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MP Board Class 12th Economics Important Questions Unit 6 राष्ट्रीय आय एवं संबंधित समुच्चय

राष्ट्रीय आय एवं संबंधित समुच्चय Important Questions

राष्ट्रीय आय एवं संबंधित समुच्चय वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए –

प्रश्न (a)
समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र के अध्ययन का विषय है –
(a) राष्ट्रीय आय का सिद्धांत
(b) उपभोक्ता का सिद्धांत
(c) उत्पादक का सिद्धांत
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं।
उत्तर:
(a) राष्ट्रीय आय का सिद्धांत

प्रश्न (b)
निम्नलिखित में कौन-सा प्रवाह नहीं है –
(a) पूँजी
(b) आय
(c) निवेश
(d) मूल्य ह्रास।
उत्तर:
(a) पूँजी

प्रश्न (c)
राष्ट्रीय आय का मापन निम्नलिखित में किस विधि से किया जाता है –
(a) उत्पादन विधि
(b) आय विधि
(c) व्यय विधि
(d) उपर्युक्त सभी।
उत्तर:
(d) उपर्युक्त सभी।

प्रश्न (d)
प्राथमिक क्षेत्र में निम्नलिखित में कौन शामिल है –
(a) भूमि
(b) बन
(c) खनन
(d) उपर्युक्त सभी।
उत्तर:
(d) उपर्युक्त सभी।

प्रश्न (e)
एक वर्ष की राष्ट्रीय आय को जनसंख्या से भाग देने पर प्राप्त होती है –
(a) निजी आय
(b) व्यक्तिगत आय
(c) व्यक्तिगत व्यय योग्य आय
(d) प्रति व्यक्ति आय।
उत्तर:
(d) प्रति व्यक्ति आय।

प्रश्न (f)
उत्पादन करने वाले उद्यमों को बाँटा जाता है –
(a) दो क्षेत्रों में
(b) तीन क्षेत्रों में
(c) चार क्षेत्रों में
(d) पाँच क्षेत्रों में।
उत्तर:
(b) तीन क्षेत्रों में

प्रश्न 2.
रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिए –

1. कृषि को …………………………….. क्षेत्र में शामिल किया जाता है।
2. पीगू ने कल्याण को ………………………….. भागों में बाँटा है।
3. चीनी उत्पाद अर्थव्यवस्था के …………………………………. क्षेत्र में सम्मिलित होता है।
4. भारत में राष्ट्रीय आय की गणना का कार्य …………………………….. करता है।
5. एक लेखा वर्ष की अवधि में देश की भौगोलिक सीमाओं के अंतर्गत उत्पादित अन्तिम वस्तुओं एवं सेवाओं के योग को …………………………….. कहते हैं।
6. …………………………. आय देश के आर्थिक विकास का सूचक होती है।

उत्तर:

1. प्राथमिक
2. दो
3. द्वितीयक
4. केन्द्रीय सांख्यिकीय
5. GDP
6. राष्ट्रीय।

प्रश्न 3.
सत्य /असत्य बताइये –

1. भारत की प्रति व्यक्ति आय विकसित देशों की तुलना में काफी कम है?
2. काले धन ने देश में समानान्तर अर्थव्यवस्था को जन्म दिया है?
3. भारत की राष्ट्रीय आय में सर्वाधिक योगदान द्वितीयक क्षेत्र का है?
4. प्राथमिक क्षेत्र में विद्युत्, गैस एवं जलापूर्ति को सम्मिलित किया जाता है?
5. उपहार के रूप में प्राप्त आय को राष्ट्रीय आय में सम्मिलित किया जाता है?
6. पुरानी वस्तुओं की बिक्री से प्राप्त आय को राष्ट्रीय आय में शामिल नहीं किया जाता है।

उत्तर:

1. सत्य
2. सत्य
3. असत्य
4. असत्य
5. असत्य
6. सत्य।

प्रश्न 4.
सही जोड़ियाँ बनाइये –

उत्तर:

1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (d)
4. (c)
5. (b)

प्रश्न 5.
एक शब्द/वाक्य में उत्तर दीजिये –

1. भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था के कौन – से क्षेत्र का राष्ट्रीय आय में सर्वाधिक योगदान है?
2. अंतिम स्टॉक एवं प्रारंभिक स्टॉक में अन्तर कहलाता है?
3. राष्ट्रीय आय का अध्ययन किस अर्थशास्त्र में किया जाता है?
4. राष्ट्रीय आय में वृद्धि किस बात की सूचक होती है?
5. राष्ट्रीय आय की गणना वर्ष में कितनी बार की जाती है ?
6. वर्ष में कौन – सी वस्तुओं व सेवाओं के मौद्रिक मूल्य को कुल राष्ट्रीय उत्पाद में जोड़ा जाता है?

उत्तर:

1. तृतीयक
2. स्टॉक में परिवर्तन
3. समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र में
4. आर्थिक प्रगति की
5. एक बार
6. अंतिम।

राष्ट्रीय आय एवं संबंधित समुच्चय अति लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र क्या है?
उत्तर:
वह अर्थशास्त्र जिसमें व्यक्तिगत स्तर पर आर्थिक समस्याओं का अध्ययन एवं विश्लेषण किया जाता है व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र कहलाता है। जैसे – एक व्यक्ति, एक परिवार, एक इकाई, एक उत्पादक आदि।

प्रश्न 2. समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र क्या है?
उत्तर:
समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र वह आर्थिक प्रणाली है जिसमें आर्थिक समस्याओं का अध्ययन एवं विश्लेषण अर्थव्यवस्था के स्तर पर किया जाता है। जैसे – सम्पूर्ण अर्थव्यवस्था, समग्र उत्पादन, समग्र विनियोग आदि।

प्रश्न 3. आर्थिक इकाई क्या है?
उत्तर:
आर्थिक इकाई का आशय उन व्यक्तियों या संस्थाओं से है जो आर्थिक निर्णय लेते हैं। उदाहरण के लिये, उपभोक्ता निर्णय लेता है, क्या एवं कितना उपभोग करना है? एक उत्पादक निर्णय लेता है कि किन वस्तुओं एवं सेवाओं का, कितनी मात्रा में उत्पादन करना है। वह आर्थिक इकाई या अभिकर्ता एक निवेशक भी हो सकता है जो यह निर्णय लेता है कि उसे कब, कहाँ एवं कितनी मात्रा में धन का विनियोजन करना है। सरकार भी आर्थिक इकाई के रूप में निर्णयकर्ता हो सकती है कि अधिकतम लोक कल्याण एवं देश के आर्थिक विकास में कैसे निर्णय लिये जायें ताकि आर्थिक विकास के लक्ष्य को प्राप्त किया जा सके।

प्रश्न 4.
उपभोक्ता वस्तुएँ किसे कहते हैं?
उत्तर:
मानवीय आवश्यकताओं की संतुष्टि के लिये प्रत्यक्ष रूप से उपभोग करने की प्रतिसालग्न वस्तुएँ ही उपभोक्ता वस्तुएँ कहलाती हैं। उदाहरण के लिये, दूध, सब्जी, गेहूँ, चावल का उपभोग आदि।

प्रश्न 5.
पूँजीगत वस्तुओं से क्या तात्पर्य है?
उत्तर:
उत्पादन की प्रक्रिया में ऐसी स्थिर परिसंपत्तियाँ जिनका बार – बार प्रयोग होता है पूँजीगत वस्तुएँ कहलाती हैं। इन्हें टिकाऊ उपभोग उत्पादक वस्तुओं के नाम से भी जाना जाता है। प्लांट एवं मशीनरी पूँजीगत वस्तुएँ हैं जिनका प्रयोग उत्पादन में बारंबार किया जाता है।

प्रश्न 6.
अंतिम वस्तुओं से आपका क्या आशय है?
उत्तर:
अंतिम वस्तुओं काय उन:
से है जो उपभोक्ता एवं निवेशक द्वारा वस्तु के अंतिम प्रयोग के लिये उपलब्ध होती है। उदाहरण के लियं उपपाक्ताओं द्वारा उपभोग के लिये एवं उत्पादकों द्वारा निवेश के लिये जो वस्तुएँ अंतिम तौर पर उपलब्ध होती हैं उन्हें अंतिम वस्तुएँ कहते हैं। दूसरे शब्दों में, जब कोई वस्तु अंतिम प्रयोगकर्ता के पास पहुँच जाती है तो उसे अंतिम वस्तु कहा जाता है जिसका अंतिम प्रयोग केवल उपभोक्ता या निवेश होता है।

प्रान 7.
मध्यवर्ती वस्तुओं से आप क्या समझते हैं?
उत्तर:
मध्यवर्ती वस्तुओं का आशय ऐसी वस्तुओं से है जो किसी लेखावर्ष में उत्पादन में कच्चे माल के रूप में उपयोग के लिये अथवा पुनः बिक्री के लिये खरीदी जाती है । मध्यवर्ती वस्तुओं को राष्ट्रीय आय की गणना में शामिल नहीं किया जाता है।

प्रश्न 8.
प्रवाह एवं स्कंध (Flow and Stock) की अवधारणा को समझाइये?
उत्तर:
प्रवाह चर के अन्तर्गत:
प्रवाह एक ऐसी मात्रा है जिसे उचित समयावधि जैसे घंटे, दिन, सप्ताह, मास, वर्ष आदि के आधार पर मापा जाता है। उदाहरण के लिये, व्यय, बचत, पूँजी निर्माण, ब्याज, पूँजीह्रास, मुद्रा की पूर्ति में परिवर्तन आदि। स्कंध (स्टॉक) वह मात्रा है जो किसी निश्चित समय बिन्दु पर मापी जाती है। उदाहरण के लिये, विदेशी ऋण, ऋण की मात्रा, संपत्ति, उपस्कर आदि।

प्रश्न 9.
सकल निवेश (Gross Investment) से क्या आशय है?
उत्तर:
सकल निवेश से तात्पर्य पूँजीगत वस्तुओं जैसे:
मशीनों, भवनों, उपकरणों के स्कंध में वृद्धि से है जो भविष्य में अर्थव्यवस्था की उत्पादन क्षमता को बढ़ाते हैं। किसी अर्थव्यवस्था में उत्पादन क्षमता में भौतिक पूँजी के स्कंध में होने वाली वृद्धि, पूँजी निर्माण कहलाती है। अतः अर्थव्यवस्था की उत्पादन क्षमता को बढ़ाने वाला निवेश, सकल निवेश कहलाता है। सकल निवेश में से ह्रास को घटाकर शुद्ध निवेश ज्ञात किया जाता है।

प्रश्न 10.
मूल्यह्रास किसे कहते हैं?
उत्तर:
अचल संपत्तियों के निरंतर उपयोग के कारण इन परिसंपत्तियों के मूल्य में आने वाली शनैःशनैः कमी ही मूल्यह्रास कहलाती है। सामान्य टूट – फूट एवं अप्रचलन के कारण स्थायी संपत्तियों के मूल्य में गिरावट को स्थायी पूँजी का उपभोग कहते हैं। राष्ट्रीय आय की गणना के लिये सकल राष्ट्रीय उत्पाद में से ह्रास को घटाया जाता है।

प्रश्न 11.
आय के चक्रीय प्रवाह (Circular flow of Income) से आपका क्या आशय है?
उत्तर:
आय के चक्रीय प्रवाह से आशय मुद्रा एवं पदार्थ तथा सेवाओं के निरंतर प्रवाह से है। आय का चक्रीय प्रवाह अर्थव्यवस्था के प्रमुख क्षेत्रों जैसे परिवार, फर्म, सरकारी क्षेत्र से जुड़ा रहता है। उदाहरण के लिये, फर्मे पहले आय सृजित करती हैं तत्पश्चात् ये आय परिवारों में साधन सेवायें प्रदान करने के लिये वितरित की जाती हैं और अंत में वही आय फर्मों के पास वापस आ जाती है। यही आय का चक्रीय प्रवाह कहलाता है।

प्रश्न 12.
आय का चक्रीय प्रवाह किन सिद्धांतों पर निर्भर करता है?
उत्तर:
आय का चक्रीय प्रवाह दो मूल सिद्धांतों पर निर्भर होता है –

1. विनिमय की प्रक्रिया में उपभोक्ता द्वारा किया गया खर्च विक्रेताओं द्वारा प्राप्त की गई राशि के बराबर होता है।
2. वस्तुओं एवं सेवाओं का प्रवाह एक दिशा की ओर होता है जबकि मौद्रिक भुगतानों का प्रवाह विपरीत दिशा की ओर होता है इसी कारण आय का चक्रीय प्रवाह उत्पन्न होता है।

अतः वास्तविक प्रवाह का अर्थ पदार्थों एवं सेवाओं के प्रवाहों से है जबकि मौद्रिक प्रवाह का आशय साधन भुगतान एवं उपभोग व्यय से है।

प्रश्न 13.
राष्ट्रीय आय क्या है?
उत्तर:
एक देश के सामान्य निवासियों द्वारा देश के अंदर व देश के बाहर अर्जित साधन आय का योग ही राष्ट्रीय आय कहलाती है एक वर्ष में उत्पादित सभी अंतिम वस्तुओं एवं सेवाओं के मौद्रिक मूल्य को राष्ट्रीय आय कहते हैं।

राष्ट्रीय आय एवं संबंधित समुच्चय लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
राष्ट्रीय आय एवं प्रति व्यक्ति आय में अन्तर स्पष्ट कीजिए?
अथवा
राष्ट्रीय आय तथा प्रति व्यक्ति आय से क्या आशय है?
राष्ट्रीय आय तथा प्रति व्यक्ति आय में अन्तर बताइए?
उत्तर:
राष्ट्रीय आय:
एक वर्ष में उत्पादित समस्त वस्तुओं एवं सेवाओं के मौद्रिक मूल्य का योग राष्ट्रीय आय कहलाती है।

प्रति व्यक्ति आय:
जब कुल राष्ट्रीय आय में कुल जनसंख्या से भाग दिया जाता है तो प्रति व्यक्ति आय प्राप्त होती है।
राष्ट्रीय आय और प्रति व्यक्ति आय में अन्तर –
राष्ट्रीय आय:

1. किसी देश के समस्त उत्पादकों के वास्तविक उत्पादन का योग राष्ट्रीय आय कहलाता है।
2. राष्ट्रीय आय में प्रति व्यक्ति आय शामिल होती है।
3. राष्ट्रीय आय विकास का प्रतीक है।

प्रति व्यक्ति आय:

1. एक व्यक्ति विशेष द्वारा विभिन्न स्रोतों से प्राप्त उत्पादन का योग राष्ट्रीय आय कहलाता है।
2. प्रति व्यक्ति आय राष्ट्रीय आय का एक भाग है।
3. प्रति व्यक्ति आय राष्ट्रीय आय का एक भाग है।

प्रश्न 2.
समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र के दृष्टिकोण से अर्थव्यवस्था के चार प्रमुख क्षेत्रकों का वर्णन कीजिए?
उत्तर:
किसी अर्थव्यवस्था को समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र के दृष्टिकोण से जिन चार भागों में विभाजित किया गया है वे निम्न हैं –
1. परिवार क्षेत्र:
जिन वस्तुओं एवं सेवाओं का उपभोग उपभोक्ताओं द्वारा किया जाता है उसे परिवार क्षेत्र कहते हैं। इस क्षेत्र में परिवार क्षेत्र के उत्पादन के घटकों का स्वामी भी परिवार होता है।

2. उत्पादक क्षेत्र:
इस क्षेत्र में उन सभी घटकों को सम्मिलित किया जाता है जो उत्पादन की क्रिया में संलग्न रहते हैं। वे सभी इकाइयाँ जो उत्पादन का कार्य करती हैं उन्हें अर्थव्यवस्था के उत्पादक क्षेत्र में सम्मिलित किया जाता है वस्तुओं एवं सेवाओं का उत्पादन जिन फर्मों के द्वारा किया जाता है उनके द्वारा उत्पादन के साधनों जैसे भूमि, श्रम, पूँजी, संगठन एवं साइज (क्षेत्र) किराया देकर प्राप्त किया जाता है।

3. सरकारी क्षेत्र:
कल्याणकारी सेवाओं को बनाये रखने का काम सरकार का है। वैसे तो सरकार का कार्य कानून और व्यवस्था को बनाये रखना है किन्तु सरकार सार्वजनिक क्षेत्र के लिये एक उत्पादक की तरह भी कार्य करती है।

4. विदेशी क्षेत्र:
‘इसमें शेष विश्व को सम्मिलित किया जाता है। इसे Rest of the world’ कहते हैं। इसके अन्तर्गत घरेलू अर्थव्यवस्था का विश्व के अन्य देशों के मध्य पूँजी के प्रवाह तथा आयात – निर्यात को शामिल किया जाता है।

प्रश्न 3.
व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र एवं समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र में अन्तर स्पष्ट कीजिए?
उत्तर:
व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र एवं समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र में अन्तर –

प्रश्न 4.
स्टॉक तथा प्रवाह से क्या समझते हैं? स्टॉक तथा प्रवाह में तीन अन्तर बताइए?
उत्तर:
स्टॉक तथा प्रवाह:
स्टॉक वह मात्रा है जिसे किसी समय विशेष पर मापा जाता है जबकि प्रवाह वह मात्रा है जिसे विशेष समयावधि में मापा जाता है। जैसे एक निश्चित तिथि पर देश में मुद्रा की मात्रा स्टॉक है तथा एक वित्त वर्ष में जो व्यय है वह प्रवाह कहलाता है।
स्टॉक तथा प्रवाह में अन्तर –
स्टॉक:

1. स्टॉक वह मात्रा है, जिसे किसी समय विशेष पर मापा मापा जाता है।
2. स्टॉक का कोई समयकाल नहीं होता।
3. स्टॉक एक स्थैतिक अवधारणा है।
4. कुछ चरों की स्टॉक अवधारणाएँ नहीं होती। कुछ चरों की केवल प्रवाह अवधारणाएँ होती हैं। जैसे – आयात – निर्यात।

प्रवाह:

1. प्रवाह वह मात्रा है, जिसे विशेष समयावधि में मापा जाता है।
2. प्रवाह का समयकाल होता है।
3. प्रवाह एक प्रावैगिक अवधारणा है।
4. कुछ चरों की केवल प्रवाह अवधारणाएँ होती हैं। जैसे – आयात – निर्यात।

प्रश्न 5.
राष्ट्रीय आय एवं राष्ट्रीय पूँजी में अन्तर बताइए?
उत्तर:
राष्ट्रीय आय एवं राष्ट्रीय पूँजी में अन्तर –
राष्ट्रीय आय:

1. राष्ट्रीय आय एक समयावधि जैसे – एक वर्ष की होती है – अतः यह एक प्रवाह होती है।
2. राष्ट्रीय आय में सेवाएँ शामिल होती हैं।
3. राष्ट्रीय आय में पूँजीगत तथा उपभोग दोनों वस्तुएँ शामिल होती हैं।
4. राष्ट्रीय आय, राष्ट्रीय पूँजी को प्रभावित करती है।
5. आर्थिक क्रियाएँ राष्ट्रीय आय को प्रभावित करती हैं।

राष्ट्रीय पूँजी:

1. राष्ट्रीय पूँजी किसी समय विशेष पर होती है, एक स्टॉक है।
2. राष्ट्रीय पूँजी में सेवाएँ शामिल नहीं होती हैं।
3. राष्ट्रीय आय में केवल पूँजीगत वस्तुओं को शामिल शामिल होती हैं।
4. राष्ट्रीय पूँजी, राष्ट्रीय आय का कारण होती है।
5. एक निश्चित समय में राष्ट्रीय पूँजी स्थिर होती है।

प्रश्न 6.
सन् 1929 की विश्वव्यापी मंदी को समझाइये?
उत्तर:
सन् 1929 में विश्वव्यापी मंदी ने संपूर्ण विश्व के विकासत देशों की अर्थव्यवस्था को चूर-चूर कर दिया। इस मंदी में उत्पादन तो था पर खरीदने वाले नहीं थे। सन् 1929 से सन् 1933 के मध्य संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका में बेरोजगारी 3% से बढ़कर 25% तक बढ़ गई। अमेरिका के समग्र निर्गत में 33% की गिरावट आ गई। इसी दौरान सन् 1936 में जॉन मेनार्ड कीन्स ने एक पुस्तक प्रकाशित की ‘रोजगार, ब्याज एवं मुद्रा का सामान्य सिद्धांत’ इसी ने समष्टि अर्थव्यवस्था की नींव रखी।

प्रश्न 7.
समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र एवं व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र में परस्पर क्या निर्भरता है?
उत्तर:
समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र में हम सम्पूर्ण अर्थव्यवस्था का एक इकाई के रूप में अध्ययन करते हैं एवं व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र में हम अर्थव्यवस्था की छोटी – छोटी इकाईयों का अध्ययन करते हैं। दोनों एक – दूसरे के प्रतियोगी नहीं वरन् पूरक हैं। एक – दूसरे पर आश्रित हैं। उदाहरण के लिये, यदि व्यक्ति की आय बढ़ेगी तो राष्ट्रीय आय स्वतः बढ़ जायेगी परन्तु राष्ट्रीय आय में वृद्धि हो रही है तो यह आवश्यक नहीं है कि प्रत्येक व्यक्ति की आय बढ़ रही हो। व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र की भाँति समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र में भी सीमित साधनों के विवेकपूर्ण उपयोग एवं प्रबंधन की समस्या ही मुख्य समस्या है। समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र में व्यक्तिगत हित की अपेक्षा सार्वजनिक हित एवं सामाजिक कल्याण पर अधिक बल दिया जाता है। समष्टि अर्थशास्त्र एवं व्यष्टि अर्थशास्त्र राधा एवं कृष्ण की भाँति है दोनों एक – दूसरे के बिना रह नहीं सकते। दोनों एक – दूसरे पर निर्भर हैं।

प्रश्न 8.
निम्नलिखित आँकड़ों से राष्ट्रीय आय की गणना कीजिए –

1. वेतन – ₹ 6,000
2. किराया – ₹ 2,000
3. लाभ – ₹ 2,000
4. ब्याज – ₹ 1,000
5. उपभोग – ₹ 5,000
6. सकल घरेलू विनियोग – ₹ 800।

हल: राष्ट्रीय आय = वेतन + किराया + लाभ + ब्याज
= 6,000 + 2,000 + 2,000 + 1.000
= ₹ 11,000।

प्रश्न 9.
निम्नलिखित आँकड़ों के आधार पर आय गणना विधि द्वारा राष्ट्रीय आय की गणना कीजिए –
मदें:

हल: राष्ट्रीय आय = वेतन एवं मजदूरी + ब्याज + किराया + लाभ
= 18,000 + 7,000 + 6,000 + 25.000
राष्ट्रीय आय = ₹ 56,000 करोड़।

प्रश्न 10.
निम्नलिखित आँकड़ों के आधार पर आय गणना विधि द्वारा राष्ट्रीय आय की गणना कीजिए –

हल: राष्ट्रीय आय = वेतन एवं मजदूरी + किराया/लगान + लाभ + ब्याज
= 30,000 + 10,000 + 50,000 + 10,000
राष्ट्रीय आय = ₹ 1,00000 करोड़।

प्रश्न 11.
निम्नलिखित आँकड़ों से राष्ट्रीय आय की गणना कीजिए –

1. वेतन – ₹ 60,000
2. किराया – ₹ 20,000
3. लाभ – ₹ 20,000
4. ब्याज – ₹ 10,000
5. उपभोग – ₹ 50,000
6. सकल घरेलू उत्पाद – ₹ 8,000
7. मूल्यह्रास – ₹ 10,000

हल: राष्ट्रीय आय की गणना
सूत्र – राष्ट्रीय आय = वेतन + किराया + लाभ + ब्याज
= 60,000 + 20,000 + 20,000 + 10,000
राष्ट्रीय आय = 1,10,000.

प्रश्न 12.
सकल घरेलू उत्पाद की कोई चार विशेषताएँ लिखिए?
उत्तर:
सकल घरेलू उत्पाद की विशेषताएँ निम्न हैं –

1. सकल राष्ट्र इस तथ्य को संकेत करता है कि सकल घरेलू उत्पाद (GDP) के मूल्य में घिसावट व्यय शामिल है।
2. सकल घरेलू उत्पाद के मूल्य में दोहरी गणना से बचने के लिए केवल अंतिम वस्तुओं व सेवाओं के मूल्य को ही जोड़ा जाता है।
3. पुरानी वस्तुओं की बिक्री से प्राप्त राशि इसमें नहीं जोड़ी जाती।
4. इसके मूल्य में स्व – उपभोग के लिए किया गया उत्पाद तथा खुद – काबिज मकानों का आरोपित किराया शामिल होता है।

प्रश्न 13.
आय गणना विधि का चुनाव करते समय किन – किन बातों पर ध्यान देना आवश्यक है?
उत्तर:
आय गणना विधि का चुनाव करते समय निम्नलिखित बातों पर ध्यान देना चाहिए –

1. गैर – कानूनी कार्यों से होने वाली आय को शामिल नहीं किया जाना चाहिए। जैसे – जमाखोरी, तस्करी. घूस से प्राप्त आय।
2. पुरानी वस्तुओं की बिक्री से प्राप्त होने वाली आय को राष्ट्रीय आय में शामिल नहीं किया जाता है, किन्तु दलालों को मिलने वाला कमीशन राष्ट्रीय आय में जोड़ा जाता है।
3. आकस्मिक रूप से मिलने वाली आय को शामिल नहीं किया जाना चाहिए। जैसे – लॉटरी से मिलने वाली आय।
4. हस्तांतरित भुगतान, जैसे – पेंशन, छात्रवृत्तियाँ, बेरोजगारी भत्ता, सरकारी सहायता आदि को राष्ट्रीय आय में नहीं जोड़ा जाता।
5. मृत्यु कर, उपहार कर, सम्पत्ति कर, अप्रत्याशित लाभों पर कर आदि को राष्ट्रीय आय में शामिल नहीं किया जाता, क्योंकि इन करों का भुगतान करदाता या तो अपने धन में से अथवा भूतकाल की बचत से करता है।

प्रश्न 14.
आय गणना प्रणाली के प्रमुख घटकों के बारे में लिखिए?(कोई पाँच)
उत्तर:
आय गणना प्रणाली के प्रमुख घटक निम्नलिखित हैं –
1. मजदूरी आय:
मजदूरी आय से तात्पर्य, उस आय से है जो श्रमिक को उनकी सेवाओं के बदले मौद्रिक या किस्त के रूप में प्राप्त होती है। इसमें समस्त कर्मचारियों के वेतन व मजदूरी, श्रमिकों को प्राप्त सामाजिक सुरक्षा योगदान, पेंशन, फण्ड, आवास, शिक्षा, मनोरंजन आदि की सुविधाओं को सम्मिलित किया जाता है।

2. गैर – मजदूरी आय:
भूमि के स्वामी, पूँजीपति तथा साहसी को किराया (लगान), ब्याज तथा लाभांश के रूप जो आय प्राप्त होती है, उसे गैर – मजदूरी आय कहते हैं। इसमें मिश्रित आय को भी सम्मिलित किया गया है।

3. परिचालन अधिशेष:
इसमें सार्वजनिक उद्योगों के परिचालन अधिशेष को सम्मिलित किया जाता है।

4. विदेशों से शुद्ध आय:
इसमें कर्मचारियों का शुद्ध पारिश्रमिक, सम्पत्ति के स्वामित्व एवं उद्यमशीलता से शुद्ध आय तथा निवासी कम्पनियों द्वारा विदेशों से शुद्ध प्रतिधारित आय को सम्मिलित किया जाता है।

5. स्व – उपभोग के लिए वस्तुएँ:
एक अर्थव्यवस्था में उत्पन्न सभी वस्तुएँ बाजार में बिकने के लिये नहीं आतीं बल्कि उसका एक भाग उत्थादक स्वयं के उपभोग के लिये अपने पास रख लेता है। अतः इस भाग का मौद्रिक मूल्य राष्ट्रीय आय में सम्मिलित किया जाता है।

प्रश्न 15.
सकल घरेलू उत्पाद के अंग कौन – कौन से हैं?
उत्तर:
सकल घरेलू उत्पाद से अभिप्राय किसी देश में एक निश्चित समयावधि में उत्पादित अन्तिम वस्तुओं एवं सेवाओं के मूल्यों के योग से होता है –
सकल घरेलू उत्पाद के अंग:

