature.
Answer:
The following points are necessary to be kept in mind:

• Use of family planning and birth control measures to control population growth.
• Digging out underground water by solar energy.
• Construction of dams and water dividers for irrigation.
• Prohibition against use of plastic.
• Encouragement of plantation.

Question 3.
What are the objectives of Environmental Impact Assessment?
Answer:
Its objectives are as follows –

• Development without causing damage to environment.
• Maintenance of quality of environment.
• Sustainable development so that the present as well as future generations are able to meet their needs.
• Emphasis on prevention rather than cure of environmental degradation.
• Use of EIA as an effective tool of design making on development action.

Question 3.
What points are to be kept in mind by a project operator and manager before implementing a developmental project? Describe.
Answer:
There are three points which should be kept in mind by a project operator and manager before implementing a developmental project:

• The project should maximize economic return.
• The project should be technically feasible.
• It should be minimum harmful for the environment.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 2 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the methods of Environmental Impact Assessment
Answer:
Environmental Impact Assessment is conducted in three stages:
Initial Scrutiny, Rapid Environmental Impact Assessment and Comprehensive Impact Assessment. Initial screening of a project is done to decide whether the impact assessment is actually needed for the project being under taken or not. If it is felt that the project is likely to cause some adverse effects on the environmental, it is subjected to Rapid Environmental Assessment.

Rapid Assessment attempts to identity the key issues in a particular project. Issues which are not important enough to require further studies are omitted. Comprehensive Environmental Assessment is undertaken after the Initial and Rapid Impact Assessment have been performed. Critical aspects of the project are taken up at this stage. If needed, the project may not be approved for implementation.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Solutions

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Solutions Chapter 1 Man and Environment

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 1 Text Book Questions

Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
Unit of measuring noise is:
(a) Centimetre
(b) Decibel
(c) Celsius
(d) Millibar
Answer:
(b) Decibel

Question 2 .
City with the highest intensity of noise in the world –
(a) Mumbai
(b) New York
(c) Rio-de-Janeiro
(d) Tokyo.
Answer:
(c) Rio-de-Janeiro

Question 3.
Where was the ozone hole observed in 1985?
(a) Australia
(b) Antarctica
(c) Western Europe
(d) Alaska.
Answer:
(b) Antarctica

Question 4.
Ozone layer is-
(a) 20-35 km above the earth’s surface
(b) 5-10 km above the earth’s surface
(c) 75-100 km above the earth’s surface
(d) 32-80 km above the earth’s surface
Answer:
(d) 32-80 km above the earth’s surface

Question 5.
Main cause of environmental degradation is –
(a) Increase in tourism
(b) Shifting cultivation
(c) Changing nature of land use
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 6.
Population explosion is –
(a) Migration
(b) Equal death rate and birth rate
(c) Crowding
(d) Continuous increase in number of humans.
Answer:
(d) Continuous increase in number of humans.

Question 7.
Cut and Burn is related to –
(a) Shifting cultivation
(b) Tourism and pilgrimage
(c) Mining
(d) Construction of dam.
Answer:
(a) Shifting cultivation

Fill in the blank:

1. Any physical thing or matter, which is valuable to man is called ……………
2. …………… % of the earth is landmass and is covered with water.
3. ……………….. % of the total land area of the world is covered by forest.
4. The term ‘acid rain’ was first coined by a British scientist in ………………

Answer:

1. environment
2. 29, 71
3. 30
4. 1873

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 1 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by environment?
Answer:
All that surrounds us is our environment. Environment consists of’ all living and non – living matters that exist around us. ‘ There is a close relationship between man and environment. Man is born in his special environment and passes his entire life in the same environment.

Question 2.
What is the meaning of cultural environment?
Answer:
This environment develops due to the mutual relationship ‘ between man and natural environment. This includes the economic and social activities created, developed and conducted by man such as farming, industry, rites and rituals, settlement, roads, railways, air services, means of irrigation, government system and science and technology.

Question 3.
Name five polluted rivers of India?
Answer:
The Ganga, Hugli, Damodar, Yamuna, Godawari.

Question 4.
What is global warming?
Answer:
Due to the hole in the ozone layer the wrath of ultraviolet rays on the earth surface is increasing. Carbon-dioxide and other heat resistant gases absorb some part of heat and reverse it back to the earth surface. As a result extra heat is stored in the lower atmosphere and its temperature increases which is called global warming.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 1 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How does air or noise pollution affect human health? Explain.
Answer:
Effects of air pollution on health:
Gases from .industries containing sulphur dioxide, carbon dioxide and phosphorus oxide etc. are harmful suffocating to us. Air pollutants have adverse effect on plant life. The poisonous gases also enter plant tissue of leaves and disturb their physiology. Plants living in polluted conditions suffer poor growth, delayed flowering and maturation of fruits.

Effects of noise pollution on health:
The problem of noise pollution is very acute in urban areas due to sound produced by different vehicles, machines, transistors and radios, drum beats on religious and wedding procession amplified rock music and discos etc.

Constant exposure to this sound produces deafness, increase in nervous tension, blood pressure and causes heart troubles.. It also causes headaches, irritability and affects the sensory and nervous system.

Question 2.
How do radioactive substances spread pollution?
Answer:
During the use of nuclear elements for various purposes the radioactive particles enter the atmosphere and produce radio active pollution. Radioactive pollution have both direct and indirect effects on our body. Radioactive radiation directly enters our body via respiratory track in the form of air and gases. Indirectly it influences our body through food chain. The radioactive substance such as strontium destroys fertility of soil.

Question 3.
Differentiate between pollution and pollutants?
Answer:
1. Pollution:
The unwanted change occurring in the natural formation and balance of the environment is known as environmental pollution.

2. Pollutants:
The unusable substances responsible for pollution which are present in improper quantity are called pollutants.

Question 4.
Explain the problem of ozone depletion?
Answer:
From 30 – 80 km above the earth surface there is a 50 meter thick layer of ozone. This layer absorbs the ultraviolet rays coming from the sun and this saves the living beings on the earth. Due to the excessive use of Chloro Floro Carbon (CFC) in the appliances such as refrigerator and air conditioner, there is a hole in ozone layer.