1. एक देश की घरेलू सीमा में एक निश्चित अवधि में उत्पादित अन्तिम वस्तुओं एवं सेवाओं के मूल्य के योग को सकल घरेलू उत्पाद कहते हैं।
2. वस्तुओं के उत्पादन में उपभोग एवं पूँजीगत वस्तुओं को शामिल किया जाता है।
3. उपभोक्ता एवं पूँजीगत वस्तुओं को टिकाऊ एवं गैर – टिकाऊ वस्तुओं में विभक्त किया जाता है।
4. निजी एवं सार्वजनिक दोनों क्षेत्रों के उत्पादन को लिया जाता है।
5. अन्तिम वस्तुओं के उत्पादन को ही सकल घरेलू उत्पाद में शामिल किया जाता है।

प्रश्न 16.
राष्ट्रीय आय की उत्पादन विधि को समझाइये?
अथवा
राष्ट्रीय आय गणना की मूल्य वृद्धि विधि की व्याख्या कीजिए?
उत्तर:
इस विधि के अन्तर्गत राष्ट्रीय आय ज्ञात करने के लिए हम या तो मूल्य वृद्धि ज्ञात कर लेते हैं या एक लेखा वर्ष में उत्पादित समस्त वस्तुओं व सेवाओं के मौद्रिक मूल्य का योग कर लेते हैं। इस योग को बाजार कीमतों पर सकल घरेलू उत्पाद कहते हैं।

प्रश्न 17.
निम्नलिखित आँकड़ों से वैयक्तिक आय और वैयक्तिक प्रयोज्य आय की गणना कीजिए –
(₹ करोड़ में)

1. कारक लागत पर निवल घरेलू उत्पाद – 8,000
2. विदेशों से प्राप्त निवल कारक आय – 200
3. अवितरित लाभ – 1,000
4. निगम कर – 500
5. परिवारों द्वारा प्राप्त ब्याज – 1.500
6. परिवारों द्वारा भुगतान किया गया ब्याज – 1,200
7. अंतरण आय – 300
8. वैयक्तिक कर – 500

हल:
1. वैयक्तिक आय की गणना –

2.  वैयक्तिक प्रयोज्य आय की गणना –

प्रश्न 18.
हजाम राजू एक दिन में बाल काटने के लिए ₹ 500 का संग्रहरण करता है। इस दिन उसके उपकरण में ₹ 50 का मूल्यह्रास होता है। इस ₹ 450 में से राजू ₹ 30 बिक्री कर अदा करता है। ₹ 200 घर ले जाता है और ₹ 220 उन्नति और नए उपकरणों का क्रय करने के लिए रखता है। वह अपनी आय में से ₹ 20 आयकर के रूप में अदा करता है। इन पूरी सूचनाओं के आधार पर निम्नलिखित में राजू का योगदान ज्ञात कीजिए –

1. सकल घरेलू उत्पाद।
2. बाजार कीमत पर निवल राष्ट्रीय उत्पाद।
3. कारक लागत पर निवल राष्ट्रीय उत्पाद।
4. वैयक्तिक आय।
5. वैयक्तिक प्रयोज्य आय।

हल :
ΣR_i = ₹ 500
स्थायी पूँजी का उपयोग = ₹ 50
बिक्री कर = ₹ 30
प्रतिधारित आय = ₹ 220
घर ले जाई गई आय = ₹ 200
आयकर = ₹ 20

(a) बाजार कीमत पर सकल घरेलू उत्पाद (GDP at Market Price) में योगदान
= बाल काटने के लिए प्राप्त आगम
= ₹ 500

(b) बाजार कीमत पर शुद्ध राष्ट्रीय उत्पाद (NNP at Market Price) में योगदान
= बाजार कीमत पर सकल घरेलू उत्पाद – स्थायी पूँजी का उपभोग
= ₹ 500 – ₹ 50 = ₹450

(c) साधन लागत पर शुद्ध राष्ट्रीय उत्पाद में योगदान
= बाजार कीमत पर शुद्ध राष्ट्रीय उत्पाद – शुद्ध अप्रत्यक्ष कर
-₹ 450 – ₹ 30 = ₹420

(d) वैयक्तिक आय = साधन लागत पर शुद्ध राष्ट्रीय उत्पाद में योगदान – अवितरित लाभ
= ₹ 420 – ₹ 220
= ₹ 200

(e) वैयक्तिक प्रयोज्य आय = वैयक्तिक आय – प्रत्यक्ष कर
= ₹ 200 – ₹ 20
= ₹ 180
अतः

1. ₹ 500
2. ₹ 450
3. ₹ 420
4. ₹ 200
5. ₹ 180.

राष्ट्रीय आय एवं संबंधित समुच्चय दीर्घ उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
राष्ट्रीय आय के महत्व को पाँच बिन्दुओं में स्पष्ट कीजिए?
अथवा
राष्ट्रीय आय का महत्त्व लिखिए। (कोई चार)
उत्तर:
राष्ट्रीय आय की गणना का निम्नलिखित महत्व है –

1. आर्थिक विकास का मापदण्ड:
जिन देशों की राष्ट्रीय आय अधिक होती है वह आर्थिक दृष्टि से विकसित माने जाते हैं तथा जिन देशों की राष्ट्रीय आय कम होती है, वह पिछड़े हुए देश माने जाते हैं।

2. जीवन – स्तर का सूचक:
जिस देश में प्रतिव्यक्ति राष्ट्रीय आय जितनी अधिक होती है, वहाँ के नागरिकों का जीवन – स्तर प्राय: उतना ही ऊँचा होता है।

3. तुलनात्मक अध्ययन में सहायक:
राष्ट्रीय आय के अध्ययन से विभिन्न देशों की कुल तथा प्रतिव्यक्ति आय की तुलनात्मक जानकारी उपलब्ध हो जाती है।

4. आर्थिक कल्याण का मापक:
यदि अन्य बातें समान रहें तो राष्ट्रीय आय में वृद्धि होने पर आर्थिक कल्याण भी बढ़ जाता है तथा राष्ट्रीय आय में कमी होने पर आर्थिक कल्याण भी कम हो जाता है।

5. आर्थिक नीति के निर्माण में सहायक:
राष्ट्रीय आय के आँकड़े किसी देश की आर्थिक नीति के निर्माण में भी सहायक होते हैं। इन आँकड़ों से सरकार को रोजगार, साख, बचत तथा विनियोग संबंधी मामलों में आर्थिक नीति बनाने में सहायता मिलती है।

प्रश्न 2.
सकल घरेलू उत्पाद तथा सकल राष्ट्रीय आय में अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए?
उत्तर:
सकल घरेलू उत्पाद एवं सकल राष्ट्रीय आय में अंतर –
क्र. सकल घरेलू उत्पाद:

1. सकल घरेलू उत्पाद का आशय एक देश की घरेलू सीमा के अंदर उत्पादित कुल अंतिम निवासियों द्वारा उत्पादित)कुल अंतिम वस्तुओं वस्तुओं व सेवाओं के कुल मौद्रिक मूल्य से है।
2. सकल घरेलू उत्गद एक भौगोलिक धारणा है।
3. इसका संबंध देश के घरेलू सीमा से है।
4. GDP = P(G) + P(S)
5. यदि विदेशों से प्राप्त आय ऋणात्मक है तो इसका मूल्य GNP के मूल्य से अधिक होगा। मूल्य GDP के मूल्य से अधिक होगा।

सकल राष्ट्रीय आय:

1. सकल राष्ट्रीय आय से आशय एक राष्ट्र के निवासियों द्वारा उत्पादित कुल अंतिम वस्तुओं वस्तुओं व सेवाओं के कुल मौद्रिक मूल्य से है।
2. सकल राष्ट्रीय आय एक राष्ट्रीय धारणा है।
3. इसका संबंध देश के सामान्य निवासियों से है।
4. GNP = GDP + NFIA
5. यदि विदेशों से प्राप्त आय धनात्मक है, तो इसका मूल्य GDP के मूल्य से अधिक होगा।

प्रश्न 3.
राष्ट्रीय आय एवं निजी आय में अन्तर स्पष्ट कीजिए?
उत्तर:
राष्ट्रीय आय एवं निजी आय में अन्तर –
राष्ट्रीय आय:

1. राष्ट्रीय आय में केवल आय भुगतान शामिल किए जाते हैं।
2. राष्ट्रीय आय में निजी एवं सार्वजनिक दोनों क्षेत्रों में सृजित आय को शामिल किया जाता है।
3. राष्ट्रीय आय एक देश के सामान्य निवासियों की आय होती है।
4. राष्ट्रीय आय = घरेलू साधन आय + विदेशों से प्राप्त शुद्ध साधन आय।

निजी आय:

1. निजी आय में आय भुगतान तथा हस्तान्तरण भुगतान दोनों शामिल किये जाते हैं।
2. निजी आय में केवल निजी क्षेत्र की आय को शामिल किया जाता है।
3. निजी आय निजी क्षेत्र के लोगों की आय होती है।
4. निजी आय में राष्ट्रीय ऋणों पर ब्याज के भुगतान को शामिल किया जाता है।
5. निजी आय = घरेलू साधन आय + घरेलू उत्पाद से प्राप्त शुद्ध साधन आय से सरकारी क्षेत्र को प्राप्त आय + समस्त चालू हस्तान्तरण + विदेशों से प्राप्त शुद्ध साधन आय।

प्रश्न 4.
भारत में राष्ट्रीय आय में वृद्धि की धीमी गति के किन्हीं पाँच कारणों का वर्णन कीजिए?
अथवा
भारत की राष्ट्रीय आय कम होने के कारणों को लिखिए?
उत्तर:
भारत में राष्ट्रीय आय में वृद्धि की धीमी गति के प्रमुख कारण निलिखित हैं –
1. जनसंख्या में वृद्धि:
राष्ट्रीय आय में वृद्धि की धीमी गति का सबसे प्रमुख कारण हैं, जनसंख्या में तीव्र वृद्धि। जनसंख्या में तीव्र वृद्धि के कारण राष्ट्रीय आय में वृद्धि की दर धीमी हो गई है।

2. कृषि पर निर्भरता:
देश की 71% जनसंख्या अभी भी कृषि में लगी हुई है। जबकि औद्योगिक क्षेत्रों में केवल 12% जनसंख्या लगी है एवं सेवा क्षेत्र में केवल 17% जनसंख्या लगी है। इसलिए राष्ट्रीय आय में वृद्धि की गति धीमी है।

3. पूँजी की कमी:
देश में पूँजी की कमी राष्ट्रीय आय में धीमी वृद्धि का एक प्रमुख कारण रही है पूँजी की कमी का कारण लोगों की बचत करने की इच्छा एवं शक्ति तथा विनियोग की प्रेरणा का कम होना है।

4. तकनीकी पिछड़ापन:
भारत के तकनीकी पिछड़ेपन के कारण उत्पादन में परम्परागत रीतियों का प्रयोग किया जाता है जिसके कारण उत्पादकता का स्तर निम्न बना रहता है। इससे कृषि व औद्योगिक दोनों क्षेत्रों में लोगों की आय कम रहती है।

5. आय का असमान वितरण:
भारत में राष्ट्रीय आय का वितरण बहुत असमान है। इसी असमानता का प्रमुख कारण सरकार की दोषपूर्ण कर नीति है।

प्रश्न 5.
भारत में राष्ट्रीय आय की वृद्धि हेतु पाँच आवश्यक सुझाव दीजिए?
अथवा
भारत में राष्ट्रीय आय को बढ़ाने के चार सुझाव दीजिए?
उत्तर:
भारत की राष्ट्रीय आय में वृद्धि हेतु प्रमुख सुझाव निम्नलिखित हैं –

1. प्राकृतिक साधनों का उचित उपयोग: देश की राष्ट्रीय आय में वृद्धि के लिये यह आवश्यक है कि प्राकृतिक साधनों का उचित उपयोग किया जाये।
2. जनसंख्या की वृद्धि पर नियंत्रण: देश की राष्ट्रीय आय में वृद्धि के लिये यह आवश्यक है कि यथासंभव बढ़ती हुई जनसंख्या की दर को कम किया जाय।
3. बचतों को प्रोत्साहन एवं पूँजी – निर्माण: देश की राष्ट्रीय आय में वृद्धि के लिये घरेलू बचतों को प्रोत्साहित किया जाना चाहिऐतथा उन बचतों को पूँजी-निर्माण में बदल दिया जाना चाहिए।
4. कृषि का आधुनिकीकरण करना: कृषि उत्पादन बढ़ाने के लिये कृषि का आधुनिकीकरण आवश्यक है। कृषि के आधुनिकीकरण से उत्पादन बढ़ेगा। फलतः देश की राष्ट्रीय आय भी बढ़ेगी।
5. साहसियों को पर्याप्त सुविधाएँ एवं प्रेरणाएँ: राष्ट्रीय आय में वृद्धि के लिये सरकार को चाहिये कि वह उद्योग स्थापित करने वाले साहसियों को पर्याप्त सुविधाएँ दें तथा उनको उत्पादन करने के लिये प्रोत्साहित करें।

प्रश्न 6.
बंद अर्थव्यवस्था एवं खुली अर्थव्यवस्था में अन्तर बताइए?
उत्तर:
बंद अर्थव्यवस्था एवं खुली अर्थव्यवस्था में अन्तर –
बंद अर्थव्यवस्था:

1. जब किसी देश का अन्य दूसरे देशों से कोई आर्थिक संबंध आर्थिक संबंध नहीं होती है, तो उसे बंद अर्थ – व्यवस्था कहते हैं।
2. बंद अर्थव्यवस्था में सकल घरेलू उत्पाद एवं राष्ट्रीय आय दोनों एक समान होते हैं।
3. बंद अर्थव्यवस्था एक काल्पनिक अर्थव्यवस्था है।
4. बंद अर्थव्यवस्था में पूँजी-निर्माण नगण्य होता है।
5. बंद अर्थव्यवस्था में उपभोग एवं विनियोग दोनों उत्पादन के बराबर होते हैं।

खुली अर्थव्यवस्था:

1. जब किसी देश का अन्य दूसरे देशों से आर्थिक संबंध स्थापित हो जाता है, तो उसे खुली अर्थव्यवस्था कहा जाता है।
2. खुली अर्थव्यवस्था में राष्ट्रीय आय एवं घरेलू आय में अन्तर होता है।
3. खुली अर्थव्यवस्था एक वास्तविक अर्थव्यवस्था है।
4. खुली अर्थव्यवस्था में उपभोग तथा विनियोग का योग उत्पादन से अधिक भी हो सकता है और कम भी।

प्रश्न 7.
राष्ट्रीय आय की गणना विधियाँ कौन – सी हैं?
अथवा
राष्ट्रीय आय मापने की विधियों की विवेचना कीजिए?
उत्तर:
1.आय गणना विधि:
इस विधि में सभी साधनों द्वारा प्राप्त आय को जोड़ा जाता है अतः इसे प्राप्त आय गणना विधि भी कहते हैं। इस विधि में एक वर्ष में व्यक्ति या व्यावसायिक उपक्रमों द्वारा प्राप्त विशुद्ध आय को ज्ञात किया जाता है, उनका योग ही राष्ट्रीय आय होता है। इस योगफल में अनुत्पादक आय को शामिल नहीं किया जाता है।

2. व्यय गणना विधि:
इस विधि में लोगों में व्यय और बचत को जोड़कर राष्ट्रीय आय की गणना की जाती है)। इस विधि के अनुसार किसी देश की कुल राष्ट्रीय आय लोगों के कुल उपभोग एवं बचतों के बराबर होती है।

3. मिश्रित गणना विधि:
इस प्रणाली का प्रयोग डॉ. व्ही. के. राव ने किया है) इसमें उत्पादन विधि व आय विधि दोनों का मिश्रित प्रयोग करने राष्ट्रीय आय की गणना की जाती है। यह विधि भारत में राष्ट्रीय आय की गणना हेतु सफल विधि मानी गयी है।

4. उत्पादन गणना विधि:
इस विधि में एक वर्ष के अन्तर्गत देश में स्थित सारे उद्योगों, व्यवसायों, कृषि कार्य द्वारा समस्त उत्पादित वस्तुओं का मूल्य जोड़ दिया जाता है, इससे से कच्चे माल का मूल्य, मशीनों का ह्रास तथा प्रतिस्थापना आदि का मूल्य घटाकर वास्तविक राष्ट्रीय आय ज्ञात कर लिया जाता है। इस प्रणाली का प्रयोग करते समय वस्तुओं और सेवाओं के मूल्य की दोहरी गणना से बचना चाहिए। विदेशों को भुगतान में दिये जाने वाले चरण एवं ब्याज की राशि घटाते हुए प्राप्त होने वाले ऋण एवं ब्याज की आय को जोड़कर राष्ट्रीय आय की गणना करनी चाहिए।

5. सामाजिक लेखांकन विधि:
इस विधि का आविष्कार प्रो. रिचर्ड स्टोन ने किया है। इसमें देश की समस्त जनसंख्या को कई वर्गों जैसे उत्पादन संस्थाएँ, वित्तीय संस्थाएँ, बीमा एवं सामाजिक सुरक्षा संस्थाएँ, अंतिम उपभोक्ता वर्ग एवं अन्यों में बाँट दिया जाता है, इनमें प्रत्येक वर्ग के कुछ व्यक्तियों की आय ज्ञात करके उसका औसत निकालकर उस वर्ग के व्यक्तियों की संख्या से गुणा कर दिया जाता है। इस प्रकार सभी वर्ग के व्यक्तियों की आय ज्ञात करके इन्हें जोड़कर कुल राष्ट्रीय आय की गणना कर ली जाती है।

प्रश्न 8.
एक किसान ने ₹ 500 का कपास स्वतः उत्पादित करके कपड़ा मिल को बेचा। कपड़ा मिल ने कपड़ा तैयार करके ₹ 600 में रेडीमेड गारमेंट फैक्ट्री को बेचा। रेडीमेड गारमेंट फैक्ट्री ने ड्रेसेज तैयार करके ₹ 1000 में एक स्टोर को बेच दिया। स्टोर मालिक ने ₹ 1200 में ड्रेसों को उपभोक्ताओं को बेचा?
प्रत्येक फर्म द्वारा की गई मूल्य वृद्धि सकल मूल्य वृद्धि ज्ञात कीजिए?
हल:
किसान, कपड़ा मिल, रेडीमेड गारमेंट फैक्ट्री, स्टोर द्वारा की गयी मूल्य वृद्धि निम्न प्रकार होगी
1.  किसान द्वारा मूल्य वृद्धि = कपड़ा मिल को कपास का विक्रय
= ₹ 500

2.  कपड़ा मिल द्वारा मूल्य वृद्धि = रेडीमेड गारमेंट फैक्टरी को कपड़ा का विक्रय – किसान से कपास का क्रय – विक्रय
= 600 – ₹ 500 = 100

3. रेडीमेड गारमेंट फैक्टरी द्वारा = स्टोर को ड्रेसेज का विक्रय मूल्य – कपड़ा मिल से कपास का क्रय – मूल्य
= 1000 – 600 = ₹ 400

4. स्टोर द्वारा मूल्य वृद्धि = अंतिम उपभोक्ताओं को विक्रय मूल्य – रेडीमेड गारमेंट फैक्टरी से ड्रेसेज का क्रय मूल्य
= 1200 – 1000 = ₹ 200
कुल मूल्य वृद्धि = किसान + कपड़ा मिल + रेडीमेड गारमेंट फैक्ट्री + स्टोर द्वारा मूल्य वृद्धि।
= ₹ 1200।

प्रश्न 9.
पूँजीवादी अर्थव्यवस्था की प्रमुख विशेषतायें क्या हैं? लिखिये?
उत्तर:
पूँजीवादी अर्थव्यवस्था में सामान्यतया निम्न प्रमुख विशेषताएँ दृष्टिगोचर होती हैं –
1.स्वतंत्र माँग एवं पूर्ति बल से कार्यान्वित-पूँजीवादी अर्थव्यवस्था में एक बाजार इतना संपन्न होता है कि वह क्रेताओं एवं विक्रेताओं के परस्पर संबंध को जन्म देता है। यही कारण है कि पूँजीवादी अर्थव्यवस्था का बाजार स्वतंत्र माँग एवं पूर्ति बल से कार्यान्वित होता है।

2. माँग एवं पूर्ति की सापेक्षिक शक्तियों से मूल्य निर्धारण:
इस बाजार में वस्तुओं एवं सेवाओं की कीमतें माँग तथा पूर्ति की बाजार शक्तियों द्वारा निर्धारित होती हैं।

3. उपभोक्ता बाजार का सम्राट:
पूँजीवादी अर्थव्यवस्था में उपभोक्ता प्रमुख होता है। उसकी आय, आदत, प्राथमिकताओं के अनुसार ही उत्पादों का क्रय करके वह अधिकतम संतुष्टि प्राप्त करता है तथा उत्पादक भी उन्हीं वस्तुओं का उत्पादन करते हैं जिनके उत्पादन से उन्हें अधिकतम लाभ की प्राप्ति होती है। उत्पादक के लिये उपभोक्ता पूँजीवादी अर्थव्यवस्था में बाजार का सम्राट है अतएव माँग के विरुद्ध उत्पादक उत्पादन नहीं कर सकता है।

4. पूँजी संचय को बढ़ावा:
पूँजीवादी अर्थव्यवस्था में उत्पादन के साधनों में पूँजी को सर्वाधिक महत्व दिया जाता है एवं मुख्य साधन के रूप में देखा जाता है इसलिये पूँजी के संचय की प्रवृत्ति को बढ़ावा मिलता है।

5. सरकारी हस्तक्षेप नहीं:
पूँजीवादी अर्थव्यवस्था में उत्पादकों के निर्णयों में सरकार का कोई हस्तक्षेप नहीं होता है। सरकार बाजार की माँग एवं पूर्ति की अंतक्रिया में कोई हस्तक्षेप नहीं करती है। सरकार कानून व्यवस्था एवं प्रतिरक्षा के रख – रखाव पर अपना ध्यान केन्द्रित करती है।

6. स्वामित्व एवं प्रबंधन निजी हाथों में – पूँजीवादी अर्थव्यवस्था में उत्पादन के साधनों पर स्वामित्व निजी हाथों में होता है। यहाँ तक कि उसका प्रबंधन भी पूँजीपतियों के हाथों में होता है। एक उत्पादक निर्णय लेने में स्वतंत्र होता है। लाभ पर अधिकार भी उत्पादक का होता है।

प्रश्न 10.
राष्ट्रीय आय से संबंधित समुच्चय के अन्तर्गत सकल राष्ट्रीय उत्पाद (GNP), सकल घरेलू उत्पाद (GDP), शुद्ध घरेलू उत्पाद (NDP) को बाजार मूल्य एवं साधन लागत पर समझाइये?
उत्तर:
1.सकल राष्ट्रीय उत्पाद (GNP):
सकल राष्ट्रीय उत्पाद से आशय देश के सामान्य निवासियों द्वारा घरेलू भौगोलिक सीमा के अन्दर एवं देश के बाहर अर्जित की गई आय से है। जब सकल घरेलू उत्पाद में विदेशों से प्राप्त शुद्ध साधन आय को जोड़ दिया जाता है तो उसे सकल राष्ट्रीय उत्पाद कहा जाता है। इसे निम्न समीकरण द्वारा भी समझाया जा सकता है GNP = GDP + NFIA (Net Factor Income from Abroad) या सकल राष्ट्रीय उत्पाद = सकल घरेलू उत्पाद + विदेशों से प्राप्त शुद्ध साधन आय या GNP = GDP + X – M भी होता है।

सकल राष्ट्रीय उत्पाद की गणना में मूल्य ह्रास को नहीं घटाया जाता है। इसकी गणना स्थिर मूल्यों के आधार पर भी की जा सकती है। विशेषकर सामाजिक सुरक्षा, पेंशन, वृद्धावस्था पेंशन, बेरोजगारी भत्ता, पूँजीगत वस्तुओं के क्रय – विक्रय इत्यादि को इसकी गणना में शामिल नहीं किया जाता है। साथ ही जिन सेवाओं का कोई मौद्रिक मूल्य नहीं होता उसे भी इसकी गणना में सम्मिलित नहीं किया जाता है। कालाबाजारी एवं तस्करी से बेची एवं खरीदी जाने वाली वस्तुओं को भी शामिल नहीं किया जाता है।

2. सकल घरेलू उत्पाद (GDP):
किसी देश की भौगोलिक सीमाओं के अन्दर एक वर्ष की अवधि में, उत्पादित समस्त अंतिम वस्तुओं एवं सेवाओं के मौद्रिक मूल्य जिसमें विदेशों से प्राप्त आय को सम्मिलित नहीं । किया जाता है सकल घरेलू उत्पाद कहते हैं। इसकी गणना साधन लागत पर एवं बाजार मूल्य पर की जाती है।, इसे निम्न समीकरणों की सहायता से स्पष्ट किया जा सकता है –
GDP = C + 1
GDP = (P x Q) + (P x S)
GDP = C + Cg + I + Lg
सकल घरेलू उत्पाद में हस्तांतरण आय एवं गैर कानूनी क्रियाओं से प्राप्त आय को शामिल नहीं किया जाता है। पुरानी पूँजीगत वस्तुओं की बिक्री को भी इसकी गणना में शामिल नहीं किया जाता है।

(अ) बाजार मूल्य पर सकल घरेलू उत्पाद:
उत्पादित अंतिम वस्तुओं एवं सेवाओं का सकल मूल्य लिया जाता है। उत्पादित वस्तु की मात्रा के साथ उत्पादित वस्तु के मूल्य का गुणा किया जाता है।
GDPMP = P (Q) + P (S)

(ब) साधन लागत पर सकल घरेलू उत्पाद:
उत्पादन के प्रत्येक साधन विशेष की प्राप्त आय उसकी आय कहलाती है जिनका योग करके सकल घरेलू उत्पाद की गणना की जाती है। उत्पादकों के लिये साधनों का पुरस्कार लागत कहलाती है।
GDPfc = Net factor income (Domestic factor – Income) + Depreciation Expenses.
अर्थात् साधन लागत पर सकल घरेलू उत्पाद = बाजार मूल्य पर सकल घरेलू उत्पाद – परोक्ष कर उत्पाद + सरकारी सहायता

स्थायी मूल्यों पर गणना:
स्थायी मूल्यों पर भी सकल घरेलू उत्पाद की गणना की जा सकती है। स्थायी मूल्यों की सहायता से अनुमानित मूल्य ज्ञात किया जा सकता है। इसे वास्तविक घरेलू आय भी कहा जाता है।

प्रश्न 11.
उत्पादन गणना विधि को अपनाने पर कौन – कौन सी कठिनाइयों का सामना करना पड़ता?
उत्तर:
उत्पादन गणना विधि को अपनाने पर निम्नांकित कठिनाइयों का सामना करना पड़ता है –

1. यह निश्चित करना कठिन होता है कि कौन – से पदार्थों को अंतिम माना जाए तथा कौन – से पदार्थों को मध्यवर्ती या कच्चा माल माना जाए।
2. मूल्य हास का सही अनुमान लगाना कठिन है, क्योंकि पूँजीगत पदार्थों के मूल्य में कमी अनेक कारणों से हो सकती है।
3. अनेक उत्पादक क्रियाओं को उत्पादन की मात्रा में सम्मिलित नहीं किया जाता है।
4. उत्पादन के सभी क्षेत्रों से संबंधित सही आँकड़े, उपलब्ध न होना।
5. दोहरी गणना की संभावना सदैव बनी रहती है, जिससे सही माप नहीं हो पाती है।

MP Board Class 12th Economics Important Questions

MP Board Class 12th Business Studies Important Questions Chapter 11 Marketing Management

Marketing Management Important Questions

Marketing Management Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by marketing research ?
Answer:
Marketing research is a systematic and intensive investigation of all phases of marketing on a continuous basis with a view to have better understanding and knowledge about the present and future marketing problems.

Question 2.
What do you mean by sales promotion ?
Answer:
Sales promotion refers to all those activities which are undertaken to increase sales. These activities are besides advertising, publicity and personal selling. Sales promotion motivates both consumers and middlemen. Some common sales promotion measures are coupons, premium, bonus, offers, contests etc.

Question 3.
What do you mean by external advertisement ?
Answer:
It is very economical and flexible. It quickly attracts all types of customers. Some examples of external advertisement are as follows: poster, advertisement board, hoarding, advertisement in newspaper and advertisement by loudspeaker, etc. It needs the place which is full by large number of peoples.

Question 4.
What do you mean by ‘product mix’ ?
Answer:
Product mix involves the activities relating to the product, service or idea to be offered. The different products which are offered / produced by an origination, enterprise or a producer, the list of products is called as a product mix.

Question 5.
What are the advantages of advertisement in newspapers ?
Answer:
Following are the advantages of advertisement in newspaper:

1. These are comparatively cheaper.
2. These leaves a long time effect on the consumers.
3. These are more effective.
4. These are reliable.

Question 6.
Write two functions of packaging.
Answer:

(a) Safety -: By packaging goods are protected from dust, air, moisture, water, etc.
(b) Increase in sale : The function of packaging is to increase in sale because goods are sold in good conditions by packaging.

Question 7.
Write the names of the media of advertisement.
Answer:
The names of the media of advertisement are as follows :

1. Radio
2. Television
3. Newspaper
4. Poster, leaflets and pamphlets
5. Direct mail advertising
6. Window display.

Question 8.
Make a list of characteristics of a good brand name.
Answer:
Following are the characteristics of a good brand name :

1. Brand should be small and general: It should be small and easy to pronounced For example : Tata, Dalda etc.
2. Attractive : Brand should always be attractive so that product will be attracted. For example Uncle chips, ManMohini.

Question 9.
List the characteristics of convenience products.
Answer:
Following are characteristics of convenience products :

1. These goods are purchased at convenient location with least efforts and time.
2. They hate regular and continuous demand.
3. They are purchased in small quantities and per unit price is low.
4. They are mostly branded and have standardized price.
5. The competition is high as the supply is greater than the demand.
6. Sales promotion schemes play an important role in the marketing of such prod

Question 10.
What do you mean by Market ?
Answer:
By market we don’t mean any place but it is related to transaction of goods between seller and buyers.

Question 11.
What do you mean by pricing ?
Answer:
The term price denotes the money value of product. It is the amount the money for which a product can be exchanged. He pays price his services done.

Question 12.
What do you mean by Trade Mark ?
Answer:
Any brand or branded product when gets legal protection and is registered it is called‘Trade mark’.
Brand is an English word but in Hindi conversation also brand is mostly used. Brand refers to a special word, symbol, letter or mixture of all these. Branding is used for product differentiation, building distinct image of the product and to popularize the product and its producers.

According to American Marketing Association, “A brand is a name, term, sign, symbol or design or a combination of term which intended to identify the goods or services of one seller or group of sellers and to differentiate them from those of competitors.” Thus brand is a type of design or identity.

Question 13.
What is marketing ?
Answer:
Marketing is such commercial process by which goods are produced according to the need of consumers (Markets). Marketing includes production, research transportation packing, advertisement, purchase and sale, etc.

Question 14.
What is publicity ?
Answer:
Publicity is a type of non-personal communication in which message goes in the form of news from person to person.

Question 15.
Who is customer ?
Answer:
By customer we mean those people or organisations who satisfy their needs and wants. .

Question 16. What do you mean by sales promotion ?
Answer:
It refers to all activities which are undertaken to increase sales. Some common sales promotion measures are coupons, premium, bonus offers, etc.

Question 17.
When is demand considered elastic ?
Answer:
Demand is considered to be elastic when demand changes highly with a slight change in price of product numerically price elating is more than unit 1.

Question 18.
What do you mean by product planning ?
Answer:
Product planning implies all activities which enable a firm to determine what should constitute as line product.

Question 19.
What do you mean by packaging ?
Answer:
Packaging means covering, wrapping, crafting, filling or compressing of products to protect from spoilage, breakage, leakage etc. Packaging refers to designing and producing suitable packages for goods. It involves determination of convenient size lots in which the goods are to put for marketing.

Question 20.
What do you mean by grading ?
Answer:
When products are divided into various groups according to their quality, size and other characteristics. Grading ensures that products are of specific quality.

Marketing Management Short Answer Type Questions

What is marketing ? What functions does it play with process of exchange of of sand services ? Explain.
Answer:
1. Transportation : Transportation involves physical movement of goods from one place to another. A marketer has to perform this function very efficiently keeping in mind the nature of product, cost, location of target market, etc.

2. Storage  housing : In order to maintain smooth flow of products in the market, there is nee d for proper storage of the products. Further, there is a need for storage of adequate stock o f goods to protect against unavoidable delays in delivery or to meet out contingencies in the; marinade. Wholesalers and retailers are playing an important role.

Question 2.
Distinguish be tween the product concept and production concept of marketing.
Answer:
Differences bet ween Product Concept and Production Concept:
Product concept

1. The focus of the product concept is on quality of the product
2. This concept works on the assumption the it customer  products of greater quality and price and availability does not influnte their purchase decision.
3. Company devotes most of its time in developing a product, a grater quality and expensive goods

Production concept

1. The focus here is on quantity of the product.
2. This concept works on the assumption that consumers prefer a product which is in expensive and widely available.
3. Companies focus on producing more of the product and making sure that it is easily available to the consumer very easily.

Question 3.
Product is a bundle of utilities. Do you agree ? Comment.
Answer:
Yes, product is a bundle of utilities, which is purchased because of its capability
to provide satisfaction of certain need. A buyer buys a product or service for what it does or service for what it does for her or the ,benefits it provides. There can be three types of benefits, it provides to a customer.

1. Functional benefits.
2. Psychological benefits.
3. Social benefits.

e.g., the purchase of a motorcycle provides functional utility of transportation, but at the same time satisfies the need for prestige and esteem and provides social benefit by the
way of acceptance from a group riding it.

Question 4.
What are industrial products ? How are they different from consumer products ? Explain.
Answer:
Industrial products are those products which are used as inputs in providing other products e.g., raw material, engines, tools, lubricants, etc.
The differences between consumer products and industrial products is based on their

Consumer Product:

1. Consumer is the buyer.
2. It is a purchased for personal consumption.
3. Number of buyers of consumer products is large.
4. The market of consumer product is broad.
5. The number of consumer product is high.

Industrial Product

1. Industries units and the processors are the buyers.
2. It is bough and used for making other products.
3. Number of Myers is limited in case of industrial products.
4. The market of industrial product is narrow.
5. The number of Industrial product is less.

Question 5.
Write the functions of marketing.
Answer:
Following functions face under marketing :

1.The first function is buying and assembling of goods. Here assembling refers to the collection of goods and accumulation at convenient or centralization in order to facilitate distribution

2.After buying and assembling of goods, they upgraded and brought up under the condition of sale

3.Standardization and grading of; goods on the basis of quality, size, brands, etc.

4.Proper packing for safe transportation and storing them (Goods) before transportation in warehouses,

5.To improve the sales techniques and undertake sales promotion work like sample distribution demonstration, gift plans, etc.

6.After sale of goods, their dispatch (i.e., transportation) and proper handover of good is also fall under the preview of marketing

7.Marketing research, study of taste of consumers and pricing of goods.

Question 6.
Enlist the advantages of packaging of a consumer products.
Answer:
Important of packaging:

1. Helps in raising’ the standard of health and sanitation.
2. Helps in self service outlets as consumer own what to buy, can easily decide on his.
3. Innovation opportunity e.g., new types of package availability have made it easier to market the product,
4. Product differentiation packaging is one of the very important means creating product differentiation.

Question 7.
Products is a mixture of tangible and inf tangible attributes. Discuss.
Answer:
In marketing, product is a mixture of Tangier and intangible attributes which are capable of being exchanged for a value, with ability to , satisfy customer need’s. Beside physical objects, include services, ideas, persons and pi ace in the concepts of product. Thus, product may be defined as anything that can be offer ed i n a market to satisfy a want or need. It is offered for attention, acquisition, use or consumption.

Question 8.
Describe the functions of labeling b a the marketing of products.
Answer:
Label on a product provides detailed information about the product, its contents, methods of use etc. the various functions perform med by a label are as follows :

(i) Describe the product and specify its contents one of the most important functions
of labels in that it describe the product, its us age, cautions in the use, etc. and specify its contents.

(ii) Identification of the product or Br and a label helps in identifying the product or brand e.g., we can easily pick our favorite soap from a lumber of packages only because of its label.

(iii) Grading of products labels help grading the products into different categories. Sometimes, marketers assign different grades to indicate features or quality of the product e.g., different type of tea is sold by some brands under “Fellow, Red and Green label categories.

(iv) Help in promotion of products an important function of label is to aid in promotion of the products. A carefully designed label can a the customer to purchase. So, many labels provide promotional me usages, some shove discount or other schemes etc.

(v) Providing information required by law: Another important function of labelling is to provide information required by , law e.g., the statutory warning on the package of cigarette or pan masala Smoking is injuring to health’ or ‘Chewing tobacco causes cancer.

Question 9.
Discuss the role of intermediaries in the distribution of consumer non durable products.
Answer:
The term channels distribution refers the facilitate to the movement of goods and services and their title bet ween the point of production and point of consumption, by forming a variety of marketing activities. Following are the functions performed by the channels of distribution.

(i) Accumulation : If aims at holding the stock to match between the consumer demand and supply condition warehousing helps in maintaining continuous flow of goods and services.

(ii) Promotion : The marketing channels also help in promoting the demand for the product by displaying demonstrating and participating in various promotional activities organized by the producers.

(iii) Negotiating: The marketing channels are the intermediaries between the producers and the consumers. They attempt to reach final’agreement on price and other terms of the offer, so that transfer of ownership is properly affected.

(iv) Risk taking : Risk taking is the basic responsibility of the intermediaries. It may arise out of physical deterioration, changes in price levels, natural calamities, change in fashion etc. These are unavoidable as they hold sufficiently large and variety of inventories till the sale of stock.

(v) Grading/Sorting : Grading is the process whereby they sort the products on the basis of different sizes, qualities, moisture contents and so on. It helps us realizing the time value for the product and at the same time ultimate consumer feels satisfied with the uniform quality of the product.

(vi) Packaging : The products are packed in the small gradable lots for the convenience of the consumer.

(vii) Assembling/Assortment: Marketing channels aim at satisfying the needs of the customers. The products desired by the consumer may not be a available in the market. They procure such goods from different sources, assemble or assort them as per the requirements of the consumers

Question 10.
Explain the factors determining choice of channels of distribution.
Answer:
The choice of channels depend on various factors, which are discussed as follows : .

(i) Product related Factors : The important product related considerations is deciding the channels. It includes whether the product is an industrial product or a consumer product. Industrial product require shorter channel and consumer products require longer channel.

(ii) Company characteristics : The important company characteristics affecting the choice of channels of distribution include the financial strength of the company and the degree of control, it wants to hold on other channel member. Direct selling involves lot of foods to be invested in fixed assets say starting own retail outlets or engaging large number at sales, force.

Similarly if the management want to have greater control on the channel number, short channels are used but if the management do not want more control over the middlemen, it can go in for longer channel or large number of intermediaries.

(iii) Competitive factors : The choice of channel is also affected by what the competitor has selected as its channel. Sometimes.

(iv) Market factors : Important market factors affecting the choice of channel of distribution include size of market, geographical concentration of potential buyers and quantity purchased.

(v) Environmental factors : Sometimes environmental factors also helps in deciding the channel of distribution e.g., in a depressed economy, marketers use shorter channels to distribute their goods in an economical way.

Question 11.
Explain briefly the components of physical distribution.
Answer:
The main components of physical distribution are as follows :

(i) Order processing : If a firm takes more time to process the order, then the consumer remains dissatisfied. Therefore, order processing has to made faster by using information technology.

(ii) Inventory control : Inventories ensure availability of the product as and when consumer demand arises. There are various factors which influence a firm decision regarding the level of inventory e.g., degree of accuracy of sales forecast, cost of blocking of the working capital, etc.

(iii) Warehousing: It refers to the storage of goods from the time of production to the time of consumption, warehousing is important as it creates time utility.

(iv) Transportation : It creates place utility, it refers to the carrying of raw materials or finished goods from one place to another. The most important thing to be kept in mind is that the value addition by transportation should be greater than the cost of transportation.

Question 12.
Define advertising, what are its main features ? Explain.
Answer:
Advertising is defined as the impersonal form of communication which is paid form by the marketer to promote some goods or services. It is commonly use as the promotional tool of the company, the important features of advertising are as follows :

(i) Paid from advertising : is a paid from the communication which means the sponsor has to bear the cost to communication with the prospects.

(ii) Impersonal : There is no direct face to contact between the prospect and advertiser. It is therefore, referred as the impersonal method of promotion.

(iii) Identified sponsor advertising is undertaken by some identified individual or company, who makes the advertising efforts and also bears the cost of it.

Question 13.
Discuss the role of ‘Sales Promotion’ as an elements of promotion mix.
Answer:
Sales promotion includes those marketing activities other than personal selling, advertising and publicity that stimulate consumer purchasing and dealer effectiveness, such as display, shows and exhibitions, demonstrations and various non-current selling efforts not in the ordinary routine, the main objectives of sales promotion activities are :

1. Creation of demand for the product
2. Educating the consumers about new products or new uses of the old product
3. Building the brand loyalty for the product among the consumers.

Question 14.
What do you mean by sales promotion ? Write any four objectives.
Answer:
Meaning : Sales promotion refers to all those activities which are undertaken to increase sales. These activities are besides advertising, publicity and personal selling. Sales promotion motivates both consumers and middlemen. Some common sales promotion measures are coupons, premium, bonus, offers, contests, etc.
Objectives of Sales Promotion : The objectives of sales promotion are as follows :

1. To provide information to new consumers about products and services and motivating them to purchase those products.
2. To popularize the products among common people.
3. 3. To make existing customers as permanent customers.
4. To motivate intermediaries and traders to buy more goods.
5. To increase sales in festive occasions like – Holi, Diwali, etc.
6. To face the cut throat competition effectively.
7. To provide detailed knowledge about the product to customers.
8. To regain the old consumers and to increase the sale in slack period.
9. To start the sales of products in a new market.
10. To increase goodwill as well as profits.

Question 15.
Write the characteristics of a good packaging.
Answer:
The characteristics of packaging are :

1. Packaging is a science as well as an art.
2. Packaging is related with product planning.
3. The aim of packaging is to protect the product and make it convenient for the customers to use the product.
4. La belling and Branding activities are included in packaging.
5. There are differences between packing and packaging.

Question 16.
What are the essentials of a good brand ?
Or
What points should be kept in mind while selecting a good brand ?
Answer:
The essentials of a good brand are :

1. Brand should be easily pronounceable
2. It should be suggestive
3. It should be distinctive
4. It should be meaningful
5. It should be simple and short
6. It should be memorable
7. Brand should be attractive
8. It should be register able
9. It should be economic.

Question 17.
Discuss the following functions of marketing briefly :

1. Marketing mix
2. Branding
3. Packaging.

Answer:

(a) Marketing mix: “The policies adopted by manufacturing concerns to attain success in the market contribute the market mix”. —R.S. Davar
For achieving the objectives of business a marketing plan is prepared in which decisions regarding product price, channel of distribution, techniques of sales promotion, etc.are taken. The combination of these elements is called marketing mix.

(b) Branding : Branding refers to the process of assigning specific name of the product by which-it is to be known and remembered. A brand represents a word, symbol or a letter or a combination of all of them. A brand is the buyer’s expectation and seller’s promise to satisfy them consistently.

(c) Packaging : Packaging means covering, wrapping, crafting, filling or compressing of products to protect from spoilage, breakage, leakage, etc. Packaging refers to designing and producing suitable packages for goods. It involves determination of convenient size lots

Question 18.
Discuss the following function of marketing :

1. Labelling
2. Sales promotion
3. Advertisement.

Answer:
1. Labelling : Labelling refers to putting strip of paper or informative tag or metal in the package or the product. Label is the carrier of information which is attached to product package. It denotes the nature of product contents weight, ownership, destination, date of manufacture and necessary information for the users or consumers.

2. Sales promotion : Includes those activities stimulate market demand for product through short term incentives which are of non-recurring nature and temporary. These technique of sales promotion serve as bridge between the production of its consumer.

3. Advertisement: Advertising aims to committing the producer, educating the consumer supplementing the salesman, connecting the dealer to eliminate the competitor but above all its a link between producer and consumer. Advertising is the most widely used method of sales promotion.

Question 19.
Distinguish between Branding and Trade mark.
Answer:
Differences between Branding and Trade mark :

Branding

1. In it registration of name, symbol or design is not done.
2. All types of brand do not possess trademark.
3. Brand can be used by more than one manufacturer or seller.
4. Scope of branding is limited.

Trade mark

1. In it registration of name, symbol or design is done.
2. All trade marks have branding.
3. Trade mark can be used by only one manufacturer or seller.
4. Scope of trade mark is large and unlimited.

Question 20.
Write the characteristics of Advertising.
Answer:
The following characteristics of Advertising are :

1.Economic growth: It acts as a barometer of a nations economic growth advertising promotion healthy competition and provides better quality goods at cheaper rates to the society.

2.Source of income : It provides a regular source of income to newspapers. It has been estimated that nearly 80% of the income to newspapers and magazines is secured through advertisements.

3.Standard of living : It uplifts the living standard of the people advertising acts an effective tool in raising standards of living.

4.Employment : It is generates employment opportunities directly it provides to many people who work as artists, painters, writers and experts in the field of advertising.

Question 21.
Write the differences between Advertisement and Sales promotion
Answer:
Differences between Advertisement and Sales promotion :

Question 22.
What is the marketing concept ? How does it help in the effective marketing of goods and services ?
Answer:
Orientation of marketing implies that focus on the satisfaction of customers need, is the key to the success of any organisation in the market. All the decisions in the firm are taken from the point of view of the customers e.g., what product will be produced, with what features and at what price shall it be sold or where shall it be made available for sale will depend on what do the customer wants.
Marketing concept helps in effective marketing of goods and services by using the following:

1. Identification of market or customer who are chosen e.s., the target of marketing effort,
2. Understanding needs and wants of customers in the target market
3. Development of products or services for satisfying needs of the target market
4. Satisfying needs of target market better than the competitors
5. Doing all this at a profit.

Question 23.
What are the essential conditions of exchange mechanism ?
Answer:
Following are the conditions of exchange mechanism :

1. There should be two parties :
2. Customer and producers.
3. Both the parties should have capacity to satisfy each other.
4. Both the parties should have capacity to communicate each other.
5. Out of these both the parties have full freedom of accepting each other
6. Any one can become the member of exchange process.

Question 24.
What is the differences between trade mark and brand ?
Answer:
Difference between Trade mark and Brand :

1. Registration : Registration of brand is not necessary while trade mark should be registered.
2. Statutory : Since brands are not registered that’s why they are not statutory while trade marks are statutory.
3. Use : Brand can be used by the competitors or rival groups but trade mark cannot be used by the competitors or rival enterprises.
4. Scope : Scope of brand is limited while scope of trade mark is wider.
5. All brands are not mark : All brands are not trade marks but all trade marks are brands
6. Legal action : If the competitors copy the brand then no legal action can be taken but if competitors copy trade mark then legal action can be taken against them.

Question 25.
What are techniques or methods of sales promotion ?
Answer:

1. Samples : The best method of sales promotion is the free distribution of products. This sample is used by the consumers and if the consumer is satisfied than he gets attracted towards the product itself. Sales representatives distribute these samples door to door. This method is very useful in introduction of new product. This type of method is mostly used in case of products of daily use e.g.. Tooth paste, soaps, medicines etc.

2. Coupons : Some companies for sales promotion uses coupons. Coupon is a certificate written on paper in which some discount or services or gift is mentioned for the purchaser, e.g., for purchasing a pack of tea a discount of Rs. 5 is offered. If the cost of tea pack is Rs. 50 then customer will have to pay Rs. 45. Coupon method easily attracts the consumers.

3. Premium : A premium offer is the offer of an article at no cost or at a very nominal price on the purchase of a specified product e.g., on purchase of T.V. one watch free or a tape record at half of actual price.

4. Contests: It is an effective method of sales promotion with a view to popularity the products the producers organised various contests. In these type of contests the consumers participates and wins prizes and various services from companies. Contests are conducted for consumers as well as traders.

Example.

1. To write and send a slogan for the concerned product
2. Write a suitable name for the product
3. Complete the sentence contest like, I use Lifebuoy soap because
4. To solve the puzzles
5. To explain the advantages and various uses of products
6. Lucky draw contest.

5. Demonstrations : It involves activities which enables the consumers to know how to make operational use of products. The objective of demonstration is to provide an opportunity to the consumers to learn how to use the product and to explain the usefulness of the product.

6. Fairs and Exhibitions : Fairs and exhibitions are having an important place in increasing the sales. These are held at local, national and international level. In this method, seller displays their product attractively and consumers are attracted towards these products. Book sellers organised fairs called Book Fairs

Question 26.
Explain the various strategies which are used in branding.
Answer:

1. Brand: For each product firm uses different types of brand. Brand is a specific type of identity.
2. Brand name : The products are known by their brand name. It consists of a name, term or symbol.
3. Brand mark : Each product is given brand mark along with the name.
4. Trade mark : Registration of trade mark is compulsory.

Marketing Management Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the concepts of marketing management philosophies.
Answer:
1. Production concept : It works on an assumptions that consumers prefer a product which is expensive and widely available. Increase in the production of the product makes the companies get advantage of economies of scale. This decreased production cost makes the product inexpensive and more attractive to the customer. Low price may attract new customers, but focus is just on production and not on the product quality.

This may result in decrease in sales if the product is not up to the standards. This philosophy only works when the demand is more than the supply. Moreover, a customer not always prefers an inexpensive product over others. There are many other factors which influence his purchase decision.

2. Product concept : This concept works on an assumption that customers prefer products of ‘greater quality’ and ‘price and availability’ doesn’t influence their purchase decision. Hence company devotes most of its time in developing a product of greater quality which usually turns out to be expensive. Since the main focus of the marketers is the product quality, they often  or fail to appeal to customers whose demands are driven by other factors like price, availability, usability, etc.

3. Selling concept : Production and product concept both focus on production but selling concept focuses on making an actual sale of the product. Selling concept focuses on making every possible sale of the product, regardless of the quality of the product or the need of the customer.

The main focus is to make money. This philosophy doesn’t include building relations with the customers. Hence repeated sales are very less. Companies following this concept may even try to deceive the customers to make them buy their product. Companies which follow this philosophy have a short sighted approach as they ‘try to sell what they make rather than what market wants’.

4. Marketing concept: Selling concept cannot let a company last long in the market. It’s a consumers market after all. To succeed in the 23th century, one has to produce a product to fulfill the needs of their customers. Hence, emerged the marketing concept. This concept works on an assumption that consumers buy products which fulfill their needs. Businesses following the marketing concept conduct researches to know about customers’ needs and wants and come out with products to fulfill the same better than the competitors.

By doing so, the business makes a relation with the customer and generate profits in the long run. However this isn’t the only philosophy which should be followed. Many business still follow other concepts and make profits. It totally depends on the demand and supply and the needs of the parties involved.

5. Social marketing concept ; Adding to the marketing concept, this philosophy focuses on society’s well-being as well. Business focus on how to fulfill the needs of the customer without effecting the environment, natural resources and focusing on society’s well being.

This philosophy believes that the business is a part of the society and hence should take part in social services like elimination of poverty, illiteracy, and controlling explosive population growth etc. Many of the big companies have included corporate social responsibility as a part of their marketing activities.

Question 2.
What are the functions of marketing research ?
Answer:
1. Marketing Research : Under marketing research, data and/or information regarding the number of consumers and their purchasing power, their wants and fashion, habit, need etc. are collected so that goods could be produced according to wants and need of consumers.

2. Product Planning and Development: Goods produced in accordance with wants and fashion of consumers is called product planning and to effect changes in the products from time to time like size, color and quality comes under development. Both these activities are covered under marketing.

3. Standardization and Grading: There are many types of consumers. Standardization and grading of goods produced are done according to the need and purchasing power of consumers. This one of the function of marketing.

4. Packaging : According to the modem concept, a product is easily marketed and sold if packaging is of high standard. The consumer also wants every product well packed. Therefore, packaging is very important in marketing.

5. Storage : Storage is necessary for raw material and to maintain supply of goods according to demand as also to store raw material. Huge storage’s or warehouses are built for raw material.

6. Purchase Sale: Purchase and sale are two most important activities under marketing. It is for these activities that the other activities of marketing are undertaken.

7. Transportation : Due to the increase in distances between producer and the consumer, work of transportation has assumed greater importance. Sale and purchase of goods is impossible without transportation. Therefore, transportation is an important function of marketing.

8. Risk and Insurance : Marketing is full of risks. Sometimes, losses are incurred in marketing. To prevent losses in marketing, insurance is taken.

9. Advertisement: in the modem age of development, it is difficult to sell any product without advertising. Therefore, advertising is necessary to maintain the sales drive. It is an important function of marketing.

10. Pricing : Price is related to cost of production and profit. In the modem age of competition. Pricing is now being compared to price of other similar products and therefore pricing is a difficult job which is covered under marketing.

Question 3.
Difference between sales promotion and personal selling.
Answer:
Differences between Sales Promotion and Personal Selling

Question 4.
What do you mean by personal selling ? What are its characteristics ?
Answer:
Meaning: During the course of advertising the producer tells all about his product but cannot know the immediate reaction of customers. To make up this deficiency the producers adopted personal selling. It is a two tier system which establishes close relationship between salesman and buyers resulting in mutual satisfaction. Characteristics of Personal Selling:

1. Direct Sales : In personal selling the seller directly sells the product to consumers. There is face to face contact between seller and purchaser.

2. Personal Relation : Through personal selling a personal contact establishes between purchaser and seller. There is no chain between purchaser and seller. Personal selling is a mind to mind approach.

3. Knowledge of Product: In it seller is having complete knowledge about product. Thus, seller explains the uses and merits of product to consumers.

4. Two way communication : It is totally a two way communication. The purchaser and seller are free to give their opinions.

5. Oral conversation : There is oral conversations between the seller and buyer regarding characteristics of the product.

6. Part of Marketing Programmer : Marketing is a wide concept. Personal selling is a part of marketing.

7. Universal : Personal selling is a universal process. It can be utilized in different areas of life. In society whether he is leader or advocate, producer or labour, teacher or student, doctor or patient all of these can express their opinions to achieve their objectives.

8. Others : Apart from the above characteristics, other characteristics are as follows :

1. Creative art
2. Social character
3. Long term relation
4. Persuasive leadership.
5. Slow speed of sales
6. Quick solution of queries.

Question 5.
How does branding help in creating product differentiation ? Does it help in marketing of goods and services ? Explain.
Answer:
Branding helps a firm of distinguishing its products from that of its competitors. This helps the firm to secure and control the market for its products. If products were sold by generic names, it would be very difficult for the marketers to distinguish their products from its competitors. Thus, most marketers give a name of their product, which helps in identifying and distinguishing their products from their competitors product. This process of giving a name or a sign or symbol etc. to a product is called Branding.

Question 6.
What are the factors affecting determination of the price of a product or service ? Explain.
Answer:
There are number of factors which affect the fixation of the price of a product. Some of the important factors in this regard are discussed as below :

(i) Product Cost: The cost sets the minimum level or the floor price at which the product may be sold. There are broadly three types of cost-fixed costs, variable costs and semivariable cost. Total cost is the sum of all these three. Generally, all firms try to cover all their costs, at least in the log sun. In addition, they aim at earning a margin of profit over and above the costs.

(ii) The utility and Demand : The utility provided by the product and the intensity of demand of the buyer sets the upper limit of price. Which a buyer would be prepared to pay. Infect the price must reflect the interest of both the parties to the transaction the buyer and the seller. The buyer may be ready to pay up to the point, where the utility from the product is atleast equal to the sacrifice made in terms of the price paid. The seller would, however, try to cover the costs. According to the law of demand, consumers generally purchase more units at a low price than at a high price.

(iii) The Extent of Competition in the Market : The price is also affected by the nature and degree of competition. The price will tend to reach the upper limit in case there is less degree of competition while under free competition, the price will tend to be set at the lowest level.

(iv) Government and Legal Regulations : In order to profit the interest of public against unfair practices in the field of price fixing, Government can intervenes and regulate the price of commodities. Government can declare a product as essential product and regulate its price.

(v) Pricing objectives : Pricing objectives are another important factor affecting the fixation of the price of a product or a service. Apart from price maximization, the pricing objectives of a firm may include,

(a) Obtaining Market Share Leadership : If a firm objective is to obtain share of the market, it will keep the price of its products at lower level, so that greater number of people are attracted to purchase the products.