Due to this hole tire wrath of ultraviolet rays on the earth surface is spreading. As a result the possibility of skin cancer is increasing. It also reduces the immunity of human body. Due to the decreasing rate of photosynthesis growth of flora and fauna is hampered and forests are drying.

Question 5.
what is soil pollution? What are its ill – effects?
Answer:
Any unwanted change in the physical, chemical or biological attributes of the earth which destroys the fertility and utility of land is soil pollution.

Ill – effects of soil pollution:

• Soil pollution and bitter make the visible land dirty.
• Due to the deposition of the waste or coarse material the land becomes unsuitable for other uses.
• There is danger of soil erosion, land sliding and conversion of land into ravines.

Question 6.
What do you understand by population explosion?
Answer:
When the population of country rises at such a fast speed that existing resources of the Country fall short of the necessary requirement of the people, it is called stage of ‘population explosion This has created many problems such as crowd, unemployment, security of resources, pollution, mental and social tension etc.

Question 7.
How does over gradation affect the quality of land?
Answer:
Excessive intake of vegetation by domestic animals is called excessive grazing. As a result cf excessive grazing the vegetation does not grow again very fast in these areas. The layer of vegetation from land is destroyed. Due to soil erosion the danger of desertification arises. In such areas soil absorbs less water and plants do not get adequate water.

Question 8.
Describe the process of shifting agriculture?
Answer:
Shifting agriculture is an old method of cultivation. In this method trees are cut and burnt and then the land is prepared for farming. But this type of land is used for farming for some time and then discarded. But this method of farming has made enough harm to the forests.

Question 9.
What is deforestation? List the reasons of deforestation.
Answer:
Deforestation means cutting forests or plants from some region. Reduction of forest is the result of human effects.

Reasons of deforestation:

• Construction of huge dams.
• Throwing of hydro – electricity projects.
• Distribution of electricity and spread of railways and roads.
• Extension of habitat areas.
• Cutting of trees for fuel.
• Spreading of industries.

Question 10.
Insecticides should not be used in excess amount. Why?
Answer:
It has become a common practice to use plenty of in – pesticides to enhance production. As a result the nutrients of the soil are reduced. The fertility of soil is also hampered. The quality of production is affected.

Question 11.
What are the harmful effects of mining on the environment of a region?
Answer:
Excessive mining means digging of land for extracting minerals and other substances. Trees are being cut from the land. As a result circulation of underground water is hampered, land sliding, deposition of waste material, soil erosion and formation of new’ land forms occur. The ill – effects of excessive mining can be observed in Doon valley formed by Ganga – Yamuna which are surrounded by Himalaya ranges.

Previously this valley area was world famous for the production of Basmati rice, litchi and tea. But now due to uncontrolled mining of lime stone only 12% valley area has greenery. In the Jaipur, Jodhpur and Udaipur districts due to mining of stones the surrounding greenery has been destroyed.

Question 12.
How does urbanization destroy the environment?
Answer:
As a result of urbanization there is increase in population density and transport facilities, roads, railways, hospitals, community centers etc. are on rise. All these increase the pollution. The increasing deposition of waste influences the environment also.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 1 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explaining the Indian concept of environment describe how man is related to his environment?
Answer:
There has always been a mutual relationship between man and nature. We can find proof in regard in our ancient literature too. Nature is represented in the form of mother in Vedas. In the hope of healthy environment man has maintained passionate relations with the environment in his life-style. His debt towards environment is exposed in the form of sensitivity, honor, passion, and safety.

Man and environment are the creator, parent and savior of each other. Nature is considered as the substitute of life. We have always offered our prayers to water sources such as the Ganga, the Yamuna, the Saraswati, plants like the Banyan, Peepal, Neem, and Tulasi. We have always worshiped the Sun, the Moon and the.

Earth. In turn the mother nature has brought up us like her children. It is believed that the environment receives fragrance as we bum Dhoop. The up nishads assume earth as body of the supernatural, heaven as his brain, the Sun and the Moon as his eyes and skies as his mind. Hence, it is not proper to cut trees and pollute sources of water. Thus, we can say that man and environment are closely related with each other.

Question 2.
What is environment? What are the main elements of environment? How has man affected the environment? Explain.
Answer:
All that surrounds us is our environment. Environment consists of all living and non-living matter that exist around us. There is a close relationship between man and environment. Man is born in his special environment and passes his entire life in the same environment.

Environment may be defined as follows:

• The environment is all that surrounds mankind and directly or indirectly influences man.
• All physical elements and biotic elements together constitute environment.

Main Elements of Environment:.
All the elements which effect environment are called the elements of environment. These elements can be classified into major categories.

1. Elements of natural or physical environment:
This includes all natural elements given by the nature such as location, geomorphology, rocks, climate, vegetation, wild life, minerals, water bodies, ocean, etc.

2. Elements of Sociocultural Environment:
The sociopolitical environment develops due to the mutual relationship between man and natural environment. This includes the economic and social activities created, developed and conducted by man such as farming, industry, rites and rituals, settlement, roads, railways, air, services, means of irrigation, government system and science and technology.

3. How has man affected the environment?
Man is at the top of ecological pyramid. He is omnivorous because he. feeds both on plants and animal life. As a result of senseless and. continuous hunting, some species of birds and animals have become extinct and others are leading to extinction. Cultivation of land has had a serious impact on ecosystem.

The removal of original plants covers and its replacement by single cultivated crop reduces the biological diversity and simplifies the ecosystem  making it venerable to pests and diseases which attack crop. Burning of fossil fuel in large quantities, automobile exhausts, gaseous effluents from factories have led to the pollution of air and water.

Humans have cleared the jungles for their dwellings, for rearing animals and for construction roads and buildings. Too much use of land, forests have caused lot of health problems and ecological problems. As a result of pollution of air and water various species of plants have became extinct because pollution of air and water adversely affects plants.

Question 3.
What do you mean by pollution? Describe differ- it types of pollution.
Answer:
Pollution. The undesirable change in the physical, chemical, and biotic elements of the environment which adversely alters the natural quality of the environment is called environmental pollution. Pollution of the environment may occur naturally without the intervention by human being or may be caused by human activities. Volcanic eruptions, forest fires, space disturbances are the examples of pollution’s caused by nature itself. But pollution is mainly caused by human activities due to over-use, misuse, and mismanagement of resources.