(b) Surviving in a competitive Market: If a firm is facing difficulties surviving in the market because of intense competition or introduction of a more efficient substitute by a competitor.

(c) Attaining Product Quality Leadership : Higher prices are charged to cover high in this case, normally quality and high cost of R & D (Research and Development)

(vi) Marketing Methods used Price Fixation : Price is also affected by other elements of marketing such as distribution system, quality of salesman employed, quality and amount
of advertising, sales promotion efforts, the type of packaging, product differentiation, credit facility and customer service provided.

Question 7.
What do you mean by Channels of distribution’ ? What functions do they play in the distribution of goods and services ? Explain.
Answer:
People, institutions, merchants and functionaries, who take part in the distribution of goods and services are called ‘Channels of distribution’. Channels of distribution are set of firms and individuals that take title or assist in transferring title, to particular goods or services as it moves from the producers to the consumers.
Channels of distribution smoothen the flow of goods by creating possession, place and time utilities. They facilitate movement of goods by overcoming various barriers the important function performed by middlemen are : –

(i) Sorting : Middlemen procure supplies of goods from a variety of sources which is often not of the same quality, nature and size. These goods are sorted into, homogeneous groups on the basis of the size or quality.

(ii) Accumulation : The function involves accumulation of goods into larger homogeneous stock which help in maintaining continuous flow of supply.

(iii) Allocation : Allocation involves breaking homogeneous stock into smaller, marketable.

(iv) Assorting : Middlemen build assortment of products for resale. There is usually a difference between the product lines made by manufactures and the assortment or combination desired by the users. Middlemen produce variety of goods from different sources and delivers them in combinations, desired by customers.

(v) Product Promotion : Middlemen also participate in some sales promotion activities, such as demonstration, special display, contests, etc. to increase the sales of products.

(vi) Negotiation : Channels operate with manufactures on the one hand and customer on the other. They negotiate the price, quality, guarantee and other related matters with customers, so that transfer of ownership is properly affected.

(vii) Risk Taking : In the process of distribution of goods, the merchant middlemen take title of the goods and thereby assume risks on account of price and demand fluctuations, spoilage, destinations, etc.

Question 8.
Explain the major Activities involved in the physical distribution at products.
Answer:
Physical distribution covers all the activities required to physically move goods from manufacture to the customers. Important activities involved in the physical distribution include transportation, warehousing, material handing and inventory control.

(i) Order Processing : In a typical buyer-seller relationship order placement is the first step. Products flow from the manufactures to customers via channel members while orders flow from customers to manufactures. Therefore, a good speedy and accurate system of order processing becomes a necessity.

(ii) Transportation : Transportation is the means of carrying goods and raw materials from the point of production to the point of sale. It is one of the major element in physical distribution Of goods. It is important because unless the goods are physically made available the sale can not be completed.

(iii) Warehousing : Warehousing refers to the act of storing and assorting products in order to create time utility in them. The basic purpose of warehousing activities is to arrange placement of goods and provide facilities to store them. The need for warehousing arises because there may be differences between the times, a product is produced and the time it is required for consumption. Generally, the efficiency of a firm in serving its customers will depend on, where these warehouses are located and where are these to be delivered.

(iv) Inventory Control: A very important decision in respect of inventory is deciding about the level of inventory. Higher the level of inventory, higher will be the level of service to customers but the cost of carrying the inventory will also be high because lot of capital

would be tied up in the stock. The decision regarding level of inventory involves prediction about the demand for the product. A correct estimate of the demand helps to hold inventor and cost level down to a minimum. The major factors determining inventory levels include.

(a) Finns policy regarding the level of customer service. Higher the level of service, greater will be need to keep more inventories.

(b) Degree of accuracy of the sales forecast. In case more accurate estimates are available, the need for keeping very high level of inventory can be minimized.

(c) Responsiveness of the distribution system i.e., ability of the system to transmit inventory needs back to the factory and get products to the market.

(d) Cost of inventory, which includes holding cost, such as cost of warehousing, tied up capital, etc. and the manufacturing cost.

Question 9.
Expenditure on advertising is a social waste. Do you agree ?
Answer:
The opponents of advertising say that the expenditure on advertising is a social waste as it adds to the cost, multiplies the needs of the people and undermines social values. The proponents, however argue that advertising is very useful as it increases the reach, brings the per unit cost of production down and adds to the growth of the economy.
Following are the point of criticism :

(i) Adds to cost: The opponents of advertising argue that advertising unnecessarily adds to the cost product, which is ultimately passed on to the buyers in the form of high prices. It is line that advertisement of a product cost lots of money but it helps to increase the demand for the product as large number and potential buyers come to know about the availability of the products, its features, etc. and persuaded to buy it.

This increases the demand and therefore the production. As a result, the per unit cost of production comes down as the total cost is divided by larger number of units.

(ii) Undermines Social Values : Advertising undermines social values and promotes materialism. It breeds discontentment among people as they come to know about new products and feel dissatisfied with their present state of affairs. This criticism is not entirely time. Advertisement in fact helps buyer by informing them about the new products which may be improvement over the existing products.

(iii) Confuses the buyers : Another criticism against advertisements is that so many products are being advertised which makes similar claims that the buyer gets confused as to which one is true and which should be relied upon, e.g., there are so many brands of soaps, shampoos, cars, Tvs, cell phones etc. which are advertised.

The supporters of advertisement, however argued that we are all rational human beings who make our decisions for purchase of products on factors, such as price, style, size etc. Thus the buyers can clear their confusion by analyzing the information provided on the advertisements and other sources before taking a decision to purchase a product.

(iv) Encourages Sales of Inferior Product: Advertising does not distinguish between superior and inferior products and persuade people to purchase even the inferiors products. The desired level of quality will depend on the economic states and preference of the target customers. Advertisements sell products of a given quality and the buyers will buy, if it suits their requirements.

(v) Some advertisements are in Bad Taste : Another criticism against advertising is that some advertisements are in bad taste. They show something which is not approved by some people. Some advertisement spoil the relationship between employer and employee, husband and wife etc.

From the above discussion, we have learnt that through advertisements are criticized but still they have their own advantages. It is not a social waste, rather it adds value of the social cause by giving a boost to production and generating employment.

Question 10.
Write the differences between advertise and personal selling,
Answer:
Differences between Advertising and Personal Selling :

Question 11.
Differentiate between Marketing and Selling.
Answer:
Differences between Selling and Marketing :

Selling

1. Focus is on seller’s need.
2. Product enjoys supreme importance.
3. Concerned with selling the goods already produced.
4. Presupposes existence of demand.
5. It is fragmented approach to achieve immediate gains.
6. Converting products into cash.
7. Caveat import Let the buyer beware,beware, implies in selling.
8. Profit through sales volume, is made in selling.

Marketing

1. Focus is done on customer’s need.
2. Customer enjoys supreme importance.
3. Product planning and development to match product with markets.
4. Demand has to be created and main- trained.
5. It is integrated approach to achieve long-term goals.
6. Marketing is converting customer’s needs into products.
7. Caveat vender Let the seller beware,implies in marketing.
8. Profit through customer’s satisfaction,is made in marketing.

Question 12.
What do you mean by labelling ? Write its advantages.
Answer:
Meaning :Label on a product provides detailed informaition about the product, its contents, methods of use etc. the various functions perform med by a label are as follows :

(i) Describe the product and specify its contents one of the most important functions
of labels in that it describe the product, its us age, cautions in the use, etc. and specify its contents.

(ii) Identification of the product or Br and a label helps in identifying the product or brand e.g., we can easily pick our favourite soap from a lumber of packages only because of its label.

(iii) Grading of products labels help grading the products into different categories. Sometimes, marketers assign different grades to indicate features or quality of the product e.g., different type of tea is sold by some brands under “Fellow, Red and Green lable categories.

(iv) Help in promotion of an important function of label is to aid in promotion of the products. A carefully deslgned label can a the customer to purchase. So, many labels provide promotional me usages, some shove discount or other schemes etc.

(v) Providing information required by law: Another important function of labelling is to provide information required by , raw e.g., the statutory warning on the package of cigarette or pan masala ‘Smoking is injuring to health’ or ‘Chewing tobacco causes cancer.

Advantages : Labelling has the following advantages :

1. Useful Information : Labelling provides useful information regarding the name of product, address of manufacturer or dealer, contents, ingrediants, safety warning, etc.
2. Helps in Identification : It helps to identify the product or brand.
3. Helps in Grading : It enables the producer to grade his product into various categories. .
4. Control Price Fluctuation : Since the price printed on the labels, variations in price are avoided.

Question 13.
Explain the factors affecting marketing mix.
Answer:
The factors affecting marketing mix are :

1. Planning and development of product: Planning and development of product is one of the important factors of marketing mix. An ideal enterprise makes an ideal plan for a product. Nowadays customer demands will designed, fashionable and high quality product. This is possible only when the factor of planning and development of product is included in the manufacturing of a product for an enterprise.

2. Pricing : The price of a product affect the marketing of any product. If the price is fixed high then product will be eliminated from market and if price is fixed less then enterprise will face losses. The ups and downs in prices directly affect the marketing. The prices are fixed after considering different factors in marketing.

3. Distribution channels : Channel of distribution refers to that path through which products reach ultimate consumers. Many people and firms participate in this path. In distribution channel it is seen that what should be the medium of sales, where it will take place, direct sales or through middle men, sales will be local or product will be sent to other places are important factors for marketing mix.

4. Sales promotion : Today in this marketing system* a good product cannot be sold without an effective advertisement. Apart from advertisement there are other methods of sales promotion. Thus an ideal sales promoter for. increasing the demand of products makes marketing programmes because without promotion a business cannot develop. The functions included in sales promotion are advertisement, publicity, public relations, etc.

5. Sales force : The complete management of sales force is performed as a factor of marketing mix. Under sales force fixation of sales limit, nature of sales, personal selling limit, consumer services are included in marketing mix.

6. Marketing research : Marketing research is having an important place as a factor in marketing mix. In this estimates are made after identifying the interest of consumers, demand of products is determined, knowing the reactions of consumers about products, etc. Tor all these activities research and survey is essential. It is also considered as a factor of marketing mix.

Question 14.
Describe the factors to be considered while selecting a medium of advertising.
Answer:
The following factors must be considered while selecting a medium of a advertising:

1. Nature of market : Nature of market means the place where the customer lives. Advertising should be done through such medium that it reaches customers. If the market is in nations, it is better to advertise through radio, television, etc. But if the market is local, than it is better to advertise through local newspapers, magazines, etc.

2. Distribution system : While selecting the medium of advertisement the distribution system should be kept in mind. The place where proper channel of distribution is not present it is waste to advertise the product there. Advertising should be done where proper channel of distribution is managed.

3. Media cost: Media cost means what is the cost of advertisement ? The medium should be selected which is comparatively cheap, also properly covers. The customers and generates the demand of products.

4. Number of audience : Number of audience here means to whom the advertisement reaches and what is the number ? Audience are of various types like male, females, children, teenager, etc. If customers are females the medium of advertisement should be magazines, television, etc.

5. Level, of audience : The audience of advertisement are of different types and level like rich class people, middle class people or lower class people. If the advertisement is to reach rich class society then medium of advertisement will be television, internet, magazines,etc. For middle class medium of advertisement can be TV., Radio, etc.

6. Nature of goods : Goods are of various types like goods for consumption, industrial goods, office equipment, etc. For these types of goods there are different types of medium of advertisement.

7. Objectives of advertisement: It is necessary to know the objectives of advertisement before giving the advertisement. This is done to select the best possible medium of advertisement.

Question 15.
what are the Qualities of good salesman ?
Answer:
Essential qualities of an effective salesman are :

1. Personality : A good salesman should possess a good personality. What fragrance is to a flower is personality to an individual. It is the ability to impress others. A charming personality always creates a good impression. He should possess good health, attractive appearance and impressive voice. He should not suffer from physical handicaps like stammering and limping, etc.

2. Cheerful Disposition : He should have a smiling face. It is rightly said that ‘a man without a smiling face must not open a shop. In order to impress upon the customers he should always be cheerful and sweet tempered. He should be properly dressed as the dress greatly enhances the personality.

3. Mental Ingredients : An individual cannot be a successful salesman unless he possesses certain mental qualities like imagination, sound judgment, presence of mind, foresightedness, initiative and strong memory. These qualities are of great help to a salesman in dealing with customers having different nature and temperament. He can successfully tackle the customers. The mental qualities are very helpful in creating permanent customers for the product.

4. Courtesy: A salesman should always be polite and courteous towards his customers. It costs nothing but wins permanent customers for the product. He should help the customers in making the right choice or in selecting the products. This will definitely help in winning over the confidence of the customers.

MP Board Class 12 Business Studies Important Questions

MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions  Chapter 15 Polymers

Polymers NCERT Intext Exercises

Question 1.
What are polymers ?
Answer:
Polymers are high molecular mass substances (10³-10⁷u) formed by the combi-nation of a large number of simple molecules. They are also called macro molecules. For example, polyethene, bakelite, PVC, teflon etc.

Question 2.
How are polymers classified on the basis of structure ?
Answer:
On the basis of structure, polymers are classified as:

• Linear polymers: e.g. polyethene, nylons, polyvinylchloride etc.
• Branched chain polymers: e.g. low density polythene, glycogen.
• Cross-linked polymers: e.g. bakelite, melamine, etc.

Question 3.
Write the names of monomers of the following polymers:

Answer:

• Hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid
• Caprolactum
• Tetrafluoroethene.

Question 4.
Classify the following as addition and condensation polymers: Terylene, Bakelite, Polyvinyl chloride, Polythene.
Answer:

• Terylene: Condensation polymer
• Bakelite: Condensation polymer
• Polyvinyl chloride: Addition polymer
• Polyethene: Addition polymer.

Question 5.
Explain the difference between Buna-N and Buna-S.
Answer:
Buna-N is a co-polymer of 1,3-butadiene and acrylonitrile Buna-S is a co-polymer of 1,3-butadiene and styrene.

Question 6.
Arrange the following polymers in increasing order of their inter molecular forces:

1. Nylon 6,6, Buna-S, Polythene.
2. Nylon 6, Neoprene, Polyvinyl chloride.

Answer:

1. Buna-S < Polyethene < Nylon-6,6.
2. Neoprene < Polyvinyl chloride < Nylon-6.

Polymers NCERT Text-Book Exercises

Question 1.
Explain the terms polymer and monomer.
Answer:
Polymers are high molecular mass substances (10³-10⁷u) formed by the combi-nation of a large number of simple molecules. They are also called macromolecules. For example, polyethene, bakelite, PVC, teflon etc.

Monomer:
Monomer is a simple molecule capable of undergoing polymerization to form polymers. For example, polyethene is a polymer and its simple molecule ethene is a monomer.

Question 2.
What are natural and synthetic polymers ? Give two examples of each type.
Answer:
Natural polymers:
Natural polymers are high molecular mass macro molecules and are found in nature mainly in plants and animals. For example, protein, nucleic acids, starch, cellulose etc.

Synthetic polymer:
Synthetic polymers are man-made high molecular mass macro molecules. For example, plastics (Polyethene, P.V.C.), synthetic fibres (Polyesters, Nylon-6,6), synthetic rubber (Neoprene, Buna-S) etc.

Question 3.
Distinguish between the terms homopolymer and copolymer and give an example of each.
Answer:
Homo polymers are the polymers which are made by addition polymerization of single type of monomeric species.

Co-polymers are the polymers which are made by addition polymerization from two different monomers.

Question 4.
How do you explain the functionality of a monomer ?
Answer:
Functionality means the number of bonding sites in a molecule. For example, the functionality of ethene, propene, styrene, acrylonitrile is one while that of 1,3 – butadiene, adipic acid, terephthalic acid, hexamethylene diamine is two.

Question 5.
Define the term polymerization.
Answer:
Polymerization is a process of formation of a high molecular mass polymer from one or more types of monomers. Polymerization leads to linkage together of several repeating structural units with covalent bonds.

Question 6.
Is (NH – CHR – CO)_n a homopolymer or copolymer ?
Answer:
It is a homopolymer because the repeating structural unit has only one type of monomer unit, i.e., NH₂ – CHR – COOH.

Question 7.
In which classes, the polymers are classified on the basis of molecular forces ?
Answer:
On the basis of molecular forces present between the chains of various polymers, these are classified as:

• Elastomers
• Fibres
• Thermoplastics
• Thermo setting plastics.

Question 8.
How can you differentiate between addition and condensation polymeriza-tion ?
Answer:
Addition polymerization:
The molecules of the same or different monomers add together to form a macromolecule. Without elimination of any thing the addition polymers are formed by monomers which are unsaturated compound. For example, formation of polyethene from ethene.

Condensation polymerization:
Two or more bi-functional molecules undergo a se-ries of condensation reactions with the elimination of some simple molecules like H₂O, R – OH, NH₃, HCl or CO₂ etc., to form a macromolecule (Polymer). For example, Nylon-6,6 is a condensation polymer of hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid formed by the elimination of water molecule.

Question 9.
Explain the term co-polymerization and give two examples.
Answer:
When two or more different monomers unite together to polymerize, the result- product is called a co-polymer and the process is termed as copolymerization. Thus, a co-polymer contains a large number of units of each monomer used in the same polymeric chain. For example, Buna-S and Buna-N whereas Buna-S is a copolymer of 1,3-butadiene and styrene while Buna-N is a co-polymer of 1,3-butadiene and acrylonitrile.

Question 10.
Write the free radical mechanism for the polymerization of ethene.
Answer:
In the presence of Benzoyl peroxide the polymerization of ethane can be under¬stand by the free radical mechanism.
Chain initiation step:

Chain propagation step:
C₆H₅ + CH₂ = CH₂ → C₆H₅ – CH₂ – CH₂

Chain termination step:
C₆H₅ – CH₂– CH₂ + CH₂ = CH₂ → C₆H₅ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₂ → C₆H₅(- CH₂ – CH₂-)_n CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₂(- CH₂ – CH₂ – )KC₆H₅ Polythene

Question 11.
Define thermoplastics and thermosetting polymers with two examples of each.
Answer:
Thermoplastics are polymers which can be easily softened repeatedly on heating and hardened on cooling. Therefore, it can be used again and again. For example, polyethene and polyvinyl chloride. Thermosetting polymers are those which undergo permanent change on heating. They become hard and infusible on heating and cannot be softened again. For example, Bakelite, and Melamine formaldehyde.

Question 12.
Write the monomers used for getting the following polymers:

1. Polyvinyl chloride
2. Teflon
3. Bakelite.

Answer:

1. Vinyl chloride (CH₂ = CH – Cl)
2. Tetrafluoroethylene (CF₂ = CF₂)
3. Phenol (C₆H₅OH) and Formaldehyde (HCHO).

Question 13.
Write the name and structure of one of the common initiators used in free radical addition polymerization.
Answer:
Benzoyl peroxide:

Question 14.
How does the presence of double bonds in rubber molecules influence their structure and reactivity ?
Answer:
From the structural point of view, the natural rubber is a linear cis- 1,4-poly iso- prene. In this polymer the double bonds are located between C₂ and C₃ of isoprene units. This cis-configuration about double bonds do not allow the chains to come closer for effective interactions and hence inter molecular forces are quite-weak. Therefore, natural rubber has coiled structure and show elasticity.

Question 15.
Discuss the main purpose of vulcanization of rubber.
Answer:
The main purpose of vulcanization of rubber is to improve the following draw-back of natural rubber:

• At high temperature (T >335K) natural rubber become soft.
• At low temperature (T< 283K) natural rubber becomes brittle.
• Natural rubber is soluble in non-polar solvents.
• It is non-resistant to attack by oxidizing agents.

Question 16.
What are the monomeric repeating units of Nylon-6 and Nylon-6,6 ?
Answer:
Nylon-6: Caprolactum Nylon-6,6: hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid.

Question 17.
Write the names and structures of the monomers of the following poly mers:
(i) Buna-S
(ii) Buna-N
(iii) Dacron
(iv) Neoprene.
Answer:
Names and structures of the monomers:

Question 18.
Identify the monomer in the following polymeric structures:

Answer:

Question 19.
How is dacron obtained from ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid ?
Answer:
Dacron is obtained by the polymerization of ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid.

Question 20.
What is a biodegradable polymer ? Give an example of a biodegradable aliphatic polyester.
Answer:
The polymers which are degraded by micro-organism within a suitable period of time so that the polymers and their degraded products do not cause any serious affects on the environment are called biodegradable polymers. An example of biodegradable aliphatic polyester is PHBV. (Poly-β-hydroxy butyrate – CO – β – hydroxyvalerate)

Polymers Other Important Exercises

Polymers Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which of the following is false:
(a) Artificial silk is derived from cellulose
(b) Nylon-6,6 is an example of elastomer
(c) The repeat unit in natural rubber is isoprene
(d) Both starch and cellulose are polymers of glucose.
Answer:
(b) Nylon-6,6 is an example of elastomer

Question 2.
Formation of polyethylene from calcium carbide takes place as follows:
CaC₂ + 2H₂O → Ca(OH)₂ + C₂H₂
C₂H₂ + H₂ → C₂H_4
nC₂ H₄ → (- CH₂ – CH₂ -)_n
The amount of polyethylene obtained from 64-0 kg CaC₂ is:
(a) 7 kg
(b) 14 kg
(c) 21 kg
(d) 28 kg.
Answer:
(d)28 kg.

Question 3.
Which of the following statements about low density polythene is false:
(a) Its synthesis requires high pressure
(b) It is a poor conductor of electricity
(c) Its synthesis requires dioxygen or a peroxide initiator as a catalyst
(d) It is used in the manufacture of buckets, dustbin etc.
Answer:
(d) It is used in the manufacture of buckets, dustbin etc.

Question 4.
Nylon is an example of:
(a) Polyamide
(b) Polythene
(c) Polyester
(d) Polysaccharide.
Answer:
(a) Polyamide

Question 5.
Natural rubber has:
(a) Alternate cis- and tnms-configuration
(b) Random cis- and /ram-configuration
(c) All cis-configuration
(d) All trans-configuration.
Answer:
(c) All cis-configuration

Question 6.
Which of the following is not a condensation polymer :
(a) Melamine
(b) Glyptal
(c) Dacron
(d) Neoprene.
Answer:
(d) Neoprene.

Question 7.
Which is a monomer of neoprene in the following :

Answer:

Question 8.
Which of the following is a biodegradable polymer:
(a) Polythene
(b) Bakelite
(c) PHBV
(d) P.V.C.
Answer:
(c) PHBV

Question 9.
Which of the following has ester linkage:
(a) Nylon
(b) Bakelite
(c) Terylene
(d) P.V.C.
(e) Rubber.
Answer:
(c) Terylene

Question 10.
Teflon is a polymer of:
(a) Tetrafluoroethylene
(b) Tetraiodoethylene
(c) Tetrabromoethylene
(d) Tetrachloroethylene.
Answer:
(a) Tetrafluoroethylene

Question 11.
Nylon threads are made up of:
(a) Polyamide polymer
(b) Polyethylene polymer
(c) Polyvinyl polymer
(d) Polyester polymer.
Answer:
(a) Polyamide polymer

Question 12.
Bakelite is a polymer of:
(a) HCHO and acetic acid
(b) HCHO and phenol
(c) C₂H₅OH and phenol
(d) CH₃COOH and benzene,
Answer:
(b) HCHO and phenol

Question 13.
Which of the following is a biodegradable polymer:
(a) Cellulose
(b) Polyethene
(c) Polyvinylchloride
(d) Nylon-6.
Answer:
(a) Cellulose

Question 14.
Nylon-6,6 is not a:
(a) Condensation polymer
(b) Copolymer
(c) Polyamide
(d) Homopolymer.
Answer:
(d) Homopolymer.

Question 15.
Which of the following is a chain-growth polymer:
(a) Starch
(b) Nucleic acid
(c) Poly styrene
(d) Protein
Answer:
(c) Poly styrene

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. …………… Is used for the preparation of chloroprene.
2. Charge on polymers is ……………
3. Molecular mass of polymers is ……………
4. Glucose is a monomer of ……………
5. Cellulose is a …………… polymer.
6. Polymer of ethylene glycol and phthalic acid is ……………
7. Rubber is a …………… polymer.
8. Vulcanisation of rubber is an example of ……………
9. Bakelite is a …………… polymer.
10. Polymer used for making pipes is ……………
11. Nylon 6 is also called ……………
12. Teflon is a polymer of ……………

Answer:

1. Synthetic rubber
2. Nil (zero)
3. High
4. Cellulose and starch
5. Natural
6. Glyptal
7. Natural
8. Elastomer
9. Heat resistant
10. PVC
11. Perlon-L
12. Tetra fluoro ethylene.

Question 3.
Match the following:

Answer:

1. (d) Polyethylene glycol phthalate
2. (a) Adipic acid and hexa methylene diamine
3. (c) Caprolactum
4. (f) Lucite
5. (b) Melamine
6. (g) Polytetrafluoroethene
7. (e) Dacron
8. (h) Bakelite.

Question 4.
Answer in one word / sentence:

1. Give two examples of natural polymer.
2. Give two examples of addition polymer.
3. Give two examples of condensation polymer.
4. Write chemical name of Buna rubber.
5. What is Buna-S ?
6. Give an example of synthetic rubber.
7. Monomer of polythylene is.
8. Give the name of polymer used for formation of tyre thread.
9. Name the polymerisation which takes place by addition of two or more than two different monomers.
10. Name the polymer which is formed by condensation of ethylene glycol and dimethyl terephthalic acid.

Answer:

1. Natural polymer-Rubber, starch
2. (i) Polythene
   (ii) Polypropylene
3. (i) Nylon
   (ii) Bakelite
4. Styrene Butadiene rubber
5. It is a co-polymer of Butadiene and styrene. Bu is for Butadiene Na for sodium and S-for styrene
6. Styrene Butadiene rubber (S.B.R.)
7. Ethylene
8. Terylene
9. Co-polymerisation
10. Terylene.

Polymers Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Can a copolymer be formed both in addition and condensation polymeri-zation ?
Answer:
Yes, it can be formed in both the cases, e.g., buna-S is a copolymer of styrene, 1,3 – butadiene and sodium and is an addition polymer. Nylon-6,6 is a condensation co-polymer in which monomers are different, i.e., adipic acid and hexamethylene diamine.

Question 2.
What is the difference between two notations: nylon-6 and nylon-6,6 ?
Answer:
Nylon-6 is obtained from caprolactum which is obtained from cyclohexane. It has only one compound having 6 carbon atom.
Nylon-6,6 refers to polymer obtained from 6 carbon atom of dicarboxylic acid (adipic acid) and 6 carbon atoms of diamine.

Question 3.
Arrange the following polymers in the increasing order of their intermo – lecular forces. Also classify them as addition and condensation polymer. Nylon-6,6, Buna-S, Polythene.
Answer:

• Polythene < buna-S < nylon-6,6.
• Nylon – 6,6 – condensation polymer
• buna – S, polythene – addition polymer.

Question 4.
How do thermoplastic polymer differ from thermosetting polymer ?
Answer:
Difference between Thermoplastic polymer and Thermosetting polymer:
Thermoplastic:

• These are linear polymers.
• Weak van der Waals’ force is present in the form of intermolecular force which on heating becomes soft and melts.
• It can be remoulded into different shapes again and again. Example: Polystyrene, P.V.C., terylene etc.

Thermosetting:

• These are cross-linked polymers.
• Due to presence of chemically cross – linked bonds thermo setting polymers become non-fusible and do not melt on heating.
• They become hard at the time of mould ing and therefore cannot be remoulded. Example: Formaldehyde, resin, glyptal etc.

Question 5.
Are polyesters and polyacrylates same ? Justify your answer.
Answer:
Polyesters and polyacrylates are different types of polymer and differ in following ways:

• Polyacrylates are homopolymer, while the polyesters are co-polymer in nature.
• The mode of synthesis of polyacrylates is addition polymerization, while those of polyester is condensation polymerization.
• Polymerization occurs across C = C bond in polyacrylates whereas, in polyesters it is through ester linkage.

Question 6.
Why should one always use the purest form of monomer in free radical polymerization reaction ?
Answer:
In free radical polymerization, the impurities can act as chain transfer agent and may combine with the free radical to slow down the reaction or even stop the reaction.

Question 7.
List some important differences between Natural rubber and Vulcanization of rubber.
Answer:
Differences between Natural rubber and Vulcanisation of rubber:
Natural rubber:

• It is soft and sticky.
• It has low tensile strength.
• It has low elasticity.
• It can be used over a narrow range of temperature (10°C to60°C).

Vulcanisation of rubber:

• It is hard and non-sticky.
• It has high tensile strength.
• It has high elasticity.
• It can be used over a wide range of temperature (40°C to 100°C).

Question 8.
What are polythene ? Write its two uses.
Answer:
It is prepared by heating ethylene at about 473 K under high pressure (1500-2000 atm) in presence of a very small amount of oxygen.

Uses:

• It is used for packaging.
• It is used as an insulator for electrical wires and cables.
• In the manufacture of pipes, bottles, etc.

Question 9.
What is neoprene rubber ? Write its uses.
Answer:
Neoprene is a thermoplastic polymer of 2 – chloro – 1, 3 – butadiene (Chloroprene).
Method of preparation: By polymerisation of chloroprene in presence of potassium persulphate.

Uses:

• For making petrol delivery pipes.
• For making conveyer belts used in coal mines.

Question 10.
What is PVC ? Write its uses.
Answer:
Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) is a higher polymer of vinyl chloride.

Preparation:
It is prepared by heating vinyl chloride in an inert solvent in the presence of benzoyl peroxide

Uses:
It is used for making plastic pipes, gramophone records, toys, buckets, electric insulators, raincoat, hand bag and water proof substances

Question 11.
What is teflon ? Write its uses.
Answer:
It is a polymer obtained by the polymerization of tetrafluoroethylene in presence of benzoyl peroxide.

Uses: For making gasket, packing of pump, valve seal, bearing, etc.

Question 12.
What is cellulose ? Write its uses.
Answer:
Cellulose is a natural polysaccharide, molecular formula of cellulose is (C₆H₁₀O₅)n. It is the main constituent of cell wall of plants and is also found in the tissues of some animals. Wood contain 60% and cotton 90% of cellulose. It is an organic compound found in abundance in nature.
Uses:
It is used to manufacture semi synthetic polymer, artificial thread and plastic.

Question 13.
What is Zieglar – Natta catalyst ? Write its uses.
Answer:
Zieglar – Natta catalyst:
Mixture of titanium tetrachloride and aluminium compound in an inert solvent (hexane) is called Zieglar – Natta catalyst.

Uses:
(i) At low pressure and temperature polythene is formed from ethylene.

It is used for making toys, radio, T.V., cabinet.

(ii) At low temperature and pressure, propylene in presence of Zieglar – Natta catalyst form polypropylene

It is used for making bottles, pipes, gramophone records.

Question 14.
Differentiate between Nylon – 6 and Nylon-6,6.
Answer:
Difference between Nylon-6 and Nylon-6,6 polymer:

Nylon-6:

• This is prepared by the condensation of caprolactam molecules.
• Caprolactam contains a chain of 6 atoms hence this polymer is nylon-6.
• It is used in sheets, bristles for brushes. Crinkled nylon is also used in elastic hosiery.

Nylon-6,6:

• This is obtained by the condensation of hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid monomers.
• Adipic acid and hexamethylenedi amine both the compounds contain a chain of 6 carbons hence the polymer is called nylon-6, 6.
• It is used in manufacture of tyres, cords, fabrics and ropes.

Question 15.
Describe the preparation, properties and uses of teflon.
Answer:
Teflon or Polytetrafluoroethylene (PTFE):
This is obtained by the polymer – ization of tetrafluoroethylene. Tetrafluoroethylene is heated under pressure in the presence of ammonium peroxosuiphate.

Properties:

• It is hard, heat resistant and chemically inert. It melts at 330 °C. It is unaffected by concentrated acids (cone. HNO₃, cone. H₂SO₄, cone. HCl), aqua regia and concentrated sodium hydroxide solution even at high temperature.
• It is bad conductor of electricity.

Uses:

• It is used in making cans used to store concentrated acid, aqua regia etc.
• It is used as a non sticky coating on utensils.

Question 16.
How is bakelite prepared ? Write its uses also.
Answer:
Bakelite is cross – linked polymer. It is prepared by condensation of phenol and formaldehyde in presence of alkali.

Uses:
Soft bakelite formed due to less polymerization are used as binder in wooden items, in varnishes and liquors. Hard bakelite are formed by high degree of polymerization and are used for manufacture of electrical goods, comb, fountain pens, gramophone records, table tops like pharmica, etc.

Question 17.
Write the method of preparation, properties and uses of Nylon-6,6.
Answer:
Preparation:
Nylon is a polymer containing amideNylon-6,6 is prepared by the polymerization of hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid. The meaning of 6,6 is that in the polymer chain both acid and diamine molecules contain 6-6 carbon atoms.

Properties:

• Nylon threads possess high tensile strength.
• They are hard.
• They are elastic in nature.
• Structure of nylon is like protein.

Uses:

• It is used for coating of wire, cables and other electrical goods because PVC is a good insulator of electricity.
• It is used for making plastic pipes, gramophone records, hand bags, raincoats, inflatable toys, etc.
• For making vinyl flooring, shower, curtains, false ceiling, wall covering, doors and windows.
• For making shoes heals and foot wear.
• For making sheets of tank-linkings, raincoats, lacquers, rods, tubes, packings, table cloths, light fittings, safety helmets, refrigeration components, trays, cycles, motorcycle mudguards, flexible articles such as toys, insulators, leather clothes, dolls, dipped goods such as protective gloves.
•  It is used in manufacture of types cords, fabrics and ropes.

Polymers Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are natural polymer ? Explain some polymers with example.
Answer:
Natural polymers:
Those polymers which are found in nature (generally in plants and animals) are called natural polymers. The followings are their example:

(a) Polysaccharides:
Starch and cellulose are important example of polysaccharides. They are the polymers of glucose. Cellulose is the main structural material of plants. Plants store their food in the form of starch.

(b) Proteins:
Proteins are polymers of a-amino acids. They are the main constituents of animal cells. Natural silk, wool and leather are some examples.

(c) Nucleic acids:
The polymers of nucleic acids are called nucleotides. Their impor-tant examples are RNA and DNA.

(d) Natural rubber:
Natural rubber is prepared from latex which is obtained from rubber tree. It is a polymer of 2-methyl-1, 3-butadiene (isoprene). It may be noted that polymers like polysaccharides, nucleic acids, proteins, etc. which control various life processes in plants and animals are also called biopolymers.

Question 2.
On the basis of structure polymers are of how many types ? Explain.
Answer:
Classification based on structure:
This classification is based upon how the monomeric units are linked together. The polymers of this class are of three types:

(i) Linear polymers:
In this type of polymers, the monomer units are linked together to form long linear chains. These linear chains are placed one above the other and are closely packed in space. If A is the monomeric unit then linear chain is formed as given in Fig.

Characteristics:
Due to close packed structure, they have high densities, high tensile strength and high melting point, e.g., polythene, nylon, polystyrene, etc.

(ii) Branched chain polymers:
In this type of polymers, the monomer units combine to form a long chain which is called the main chain. Many side chains are connected to the main chain. The side chains of different lengths constitute branches, e.g., A is the monomeric unit which forms a straight linear chain (main chain). Side chain of A is connected to main chain as shown in Fig. They are not closely packed.

Characteristics:
Due to irregular packed structure, branched chain polymers have low densities, low tensile strength and low melting point, e.g., low density polythene, amylopectin, glycogen, etc.

(iii) Cross-linked polymers:
In these polymers, the monomer units combine to form a three-dimensional network.

Characteristics:
They are hard, rigid and brittle due to cross-linked structure, e.g., bakelite, melamine, etc.

MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions

MP Board Class 12th Economics Important Questions Unit 5 माँग तथा पूर्ति वक्रों के सरल अनुप्रयोग

माँग तथा पूर्ति वक्रों के सरल अनुप्रयोग Important Questions

माँग तथा पूर्ति वक्रों के सरल अनुप्रयोग वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए –

प्रश्न (a)
प्रशासकीय कीमत है –
(a) कीमत सीमा
(b) कीमत तल
(c) और (b) दोनों
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं।
उत्तर:
(c) और (b) दोनों

प्रश्न (b)
गेहूँ का न्यूनतम समर्थन मूल्य कहलाता है –
(a) कीमत सीमा
(b) कीमत तल
(c) बाजार कीमत
(d) साम्य कीमत।
उत्तर:
(b) कीमत तल

प्रश्न (c)
साधन, कीमत निर्धारण के निम्न में से कौन – से घटक हैं –
(a) लगान
(b) मजदूरी
(c) ब्याज
(d) उपर्युक्त सभी।
उत्तर:
(d) उपर्युक्त सभी।

प्रश्न (d)
साम्य कीमत का निर्धारण निम्न में से किसके द्वारा स्थापित होता है –
(a) माँग
(b) पूर्ति
(c) (a)और (b) दोनों
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं।
उत्तर:
(c) (a)और (b) दोनों

प्रश्न (e)
निम्न में से कौन – सा कथन सही है –
(a) श्रम की माँग उत्पादक द्वारा की जाती है
(b) श्रम की माँग उसकी उत्पादकता पर निर्भर करती है
(c) श्रम की सीमान्त उत्पादकता उसकी अधिकतम मजदूरी होती है।
(d) उपर्युक्त सभी।
उत्तर:
(d) उपर्युक्त सभी।

प्रश्न (f)
अधिमाँग देखने को मिलता है –
(a) बाजार निर्धारित कीमत में
(b) निम्नतम निर्धारित कीमत में
(c) उच्चतम निर्धारित कीमत में
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं।
उत्तर:
(c) उच्चतम निर्धारित कीमत में

प्रश्न 2.
रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिए –

1. कीमत सीमा तथा कीमत तल को …………………………………. कीमतें भी कहते हैं।
2. निम्नतम निर्धारित कीमत का दूसरा नाम कीमत ………………………………… है।
3. आधुनिक विचारधारा के अनुसार, लगान साधन की ………………………………… के कारण उत्पन्न होती है।
4. FAD सिद्धांत ……………………………. द्वारा प्रस्तुत किया गया।
5. साधन माँग …………………………… माँग होती है।

उत्तर:

1. प्रशासकीय
2. तल
3. विशिष्टता
4. प्रो. अमर्त्य सेन
5. व्युत्पन्न।

प्रश्न 3.
सत्य /असत्य बताइये –

1. कीमत सीमा निर्धारण का उद्देश्य लाभ प्राप्त करना है।
2. कीमत तल को निम्नतम निर्धारित कीमत भी कहते हैं।
3. स्वतंत्र बाजार व्यवस्था में वस्तुओं व सेवाओं की कीमतों का निर्धारण, माँग और पूर्ति शक्तियों के द्वारा होता है।
4. कीमत सीमा व कीमत तल बाजार उन्मुख कीमतों से भिन्न होती है।

उत्तर:

1. असत्य
2. सत्य
3. सत्य
4. सत्य।

प्रश्न 4.
सही जोड़ियाँ बनाइये –

उत्तर:

1. (b)
2. (c)
3. (a)

प्रश्न 5.
एक शब्द/वाक्य में उत्तर दीजिये –

1. साम्य कीमत से अधिक, कीमत निर्धारण क्या कहलाता है?
2. कीमत सीमा के परिणामस्वरूप कौन-सी समस्या उत्पन्न होती है? कोई एक बताइए।
3. उत्पादकों के हितों की रक्षा किस कीमत से होती है?
4. वस्तु की कीमत का निर्धारण किसके द्वारा होता है?

उत्तर:

1. कीमत तल
2. कालाबाजारी
3. कीमत तल
4. माँग व पूर्ति, द्वारा।

माँग तथा पूर्ति वक्रों के सरल अनुप्रयोग अति लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न
प्रश्न 1.
प्रशासकीय कीमत किसे कहते हैं?
उत्तर:
किसी वस्तु या सेवा की सरकार द्वारा निर्धारित ऊपरी सीमा या न्यूनतम सीमा पर कीमत निर्धारित की जाती है तो उसे प्रशासकीय कीमत कहते हैं।

प्रश्न 2.
कीमत तल किसे कहते है?
उत्तर:
किसी वस्तु या सेवा की सरकार द्वारा निर्धारित न्यूनतम सीमा को कीमत तल या निम्नतम निर्धारित कीमत कहते हैं।

प्रश्न 3.
सरकार द्वारा उच्चतम निर्धारित कीमतों के दो परिणाम लिखिए?
उत्तर:

1. लम्बा इन्तजार
2. बजट या भार।

प्रश्न 4.
कीमत तल के उदाहरण लिखिए?
उत्तर:
कीमत तल का उदाहरण न्यूनतम मजदूरो विधान के अंतर्गत सरकार श्रमिकों को दी जाने वाली मजदूरी की न्यूनतम सीमा को निर्धारित कर देती है।

प्रश्न 5.
एक निश्चित मजदूरी स्तर के बाद श्रम का पूर्ति वक्र बायीं ओर क्यों मुड़ जाता है?
उत्तर:
एक सीमा के पश्चात् मजदूरी दर के बढ़ने पर श्रम की पूर्ति कम होने लगती है क्योंकि एक सीमा से अधिक मजदूरी मिल जाने पर श्रमिक काम की तुलना में आराम अधिक पसन्द करने लगते हैं। ऐसी स्थिति में श्रम का पूर्ति वक्र पीछे की ओर मुड़ता हुआ वक्र बन जाता है।

प्रश्न 6.
प्राकृतिक विपदाएँ भुखमरी कैसे लाती हैं?
उत्तर:
प्राकृतिक विपदाएँ जैसे – बाढ़, सूखा इत्यादि आवश्यक खाद्यान्न उत्पादन में कमी लाती हैं जिसके कारण खाद्यान्न की पूर्ति; माँग की तुलना में गिरती है। पूर्ति के सापेक्ष खाद्यान्न की अतिरिक्त माँग खाद्यान्न की कीमतों में वृद्धि करती है जिसके परिणामस्वरूप गरीब व्यक्ति खाद्यान्न उपलब्धता से वंचित हो जाते हैं और क्षेत्र में भुखमरी की समस्या उत्पन्न हो जाती है।

MP Board Class 12th Economics Important Questions

MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 13 Amines

Amines NCERT Intext Exercises

Question 1.
Classify the following amines as primary, secondary or tertiary:


(iii) (C₂H₅)₂CHNH₂
(iv) (C₂H₅)₂NH.
Answer:

1. Primary (1°)
2. Tertiary (3°)
3. Primary (1°)
4. Secondary (2°).

Question 2.
(i) Write structures of different isomeric amines corresponding to the molecular formula, C₄H₁₁N.
(ii) Write IUPAC names of all the isomers.
(iii) What type of isomerism is exhibited by different pairs of amines ?

Isomerism:
(i)-(iv) and (vi)-(vii) are Position isomers, (v)-(vi) and (v)-(vii) are Metamers, (i)-(ii), (iii)-(iv) and (i)-(iii) are Chain isomers.

Question 3.
How will you convert:
(i) Benzene into aniline,
(ii) Benzene into N, N-dimethylaniline,
(iii) Cl – (CH₂)₄ – Cl into hexane -1, 6 – diamine.
Answer:

Question 4.
Arrange the following in increasing order of their basic strength:

1. C₂H₅NH₂, C₆₂H₅NH₂,NH₃, C₆H₅CH₂NH₂ and (C₂H₅)₂NH
2. C₂H₅NH₂, (C₂H₂)₂NH, (C₂H₅)₃N, C₆H₅NH₂
3. CH₃NH₂, (CH₃ )₂NH, (CH₃ )₃N, C₆H₅NH₂ , C₆H₅CH₂NH₂.

Answer:

1. C₆H₅NH₂ < NH₃ < C₆H₅CH₂NH₂ < C₂H₅NH₂ < (C₂H₅)₂NH
2. C₆H₅NH₂ < C₂H₅NH₂< (C₂H₅)₃N < (C₂H₅)₂NH
3. C₂H₅NH₂ < C₆H₅CH₂NH₂ < (CH₃)₃N < CH₃NH₂ < (CH₃)₂NH.

Question 5.
Complete the following acid-base reactions and name the products :
(i) CH₃CH₂CH₂NH₂ + HCl → ?
(ii) (C₂HCl)₃N + HCl → ?
Ans.

Question 6.
Write reactions of the final alkylation product of aniline with excess of methyl iodide in the presence of sodium carbonate solution.
Answer:

Question 7.
Write chemical reaction of aniline with benzoyl chloride and write the name of the product obtained.
Answer:

Question 8.
Write structures of different isomers corresponding to the molecular formula, C₃H₉N. Write IUPAC names of the isomers which will liberate nitrogen gas on treatment with nitrous acid.
Answer:
(a) C₃H₉N has four structural isomers.
These are:

Question 9.
Convert:
(i) 3-Methylaniline into 3 – nitrotoIuene
(ii) Aniline into 1,3, 5 – tribromobenzene
Answer:

Amines NCERT Text – Book Exercises

Question 1.
Write IUPAC names of the following compounds and classify them into primary, secondary and tertiary amines:

1. (CH₃)₂CHNH₃
2. CH₃ (CH₂ )₂ NH ₂
3. CH₃NHCH(CH₃)₂
4. (CH₃)₃CNH₂
5. C₆H₅NHCH₃
6. (CH₃CH₂)₃NCH₃
7. m – BrC₆H₄NH₃.

Answer:

1. Propan – 2 – amine (1°)
2. Propan – 1 – amine (1 °)
3. N – Methylpropan – 2 – amine (2°)
4. 2 – MethyIpropan – 2 – amine (3°)
5. N – Methylbenzenamine or A’-Methylaniline (2°)
6. N – Ethyl – A – Methylethanamine (3°)
7. 3 – Bromobenzenamine or 3-Bromoaniline (1°).

Question 2.
Give one chemical test to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds:

1. Methylamine and dimethylamine,
2. Secondary and tertiary amines,
3. Ethylamine and aniline
4. Aniline and benzylamine
5. Aniline and N- methylaniline.

Answer:
(i) By Carbylamine test:
Methylamine is a primary amine, therefore, it gives carbylamine test. In contrast, diethylamine is a secondary amine and hence does not give this test.

(ii) By Libermann Nitrosoamine test:
2° Amines on treatment with HNO₂(generates in situ by the action of HCl on NaNO₂) give yellow coloured oily N-nitrosoamine. For Example

N-Nitrosodiethylamine on warming with phenol and cone. H₂SO₂ gives a green solu-tion which when made alkaline with aqueous NaOH turns deep blue and then red on dilu-tion. Tertiary amines do not give this test.

(iii) Azodye test:
It involves the reaction of any aromatic primary amine with HNO₂ (NaNO₂ + dil. HCl) at 273 – 278 K followed by treatment with an alkaline solution of ( β – naphthol) when a brilliant yellow, orange or red coloured dye is obtained

Aliphate primary amines under these conditions give a brisk evolution of N₂ gas with the formation of priamary alcohols i.e. the solution remains clear.

(iv) Aniline gives dye test (see, iii):
Benzyl amine reacts with nitrous acid to form benzyl alcohol and nitrogen gas (seen as bubbles).
C₆H₅CH₂NH₂ + NaOH → C₆H₅CH₂OH + N₂+ H₂O

(v) These can be distinguished by carbylamine test:
Aniline being primary amines gives carbylamine test i.e. when heated with an alcoholic solution of KOH and CHCl₂, it gives foul smell of phenylisocyanide.

Methylaniline forms nitrosoamine (yellow oily liquid) on treatment with nitrous acid, which is stable at room temperature. However, on reaction with HCl in ether and alcohol, the nitroso (- NO) group migrates to para position.

Question 3.
Account for the following:

1. pK_b of aniline is more than that of methylamine.
2. Ethylamine is soluble in water whereas aniline is not.
3. Methylamine in water reacts with ferric chloride to precipitate hydrated ferric oxide.
4. Although amino group is O – and p – directing in aromatic electrophilic substitution reactions, aniline on nitration gives a substantial amount of m-nitroaniline.
5. Aniline does not undergo Friedel- Crafts reaction.
6. Diazonium salts of aromatic amines are more stable than those of aliphatic amines.
7. Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is preferred for synthesizing primary amines.

Answer:

(i) In aniline, the lone pair electrons on the N-atoms are delocalized over the benzene ring thereby decreasing the electron density on the N – atom. In contrast, in CH₃NH₂, + 1 effect of CH₃ increases the electron density on the N-atom. Therefore, aniline is a weaker base than methylamine and hence its pK_b value is higher than that of methylamine.

(ii) Ethylamine dissolves in water due to inter molecular H-bonding. In aniline, due to the large hydrophobic part, i.e. hydrocarbon part, the extent of H – bonding decreases considerably and hence, aniline is insoluble in water.

(iii) Methylamine being more basic than water, accepts a proton from water liberating OH^– ions,

These OH^– ions combine with Fe⁺³ ions present in H₂O to form brown ppt. of hydrated ferric oxide.
FeCl₃ → Fe⁺³+ 3Cl^–
2Fe⁺³+ 6OH^–→ 2Fe(OH)₃ or Fe₂O₃.3H₂O
Hydrates ferric oxide (Brown ppt.)

(iv) In strongly acidic medium (cone. HNO₃/conc. H₂SO₄), most of the aniline gets protonated to form anilinium ion \(\left(\stackrel{\ominus}{\mathrm{N}} \mathrm{H}_{3}\right)\) which is m – directing and deactivating while – NH₂ group in aniline is o, p – directing and activating. That is why besides the o, p – deriva- tives, significant amount of meta derivative is also formed.

(v) Aniline being a Lewis base reacts with Lewis acid AlCl₃ to form a salt.
C₆H₅NH₂+AlCl₃ → C₆H₅ N^⊖ H₂ AlCl₃^⊖
Lewis base    Lewis acid

Consequently, N of aniline acquires positive charge and thus acts a strong deactivating group for electrophilic substitution reaction. As a result, aniline does not undergo Friedel – Crafts reaction.

(vi) The diazonium salts of aromatic amines are more stable than those of aliphatic amines due to delocalization of the positive charge on the benzene ring.

(vii) Gabriel phthalimide reaction gives pure 1° amines without any contamination of 2° and 3° amines. Therefore, it is preferred for synthesizing 1° amines.

Question 4.
Arrange the following:
(i) In decreasing order of the pK_b values:
C₆H₅NH₂, C₆H₅NHCH₃, (C₂H₅)₂NH and C₆H₅NH₂

(ii) In increasing order of basic strength:
C₆H₅NH₂, C₆H₅N(CH₃)₂ ,(C₂H₅)₂NH and CH₃NH₂

(iii) In increasing order of basic strength:
(a) Aniline, p-nitroaniline and p – toluidine
(b) C₆H₅NH₂, C₆H₅NHCH₃, C₆H₅CH₂NH₂

(iv) In decreasing order of basic strength in gas phase:
C₂H₅NH₂, (C₂H₅)₂NH, (C₂H₅)₃N and NH₃

(v) In increasing order of boiling point:
C₆H₅OH, (CH₃)₂NH, C₂H₅NH₂

(vi) In increasing order of solubility in water:
C₆H₅NH₂, (C₂H₅)₂NH, C₂H₅NH₂.

Answer:
(i) Due to delocalization of lone pair of electrons of the N-atom over the benzene ring, C₆H₅NH₂ and C₆H₅NHCH₃ are for less basic than C₂H₅NH₂ and (C₂H₅)₂ NH. Further, due to + I effect of the CH₃ group, C₆H₅NHCH₃ is slightly more basic than C₆H₅NH₂.

Among C₂H₅NH₂ and (C₂H₅)₂NH, (C₂H₅)₂NH is more basic than C₂H₅NH₂ due to greater + 1 effect of the two C₂H₅groups. Combining all these facts, the relative basic strength of these four amines decreases in the order.(C₂H₂)₂NH > C₂H₂NH₂ > C₆H₅NHCH₂> C₂H₅NH₂

Since, a stronger base has lower pK_b value, therefore pK_b values decreases in the reverse order:
C₆H₅ NH₂ > C₆H₅NHCH₃ > C₂H₅NH₂ > (C₂H₂)₂NH

(ii) As explained in –
Answer:
(a) the relative basic strength of the amines decreases in the order:
(C₂H₅)₂NH > C₆H₅NHCH₃ > C₆H₅NH₂

Among CH₃NH₂ and (C₂H₅)₂NH, due to the greater + I effect of the two C₂H₅ groups, (C₂H₅)₂ is more basic than CH₃NH₂. Thus, the basic strength of the four amines decreases in the order: (C₂H₅)₂NH > CH₃NH₂> C₆H₅NHCH₃ > C₆H₅NH₂

(iii) (a) The electron-donating groups increases the basic strength of amines while the electron-withdrawing groups decreases the basic strength. Therefore, basicity increases in the order:
p-nitroaniline < aniline < p – toludine.

(b) In C₆H₅NH₂ and C₆H₅NHCH₃, N is directly attached to the benzene ring and thus the lone pair of electrons on the N-atom is delocalized over the benzene ring. Therefore, both C₆H₅NH₂ and C₆H₅NHCH₃ are weaker bases than C₆H₅C H₂NH₂. Furthers due to + I effect of CH₃ group. C₆H₅NHCH₃ is a stronger base than C₆H₅NH₂.

The basic strength increases in the order:
C₆H₅NH₂ < C₆H₅NHCH₃ < C₆H₅CH₂NH₂

(iv) Solvent effects, i.e. stabilization of the conjugate acids due to H-bonding are absent in the gas phase. In the gas phase, basic strength mainly depends upon the + I effect of the alkyl groups. Thus, basic strength in the gas phase decreases in the order:
(C₆H₅)₃N > (C₂H₅)₂NH > C₂H₅NH₂> NH₃

(v) Since, the electronegativity of ‘O’ is higher than that of N, alcohols form stronger H-bonds than amines. Further, the extent of H-bonding depends upon the number of H – atoms on the N-atoms. Thus, the inter molecular forces are in the order C₂H₅ – OH > C₅H₅NH₂ > (CH₃)₂NH. Therefore, the b.pts of the given three compounds increases in the order:
(CH₃)₂NH < C₂H₅NH₂ < C₂H₅OH

(vi) Solubility decreases with:
(a) Increase in molecular mass of amines due to increase in the size of the hydrophobic hydrocarbon part, and.
(b) Decrease in the number of H – atoms on the N-atom which undergo H-bonding.

Among the given compounds, C₆H₅NH₂has the highest molecular mass of 93 followed by (C₂H₅)₅NH with molecular mass of 73 while C₂H₅NH₂ has the lowest molecular mass of 45. Thus, the solubility increases in the order in which molecular mass decreases i.e.,
C₆H₅NH₂ < (C₂H₅)₂NH < C₂H₅NH₂

Question 5.
How will you convert:

1. Ethanoic acid into methanamine
2. Hexanenitrile into 1 – aminopentane
3. Methanol to ethanoic acid
4. Ethanamine into methanamine
5. Ethanoic acid into propanoic acid
6. Methanamine into ethanamine
7. Nitromethane into dimethylamine
8. Propanoic acid into ethanoic acid.

Answer:

Question 6.
Describe a method for the identification of primary, secondary and tertiary amines. Also write chemical equations of the reactions involved.
Answer:
Heinsberg’s test:
This is a excellent test for distinguishing between primary, secondary and tertiary amines. The amine is treated with benzene sulphonyl chloride (Hinsberg’s reagent) in presence of excess of aqueous potassium hydroxide solution. (Refer text for details)

Question 7.
Write short notes on the following:

1. Carbylamine reaction
2. Diazotisation
3. Hofmann’s bromamide reaction
4. Coupling reaction,
5. Ammonolysis
6. Acetylation
7. Gabriel phthalimide synthesis.

Answer:

(i) Carbylamine reaction:
Primary aliphatic amine or aniline, when warmed with chloroform in presence of alcoholic KOH, gives iso cyanide or carbylamine, a compound with disagreeable odour. This reaction is known as Carbylamine reaction.
C₆H₅NH₂ (aniline)+ CHCl₃ + 3KOH → C₆H₅N \(\overrightarrow{=}\) C + 3KCl + H₂O aniline phenyl isocyanide

(ii) Diazotisation:
By action of NaNO₂ solution in ice cooled solution of aromatic amine formed inorganic acid, diazonium salts are obtained.

Diazonium salt contains diazo group (- N \(=\) N-) therefore, this process is called diazotization.