Types of pollution:
1. Air pollution:
Disturbance of balance among various gases in the air or presence of unwanted gases is known as air pollution. The burning of fossil fuels in large quantities during the recent ‘ decades had resulted in gradual increase in carbon – di – oxide content in the atmosphere. The increase in carbon – di – oxide leads to increase in temperature.

Burning of coal and oil adds sulphur dioxide to the atmosphere which causes many body aliments including respiratory diseases. Gaseous effluents from factories also pollute the atmosphere. Air pollution is of global significance unlike water or land pollution which are of local or regional effect. These gases also cause acid rain in industrial regions affecting acquainted ecosystem.

The water so polluted cannot support fish or other life forms in water. Acid rain also damages forests. The ozone layer in the atmosphere serves as a shield protecting the earth from ultraviolet radiation. When the ozone layer is depleted, ultraviolet radiation enters the earth surface and may cause skin cancer.

2. Water Pollution:
The entry of some unwanted substances in the natural water that reduces its purity is known as water pollution. Polluted water is not suitable to men, animals, vegetation, sea, animals and irrigation. The causes of water pollution are soil erosion, leaves of trees, domestic drainage, and sewage, effluents from factories, fertilizers and pesticides and the hot water flowing from nuclear reactors and spreading of mineral oil on sea surface. This contaminates the drinking water and causes water born diseases such as jaundice, dysentery, and typhoid. etc. .

3. Noise Pollution:
The disturbance caused by noise or unwanted sound which interferes with human communication, comfort and health etc. is called Noise Pollution. The problem of noise pollution is very acute in urban areas due to sound produced by different vehicles, machines, transistors and radios, drum beats on religious and wedding procession amplifier rock music and discos etc.

Constant exposure to this sound produces deafness, increase in nervous tension, blood pressure and causes heart troubles. It also causes headaches, irritability and affects the sensory and nervous system.To control noise pollution, improvement in the machines, construction of sound barrier and absorbs, should be done. The ear protective devices should be used.

4. Soil Pollution:
Any unwanted change in the physical, chemical or biological attributes of the earth which destroys the fertility and utility of. land is soil pollution. Excessive use of pesticides and fertilizers, industrialization, urbanization, plastic and polythene, continuous irrigation with salted water, etc. are various causes of soil pollution.

5. Radioactive Pollution:
During the use of nuclear elements for various purposes the radioactive particles enter the atmosphere and produce radioactive pollution. The excessive energy released during nuclear test’ destroys human and animal cells.

6. Thermal Pollution:
An unwanted increase in normal temperature in the world which effects biosphere is thermal pollution. Carbon-dioxide, methane, CFC, Nitro-us oxide, ozone hole, forest fire, nuclear tests etc. increase atmospheric temperature. Drought, flood, low agricultural production due to climate change, ozone depletion etc. are some of the ill-effects of thermal pollution.

Question 4.
What is the meaning of resources? Describe various types of resources with example.
Answer:
All the elements, biological or non – biological, present in nature which are capable of fulfilling human wants are called resources. Land soil, water, air, sun – rays, forests, wild animals, fish, minerals etc. are examples of resources.

All gifts of nature about which man has the knowledge in regard to their use, availability and accessibility are thus called resources. There may be innumerable things hidden in the lap of nature but man may not be knowing about many of them. Thus gifts of nature, about whom man does not know, cannot be called resources.

Various Types of Resources:

• Natural Resources – Renewable (air, agricultural, water, forest), Non – renewable (non-cyclic fossil fuel, as coal, petrol and cyclic-metallic minerals).
• Human Resources – (population, health, education and working efficiency).
• Man – made Resources – (buildings, roads, sociopolitical institution).

1. Renewable Resources:
Resources, which are reproduce-able after the use or can be used again eg. forests, pastures, agricultural land.

2. Non-renewable Resources:
Those resources which once exploited cannot be reproduced or supplied in tire near future such as petroleum, coal.

3. Human Resources:
It means the number and quality of human beings. Education and health increase man’s physical and mental capacity. Man himself is major resource who uses the natural elements as resource on the basis of his knowledge, labor and technical know – how.

4. Man – made Resources:
These are those means of production which are produced by man to utilize the physical matters of environment such as machines, buildings, tools, etc.

5. Land Resources:
It is an important natural resource. Land is used for housing, roads, railways, farming, pasturing and mining, etc.

6. Water Resources:
Water on the earth surface is obtained through rains, rivers, lakes, ponds, glaciers, waterfalls and tube- wells. The water is used for irrigation, industry, domestic supply, fish farming and water transport.

7. Soil Resources:
Good soil is essential for the growth of vegetation.

8. Forest Resources:
Forests are a valuable resources like rivers. Forests provide us many valuable products timber, paper, medicine, firewood, wood pulp, lac, rubber, etc. Forests check soil erosion. Forests prevent floods. Forests provide suitable environment for wild-life. Forests absorb carbon – dioxide and release oxygen to the atmosphere. Forests add water vapor to the atmosphere by the process of transpiration.

Question 5.
How does changing use of land affect the environment? Explain.
Answer:
Man has brought many changes in environment in order to fulfill his ever-growing needs. He has made unnecessary disturbance in natural environment. The major cause of decline of natural environment in the world is changing form of land-use. In India forests are being destroyed for various purposes.

Deforestation and pasturing, construction of big dams for hydro – electricity and irrigation, spread of new roads and railways and development of factories has transformed land – use in India to a great extent. This has disturbed the natural balance.

The continuous interference with environment for the sake of human settlement and industrial and economic development cause environmental deg – radiation. The habitat of various types of animals have been destroyed and thousands species of flora and fauna become extinct.

Question 6.
How does over-population affect human life? Explain.
Answer:
When the population of country rises at such a fast speed that existing resources of the country fall short of the necessity of the people, it is called stage of over – population or population explosion. This has created many problems such as crowd, unemployment, security of resources, pollution, mental and social tension etc.