(iii) Hofmann’s bromamide reaction:
Primary aliphatic and aromatic amines can be prepared from amides by treatment with Br₂ and KOH. The amine formed contains one carbon atom less than the parent amide. Therefore, this method is used for stepping down the series in organic conversion. Due to this reason it is also known as Hofmann degradation.
RCONH₂ (Alkanamide ) + Br₂ + 3NaOH > RNH₂ (Alkanamine)+ 2NaBr+NaHCO₃ + H₂O

(iv) Coupling reaction:
Aniline reacts with diazonium chloride at ice cold temperature to give bright orange-red dye.

(v) Ammonoiysis:
It is a process of replacement of either halogen atom in alkyl halids (or aryl halides) or hydroxyl group in alcohols (or phenols) by amino group. The reagent used for ammonoiysis is alcoholic ammonia. Generally, a mixture of primary, secondary and tertiary Amine is fromed

(vi) Acetylation:
Aliphatic and aromatic primary and secondary amines react with acid chlorides, anhydrides and esters by nucleophilic substitution reaction. This reaction is amine is formed. considered as replacement of hydrogen atom of — NH2 or >NH group by acyl group. This reaction is known as acylation.

The reaction is carried out in the presence of a base stronger than amine like pyridine, which removes HCl so formed and shift the equilibrium towards right hand side. The product obtained by acylation reaction is known as amides.

(vii) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis:
In this reaction, potassium phthalimide react with alkyl halide to form N-methyl phthalimide which on hydrolysis give primary amine

Question 8.
Accomplish the following conversions:

1. Nitrobenzene to benzoic acid
2. Benzene to m – bromophenol
3. Benzoic acid to aniline
4. Aniline to 2,4,6 – tribromofluorobenzene
5. Benzyl chloride to 2 – phenylethanamine
6. Chlorobenzene to p – chloroaniline
7. Aniline to p – bromoaniline
8. Benzamide to toluene
9. Aniline to benzyl alcohol.

Answer:

Question 9.
Give the structures of A, B and C in the following reactions:

Answer:

Question 10.
An aromatic compound ‘A’ on treatment with aqueous ammonia and heating forms compound ‘B’ which on heating with Br₂ and KOH forms a compound ‘C’ of molecular formula C₆H₇N. Write the structures and IUPAC names of compounds A, B and C.
Answer:
Structures of compounds ‘B’ and ‘C’:
(i) Since, ‘C’ is formed from ‘B’ on treatment with Br₂ + KOH (i.e., Hofmann bromamide reaction), ‘B’ must be an amide and ‘C’ must be an amine. The only amine having the molecular formula C₆H₅NH₂ benzene amine or aniline).

(ii) Since, ‘C’ is aniline, the amide from which it is formed must be benzamide (C₆H₅CONH₂). Thus, compound ‘B’ is benzamide. The chemical equation showing the conversion of‘B’ to ‘C’ is,

Structure of compound ‘A’:
Since, ‘A’ on treatment with aqueous ammonia and heating forms benzamide ‘A’ must be benzoic acid.

Question 11.
Complete the following reactions:

(i) C₆H₅NH₂ + CHCl₃ + (afc.)KOH →
(ii) C₆H₅N₂Cl + H₃PO₂+H₂O →
(iii) C₆H₅NH₂+H₂SO₄(Conc.) →
(iv) C₆H₅N₂C1 + C₂H₅OH →
(v) C₆H₅NH₂ + Br_2 →
(vi) C₆H₅NH₂+ (CH₃CO)₂O →

Answer:

Question 12.
Why cannot aromatic primary amines be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis ?
Answer:
Gabriel Phthalimide reaction occurs through the nucleophilic attack by the phthalimide anion on the organic halogen compound.

Since, aryl halide do not undergo nucleophilic substitution reactions easily aromatic primary amines cannot be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide.

Question 13.
Write the reactions of:

1. Aromatic
2. Aliphatic primary amines with nitrous acid.

Answer:
(i) Aromatic primary amines react HNO₂ at 273 – 278 K to form aromatic diazonium salts.

(ii) Aliphatic primary amines also react with HNO₂ at 273-278 K to form aliphatic diazonium salt. But these are unstable even at this low temperature and thus decompose readily to form a mixture of compounds consisting of alkyl chlorides, alkenes and alcohols, out of which alcohols generally predominate.

Question 14.
Give plausible explanation for each of the following:

1. Why are amines less acidic than alcohols of comparable molecular masses ?
2. Why do primary amines have higher boiling point than tertiary amines ?
3. Why are aliphatic amines stronger bases than aromatic amines ?

Answer:
(i) Amines lose a proton to form an amide ion while alcohol lose a proton to give an alkoxide ion.

Since, ‘O’ is more electronegative than N, RO^– can accommodate the -ve charge more easily than the RNH^– ion. In
other words, RO- is more stable than RNH^– Thus, alcohols are more acidic than amines or amines are less acidic than alcohols.

(ii) Primary amines (R—NH₂) have two hydrogen atom on the N atom and so, they undergo extensive intermolecular H-bonding.

Tertiary amines (R3N) do not have hydrogen atoms on the N-atom and therefore, they do not undergo H-bonding. As a result, primary amines have higher boiling point than tertiary amines of comparable molecular mass. For example, Boiling point of H-butylamine (35 IK) is much higher than that of tertiary butylamine (b.p. 319 K).

Amines  Other Important Exercises

Amines  Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Aniline reacts with cold nitrous acid (NaNO₂ + HCl) and gives:
(a) C₆H₅OH
(b) C₆H₅N₂Cl
(C) C₆H₅NO₂
(d) C₆H₅Cl.
Answer:
(b) C₆H₅N₂Cl

Question 2.
A nitrogen-containing compound, on heating with chloroform and alcoholic KOH give vapours of disagreeable odour. The compound can be:
(a) Nitrobenzene
(b) Benzamide
(c) N-N, dimethylaniline
(d) Aniline.
Answer:
(d) Aniline.

Question 3.
Ethylamine reacts with nitrous acid to form:
(a) Ammonia
(b) Nitrous oxide
(c) Ethane
(d) Nitrogen.
Answer:
(d) Nitrogen.

Question 4.
A compound which gives oily nitrosoamine with nitrous acid at low temperature:
(a) Methyl amine
(b) Dimethyl amine
(c) Trimethyl amine
(d) Triethyl amine.
Answer:
(b) Dimethyl amine

Question 5.
Which of the following has strongest basic character:
(a) C₆H₅NH₂
(b) (CH₃)₂NH
(C) (CH₃)₃N
(d) NH₃.
Answer:
(b) (CH₃)₂NH

Question 6.
Benzene diazonium chloride gives on hydrolysis:
(a) Chlorobenzene
(b) Phenol
(c) Alcohol
(d) Benzene.
Answer:
(b) Phenol

Question 7.
In the reaction C₆H₅CHO + C₆H₅NH₂ → C₆H₅N = CHC₆H₅ + H₂O + C₆H₅N = CHC₆H₅ is known as:
(a) Aldol
(b) Schiff’s reagent
(c) Schiffs base
(d) Benedict reagent.
Answer:
(c) Schiffs base

Question 8.
Nitrobenzene gives N-phenyl hydroxyl amine when it reacts with:
(a) Sn/HCl
(b) C₆H₅CH₂NH-CH₃
(c) Zn / NaOH
(d) Zn / NH₄Cl.
Answer:
(c) Zn / NaOH

Question 9.
Which of the mixture when reacts with ale. KOH known as Carbyl amine reaction:
(a) Chloroform and Ag powder
(b) Trihalogenated methane and primary amine
(c) Alkyl trihalide and primary amine
(d) Alkyl cyanide and primary amine.
Answer:
(b) Trihalogenated methane and primary amine

Question 10.
Which of the following gas is responsible for Bhopal gas tragedy in 1984:
(a) CH₃ – N = C = O
(b) CH₃-C=N = S
(c) CHCl₃
(d) C₆H₅COCl.
Answer:
(a) CH₃ – N = C = O

Question 11.
Oil of Mirbane is:
(a) Aniline
(b) Nitrobenzene
(c) p-nitroaniline
(d) p-aminoazobenzene.
Answer:
(b) Nitrobenzene

Question 12.
The product of mustard oil reaction is:
(a) Alkyl isothiocyanate
(b) Dithiocarbonamide
(c) Dithioethyl acetate
(d) Thioether.
Answer:
(a) Alkyl isothiocyanate

Question 13.
Aniline is purified by:
(a) Steam distillation
(b) Vacuum distillation
(b) Simple distillation
(d) Solvent extraction.
Answer:
(a) Steam distillation

Question 14.
Amine which will not react with Acetyl chloride, is:
(a) CH₃NH₂
(b) (CH₃)₂NH
(c) (CH₃)₂N
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) (CH₃)₂N

Question 15.

(a) Gattermann’s reaction
(b) Sandmayer’s reaction
(c) Wurtz’s reaction
(d) Frankland’s reaction.
Answer:
(b) Sandmayer’s reaction

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. Aromatic amines are …………… in water.
2. Amines are benzolyate in presence of NaOH. This reaction is called ……………
3. By reacting with nitrous acid 1° amine form alcohol and 2° amine form ……………
4. Reaction of 2° amine with nitrous acid represent ……………
5. Aniline on sulphonation with sulphuric acid forms ……………
6. With metal (Transition metals) ions amine establish co-ordination and form ……………
7. By reduction, cyanide forms …………… and isocyanide forms ……………
8. Benzoic acid reacts with hydrozoic acid to form ……………
9. All aliphatic amines are more …………… than ammonia.
10. 1° and 2° amine react with Grignard reagent to form ……………
11. Basic nature of amine is due to the presence of …………… on nitrogen atom.
12. Primary amines on heating with …………… and …………… form alkyl isocyanides.
13. C₆H₅-COOH + …………… C₆H₅NH₂ + N₂ + CO₂.
14. Mixture of T.N.T. and ammonium nitrate is known as ……………
15. On reacting aniline with HCl and NaNO₂ at 0°C temperature benzene diazoniu chloride is formed. This is called…………… reaction.
16. Ethyl amine is a …………… base than ammonia.
17. Trinitrotoluene is an …………… compound.
18. On heating alkyl isocyanide to 250°C …………… is formed.

Answer:

1. Insoluble
2. Schotten Baumann
3. Nitrosamine
4. Libermann nitroso test
5. Sulphanilic acid
6. Complex ion
7. Primary amine, secondary amine
8. Aniline
9. Basic
10. Alkane
11. lone electron pair
12. Chloroform and caustic soda
13. N₃H
14. amytoi
15. diazotisation
16. stronger
17. explosive
18. Alkyl cyanide.

Question 3.
Match the followings:

1. (c) Nitrosoamine
2. (d) SchifFs base
3. (b) Chloropicrin
4. (e) Heinsberg reagent
5. (a) Aromatic primary amine
6. (g) Explosive.
7. (f) Smell of mustard oil

Answer:

1. (e) C₆H₅SO₂Cl
2. (d) Explosive
3. (a) Chloropicrin
4. (c) C₆H₅N₂Cl
5. (b) Alcohol

1. (d) Phenyl methyl amine
2. (e) N-Methyl Benzenamine
3. (a) N-Phenyl Benzenamine
4. (c) N-Methyl Ethanamine
5. (f) Prop-2-en-nitrile.
6. (b) 2-Ethyl propan-nitrile

Question 4.
Answer in one word/sentence:

1. Why aniline turns blackish brown in open air ?
2. Tertiary amine does not acetanilised, why ?
3. Which isomer of C₃H₉N is least basic and having lowest b.p. ?
4. Which amine gives diazotization reaction ?
5. The compound obtained when primary aromatic amine when heated with CHCl₃ and ale. KOH.
6. Secondary amine can be identified by.
7. What is nitrating mixture ?
8. Nitrobenzene is known as.
9. 
10. Write the nature of amine.
11. Primary nitroalkane reacts with nitrous acid to form which compound.
12. Reagent used for the separation of Primary Secondary and Tertiary amine.
13. What do 1° and 2° amine form on reacting with phosgene ?
14. 
15. What is obtained by reacting amines with chloroform?
16. In which form is amine used in organic synthesis ?
17. What does Ethylamine form on oxidation in the presence of KMnO₄  ?
18. On adding Br₂ water in aqueous solution of C₆H₅NH₂which precipitate is obtained ?
19. Which amine is obtained by the reduction of cyanide in the presence of Pt or Ni ?
20. Write the formula of X:
    
21. Write the name of reaction:
22. 
23. What is the name of reaction for preparation of methyl isocyanide ?

Answer:

1. Aniline oxidizes by air
2. Active hydrogen is absent
3. Tertiary amine
4. All primary aromatic amine
5. Phenyl isocyanide
6. By Libermann test
7. Cone. HNO₃ and cone. H₂SO₄
8. Oil of Mirbane
9. Diazotisation
10. Nitrolic acid
11. Basic
12. Heinsberg reagent
13. Substituted urea
14. Carbylamine reaction
15. Alkyl isocyanide
16. Reagent
17. Aldehyde
18. Symmetrical tribromoaniline
19. 1° amine
20. C₆H₅NH₂ (Aniline)
21. Schmidt reaction
22. Carbylamine reaction.

Amines  Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Aniline is insoluble in water but soluble in HCl. Explain.
Answer:
Being basic nature, aniline forms soluble salts with strong acids like HCl while with water no such salt is formed. Therefore, aniline is insoluble in water but soluble in HCl.

C₆H₅NH₂ + HCl → \(\left[\mathrm{C}_{6} \mathrm{H}_{5} \mathrm{NH}_{3}^{+}\right] \mathrm{Cl}^{-}\)Aniline hydrochloride

Question 2.
Write a short note on Schotten Baumann reaction.
Answer:
Aromatic acid chloride reacts with phenol and aniline in presence of aqueous NaOH or pyridine. The reaction is known as Schotten Baumann reaction.

Question 3.
What is ‘aniline black’ ? Write its two uses.
Answer:
When aniline is oxidised by acidic KMnO₄, a black substance is formed which is known as aniline black.
Uses:

• In manufacturing of black colour.
• In manufacturing of useful compounds.

Question 4.
(i) Boiling point of alkyl cyanides is higher than alkyl halides of nearly same molecular mass. Why ?
(ii) B.P. and M.P. of isocyanides are less than isomeric cyanide compounds. Why ?
Answer:
(i) Cyanide group (- C \(\cong\) N) is polar. Thus dipole moment of alkyl cyanide is higher due to which intermolecular force between them is higher. As a result boiling point of alkyl cyanide is higher than alkyl halides of nearly same molecular mass.

(ii) Isocyanide compounds are less polar than isomeric cyanides. Therefore, the boiling points and melting points of isocyanides are less than cyanides.

Question 5.
Complete the following reactions:
(a) C₂H₅I + H₂N – C₂H₅ →
(b)CH₂NH₂ + (NaNO₂ + HC1) →

Answer:
(a) This reaction is alkylation and ultimate product quartemary ammonium salt is formed

(b) CH₃NH₂ + (NaNO₂ + HCl) → CH₃OH + N₂ + H₂O

Question 6.
Ethyl amine is more basic than ammonia, why ?
Answer:
The value of K_a = 4.5 x 10^-4 for ethyl amine and for ammonia it is 1.8 x 10^-5. Larger is the K_b value, more basic is the amine and vice-versa. In ethyl amine the availabil-ity of lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom increases due to the +1 inductive effect of the ethyl group. Hence, this lone pair of electrons can easily accept a proton. This explains why ethyl amine is more basic than ammonia.

Question 7.
Write short notes on:

1. Schmidt reaction
2. Mustard oil reaction.

Answer:
(i) Schmidt reaction:
When hydrazoic acid dissolved in chloroform or benzene, react with mono carboxylic acid in presence of H₂SO₄ at 55°C, primary amine is obtained.

(ii) Mustard oil reaction:
When aliphatic primary amine is heated with carbon
disulphide and HgCl₂ alkyl isothiocyanate is formed, which has smell like mustard oil. Therefore, this reaction is called mustard oil reaction.

Question 9.
Give a Heinsberg method to identify primary, secondary and tertiary amines.
Answer:
Heinsberg method:
This method is capable to differentiate primary, secondary and tertiary amines. Amines are heated with benzene sulphonyl chloride (Heinsberg reagent) and various product are obtained.

1. Primary amine:
These form sulphonamide which are soluble in KOH.
C₆H₅SO₂Cl + R – NH₂ → C₆H₅SO₂(NHRN – alkyl benzene sulphonamide) + HCl

2. Secondary amine:
Secondary amine also form sulphonamide which are insoluble in KOH.

3. Tertiary amine : Tertiary amine does not react.
C₆H₅SO₂Cl + R₃N → No reaction

Question 9.
What is the difference between Alkyl nitrite and nitroalkane ?
Answer:
Nitrous acid exist in two isomeric forms:

Thus, two alkyl derivatives of nitrous acid are formed.

Thus, it is clear that in nitroalkane, alkyl radical is linked to nitrogen, whereas in alkylnitrite alkyl radical is linked to oxygen atom. Alkyl nitrite is ester whereas nitroalkane is the derivative of paraffin.

Question 10.
Write only chemical equation for the following conversions:
(i) Conversion of methyl cyanide into C₆H₅NH₂.
(ii) Conversion of C₆H₅NH₂ into chlorobenzene.
Answer:

Question 11.
Differentiate between primary, secondary and tertiary nitroalkane.
Answer:
Primary, secondary and tertiary nitroalkanes can be differentiated on the basis of following reaction:
(i) Primary nitroalkanes react with nitrous acid forming nitrolic acid which is soluble in NaOH or KOH forming red colour.

(ii) Secondary nitroalkane reacts with nitrous acid forming pseudonitrole which gives blue colour with NaOH.

(iii) Tertiary nitroalkane does not react with nitrous acid because it does not have hydrogen atom.

Question 12.
Write the points of difference between Ethyl amine and Aniline.
Answer:
Differences between Ethyl amine and Aniline:

Question 13.
Why can aromatic primary amine not be synthesized by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis.
Answer:
In Gabriel Phthalimide reaction potassium salt of phthalimide is formed. It easily reacts with alkyl halide and forms the related alkyl derivative.

But aryl halide do not react with potassium phthalimide because in haloarene (aryl halide) due to partial double bond character breaking of C – X bond is difficult. Thus, aromatic amine can not be prepared by Gabriel Phthalimide synthesis.

Question 14.
Write any four points to differentiate between Ethyl nitrite and nitro ethane.
Answer:
Difference between nitro ethane and ethyl nitrite.
1. Structure:

2. Boiling Point:
Boiling point of nitroethane is higher than Ethyl nitrite.

3. Reduction:
Nitroethane forms primary amine and ethyl nitrite forms ammonia.

4. Hydrolysis:
Nitroethane does not form alcohol with NaOH whereas Ethyl nitrite forms alcohol with NaOH.
C₂H₅ – O – N + NaOH → C₂H₅OH + NaNO₂

Question 15.
What is Mendius reaction ?
Ans. Reduction of alkyl cyanides by sodium and alcohols yield primary amine. This reaction is called Mendius reaction.

Question 16.
How will you obtain:

1. Ethyl amine from methyl cyanide
2. Methyl amine from acid amide
3. Ethyl amine from ethyl alcohol
4. Ethyl amine from methyl amine.

Answer:
1. Ethyl amine from methyl cyanide:

2. Methyl amine from acid-amide:
CH₃CONH₂ + Br₂ + 4KOH → CH₃ – NH₂ + 2KBr + K₂CO₃ + 2H₂O

3. Ethyl amine from ethylimg

4. Ethyl amine from methyl amine:

Question 17.
Write any four difference between ethyl cyanide and ethyl iso cyanide.
Answer:
Difference between ethyl cyanide and ethyl iso cyanide:

Question 18.
Give reaction of ethyl amine with following:
(a) HNO₂
(b) C₆H₅COCl
(C) CS₂.
Answer:
(a) HNO₂

(b) N-ethyl acetamide is formed
C₂H₅NH₂ + CH₃COCl → CH₃CONHC₂H₅ + HCl

(c) Ethyl isothiocyanate is formed. This reaction is also known as mustard oil reaction.

Question 19.
Why aniline is less basic than ethyl amine ?
Answer:
Aniline is less basic than ethyl amine as due to resonance of benzene nucleus, the lone pair of electron of nitrogen atom is attracted towards nucleus and gets delocalised in the ring. Thus, electron pair is liberated with difficulty in aniline than ethyl amine. Hence, its basic property is less than ethyl amine. The delocalisation of electron as a result of resonance is shown as follows:

Question 20.
Boiling point of aniline is higher than the hydrocarbons of comparable molecular masses, but lower than corresponding alcohols and carboxylic acids. Clarify the statement
Answer:
Primary amines are polar and in them dipolar [N^δ- – N^δ+] bond is present, in which molecules of amines are associated by hydrogen bond. That is why their boiling point is higher than alkanes of comparable molecular masses.

Due to lesser electronegativity of nitrogen than oxygen, association in alcohols and carboxylic acids occur due to strong H – bonds. Whereas in amines association is due to weak H — bond. Therefore, boiling and melting point of amines is lower than corresponding alcohols and carboxylic acids.

Question 21.
Explain nitration of Aniline.
Answer:
Direct nitration of aniline is not possible because NH₃ group gets oxidized by HNO₃ but on nitrating under
controlled conditions instead of o- and p- place m – nitroderivative is formed. In acidic medium due to protonation
of — NH₂ group, electron attracting tendency of NH₃⁺ formed increases by which instead of o- or p- directing Anilinium ion acts as m — directing.

Question 22.
Why is aniline acetylated before nitration ? Give necessary equation.
Or,
Direct nitration of aniline is not possible. Explain and how it is nitrated?
Answer:
Direct nitration of aniline is not possible because amino group of aniline is oxidised by nitric acid. So for nitration of aniline firstly amino group (- NH₂) is protected by acetylation and then nitrated.

Question 23.
How will you obtain: (Give only equations)

1. Methyl amine from Ethyl amine.
2. Phenol from Aniline.
3. Ethyl amine from methyl amine.

Answer:
1. Methyl amine from Ethyl amine:

2. Phenol from Aniline:

3. Ethyl amine from methyl amine:

Question 24.
Explain the following:

1. Preparation of pure amine is difficult by the ammonolysis of alkyl halide.
2. Methyl amine reacts with FeCl₃ in water to give precipitate of ferric hydroxide.
3. AgCl is soluble in methyl amine.

Answer:
1. By the ammonolysis of alkyl halide a mixture of primary, secondary and tertiary amine is obtained.

Separation of these amines is difficult; therefore it is difficult to obtain pure amine by ammonolysis of alkyl halide.

2. Methyl amine releases OH^– ion in water which reacts with FeCl₃ as follows to give precipitate of Fe(OH)₃.

3. Methyl amine forms a soluble complex with AgCl and this way AgCl is soluble in methyl amine.
AgCl + 2CH₃NH₂ → [Ag(CH₃NH₂ )₂ ]+ Cl_– Soluble complex

Amines Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write reduction reactions of nitro-benzene:
(a) In acid medium
(b) Neutral medium
(c) In basic medium.

Or,
Describe reduction reactions of nitro-benzene in different conditions.
Answer:
Reduction of Nitro-benzene:
Nitro-benzene is readily reduced. This gives different compounds under different conditions depending upon the pH of the medium and the nature of the reducing agent. The reduction takes place in three steps:

(a) Acidic medium:
When reduced with Sn + HCl or Fe + HCl, gives aniline.

(b) Neutral medium:
When reduced with aluminium mercury couple or zinc dust and ammonium chloride, phenyl hydroxyl amine is formed.

(c) In basic medium (Alkaline medium):
(i) Reduction with alkaline sodium arsenite:
Azoxy benzene is formed.

(ii) Reduction with zinc dust and caustic soda:
Hydrozo benzene is formed.

Question 2.
How will you obtain the following from aniline ? Give only chemical equation:
(a) Phenol
(b) Methane
(c) Tribromoaniline
(d) Phenylisocvanide.
Answer:
(a) Phenol:

(b) Methane:

(c) Tribromoaniline:
By treating aniline with bromine water, yellow coloured 2,4,6 – tribromoaniline is formed.

(d) Phenylisocyanide:

Question 3.
An organic compound [A] having molecular formula C₂H₅O₂ on reduction gives compound [B] which react with HNO₂ and form compound [C]. Compound [B] on reaction with chloroform alcoholic KOH, change into bad smelling compound [D]. Which on reduction forms amine [E]. Which formula will you assign for compound [A], [B], [C], [D] and [E] ? Explain reactions also.
Answer:
[A] → C₂H₅NO₂ (Nitro ethane)
[B] → C₂H₅NH₂(Ethyl amine)
[C] → C₂H₅OH (Ethanol)
[D] → C₂H₅N = C (Ethyl iso cyanide)
[E] → C₂H₅NHCH₃(N-methyl amino ethane)
Reactions:

Question 4.
How will you obtain the following:
(i) Sulphanilic acid from Aniline
(ii) p-amino azo benzene from aniline.
Answer:
(i) Sulphanilic acid from Aniline

(ii) p-amino azo benzene from aniline.

Question 5.
What happens when:
(a) Ammonium acetate is made to react with alumina at 500°C.
(b) Methyl cyanide is subjected to alkaline hydrolysis.
(c) Benzamide is treated with P₂Os.
(d) H₂ gas is passed through phenyl isocyanide in presence of Ni.
(e) Methyl isocyanide is heated at 250°C.
Answer:
(a) Methyl cyanide is formed.

(b) Ammonia gas is formed.

(c) Phenyl cyanide is formed.

(d) N-methyl aniline is formed.

(e) Methyl cyanide is formed.

Question 6.
How is primary amine obtained from nitro-alkane ? Give equation.
(ii) How is primary alcohol obtained from primary amine ? Give equation.
(iii) Among N-propyl amine and isopropyl amine which is more basic ?
Answer:
(i) Nitro-alkane is reduced by LiAlH₄ or by H₂ in presence of Ni or Pt to obtain primary amine.

(ii) Primary aliphatic amine react with nitrous acid to form primary alcohol.
C₂H₅NH₂ + HONO → C₂H₅OH + N₂ + H₂O
(iii) Normal propyl amine is more basic.

Question 7.
How will you obtain the following (Give only equation):
(a) Ethyl amine from nitroethane,
(b) N-methyl hydroxyl amine from nitroethane,
(c) Chloropicrin from nitromethane,
(d) Nitrobenzene from benzene diazonium chloride,
(e) Trinitrobenzene (T.N.B.)from nitrobenzene.
Answer:

Question 8.
Explain the laboratory method of preparation of ethyl amine under the following heads:
(a) Procedure
(b) Equation of reaction
(c) Diagram
(d) Physical properties.
Answer:
Laboratory method of preparation of ethyl amine: In laboratory ethyl amine is prepared by Hofmann Bromoamide reaction. In this process reaction of propanamide with bromine and caustic potash solution takes place. All steps in the process are following:
C₂H₅CONH₂ + Br₂ → C₂H₅CONHBr + HBr
KOH + HBr → KBr + H₂O
C₂H₅CONHBr + KOH → C₂H₅NCO + KBr + H₂O KOH-
C₂ H₅NCO + 2KOH → C₂H₅NH₂+K₂CO₃
C₂ H₅ CONH₂ + Br₂ + 4KOH → C₂H₅NH₂ + 2KBr + K₂CO₃ + 2H₂O

Procedure:
In a round bottom distillation flask equivalent quantities of bromine and propanamide is taken and 10% KOH solution is added in it. Now 50% KOH solution is added in excess and the flask is heated on water both up to 57-67°C. When the solution becomes colourless, ethyl amine starts to be distilled which is absorbed in dil. HCl.

Physical properties:
It is a colourless liquid with an odour like ammonia which is soluble in water and organic solvent. It is a combustible substance. Its boiling point is 19°C.

Question 9.
Write laboratory method of preparation of aniline. Give all chemical equations of this process.
Or
Describe commercial method of preparation of aniline.
Answer:
Laboratory Method for the Preparation of Aniline:
Aniline is prepared in the laboratory by the reduction of nitro-benzene with tin and hydrochloric acid.
C₆H₅NO₂ +6[H] C₆H₅NH₂ + 2H₂O

Experiment:
Nitro-benzene (20 g) and granulated tin (40 g) are taken in a round-bottom flask and a reflux condenser is fitted. Now hydrochloric acid (100 ml) is added in small amounts (10 ml at a time). The flask is shaken after each addition of acid and the temperature is not allowed to rise above 90° C. The flask is heated on a water bath till the smell of nitro-benzene disappears. On cooling the flask, a solid mass of molecular formula (C₆H₅ NH₂ .HCl)₂ .SnCl₄ separates out.
Sn + 4HCI → SnCI₄ + 4H
C₆H₅NO₂ + 6[H] ) → C₆H₅NH₂ + 2H₂O


The solid mass is treated with concentrated NaOH solution. So that a clear alkaline solution is obtained. Aniline is liberated and floats as a dark brown coloured oil.