In the absence of suitable dwelling arrangements people tend to live on fields, streets and lanes. This gives rise to the establishment of jhugg is and subsequent loss to the ecological balance. Over – population has created the problem like overcrowding. It leads to pollution – which leads to many health hazards.

Due to over – population various types of resources are decreasing fast. People cut trees which has created grave situation. People are in race of acquiring more and more material objects. This race has given them mental and social tension. This, over – population has badly affected the human beings. We remain under pressure all the time which may reduce our life span.

Question 7.
How is the construction of huge dams harmful for the environment? Explain.
Answer:
Dams are being constructed on big rivers for purpose of irrigation, hydro – electricity, canals, fishing, water transportation and flood control. About 700 dams have been constructed after independence. But they are not unbeatable from the point of view of environment. Whenever a river valley project is started the construction of houses for the workers, construction of road, railway and underground tunnels become essential.

As a result the greenery of large areas surrounding the construction site disappears. The artificial pond made from the huge dam drowns forests and farm land. The alkalinity of the land increases due to water drained from the canals of the dam and its fertility decreases. Due to the prevalence of continuous water in dam and canal area the nearby land becomes unsuitable for agriculture. Human settlements are displaced from the dam area. Thus construction of huge dams badly affects our environment.

Question 8.
Centralization of industries is very dangerous for the environment. Explain with examples.
Answer:
Industrialization is helpful to man but harmful to our environment. The factories release poisonous gases in the atmo sphere. This disturbs atmospheric balance and increases air pollution. The waste material are left open in surrounding areas. The polluted water is drained in the river which directly influences human health and environment.

Industrialization is the main source of air, water, noise, land, chemical and radioactive pollution. In the Kolkata metropolis of India the water of Damodar and Hugh rivers have been poisoned by the effluents of surrounding steel factories, chemical industries, distilleries and paper and jute mills. Same is the true with the Ganga, Yamuna and Chambal rivers.

Question 9.
What do you mean by water pollution? River pollution is increasing in India. Describe.
Answer:
The entry of some unwanted substance  in the natural water that reduces its purity is known as water – pollution. Water is being polluted by the humans in different ways.

1. When factories, specially, those of paper mills, sugar mills, tanneries etc. discharge their effluents in rivers or allow them stagnate on land.

2. When there is no river nearby the stagnated effluents seep through the land, mix with the underground water and pollute the water. For example, effluents from large number of tanneries in North Arcot district in Tamilnadu have polluted well water in large number of villages.

3. The most widespread source of water pollution is disposal of sewage of urban centers into river. For example, rivers Ganga, Yamuna are polluted by sewage disposal while these rivers also provide drinking water to the people residing nearly.

This contaminates the drinking water and causes water born diseases such as jaundice, dysentery and typhoid etc. Approximately 90% surface water is polluted in India. The Ganga, Hugh, Damodar, Gomti,t Yamuna, Godawari rivers are polluted due to the industrial and the urban wastes and sewages.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 1 Other Important Questions

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The religion of Christianity considers nature as a –
(a) God
(b) Goddess
(c) Human being
(d) Nature.
Answer:
(b) Goddess

Question 2.
Lord Buddha got enlightenment under –
(a) The Banyan tree
(b) The Peepal tree
(c) The Neem tree
(d) The Jamun Tree.
Answer:
(a) The Banyan tree

Question 3.
Non – renewable resource is –
(a) Coal
(b) Forest
(e) Pastures
(d) Lands.
Answer:
(a) Coal

Question 4.
The total land area of the world covered by forests is –
(a) 50%
(b) 40%
(c) 30%
(d) 65%
Answer:
(c) 30%

Question 5.
The harmful radioactive substance such as strontium destroys –
(a) Fertility of soil
(b) Growth of plants
(c) Growth of a child
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Fertility of soil

Fill in the blank:

1. Nature is represent as mother in ………………
2. Under the …………… did Buddha get enligi.. nunent.
3. The unit of noise is …………..
4. Approximately …………… % surface water is poluted in India.
5. ………… and …………. is related to shifting cultivation.

Answer:

1. Vedas
2. Banyan Tree
3. Decibel
4. 90
5. Cut, Burn.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 1 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you understand by “Man – made environment”?
Answer:
Our cultural environmental is also known as “Man-made environment”. It contains human races, social systems, human habitat and administrative systems. It is different from natural environment but it is effected by natural environment and interact with it.

Question 2.
What are the main causes of air pollution?
Answer:
Main causes of air pollution are following:

• Increase in population
• Deforestation
• Fires
• Industrialization
• Increase in vehicular smoke.

Question 3.
Which are the main components of environment? Write their names.
Answer:
Biotic and abiotic, both are main components of environment.

Question 4.
What is called environment?
Answer:
The surroundings around us is known as our environment. In other words, we can say that environment means the areas and surroundings which cover us and we live in.

Question 5.
Write the main uses of water.
Answer:
Water is used for drinking, cooking, food, irrigation, bathing and washing the clothes. –

Question 6.
How much percentage of surface water is polluted in India.
Answer:
Approximately 90% surface water is polluted in Indian

Question 7.
Which city having highest noise in the world?
Answer:
Rio – de – Janeiro is the city having highest noise in the world, where noise pollution is 120 decibel.

Question 8.
What is the unit of noise?
Answer:
The unit of noise is Decibel.

Question 9.
What is environmental pollution?
Answer:
The undesirable change in the physical, chemical, and biotic elements of the environment which adversely alters the natural quality of the environment is called environmental pollution. Pollution of the environment may occur naturally without the intervention by human being or may be caused by human activities. Volcanic eruptions, forest fires, space disturbances are the examples of pollution’s caused by nature itself. But pollution is mainly caused by human activities due to over-use, misuse, and mismanagement of resources.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 1 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What causes soil pollution?
Answer:
Main causes of soil pollution:

• Artificial chemical fertilizers and insecticides etc. .
• Industrial complexes like pulp, paper mills, oil refineries, rubber producing complexes etc.
• Domestic wastes like broken gadgets, worn out furniture, caves, rags etc.

Question 2.
What will happen if the carbon dioxide content of the air increases?
Answer:
The increase in the carbon dioxide content of the air will result in warming up of the earth. It will cause melting of ice caps and glaciers. This would cause a rise in sea level and violent tidal waves resulting in flooding of the popular coastal plains. It may prove to be an important pollutant in the long run and cause respiratory trouble and direct threat to health.

Question 3.
What are the harmful effects of water pollution?
Answer:
Polluted water causes so many diseases. Jaundice and cholera is caused through contaminated water. As large cities are mainly affected with polluted water so the growth of virus and bacteria etc. get enhanced in these cities and can. the epidemic of jaundice and cholera. Other diseases rela intestinal disorders, liver problems etc.

Question 4.
What is the need of conserving the environment?
Answer:
There is an urgent need for protecting the environment from which man derives his food and other resources. An understanding of the processes which take place in the environment is necessary so that man’s activities, are reorganized in such a manner .so as not to interfere with the environment. Man will have to learn to live in perfect harmony with the physical and biological environment so that the earth continues to be habitable for the future as well.

Question 5.
What is natural environment?
Answer:
Natural Environment:
Natural environment is also called physical environment. It consists of all physical factors bestowed by the nature. Natural environment includes land, climate, minerals and all such endowment without which tire life on earth could have not been possible. It is thus the sum total of all non-living and inorganic matter such as land, air and water. It provides the earth with favorable condition for the existence and growth of life including man.

Question 6.
What is cultural environment?
Answer:
The man – made environment has been included in the cultural environment. The main factors of cultural environment are human races, social systems, human habitat and administrative systems. Through this environment man adapts himself to his physical environment and struggles with the vagaries of nature. His efforts have made him win places which were hitherto untouched by human population. He has succeeded in-exploring the depth of the ocean and height of the mountain.

Question 7.
Define acid rain.
Answer:
The sulphur-dioxide and nitrogen gases coming out of tire factories mix up in the atmosphere, they react with the existing vapors and produce sulphuric acid and nitrite acid respectively. This acid when pours down with the water rains on the earth. It is called the acid ram. The term acid rain was first coined by a British Scientist in 1873.

Question 8.
Write a short note on ‘Urbanization’.
Answer:
The process of extension of cities is urbanization. As a result of urbanization there is increase in population density and transport facilities, roads, railways, hospitals, community centers etc. are on rise. All these increase the pollution.

The increasing deposition of waste influences human health. About 5 crore people in India reside in the four metropolis of Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai. These cities are suffering from drinking water problem, urban pollution, unemployment and lack of peace.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Chapter 1 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the factors which are responsible for the changing form of land all over the world.
Answer:

There are many factors which are responsible for the changing form of land all over the world:
1. Population Growth and Reproduction:
Our population is increasing day by day. As a result we are facing the problem of population explosion. Human life-style has improved due to progress in the field of medicine. The fertility and mortality rates have come down. Deaths are on decline. As a result mortality rate has unexpectedly gone down and population has gone up. Due to unlimited growth in population problems like crowd, unemployment, security of resources, pollution, mental and social tension have come up.

2. Deforestation:
It means cutting forests or plants from some region. Reduction of forest is the result of human effects. All methods of shifting cultivation made enough harm to the forests. Other factors which have harmed forests are construction of huge dams, spread of railways and roads, etc.

3. Excessive Grazing:
As a result of excessive grazing the vegetation does not grow again very fast in these areas. The ill- effect is that layer or vegetation from land is destroyed. Due to soil erosion the danger of desertification arises.

4. Harmful Experiments in Agriculture:
In order to fulfill the ever-increasing demand of food crops of more production are grown. It is a common practice to use plenty of chemical fertilizers, pesticides and weed killing chemicals to en-chance production. Salination increases as a result of inadequate drainage of water from the fields. Nutrients of the soil are reduced due to prevalence of excessive water.

5. Urbanization:
It has increased population density, and transport facilities. Roads, railways, hospitals, community centers etc. are on rise. Some other factors are industrialization and extension of slums and construction of huge dams.

MP Board Class 9th Social Science Solutions

MP Board Class 6th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 Knowing Our Numbers Ex 1.1

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks:
(a) 1 lakh = ___ ten thousand.
(b) 1 million = ___ hundred thousand.
(c) 1 crore = ____ ten lakh.
(d) 1 crore = ___ million.
(e) 1 million = ___ lakh.
Solution:
(a) 10 : 1 lakh = 1,00,000
= 10 × 10,000 = 10 ten thousand
(b) 10 :1 million = 1,000,000
= 10 × 100,000 = 10 hundred thousand
(c) 10 :1 crore = 1,00,00,000
= 10 × 10,00,000 = 10 ten lakh
(d) 10 : 1 crore = 10 million
(e) 10 : 1 million = 10 lakh

Question 2.
Place commas correctly and write the numerals:
(a) Seventy three lakh seventy five thousand three hundred seven.
(b) Nine crore five lakh forty one.
(c) Seven crore fifty two lakh twenty one thousand three hundred two.
(d) Fifty eight million four hundred twenty three thousand two hundred two.
(e) Twenty three lakh thirty thousand ten.
Solution:
(a) 73,75,307
(b) 9,05,00,041
(c) 7,52,21,302
(d) 58,423,202
(e) 23,30,010

Question 3.
Insert commas suitably and write the names according to Indian System of Numeration :
(a) 87595762
(b) 8546283
(c) 99900046
(d) 98432701
Solution:
(a) 8,75,95,762 ➝ Eight crore seventy- five lakh ninety-five thousand seven hundred sixty-two.
(b) 85,46,283 ➝ Eighty-five lakh forty-six thousand two hundred eighty-three.
(c) 9,99,00,046 ➝ Nine crore ninety-nine lakh forty-six.
(d) 9,84,32,701 ➝ Nine crore eighty-four lakh thirty-two thousand seven hundred one.