From this aniline is obtained by steam distillation.
Commercially aniline is manufactured by reduction of nitrobenzene. This is done in presence of Fe water and cone. HCl.
Fe + 2HCl → FeCl₂ + 2H
C₆H₅ NO₂ + 6H → C₆H₅NH₂ + 2H₂O

Question 10.
Distinguish among p, s and t amines under the following points:

1. Reaction with HNO₂
2. Carbyl amine reaction
3. Mustard oil reaction
4. Reaction with acid halide
5. Reaction with alkyl halide
6. Reaction with C₆H₅SO₂Cl.

Answer:

Question 11.
Write down the chemical equation representing preparation of nitrobenzene in laboratory and give the following chemical reaction of nitrobenzene:
(a) Nitration
(b) Sulphonation.
Answer:
Preparation of nitrobenzene in laboratory: Nitrobenzene is prepared in laboratory by treating benzene with a mixture of cone. HNO₃ and cone. H₂SO₄ at 60°C.

Reaction of nitrobenzene:

(a) Nitration:
Nitrobenzene forms m – dinitrobenzene when heated with fuming HNO₃ and cone. H₂SO₄ .

(b) Sulphonation:
Nitrobenzene forms m -nitrobenzene sulphonic acid on heating with fuming H₂SO₄ .

Question 12.
Write the possible isomers of C₄H₁₁N.
Answer:
(i) Position isomerism:

(ii) Chain isomerism:

(iii) Metamerism:

Question 13.
Write the type of possible isomers of C₃H₉N.
Answer:
(i) Functional group isomerism:
CH₃—CH₂—CH₂—NH2
n-propyl amine (1°)

All functional group are isomers.
(ii) Position Isomerism:

All are position isomers.

MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions

MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Biomolecules NCERT Intext Exercises

Question 1.
Glucose or sucrose are soluble in water but cyclohexane or benzene (simple six membered ring compounds) are insoluble in water. Explain.
Answer:
Benzene and cyclohexane are neither polar nor possess – OH groups. Therefore, they are not able to form H- bonding with water molecule hence, insoluble in water. Glucose and sucrose are polar molecules. Further, they contain large number of – OH groups (five in case of glucose and eight in case of sucrose). They form extensive H-bonding with water molecule and are thus soluble in water.

Question 2.
What are the expected products of hydrolysis of lactose ?
Answer:
Galactose and glucose are the products of hydrolysis of lactose.

Question 3.
How do you explain the absence of aldehyde group in the penta acetate of D-glucose ? ,
Answer:
When glucose (α) or (β) is treated with acetic anhydride it forms a penta acetyl derivative which does not contain a free – OH group at C – l, it cannot be hydrolysed in aqueous solution to give open-chain aldehyde form and hence glucose penta-acetate does not react with NHC₂OH to form glucose oxime.

Question 4.
The melting points and solubility in water of amino acids are generally higher than that of the corresponding haloacids. Explain.
Answer:
The amino acids exist as Zwitter ionsDue to this dipolar salt like character they have strong dipole – dipole attractions or electrostatic attractions. There fore, their melting points are higher than haloacids which do not have salt like character. Further, due to salt like character, they interact strongly with H₂O. As a result, solubility in water of amino acids is higher than that of the corresponding haloacids which do not have salt like character.

Question 5.
Where does the water present in the egg go after boiling the egg ?
Answer:
When egg is boiled, the denaturation of protein and then coagulation takes place probably through H-bonding. Water present in the egg gets absorbed or adsorbed during denaturation and disappears. In this process, the globular protein in egg changes to insoluble fibrous protein.

Question 6.
Why cannot vitamin C be stored in our body ?
Answer:
Vitamin C is soluble in water. It cannot be stored in our body because it is easily excreted in urine.

Question 7.
What products would be formed when a nucleotide from DNA containing thiamine is hydrolysed ?
Answer:
Hydrolysis products:
2 – deoxy – D – ribose (Sugar) + Thiamine (Base) + Phosphoric acid.

Question 8.
When RNA is hydrolysed, there is no relationship among the quantities of different bases obtained. What does this fact suggest about the structure of RNA ?
Answer:
When RNA is hydrolysed, there is no relationship between the quantities of four bases, i.e., cytosine (C), guanine (G), adenine (A) and uracil (U) are obtained, therefore, the base pairing principle, i.e., (A) pairs with (T) and (C) pairs with (G) is not followed (as in DNA). This suggest that unlike DNA (a double stranded structure), the RNA has a single stranded molecule.

Biomolecules Ncert Textbook Exercises

Question 1.
What are monosaccharides ?
Answer:
Monosaccharides are the carbohydrates which cannot be hydrolysed further to give simpler units of poly hydroxy aldehydes or ketones.

Question 2.
What are reducing sugars ?
Answer:
Reducing sugars are carbohydrates which reduce Fehling solution to red precipitate of CH₂O and Tollen’s reagent to shining metallic silver. All monosaccharides (both aldoses and ketoses) and disaccharides, except sucrose are reducing sugar. Thus, D-(+)- glucose, D – (+) galactose, D-(-) fructose, D-(+) -maltose and D-(+) -lactose are reducing sugars.

Question 3.
Write two main functions of carbohydrates in plants.
Answer:

• Cellulose is a predominant constituent of cell wall of plant cells.
• Starch is the main food storage polysaccharide of plants.

Starch is stored in seeds and acts as the reserve food material for the small plant unless it is capable of making its own food by photosynthesis.

Question 4.
Classify the following into monosaccharides and disaccharides: Ribose, 2-deoxyribose, maltose, galactose, fructose and lactose.
Answer:
Monosaccharide: Ribose, 2-deoxyribose, galactose and fructose.
Disaccharide: Maltose and lactose.

Question 5.
What do you understand by the term glycosidic linkage ?
Answer:
The oxygen (ethereal) linkage through which two monosaccharide units are joined together by the loss of a water molecule to form a molecule of disaccharide is called glycosidic linkage. For example, sucrose (a disaccharide) is composed of C₁ of α – glucose and C₂ of β – fructose through the glycosidic linkage.

Question 6.
What is glycogen ? How is it different from starch ?
Answer:
(i) The carbohydrates are stored in animal body as glycogen. It is present in liver, muscles and brain. Enzymes break the glycogen down to glucose when the body needs glucose.

(ii) Glycogen is more highly branched than amylopectin (starch) glycogen chain consist of 10-14 glucose units, whereas amylopectin (starch) glycogen chain consist of 20-25 glucose units.

Question 7.
What are the hydrolysis products of:
1. Sucrose
2. Lactose
Answer:
1. Glucose and fructose:

2. D-Glucose and D-Galactose:

Question 8.
What is the basic structural difference between starch and cellulose ?
Answer:
Starch consists of two components :
amylose and amylopectin. Amyiose is a long linear polymer of 200-1000 α-D-(-) glucose units held by C₁ – C₄ glycosidic linkage. It is soluble in water. Amylopectin is a branched chain polymer of α-D-(+) glucose linkage whereas branching occurs by C₁– C₆ glycosidic linkage. It is insoluble in water. On the other hand cellulose is a straight chain polysaccharide composed only of β – D- (+) glucose units which are formed by glycosidic linkage between C₁ of one glucose unit and C₄ of next glucose unit.

Question 9.
What happens when D – glucose is treated with the following reagents:
(i) HI
(ii) Bromine water
(iii) HNO₃?
Answer:
(i) When glucose is treated with HI, it forms n-hexane, suggesting that all the six carbon atoms are linked in straight chain.

(ii) On heating glucose with bromine water, it gets oxidized to six carbon carboxylic acid, gluconic acid.

(iii) Glucose on treatment with nitric acid gives a dicarboxylic acid, saccharic acid.

Question 10.
Enumerate the reactions of D-glucose which cannot be explained by its open chain structure.
Answer:
Following reactions could not be explained by open chain structure of D – glucose:

1. The penta-acetate of glucose does not react with hydroxylamine indicating the absence of free – CHO group.
2. Despite having the aldehyde group
   • Glucose does not form the hydrogen sulphide addition product with NaHSO₃.
   • Glucose does not give Schifts test.

Question 11.
What are essential and non-essential amino acids ? Give two examples of each type.
Answer:
(a) Essential amino acids:
The amino acids which our body cannot make and must be obtained through diet.
Examples:
Valine, Isoleucine, Arginine, Lysine, Threonine etc.

(b) Non-essential amino acids:
These are the amino acids which our body can make.
Examples:
Glycine, Alanine, Glutamic acid, Aspartic acid, Glutamine, Serine etc.

Question 12.
Define the following as related to proteins :
(i) Peptide linkage
(ii) Primary structure
(iii) Denaturation.
Answer:
(i) Peptide linkage:
A peptide bond is an amide linkage formed between – COOH group of one a-amino acid and NH₂ group of the other a-amino acid by loss of a molecule of water. It units two amino acids unit in a peptide bond (molecule).

(ii) Proteins are the polymers of a-amino acids. These polymers (also known as polypeptide) consist of amino acids linked with each other in a specific sequence. This sequence of amino acids is known as the primary structure of proteins. Any change in this sequence of amino acids (i.e., primary structure) creates a different proteins.

(iii) A process that changes the physical and biological properties of proteins without affecting the chemical composition of proteins is called denaturation. The denaturation is caused by certain physical and chemical treatment such as changes in pH, temperature, presence of some salts or certain chemical agents.

Question 13.
What are the common types of secondary structure of proteins ?
Answer:
The conformation of polypeptide chain assumed as a result of hydrogen bonding is called secondary structure of proteins. The two types of secondary structures are a-helix and β – pleated sheet structure. (For detail refer your NCERT text-book.)

Question 14.
What type of bonding helps in stabilizing the a-helix structure of proteins ?
Answer:

(Refer your NCERT text-book for details and structure.)

Question 15.
Differentiate between globular and fibrous proteins.
Answer:
Difference between globular and fibrous protein:
Globular protein:

• They have foilded ball like structure.
• They have three-dimensional structure
• They are soluble in water and aq. solution of salt and base.
• These proteins are inactive towards temperature and pH value.

Fibrous protein:

• These molecule have long threads like structure.
• They have sheet like structure.
• These are insoluble in water.
• Fibrous protein are active towards temperature and pH value.

Question 16.
How do you explain the amphoteric behaviour of amino acids ?
Answer:
Due to dipolar or Zwitter’s ion structure, amino acids are amphoteric in nature. The acidic character of the amino acids is due to the – NH₃ group and the basic character is due to the – COOH group as shown below:
Acidic character:

Basic character:

Question 17.
What are enzymes ?
Answer:
The enzymes are globular proteins which act as bio-catalyst. They are very specific and efficient in their action. Almost all the reactions that occur in the body are catalyzed by enzymes.

Question 18.
What is the effect of denaturation on the structure of proteins ?
Answer:
During denaturation, 2° and 3° structures of proteins are destroyed but 1° structure remains intact. As a result of denaturation, the globular proteins (soluble in H₂O) are converted into fibrous proteins (insoluble in H₂O)) and their biological activity is lost. The coagulation of egg white on boiling is a common example of denaturation.

Question 19.
How are vitamins classified ? Name the vitamin responsible for the coagulation of blood.
Answer:
On the basis of solubility in water or fat, the vitamins are generally classified into two types:

• Water soluble vitamins:
  These include vitamin B-complex. (B₁ B₂, B₃, B₄, B₆, B₁₂ and nicotinic acid etc.) and vitamin C etc.
• Fat soluble vitamins:
  These include vitamins A, D, E and K. Liver cells are rich in fat soluble vitamins. Vitamin K is responsible for coagulation of blood.

Question 20.
Why are vitamin-A and vitamin-C essential to us ? Give their important sources.
Answer:
Vitamin – A:
It is essential for us because its deficiency causes Night blindness and Xerophthalmia (Hardening of cornea of eye).

Sources:
Carrots, milk, butter, fish liver oil, egg yolk, green and yellow vegetables.

Vitamin – C:
It is essential for us because its deficiency causes Scurvy (bleeding gums), Tooth decay’s and Pyorrhoea etc.

Sources:
Lemon, orange (citrous fruits), amla, tomatoes, potatoes and green leafy vegetables.

Question 21.
What are nucleic acids ? Mention their two important functions.
Answer:
Nucleic acids are long chain polymers of nucleotides. They are also called poly-nucleotides. Nucleic acids are mainly of two types, the deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and ribonucleic acid (RNA).

Functions:
(i) DNA is responsible for transmission of hereditary effects from one generation to another. This is due to unique property of replication, during cell division and two identical DNA strands are transferred to the daughter cells.

(ii) DNA and RNA are responsible for synthesis of all proteins needed for the growth and maintenance of our body. Actually, the proteins are synthesized by various RNA molecules (m-RNA and t-RNA etc.) in the cell but the message for the synthesis of a particular protein is present in DNA.

Question 22.
What is the difference between a nucleoside and a nucleotide ?
Answer:
A nucleoside contains only basic component of nucleic acids namely a pentose sugar and a nitrogenous base. A nucleotide contains all the three basic components of nucleic acids namely a phosphoric acid group, a pentose sugar and a nitrogenous base.

Question 23.
The two strands in DNA are not identical but are complementary. Explain.
Answer:
The two strands in DNA molecule are held together by hydrogen bonds beetween purine base of one strand and pyrimidine base of the other and vice-versa. Because of different sizes and geometries of the bases, the only possible pairing in DNA are G (guanine) and C (cytosine) through three H-bonds i.e., (C = G) and between A (adenine) and T (thiamine) through two H-bonds i.e., (A=T) (for figure refer your NCERT text book). Due to this base pairing principle, the sequence of bases in one strand automatically fixes the sequence of bases in the other strand. Thus, the two strands are complimentary and are not-identical.

Question 24.
Write the important structural and functional differences between DNA and RNA.
Answer:
Differences between DNA and RNA:
DNA:

• Occurs mainly in the nucleus of the cell.
• It contains the sugar deoxyribose.
•  Does not contain nitrogenous base, uracil.
• It has a double strand helix
• It is responsible for the transmission of heredity character.
• Alkaline hydrolysis is quite slow.
• Ratio A/T = 1 and G/C = 1.

RNA:

• Occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell.
• It contains the sugar ribose.
• Does not contain nitrogenous base thymine.
• It has double as well as single strand helix.
• It helps in protein biosynthesis.
• Alkaline hydrolysis takes place readily.
• Such ratio is not present.

Question 25.
What are the different types of RNA found in the cell ?
Answer:
There are three types of RNAs:

• Ribosomal RNA (r-RNA)
• Messenger RNA (m-RNA)
• Transfer RNA (t-RNA).

Biomolecules Other Important Exercises

Biomolecules Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which protein transports oxygen in blood flow:
(a) Haemoglobin
(b) Insulin
(c) Albumin
(d) Myoglobin.
Answer:
(d) Myoglobin.

Question 2.
Beri-beri diseases is caused due to deficiency of which vitamin:
(a) Vitamin – A
(b) Vitamin – C
(c) Vitamin – B₂
(d) Vitamin – D
Answer:
(c) Vitamin – B₂

Question 3.
Enzyme which enhances the conversion of glucose to ethanol is:
(a) Zymase
(b) Invertase
(c) Maltase
(d) Diastase.
Answer:
(a) Zymase

Question 4.
In human body carbohydrate is stored:
(a) In the form of glucose
(b) In the form of glycogen
(c) In the form of starch
(d) In the form of fructose.
Answer:
(b) In the form of glycogen

Question 5.
Change in optical rotation of a freshly prepared solution of sugar after some time is called:
(a) Optical activity
(b) Inversion
(c) Specific rotation
(d) Mutation.
Answer:
(b) Inversion

Question 6.
Formula of most familiar disachharide is:
(a) C₁₀H₁₈O₉
(b) C₁₀H₂₀O₁₀
(c)C₁₈H₂₂O₁₁
(d) C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁.
Answer:
(d) C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁.

Question 7.
The following statement is false in relation to Ribose:
(a) It is a polyhydroxy compound
(b) It is a aldehydic sugar
(c) It contain 6 carbon atoms
(d) It has optical rotation.
Answer:
(c) It contain 6 carbon atoms

Question 8.
In the formation of carbohydrate are required:
(a) 2 carbon
(b) 3 carbon
(c) 4 carbon
(d) 6 carbon.
Answer:
(d) 6 carbon.

Question 9.
Haemoglobin is:
(a) Enzyme
(b) Globular protein
(c) Vitamin
(d) Carbohydrate.
Answer:
(d) Carbohydrate.

Question 10.
Which carbohydrate is an essential constituent of plant cells:
(a) Cellulose
(b) Starch
(c) Sucrose
(d) Vitamin.
Answer:
(b) Starch

Question 11.
How many subunits are present in haemoglobin:
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5.
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 12.
Starch is a polymer of:
(a) Glucose
(b) Sucrose
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Glucose

Question 13.
Which sugar is present in maximum amount in human blood:
(a) d-fructose
(b) d-glucose
(c) Sucrose
(d) Lactose.
Answer:
(b) d-glucose

Question 14.
Element present in Vitamin B₁₂ is:
(a) Pb
(b) Zn
(c) Fe
(d) CO.
Answer:
(d) CO.

Question 15.
Amount of glucose in blood is determined by:
(a) Tollen’s reagent
(b) Benedict solution
(c) Alkaline iodine solution
(d) Bromine water.
Answer:
(b) Benedict solution

Question 16.
Deficiency of which Vitamin causes rickets:
(a) Vitamin C
(b) Vitamin B
(c) Vitamin A
(d) Vitamin D.
Answer:
(d) Vitamin D.

Question 17.
In metabolic processes which of the following provide maximum energy :
(a) Protein
(b) Vitamin
(c) Thiamine
(d) Pyrimidine.
Answer:
(d) Pyrimidine.

Question 18.
Vitamin B₁ is:
(a) Riboflavin
(b) Cobaltamine
(c) Thiamine
(d) Pyrimidine.
Answer:
(a) Riboflavin

Question 19.
Deficiency of Vitamin C leads to:
(a) Scurvy
(b) Rickets
(c) Pyorrhoea
(d) Anaemia.
Answer:
(a) Scurvy

Question 20.
Most effective energy reservoir in a living cells is:
(a) A.M.P.
(b) A.T.P.
(c) A.D.P.
(d) U.D.P.
Answer:
(b) A.T.P.

Question 21.
Disaccharide present in milk is:
(a) Sucrose
(b) Lactose
(c) Maltose
(d) Cellulose.
Answer:
(b) Lactose

Question 22.
Which is not glyceroid:
(a) Fat
(b) Oil
(c) Phospholipid
(d) Soap.
Answer:
(d) Soap.

Question 23.
Which is not found in R.N.A.:
(a) Thymine
(b) Uracil
(c) Adenine
(d) Guanine.
Answer:
(a) Thymine

Question 24.
Enzymes are:
(a) Nitrogen containing complex compound
(b) Carbohydrate
(c) Co-ordination compounds
(d) Metallic compound.
Answer:
(a) Nitrogen containing complex compound

Question 25.
Chemical name of vitamin C is:
(a) Cyano cobaltamine
(b) Ascorbic acid
(c) Tocopherol
(d) Biotin.
Answer:
(b) Ascorbic acid

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. By the oxidation of glucose …………… molecules of ATP are produced.
2. The breaking of complex molecules in organisms is known as ……………
3. In hyperglycaemia the amount of …………… in blood increases.
4. Deficiency of …………… leads to eye disease.
5. Deficiency of iodine leads to …………… disease.
6. Blood …………… the temperature of the entire body.
7. …………… hormone balances the amount of sugar in blood.
8. …………… is responsible for the clotting of blood.
9. Denaturation does not affect …………… structure of protein.
10. Protein is a polymer of ……………
11. …………… is the basic unit of protein.
12. …………… is not present in D.N.A.
13. Haemoglobin is a …………… compound of iron.
14. Oil and fats obtained from organisms are known as ……………

Answers:

1. 38
2. Catabolism
3. Sugar
4. Vitamin A
5. Goitre
6. Balance
7. Insulin
8. Vitamin K
9. Primary
10. Amino acids
11. Amino acid
12. Uracil
13. Complex
14. Lipid.

Question 3.
Match the following:

Answer:

1. (f) Vitamin A
2. (c) Vitamin D
3. (b) Vitamin E
4. (e) Vitamin B
5. (d) Vitamin B₁₂
6. (a) Biotin
7. (g) Lactose.

Question 4.
Answer in one word / sentence:

1. Write the chemical name of Vitamin C.
2. Tell the source of Vitamin K.
3. Is responsible for clotting of blood ?
4. Which bond links amino acids together ?
5. How many amino acids are synthesized by human body ?
6. Cellulose is a linear polymer of which glucose ?
7. In RNA molecule which pyrimidine is present in place of Thymine ?
8. Lactose on hydrolysis gives.
9. Glucose contains Pyranose ring whereas Fructose contain.
10. In polysaccharides, monosaccharide units are linked to each other by which bond ?
11. Which protein helpful for clotting of blood known as ?
12. Write one example of Monosaccharide Carbohydrate.
13. What is the name of Disaccharides sugar present in milk ?

Answers:

1. Ascorbic acid
2. Green leafy vegetables
3. Vitamin K (Phylloquinone)
4. Peptide bond
5. Ten
6. 2-glucose
7. Uracil
8. Glucose and Lactose
9. Furanose ring
10. Glycosidic
11. Fibrinogen
12. Glucose or Fructose
13. Lactose.

Biomolecules Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the effect of deficiency of proteins on our body ?
Answer:
Deficiency of protein causes following diseases:

• Anaemia:
  The deficiency of haemoglobin protein in the body creates lack of enough blood which causes paleness in body.
• Kwashiorkar:
  This disease is mainly found in children, in this body of patient swells up and deforms.

Question 2.
Define carbohydrates.
Answer:
Substances which are polyhydroxy aldehydes or polyhydroxy ketones or which give these compounds on hydrolysis are called carbohydrates.

Question 3.
Write the chemical name formula source and disease caused by Vitamin ‘C
Answer:

• Chemical name of Vitamin ‘C’:
  Ascorbic acid Source of Vitamin ‘C’: Green vegetables, salad, citrus fruits.
• Disease caused by Vitamin ‘C’:
  Scurvy, spongy and bleeding gums. Formula of Vitamin ‘C’: C₆H₈O₆.

Question 4.
Write the diseases which caused by the following Vitamins:
(a) Vitamin-A, (b) Vitamin-B, (c) Vitamin-D, (d) Vitamin-E.
Or,
Write the functions of the following vitamins:
(a) Vitamin-A, (b) Vitamin-D, (c) Vitamin-E, (d) Vitamin-K.
Answer:
Diseases caused by the above Vitamins:
(a) Vitamin-A : Night blindness
(b) Vitamin-B : Beri-beri, loss of appetite and vigour
(c) Vitamin-D : Rickets, osteomalacia
(d) Vitamin-E : Loss of reproductive ability.

Functions caused by the above Vitamins :
(a) Vitamin-A : For vision and growth develops resistance against diseases.
(b) Vitamin-D : For bones, control of metabolism of calcium and phosphorus.
(c) Vitamin-E : Virility in man and reproduction.
(d) Vitamin-K : Coagulation of blood.

Question 5.
Give the names and functions of any four proteins.
Answer:
Proteins and their functions:
(1) Haemoglobin : Transport of oxygen from lungs to different tissues of body.
(2) Myosin : For motion of muscles
(3) Pepsin : As a catalyst in bio-chemical reactions
(4) Keratin : Present in hairs, nails and teeth.

Question 6.
What are enzymes ? Give applications.
Answer:
Enzymes are complicated organic molecules which are produced by living cells and are also called biological catalysts. They are complex nitrogenous molecules, unlike inorganic catalysts, they take part in the reaction and get destroyed.
Example:
Enzyme invertase catalyse the hydrolysis of sucrose.

Factors affecting the activity of catalyst:

• Temperature
• pH
• Concentration of enzyme
• Concentration of substance
• Concentration of the product formed.

Functions of enzymes:
Enzymes play a very important role in many biological reactions. The names of some important enzymes and the biochemical reactions catalysed by them are given below:

1. Role of enzymes in the process of digestion:
Enzymes play an important role in digestion resulting in breakdown of macro molecules into simple molecules.

2. Industrial applications:
Enzymes play an important role in many industrial processes such as manufacture of ethanol from sugar or starch, manufacture of acetic acid, manufacture of cheese, leather, tanning, etc.

Question 7.
What are monosaccharides ? Explain with examples.
Answer:
These are the simplest carbohydrates which cannot be hydrolysed into small molecules. Their general formula is C_nH_2nO_n (there are some exceptions also). Here n = 2 to 10. These are sweet in taste and soluble in water. These contain either one – CHO group or one > C = O group.

Aldopentose – Ribose, Zylose etc. (C₅H₁₀O₅)
Aldohexose – Glucose, Galactose, Mannose etc. (C₆H₁₂O₆)
Ketohexose – Fructose, Sorbose etc. (C₆H₁₂O₆).

Question 8.
What are proteins ?
Answer:
The word protein is derived from the greek word protious (Protious = to take the first) i.e. first or very important. Proteins are high molecular mass nitrogen containing complex organic compounds found in the protoplasm of all animal and plants.
Chemically protein is the condensation polymer of a-amino acid.

Question 9.
What are carbohydrates ? Which unit of carbohydrate provide energy to human body ?
Answer:
Carbohydrates are compound of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. General formula of carbohydrate is (C_xH₂O)_y where x and y are integers. These compounds have ratio of hydrogen and oxygen 2: 1 like water (H₂O). Therefore the name of these compounds is given carbohydrates. Examples of carbohydrates are glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆), fructose (C₆H₁₂O₆), sucrose (C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁) etc.

Glucose is the unit of carbohydrates which is responsible to provide energy. Glucose decomposes slowly with the help of oxydase enzyme present in the body into CO₂ and water. Energy is released in this process.

Question 10.
What are essential and non-essential amino acids ? Give two examples of each type.
Answer:
Essential Amino Acid: Amino acids which are not synthesized in our body but have to be taken in our food are known as essential amino acid.
Example: Valine, Neucline, Alinine etc.

Non-essential Amino Acid: Amino acids which can be synthesized in our body are known as non-essential amino acid.
Example: Glycine, Glutamic acid.

Question 11.
Explain the formation of amide and peptide bonds in the structure of proteins.
Answer:
(1) Amide bond:
Protein is a complicated organic compound which is formed by the combination of different amino acids. When the – CONH – link resulting from the reaction between a compound containing a carboxylic group (- COOH) and that with an amine group (- NH₂) it forms a amide bond.

(2) Peptide linkage:
When the – CONH – like resulting from the reaction between two molecules of a-amino acids, is called peptide bond. Such a bond involves only the alpha amino and a-carboxylic group. Thus, two molecules of a-amino acid on reaction yields a peptide bond.

Question 12.
Define polysaccharides. Give examples also.
Answer:
Polysaccharides are natural isomers which have molecular weight up to many lacks, General formula of polysaccharides is (C₆H₁₀O₅)_n   where value of n is from 12 to thousands. These are complex material which are formed by condensations of monosaccharides. These compounds contain glycocydic bonds.
Example : Starch, cellulose etc.

Question 13.
What is invert sugar ?
Answer:
Cane – sugar is dextro – rotatory [D or +] which gives equimolar mixture of monosaccharides. This mixture is laevorotatory [D or-]. Hence the mixture of glucose and fructose obtained as a result of hydrolysis of cane-sugar is called as invert sugar.

Question 14.
What are disaccharides ? Write general formula of disaccharides.
Answer:
Disaccharides are sugar which are formed by combination of two monosaccharides by removal of one molecule of water. Both monosaccharides are of hexose type in which one unit is glucose. Thus, disaccharides are of aldose-aldose or aldose-ketose type. General formula of disaccharides is C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁
Example: Sucrose, maltose, lactose etc.

Question 15.
Give the pyranose structure of sucrose and maltose.
Answer:
In sucrose two monosaccharides (glucose and fructose) are combine through a glycosidic bond which is present between C₁ of α-glucose and C₂ of β-fructose.