Question 4.
Insert commas suitably and write the names according to International System of Numeration:
(a) 78921092
(b) 7452283
(c) 99985102
(d) 48049831
Solution:
(a) 78,921,092 ➝ Seventy-eight million nine hundred twenty-one thousand ninety- two
(b) 7,452,283 ➝ Seven million four hundred fifty-two thousand two hundred eighty- three
(c) 99,985,102 ➝ Ninety-nine million nine hundred eighty-five thousand one hundred two
(d) 48,049,831 ➝ Forty-eight million forty- nine thousand eight hundred thirty-one

MP Board Class 6th Maths Solutions

MP Board Class 9th Sanskrit व्याकरण कृदन्त, तद्धित और स्त्री प्रत्यय

जिस अक्षर या अक्षर समूह को शब्द के अंत में जोड़ते हैं, उसे प्रत्यय कहते हैं। जिन प्रत्ययों को धातुओं में जोड़कर उनसे विशेषण अथवा अव्यय बनाए जाते हैं, उन्हें कृत-प्रत्यय कहते हैं, तथा इस प्रकार कृत्-प्रत्ययों से बनने वाले विशेषण या अव्यय कृदन्त कहलाते हैं। कृदन्तों के द्वारा अपूर्ण वर्तमान काल, पूर्वकालिक क्रिया, कर्म वाच्य (Passive Voice) आदि प्रकार के वाक्य बनाए जाते हैं।

कृदन्त के प्रमुख प्रकार निम्न हैं-

• पूर्वकालिक कृन्दत
• वर्तमानकालिक कृदन्त
• भूतकालिक कृदन्त
• हेतुवाचक कृदन्त
• विधिवाचक कृदन्त

पूर्वकालिक कृदन्त

जब काई क्रिया पहले हो चुकी हो और उसके बाद दूसरी क्रिया हो, तब पहिले होने वाली क्रिया को पूर्वाकालिक क्रिया कहते हैं। पूर्वकालिक क्रिया को बतलाने के लिए पूर्वकालिक कृदन्त का प्रयोग करते हैं। इसका प्रयोग अव्यय की तरह होता है। अतः इसके रूप में कोई परिवर्तन नहीं होता है। क्त्वा और ल्यप् पूर्वकालिक कृदन्त के उदाहरण है। ये ‘करके’ के अर्थ में प्रयुक्त होते हैं।

अनबंध-‘अनुबंध’ उन वर्गों को कहते हैं, जो ‘प्रत्यय’ में उच्चारण आदि के लिए लगे रहते हैं, पर बाद में लुप्त हो जाया करते हैं। अनुबंध को ‘इत’ या ‘अलग हो जानेवाला’ भी कहते हैं। अतः ‘इत्’ वर्गों को लोप हो जाता है।

जैसे-

• ज्ञान + क्तवा ज्ञात्वा

इसमें ‘क’ अनुबंध है, इसलिए जुड़ते समय इसका लोप हो गया। क्त्वा प्रत्यय-‘क्त्वा’ प्रत्यय जोड़ते समय धातु में केवल ‘त्वा’ जुड़ता है।

जैसे-

त्वा जोड़ते समय कुछ धातुओं में ‘इकार’ (इ या ई की मात्रा) भी जुड़ता है।
जैसे-

ल्यप् प्रत्यय-यदि धातु के पूर्व उपसर्ग जुड़ा हो, तो धातु में ‘क्त्वा’ के बदले ल्यप् प्रत्यय जोड़ा जाता है। धातु में जोड़ते समय केवल ‘य’ जुड़ता है।
जैसे-

यदि धातु के पूर्व उपसर्ग जुड़ा हो और यदि ह्रस्व स्वरांत धातु है, तो धातु में ल्यप् प्रत्यय जोड़ते समय केवल ‘त्य’ जुड़ता है।

जैसे-

हेतुवाचक कृदन्त

‘के लिए’ या ‘ने को’ के अर्थ में ‘तुमुन्’ प्रत्यय जोड़ते हैं। ‘तुमुन्’ जोड़ते समय प्रायः ‘तुम’ ही धातुओं में जुड़ता है। ये शब्द अव्यय होते हैं। इनके अंत में ‘म्’ रहता है।

जैसे-

‘तुमुन्’ प्रत्यय को ऐसे शब्दों के पूर्व भी जोड़ते हैं, जिनका अर्थ ‘चाहना’ या ‘सकना’ होता है।

जैसे-

• सः खेलितुं इच्छति। = वह खेलना चाहता है।
• सः खेलितुं शक्नोति। = वह खेल सकता है।

विधिवाचक कृदन्त

‘चाहिए’ अथवा ‘योग्य’ के अर्थ को प्रकट करने के लिए धातु में अनीयर, या तव्यत् या यत् प्रत्यय लगाकर विधिवाचक कृदन्त बनाते हैं। यह विशेषण होता है। अतः इसका लिंग, वचन और कारक विशेष के अनुसार रहता है। पुल्लिंग में इसकी कारक रचना देव के समान, स्त्रीलिंग में नदी के समान तथा नपुंसकलिंग में फलम् के समान होती है।

जैसे-

भूतकालिक कृदन्त

क्त और क्त्वतु प्रत्यय भूतकालिक कृदन्त हैं।

‘क्त’ प्रत्यय-धातुओं के साथ कर्तवाच्य (Active Voice) में भूतकालिक कृदन्त का प्रयोग भूतकाल की क्रिया के स्थान किया जा सकता है। इसका लिंग, कारक और वचन कर्ता के समान होता है। धातु में ‘क्त’ प्रत्यय जोड़ते समय प्रायः केवल ‘त’ जुड़ता है।

जैसे-

‘क्त’ प्रत्यय से युक्त शब्द के रूप पुल्लिंग में ‘देव’ शब्द के समान, स्त्रीलिंग में ‘माला’ शब्द के समान और नपुंसकलिंग में ‘जल’ शब्द के समान होते हैं। इनका वाक्यों में प्रयोग निम्नानुसार होता है

रामः गतः। = राम गया।
सीता गता। = सीमा गई।
बालकौ गतौ। = दो बालक गये।
बालिकाः गताः। = लड़कियाँ गईं।

यहाँ गतः, गता, गतौ, गताः शब्द विशेषण हैं। इसीलिए इनके लिंग, वचन नहीं हैं, जो वाक्यों में कर्ता के हैं। संस्कृत में भूतकाल के ये वाक्य बिना क्रिया शब्दों के ही पूरे हो जाते हैं।

‘क्तवतु’ प्रत्यय-धातु में ‘क्तवतु’ प्रत्यय जोड़ते समय प्रातः केवल ‘तवत्’ जुड़ता है। कर्तवाच्य (Active Voice) में इसका प्रयोग होता है। इसका लिंग, वचन और कारक कर्ता के अनुसार होता है।

जैसे-

‘क्तवतु’ प्रत्यय से युक्त शब्द के रूप पुल्लिंग में ‘भगवत्’ शब्द के समान, स्त्रीलिंग में ‘नदी’ शब्द की भाँति और नपुंसकलिंग में ‘जगत्’ की भाँति होते हैं।

इनका वाक्यों में प्रयोग निम्नानुसार होता है-

• सुरेशः ग्रामात् आगतवान्। = सुरेश गाँव से आया।
• मारिः मूषक हतवान्। = बिल्ले ने चूहे को मार डाला।

वर्तमानकालिक कृदन्त

‘ता हुभा, ते हुए’ आदि अर्थ के लिए धातु में शतृ या शानच् प्रत्यय लगाए जाते हैं।

शतृ प्रत्यय-शतृ प्रत्यय का परस्मैपदी धातुओं में प्रयोग होता है। धातु के साथ जुड़ते समय केवल ‘अत्’ जुड़ता है। इनके रूप अत् अंत वाले शब्दों के समान चलते हैं।

जैसे-

शानच् प्रत्यय- शानच् प्रत्यय आत्मनेदी धातुओं में जोड़े जाते हैं। धातु के साथ जुड़ते समय शानच् का केवल ‘आन्’ या ‘मान’ बचता है।

जैसे-

शतृ के समान यह भी विशेषण होता है। अतः इसका लिंग, वचन और कारक विशेष के अनुसार रहता है। पुल्लिंग में इसकी कारक रचना देव के समान, स्त्रीलिंग में लता के समान तथा नपुंसकलिंग में फल के समान होती है।

क्तिन् प्रत्यय-इससे भाववाचक संज्ञा पद बनाए जाते हैं। ये पद स्त्रीलिंगी होते हैं। धातु के साथ जुड़ते समय क्तिन् का केवल ‘ति’ बचता है।

जैसे-

तद्वित प्रत्यय

संज्ञा, सर्वनाम, विशेषण और अव्यय-पदों में जिन प्रत्ययों के योग से नवीन शब्द बनाए जाते हैं, उन्हें तद्धित प्रत्यय कहते हैं। प्रत्यय के साथ कोष्टक में दिए गए शब्द ही प्रायः शब्दों के साथ जुड़ते हैं।

जैसे-
1. अण् (कारः) प्रत्यय-कुंभ + कारः = कुंभकारः
(इसी प्रकार भाष्यकारः ग्रन्थकारः)
2. तत् (ता) प्रत्यय-भाव के अर्थ में
सुन्दर + तल् = सुन्दरता – गुरु + तल् = गुरुता
3. तरप् (तर) प्रत्यय-जब दो में से एक को गुण में दूसरे से अधिक या कम बतलाना हो, तो ‘तरप्’ प्रत्यय जोड़ा जाता है। यह विशेष की उत्तरावस्था है। इसमें धातु में जोड़ते समय केवल ‘तर’ जुड़ता है।

जैसे-
अल्प + तरप् = अल्पतरः (से थोड़ा)
लघु + तरप् = लघुतरः (से छोटा)
स्थूल + तरप् = स्थूलतरः (से मोटा)
कृश + तरप् = कृशतरः (से दुबला)
दूर + तरप् = दूरतरः (से दूर)

4. तमप् (तम) प्रत्यय-जब अनेक में से एक के गुण को सबसे अधिक या कम बतलाना हो, तो ‘तमप्’ प्रत्यय जोड़ा जाता है। यह विशेषण की उत्तमावस्था है। इसमें धातु में जोड़ते समय केवल ‘तुम’ जुड़ता है।

जैसे-
अल्प + तमप् = अल्पतमः (सबसे थोड़ा)
लघु + तमप् = लघुतमः (सबसे छोटा)
स्थूल + तमप = स्थूलतमः (सबसे मोटा)
कृश + तमप् = कृशतमः (सबसे दुबला)
दूर + तमप् = दूरतमः (सबसे दूर)

5. मतुप् (मत्, वत्) प्रत्यय-वह इसमें है या वह इसका है-इस अर्थ में मतुप का प्रयोग होता है। मतुप् के पहले ‘अ’ स्वर रहने पर ‘म’ का ‘व’ हो जाता है। इसमें धातु में जोड़ते समय केवल ‘मान्’ जुड़ता है।

जैसे-
अंशु + मतुप् = अंशुमान् (किरणों वाला)
बुद्धि + मतुप् = बुद्धिमान् (बुद्धि वाला)
बल + मतुप् = बलवान् (बल वाला)
गुण + मतुप् = गुणवान् (गुण वाला)

6. इनि (इन) प्रत्यय-वह इसमें है या वह इसका है-इस अर्थ में इनि का प्रयोग नाम हेतु होता है। इसमें धातु में जोड़ते समय ‘ई’ जुड़ता है।

जैसे-
बल + इनि = बली (बलवान)
गुण + इनि = गुणी (गुणवान)

स्त्री प्रत्यय
टाप् (आ) और ङीप् (ई), इका, ई ङीष् (ई), डीन् (ई) प्रत्यय लगाकर रत्रीलिंग शब्द बनाए जाते हैं।
1. अकारान्त पुल्लिंग शब्दों में टाप् (आ) प्रत्यय लगाकर
पंडित + टाप् (आ) = पंडिता
अज + टाप् (आ) = अजा

2. पुल्लिंग शब्दों के अंत में अंक हो, तो इका हो जाता है।
जैसे-
बालक = बालिका, गायक = गायिका

3. ऋकारान्त पुल्लिंग शब्दों में ङीप् (ई) प्रत्यय लगाकर
अभिनेतृ + ङीप् (ई) = अभिनेत्री
कर्तृ + ङीप् (ई) = की

4. व्यंजनांत पुल्लिंग शब्दों के अंत में ङीप् (ई) प्रत्यय लगाकर
तपस्विन् = तपस्विनी,
श्रीमत् = श्रीमती
स्वामिन् = स्वामिनी

5. उकारांत गुणवाचक पुल्लिंक शब्दों और षित् आदि वाले शब्दों के अंत में ङीप् (ई) प्रत्यय लगाकर
नर्तकः = नर्तकी,
रजकः = रजकी

6. नु, नर आदि पुल्लिंग शब्दों के अंत में छीन् (ई) प्रत्यय लगाकर
नृ (ना) + ङीन् = नारी,
नर (नरः) + ङीन् = नारी
ब्राह्मण + ङीन् = ब्राह्मणी

अभ्यास

1. निम्नलिखित में कृत प्रत्यय पहचानिए-
गत्वा, कृत्वा, दृष्टवा, पठितम्, पुष्टवा, कोपितुम्, नत्वा, नेतुम्, याचितुम्।
2. निम्नलिखित में धातु और प्रत्यय अलग-अलग कीजिए-
पठितुम्, करणीयम्, दृष्टवा, पठित्वा, त्यक्तवा, जितुम्, विस्मृत्य, उपकृत्य।
3. निम्नलिखित उपसर्गयुक्त धातुओं में ल्यप् प्रत्यय जोड़िए-

• प्र + पा,
• वि + जि,
• प्र + नृत्,
• सम् + भाष,
• प्र + भाष,
• प्र + नश्,
• प्र + स्था,
• प्र + नम्,
• वि + स्मृ,
• सम् + कृत,
• सम् + भू,
• प्र + हस्,
• सम् + भ्रम्,
• वि + हृ,
• वि + लिख,

MP Board Class 9th Sanskrit Solutions

MP Board Class 9th Sanskrit पत्रलेखनम्

अवकाशार्थं प्रार्थना-पत्रम

आदरणीयताः प्राचार्यमहोदयाः!
शासकीयउत्कृष्टविद्यालयः
बड़ामलहरा-छतरपुर मण्डलम्
मध्यप्रदेशः

श्रीमन्तः!
सेवायां सविनयं निवेदनम् इदं यद् अद्य अकस्माद् ज्वरपीड़ितः अस्मि। अत एव विद्यालयम् आगन्तुं सर्वथा असमर्थः अस्मि। कृपया पञ्चदशाद् आरभ्य नवदर्श-दिनाङ्क–पर्यन्तम्) अवकाशं स्वीकृत्य मां अनुग्रहीतुम् अर्हन्ति भवन्तः।

दिनाङ्कः 15.2.2007

भवदीया शिष्या
दिव्या
दशम-कक्षायां ‘अ’ वर्गः

प्रकाशकाय पत्रम्

सेवायाम्
चौखम्भा ओरियण्टालिया
पत्रालयः -चौखम्भा,
मत्रमञ्जूषा-सङ्ख्या 32
वारणसी (पिन : 2221001)

महोदयाः
भवप्रकाशिता ‘नूतन-अनुवादचन्द्रिका’ मया दृष्टा। एतत्पुस्तकं सर्वविध–छात्रोपयोगि वर्तते इति मे मतम्। कृपया पुस्तकास्यास्य एका प्रतिं वी. पी. पी. द्वारा अधोलिखित स्थाने शीध्र प्रेषणीया।

भवदीयः
दुचे ओमप्रकाशः
मण्डीमार्गः जावर, सीहोरमण्डलम्
मध्यप्रदेश : (पिन : 466221)

मित्रं प्रति पत्रम्

प्रिय निरेन्द्रः!
भवता गमनकाले कथित यत् गृहं गत्वा अहं शीघ्रमेव पत्रं प्रेषयिष्यामि, परन्तु अद्य मासाधिकः कालों व्यतीतः परं भवतः पत्रं न समायातम्। इदं मदीयं पत्रं पठित्वा देयम्। गृहस्य कीदृशः समाचारो वर्तते, स्वास्थ्यं च भवतः कीदृशं, कदा च अत्र आगमिष्यति? इति सर्वमपि शीघ्रतया पत्रद्वारा सूचनीयम्।

निजपितृपादेभयो मम सादरं प्रणतयः सूचनीयः। आशासे, भवान् अस्मिन् वारे शीघ्रमेव पत्रं प्रदास्यतीति।

सस्नेहम्
भवतः अभ्युदयाकांक्षी
द्विवेदी प्रणवकुमारः
23 ब्राहमणबावड़ी रतलामः
मध्यप्रदेशः (पिन : 457001)

निमन्त्रणपत्रम्
श्री मङ्गलमूर्तये नमः

श्रीमन्महोदये!
परमात्मनः महती अनुकम्पया ज्येष्ठमासस्य आगामिन्यां नवम्यां तिथों तदनुसारं जूनमासस्य अष्टाविंशाति-दिनाङ्के रविवासरे मम पुत्रस्य चिरञ्जीवी अनिकेत-कुमारस्य शुभयज्ञोपवीतसंस्कारः सम्पत्स्यते। एतस्मिन् मङ्गलकार्ये सपरिवारं समागत्य श्रीमन्तः शुभाशीर्वादप्रदानेन वटुकम् अनुग्रहीष्यनित-इत्याशास्महे।

दर्शनाभिलाषी
महेशव्यासः
तिलकनगरम्, इन्दौरम,
(मध्यप्रदेशः)

शुल्क मुक्तये प्रार्थना-पत्रम्
(शुल्क मुक्ति के लिए प्रार्थना-पत्र)

सेवायाम्
श्रीमन्तः प्रधानाचार्यमहोदयाः
राजकीयः विद्यालयः
भोपालनगरम्

मान्याः!
अहम् भवतां विद्यालये अष्टकक्षायाम् अध्ययनं करोमि। मम पिता एकः साधारणः कर्मकरः अस्ति। तस्य श्रमेण परिवारस्य पालनमपि कठिनम् अस्ति। अतः अतः अहम् शिक्षणशुल्कं दातुम् असमर्थोऽस्मि। निवेदनम् अस्ति यत् शुल्कात् मुक्ति प्रदाय मयि कृपां करिष्यन्ति भवन्तः।

दिनाङ्कः 10-07-2007

भवताम् आज्ञाकारी शिष्यः
मनोजः
कथा-अष्टम्

MP Board Class 9th Sanskrit Solutions