Whereas maltose molecule is obtained by the condensation of two glucose molecules.

Question 16.
Clarify the structure of protein.
Answer:
Molecule of protein is made up of amino acids. Basically protein molecules are linear polymers of amino acids. Their entire structure can be expressed in four steps:

1. Primary structure:
   It provides knowledge of mutual combination of various amino acids in a polypeptide chain.
2. Secondary structure:
   It provides knowledge of conformations of peptide chains of protein.
3. Tertiary structure:
   It explains how protein molecule coils to obtain a specific shape.
4. Quarternary structure:
   By this, arrangement of two polypeptide chains with respect to each other is known.

Question 17.
What do you understand by nucleoside and nucleotide ?
Answer:
Nucleoside: When a purine or pyrimidine base joins with a pentose sugar molecule, then it is known as nucleoside.

Question 18.
What are carbohydrates ? Explain mono, di and polysaccharides with example.
Answer:
Carbohydrates are polyhydric aldehydes or polyhydric ketones or substances which on hydrolysis produce such compounds. The carbohydrates are classified into three major classes on the basis of hydrolysis.

1. Monosaccharides:
These are the simples carbohydrates. They cannot be hydrolysed further to give more simple carbohydrates. Monosaccharides have the general formula (CH₂O)_n These are crystalline solids, soluble in water and are sweet in taste. Example: Glucose, Fructose.

2. Disaccharides:
Disaccharides are sugar which are formed by combination of two monosaccharides by removal of one molecule of water. Both monosaccharides are of hexose type – in which one unit is glucose. General formula of disaccharides is C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁.
Example: Sucrose, Maltose etc.

3. Polysaccharides:
General formula of polysaccharides is (C₆H₁₀O₅)_n where value of n is from 12 to thousands. These are complex material which are formed by condensation of monosaccharides. Example: Starch, Cellulose etc.

Question 19.
What happens when protein is denatured ?
Answer:
Denaturation of Protein:
Disruption of tertiary structure of protein is called denaturation. These reactions take place by heating in presence of acids or highly concentrated salts or heavy metals. Denaturation does not affect the primary structure of protein. Denaturation takes place in the rearrangement of secondary and tertiary structures. As a result of this, protein losses its biological actvity.

During denaturation the protein molecule uncoils from an ordered and specific conformation into a more disordered conformation. Denaturation takes place when proteins are heated or treated with acids, bases, alcohols, KI, urea, acetone etc. or when exposed to UV or X-ray radiations.

Question 20.
Write functions of vitamin B and name two diseases caused due to its deficiency.
Answer:
Vitamin B include a group of vitamins which are as follows:
‘Vitamin-B₁ (Thiamine), Vitamin – B₂ (Riboflavin), Vitamin B₃ (Pentothenic acid), Vitamin-B₆ (Pyridoxine), Vitamin B₁₂ (Cyano cobalamin)

Vitamin B₁ (Thiamine)- Source: husk of rice, green vegetables, egg.
Function: Maintenance of activity of nervous system.

Deficiency disease:
(i) Beri-Beri (swelling in hands and legs).
(ii) Gastric (disorder in digestion).

Vitamin B₂ (Riboflavin)- Source: egg yolk, milk etc.
Function: Growth of body.
Deficiency disease: Dermatitis, weakness in eye sight.

Question 21.
What are vitamins ? Name the vitamins whose deficiency lead to following diseases:

• Haemorrhage (No clotting of blood)
• Night blindness
• Anaemia
• Ricket
• Pyrohea
• Loss of reproductive ability
• Convulsions.

Answer:
Vitamins are complex organic molecules which act as essential nutrients for body. Though these vitamins are not formed in our body but deficiency of these vitamins causes various diseases in our body. The vitamins are classified according to solubility.

• Fat soluble vitamins: Vitamin A, D, E and K.
• Water soluble vitamins: Vitamin C and vitamin B complex.

Name the vitamins deficiency lead to following diseases :

• Haemorrhage (No clotting of blood) : Vitamin K (Phylloquinone)
• Night blindness: Vitamin A (Retinol)
• Anaemia: Vitamin B₁₂ (Cyanocobalamin)
• Ricket: Vitamin D (Calciferol)
• Pyorrhoea: Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid)
• Loss of reproductive ability: Vitamin E (a -Tocopherol)
• Convulsions: Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine).

Question 22.
Write about the following:

1. Testosterone
2. Thyroxine
3. Insulin
4. Cortisone.

Answer:

1. Testosterone:
   Testosterone hormone is secreted by the gland testes and its function is to control the reproductive organs in males.
2. Thyroxine:
   This hormone is secreted by the thyroid gland. Its function is to control metabolic activity and growth.
3. Insulin:
   Insulin hormone is secreted by pancreas and its function is to control the amount of glucose in the blood.
4. Cortisone:
   Cortisone is secreted by adrenal cortex and its function is to control the metabolism of protein and water.

Question 23.
Write the name of two-two diseases caused due to deficiency of retinol, thiamine, ascorbic acid and riboflavin.
Answer:
Retinol: Night blindness, Xerophthalmia
Thiamine : Beri-Beri, growth of body stops
Ascorbic acid: Scurvy, Tooth loss
Riboflavin: Weak eye sight, dermititis.

Question 24.
Write two-two source of vitamin A and C. Write one-one disease caused due to its deficiency.
Answer:

• Vitamin Source Disease
• Vitamin-A Milk, butter, cheese Night blindness
• Vitamin-C Lemon, Tomato Scurvy.

Question 25.
Write the functions of vitamin A, D, E and K.
Answer:

• Vitamin-A : It participate in the formation of visible pigment named Rhodopsin and Iodopsin.
• Vitamin-D : It is useful in the formation of bones.
• Vitamin-E : It prevents the breaking of RBCs.
• Vitamin-K : It is helpful in the clotting of blood.

Question 26.
Write functions and sources of the following bio-molecules/elements :

1. Protein
2. Carbohydrates
3. Fat
4. Calcium.

Answer:

1. Protein:
   Formation of new tissues, and their repairing with the body
   Source: Milk, egg, meat, cheese, fish.
2. Carbohydrates: Carbohydrates provides energy to the body.
   Source: Rice, potato, fruits, cane sugar etc.
3. Fats: They provides energy to the body.
   Source: Ghee, oils, milk, egg. etc.
4. Calcium: Increase the bones and teeth.
   Source: Green leafy vegetables, milk.

Question 27.
Write two Differences between a – Amino acid and Protein.
Answer:
Differences between a – Amino acid and Protein:
α – Amino acid:

• They are simple compounds having amino and Carboxylic acid group.
• On combining amino acid gives dipeptide,polypeptide and then protein e.g. glucose, lysine etc.

Protein:

• Proteins are complex nitrogenous compounds.
• Protein on hydrolysis gives amino acid. e.g. Haemoglobin, casein etc.

Question 28.
Explain in brief:
(a) Name of two enzymes and their function.
(b) Name of two water soluble enzymes and disease caused due to their deficiency.
Answer:
(a) Name of enzyme and function:
1. Amylase (ptyalin): It converts starch into glucose:

2. Pepsin: It converts protein into amino acid:

(b) Water soluble vitamin:
1. Vitamin B₁: Thiamine
Deficiency disease: Beri-Beri

2. Vitamin C: Ascorbic acid
Deficiency disease: Scurvy Other examples are vitamin B₂, B₆, B₁₂ and K.

Biomolecules Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a note on Nucleic acid.
Answer:
Nucleic acid:
It is found in nucleus of the cell. It has large amount of phosphorus. Nucleic acid are poly nucleotides which is formed by the combination of various nucle otide units. Each nucleotide is formed by three chemical components:

1. Phosphate group
2. Pentose ribose sugar or De – oxyribose
3. Heterocyclic base: Like derivative of pyrimidine (Thiamine, uracil, cytosine) and derivatives of purine (Adinine and Guanine).

Nucleic acid are of two types:
(A) DNA: De-oxy ribonucleic acid.
(B) RNA: Ribonucleic acid.

Components of DNA:

• De-oxyribose sugar molecule
• Phosphoric acid molecule
• Nitrogenous base:

It is of two types:

1. Pyrimidine base: It includes cytosine (C) and Thymine (T)
2. Purine base: It includes Adenine (A) and Guanine (G)

Components of RNA:
RNA contains Ribose and nitrogen base like Adenine (A), Guanine (G), Uracil (U) and Cytosine (C).

Question 2.
What are carbohydrates ? Write its classification and four main functions.
Answer:
Definition:
Optically active polyhydroxy aldehydes or ketones or substances which yield these on hydrolysis are known as carbohydrates.
Example: Glucose, starch, cellulose, sucrose etc.

Classification of Carbohydrate:

Functions of carbohydrates:

• It is the main structural component of cell.
• It acts as a bio-fuel and provides energy to organisms for doing work.

• Carbohydrate is stored in the liver as glycogen, which hydrolysis to provide the energy required.
• Cellulose is found in grass and plants which provide energy to animals grazing grass because these animals possess specific enzymes which hydrolyses cellulose to glucose.

Question 3.
Give the diseases caused by ascorbic acid, thiamine retinol and nicotinic acid.
Or
Give the source and diseases caused by Vitamin A, B, C and D.
Answer:
Name of Vitamins, its functions and deficiency diseases are given in the ahead chart: Chemical names of Vitamins, their sources, functions and diseases due to deficiency

Question 4.
Give differences between monosaccharide, disaccharide and polysaccharide.
Answer:
Difference between monosaccharide, disaccharide and polysaccharide:

MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions

MP Board Class 12th Business Studies Important Questions Chapter 9 Financial Management

Financial Management Important Questions

Financial Management Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
The main function of Financial Management is :
(a)Financial planning
(b) To receive fund .
(c) Distribution of net profit
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above.

Question 2.
The cheapest source of finance is :
(a) Debenture
(b) Equity share capital
(c) Preference share
(d) Retained earning.
Answer:
(d) Retained earning.

Question 3.
Fixed assets should be financed through :
(a) A long-term liability
(b) A short-term liability
(c) A mix of long and short-term liabilities
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(c) A mix of long and short-term liabilities

Question 4.
Current assets of a business firm should be financed through :
(a) Current liability only
(b) Long-term liability only
(c) Partly from both types i.e., long and short-term libilities
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(c) Partly from both types i.e., long and short-term libilities

Question 5.
Other things remaining the same, an increase in the tax rate on corporate profit will:
(a) Make debt relatively cheaper
(d) Make debt relatively less cheap home
(c) No impact on cost of debt
(d) We can’t say
Answer:
(a) Make debt relatively cheaper

Question 6.
On equity share the rate of dividend is …………..
(a) Not fixed
(b) Fixed
(c) Both (a) and
(b) (d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Not fixed

Question 7.
Capital structure refers to the composition of …………..
(a) Long-term funds
(b) Short-term funds
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Long-term funds

Question 8.
It is a source of working capital …………..
(a) Preference shares
(b) Periodic loan
(c) Public deposit
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above.

Question 9.
Determinants of working capital are…………..
(a) Size of organization
(b) Period of construction
(c) Availability of raw material
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above.

Question 10.
For joint stock company to pay dividend is ………….
(a) Voluntary
(b) Compulsory
(c) Necessary
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Voluntary

Question 11.
Bonus decision is the determinants of …………..
(a) Quantity of profit
(b) Liquidity of fund
(c) Age of the company
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above.

Question 12.
Out of it which is the element of capital structure…………..
(a) Cash flow situation
(b) Interest ratio
(c) Age of the firm
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above.

Question 13.
Current assets are those assets which are converted into cash…………..
(a) Within 6 months
(b) Within 1 year
(c) Within a month and 3 years
(d) Within 3 years to 5 years.
Answer:
(d) Within 3 years to 5 years.

Question 14.
Debenture holder of a company is called as …………..
(a) Debtor
(b) Creditor
(c) Owner
(d) Servant.
Answer:
(b) Creditor

Question 15.
Higher dividends per share is associated with :
(a) High earning, high cash flows, unusable earning and higher growth opportunities.
(b) Low earning, high cash flows, stable earning and lower growth opportunities
(c) High earning, high cash flows, stable earning and lower growth opportunities
(d) High earning, low cash flows, stable earning and lower growth opportunities.
Answer:
(c) High earning, high cash flows, stable earning and lower growth opportunities

Question 16.
A decision to acquire a new and modern plan to upgrade an old
(a) Financing decision
(b) Working capital decision
(c) Investment decision
(d) Dividend decision.
Answer:
(c) Investment decision

Question 17.
Companies with higher growth paternal are likely to :
(a) Pay lower dividends
(b) Pay higher dividends
(c) Dividends are not affected by growth consideration
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Pay lower dividends

Question 18.
Which is not the cause of over capitalization :
(a) High promotion expenses
(b) Over capital issue
(c) Formation of company in inflation period
(d) Underestimate of earings.
Answer:
(d) Underestimate of earings.

Question 19.
Which is not the cause of under capitalization :
(a) Formation of business during deflation
(b) Under estimate of capital requirement
(c) Liberal dividend policy
(d) High standard of efficiency.
Answer:
(c) Liberal dividend policy

Question 20.
What is not included in fixed capital:
(a) Machines
(b) Building
(c) Furniture
(d) Stock.
Answer:
(d) Stock.

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks :

1. In business the form of mixture of capital is called
2. refers to the act of deciding in advance the quantum of fund requirements of a firm.
3. If the actual value of assets of a company is less than the book value, it is called
4. When rate of dividend of equity shares is distributed at a higher rate, such type of situations is called
5. capital is utilized to maintain day to day activities.

Answer:

1. Capital structure
2. Capitalization
3. Over capitalization
4. Under-capitalization,
5. Working capital,

Question 3.
Write the answer in one word/sentence :

1. Which ensures availability and profitable utilization of acquired funds in less cost ?
2. What is the result by promotion expenses ?
3. What is the situation faced by a company when capital is estimated less ?
4. In which situation more wages are demanded by workers ?
5. What is the mutual and proportional relation of various sources of long-term in an enterprise called ?
6. Which is the life blood of business ?
7. When is the issue of debentures profitable ?
8. Which is called the heart of financial planning ?
9. When is asset value more in an organization ?
10. Which is undesirabile or capitalization or under capitalization ?
11. What is the financial planning for five years or more than five years called ?
12. What is the tendency to get more profit on preferential share called ?
13. Who respresants the quantity of capital ?
14. Which capital is used to purchase raw material ?
15. What is the difference between the current asset and current liability known ?
16. Who makes investment decision ?
17. What is the period of long-term ferm finance ?
18. What is the main objective of financial management ?
19. How finance should be used in financial planning ?
20. By what control is done on financial work ?

Answer:

1. Financial management
2. Over capitalization
3. Under capitalization
4. Under capitalization
5. Capital structure
6. Finance
7. In depression
8. Financial accountancy
9. When market value of shares are more
10. Both
11. Long-term financial objectives
12. Preferential shares
13. Capitalization
14. Working capital
15. Working capital
16. Financial Manager
17. Not more than 12 Months
18. Profit maximization
19. Long-term finance
20. Financial Management.

Question 4.
Write true or false :

1. Nature of goods affect the requirement of fixed capital.
2. Financial planning is the main function of financial management.
3. Financial management is a part of business management.
4. Need of study of financial management is not for shareholders.
5. Term “capitalization” is used at all levels of capitalization.
6. Working capital is required for long-term period.
7. Fixed assets are arranged through long-term funds.
8. Equity shareholders enjoy voting rights.
9. In capital structure working capital is included.
10. By structure of capital we mean fixed capital.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. False
5. False
6. False
7. True
8. True
9. False
10. True.

Question 5.
Match the columns :

Answer:
1. (b)
2. (d)
3. (c)
4. (e)
5. (a)
6. (f)
7. (h)
8. (g)
9. (j)
10. (i)

Financial Management Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the cheapest source of finance ?
Answer:
Loan.

Question 2.
What do you mean by business finance ?
Answer:
Financial management is the part of general management. It is concerned with the managing finance of the business for smooth functioning and successful accomplishment of the enterprise objectives.

Question 3.
Why is finance needed ?
Answer:
Finance is needed for establishing business to run it and for its modernization.

Question 4.
What do you mean by financial risk ?
Answer:
The risk of default of payment is called financial risk.

Question 5.
What do you mean by working capital ?
Answer:
Working capital is aggregate of current assets.

Question 6.
Which is the most expensive capital for a company ?
Answer:
For any company the most expensive capital is equity share capital whereas devident on it is not fixed.

Question 7.
What do you mean by over capitalization ?
Answer:
An enterprise is said to be over capitalized when its long-term funds are more than the amount of proper capitalization as justified by its requirements.

Question 8.
What do you mean by equity trade or trading on equity ?
Answer:
Trading on equity means borrowing funds at reasonable rate with the help of share capital. Trading on equity also affects the capital structure of an enterprise.

Question 9.
What do you mean by capitalization ?
Answer:
Capitalization is an important constituent of Financial plan. Capitalization refers to the act of deciding in advance the quantum of fund requiremets of a firm.

Question 10.
What do you mean by fixed capital ?
Answer:
Fixed capital refers to the amount invested to acquire fixed assets. Fixed capital provides the basic foundation on which the structure of business is laid.

Question 11.
What do you mean by watered capital ?
Answer:
When any assets is purchased more than its actual price then it is called watered capital.

Question 12.
What do you mean by financing decision ?
Answer:
Financing decision is about the quantum of finance to be raised from various long term sources.

Question 13.
Write the names of two factors which affect financial decision.
Answer:
1. Cost
2. Risk

Question 14.
Write the name of two factors which affect the investment decision.
Answer:
(a) Cash flows on project
(b) The rate of return.

Question 15.
What are public deposits ?
Answer:
Public deposit is an important source of business finance. As bank accepts the savings of public so also company does. The company receives funds in the form of public deposits to run their business.

Question 16.
What do you mean by gross working capital and net working capital ?
Answer:
Gross working capital deals with the problems of managing individual current assets in day today operations. The net working capital represents excess of current assets over current liabilites.

Question 17.
Write two needs of working capital.
Answer:
The need of working capital arises for :

1. For purchasing raw material
2. For payment of salaries and wages.

Question 18.
“Working capital affect both liquidity and profitability of business” how ?
Answer:
Working capital are more liquid but they contribute less in profitability. Thus with more working capital liquidity increases but profitability decreases.

Question 19.
What do you mean by financial planning ?
Answer:
Financial planing is the process of determine the objective policies, procedures, programmed and budgets to deal with financial activities of enterprise. It is an intellectual process which decides in advance the capital structure and capitalization of enterprise.

Question 20.
When do shareholders get profit ?
Answer:
Shareholders get profit when market value of their shares increases.

Question 21.
What do you means by cash flow ?
Answer:
Cash flows means series of cash receipts and payments over a specific period of time.

Question 22.
What is dividend ?
Answer:
Dividend is that portion of profit which is distributed to the shareholders.

Question 23.
What do you mean by production cycle ?
Answer:
Production cycle means the time gap between receiving the raw material and turning them into finished products.

Question 24.
What do you mean by equity shares ?
Answer:
Equity shares are regarded as comer store of the financial structure of a company without which a company can’t be founded. Management procures debt and preference shares capital against the strength of these shares. Equity shares represent the owner’s equity.

Question 25.
“The main aim of Financial Management is to minimise risk”. Explain.
Answer:
There is always a risk in carrying business activities. These risks may be due to various unforeseen natural economic and physical causes. Future is always uncertain, so element of risk will always remain there in business. Efforts are made so that these risk may be minimised.

Question 26.
What do you mean by capital budgeting ?
Answer:
Capital budgeting is long financial decision making of the firm. It requires decision regarding the purchase of new assets taking into consideration the utility of various other uses of assets.

Question 27.
What do you mean by trading on equity ?
Answer:
Trading on equity means borrowing funds at reasonable rates with the help of share capital. Trading on equity also affects the capital structure of an enterprise. It should be adopted by the enterprise which have regular income and have good will.

Question 28.
What do you mean by divident decision ?
Answer:
Dividend decision is to take decision by the manager how much profit earned by the company (after paying tax) is to be distributed to the share holders and how much of it should be retained in the business.

Question 29.
On what overall financial risk depends ?
Answer:
The overall financial risk depends upon the proportion of debt in the total capital.

Question 30.
What do you mean by floation cost ?
Answer:
The fund raising exercise also costs something which is called floation cost.

Question 31.
Write the meaning of Financial planning ?
Answer:
Financial planning is the process of determining the objectives, policies, procedures, programmes and budgets to deal with financial activities of enterprise.

Question 32.
What do you mean by cash budget ?
Answer:
By cash budget we mean expected incoming and outgoing of cash in a particular time.

Question 33.
Write the meaning of over capitalization.
Answer:
When the earnings of enterprise are not large enough to yield a fair return then it is said to be over capitalization.

Question 34.
What are the main source of funds for a shareholders ?
Answer:
The main sourcess of funds for a firm are shareholders fund and borrowed funds.

Question 35.
What do you mean by borrowed funds ?
Answer:
Borrowed funds refer to finance raised as debentures or other forms of debt. Interest on borrowed funds have to be repaid at a fixed time.

Financial Management Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define Capital structure.
Answer:
The term ‘Capital Structure’ refers to the composition or make-up of the amount of long-term financing. According to Gerstanberg, “Capital structure means the type of securities to be issued and the proportionate amounts that make up the capitalization.” It includes all long-term capital resources viz., loans, reserves, shares and bonds. Symbolically,Capital structure = Owner’s capital + Debt capital.Owner’s capital consists of long-term funds provided by the company’s owners. Debt capital includes any type of long-term funds obtained through borrowings. The ratio between owner’s capital (equity) and debt capital is decided under capital structure.

Question 2.
Discuss the two objectives of Financial Planning.
Answer:
Financial Planning strives to achieve the following two objectives :

1. To ensure ‘Availability of Funds’ whenever these are required: This includes a proper estimation of the funds required for different purposes such as for the purchase of long term assets or to meet day-to-day expenses of business etc.

2. To see that the Firm does not raise resources unnecessarily : Excess funding is almost as bad as Inadequate funding. Efficient financial planning ensures that funds are not raised unnecessarily in order to avoid unnecessary addition of cost.

Question 3.
What is ‘Financial risk’ ? Why does it arise ?
Answer:
It refers to the risk of company not being able to cover its fixed financial costs The higher level of risks are attached to higher degrees of financial leverage with the increase in fixed financial costs, the company its also required to raise its operating profit (EBIT) to meet financial charges. If the company cannot cover these financial charges, it can be forced into liquidation.

Question 4.
Define a ‘Current assets’ and give four examples.
Answer:
Current assets are those assets of the business which can be converted into cash within a period of one year. Cash in hand or at bank, bills receivable, debtors, finished goods inventory are some of the examples of current assets.

Question 5.
Financial management is based on three broad financial decisions. What are these ?
Answer:
Financial management is concerned with the solution of three major issues relating to the financial operations of a firm corresponding to the three questions of investment, financing and dividend decision. In a financial context, it means the selection of best financing alternative or best investment alternative. The finance function therefore, is concerned with three broad decision which are as follows :

1. Decision : The investment decision relates to how the firm’s funds are invested in different assets.

2. Financing Decision : This decision is about the quantum of finance to be raised from various long term sources and short term sources. It involves identification of various available sources of finance.

3. Dividend Decision : This decision relates to distribution of dividend. Dividend is that portion of profit which is distributed to shareholders, the decision involved here is how much of the profit earned by company is to be distributed to the shareholders and how much of it should be retained in the business for meeting investment requirements.

Question 6.
What is the main objective of financial management ? Explain briefly.
Answer:
Primary aim of financial management is to maximise shareholder’s wealth, which is referred to as the wealth maximisation concept. The wealth of owners is reflected in the market value of shares, wealth maximisation means the maximisation of market price of shares.

According to the wealth maximisation objective, financial management must select those decisions which result in value addition, that is to say the benefits from a decision exceed the cost involved. Such value addition increase the market value of the company’s share and hence result in maximisation of the shareholder’s wealth.

Question 7.
Discuss about working capital affecting both the liquidity as well as profitability of a business.
Answer:
The working capital should neither be more nor less than required. Both these situations are harmful. If the amount of working capital is more than required, it will no doubt increase liquidity but decrease profitability. For instance, if large amount of cash is kept as working capital, then this excessive cash will remain idle arid cause the profitability to fall.

On the contrary, if the amount of cash and other current assets are very little, then lot of difficulties will have to be faced in meeting daily expenses and making payment to the creditors. Thus, optimum amount of both current assets and current liabilities should be determined so that profitability of the business remains intact and there is no fall in liquidity.

Question 8.
What are the functions of Financial Management ?
Answer:
Functions of financial management:

1. Forecasting financial needs.
2. Capital budgeting.
3. Working capital management.
4. Making finance decision.
5. Making dividend policy decision.
6. Appraisal of finance performance.
7. Communication of finance performance. In addition to the above functions following advisory functions are performed :
   • Management of assets
   • Management of funds.

According to Ernest Dale, the financial management performs the following functions:

1. Safe custody of funds and investment
2. General accounting work
3. Maintenance of books of accounts
4. Preparation of financial statement and reports
5. Auditing of books of accounts
6. Cash management
7. Cash disbursement system
8. Calculation of accounting rations
9. Preparation of cash flow and funds flow statement
10. Cost accounting
11. Payroll accounting and disbursement.

Question 9.
Explain the importance of financial planning.
Answer:
The importance of financial planning are as follows :

1. Successful! promotion of business : Before starting any business, it is essential to make a perfect financial plan for achieving success. A financial plan should be made keeping in mind the size and expected expansions of business before the starting of business. Other plans remain incomplete without this plan.

2. Efficient management of business : For each and every activity of business finance is required, without sufficient finance any enterprise cannot be managed properly. Finance is required for establishment of business, purchase of asset raw materials, distribution of salary, etc.

3. Development and expansion of business: To earn more and more profit in business different types of policies related to development are made. To achieve this objective business is expanded. Proper financial plans are helpful in facing the financial problems.

4. Business liquidity : Due to successful financial plan sufficient amount of liquid fund can be kept in business. The important requirement of financial plan is easy liquidity of assets to meet the routine capital needs.

5. For future development of business : A good financial plan is essential for the smooth woking of an enterprise. To attract new industrial units perfect capital planning is compulsory.

6. Proper coordination among capital sources : Through efficient financial planning proper coordination among various sources of capital can be established. This reduces business risk and doesn’t affect goodwill in negative manner.

7. Safety of capital: Effective financial helps in providing safety to capital. It proves very helpful in facing the risks like incirease or decrease in demands, fashion, ups and downs of future, etc.

Question 10.
Discuss the aims/object:s of financial management.
Or
Discuss some functions of financial management.
Answer:

1. Increase in profit: A :firm should always increase its revenues in order to maximize its value. It is a normal practice for a firm to formulate and implement all possible plans of expansion and take every opportunity to maximize profit.

2. Reduction in cost: Capital and equity funds are factor inputs in production. A firm has to take every effort to reduce cos t of capital and to launch economy drive in all of its operations.

3. Risk minimization : There Ls always a risk in carrying business activities. Element of risk will always remain in the business. Efforts are made so that these risks may be minimized.

4. Effective utilization of fund s : In financial management efforts are made to utilize the funds properly and to control the misuse of wastage of funds.

Question 11.
Discuss the factors determine working capital requirements of a business enterprises
Answer:
The factors which govern the amounts of working capital in a business are :

1. Nature of Business: Public: utilities and service organizations require little working capital as sales are on cash basis,. There is little time gap between production and sales and these enterprises do not maintain large stock of goods. In trading and manufacturing concerns, on the other hand large amount of working capital is needed to maintain stocks.

2. Size of the Business : The volume of business has a direct influence on working capital requirements. Large firms require greater working capital for investment in current assets and to pay current liabilities.

3. Production Cycle: The length or duration or production process also affects working capital requirement. Where production takes longer time, More working capital is
required because more funds are needed for raw material, labour and other expenses. On the other hand, smaller production cycle need less working capital.

4. Turnover of Working Capital: Turnover implies the speed with which the working capital circulates in business. The rate of turnover of working capital is measured by the ratio of sales to current assets. More rapid is the flow of working capital, lesser is the need for working capital.

5. Terms of Trade : The terms of business also have lot of bearing on working capital requirement. If raw material can be had on credit and finished goods are sold for cash then less working capital is needed. On the other hand., if purchases have to be made cash and sales are on credit, then business will need more working capital. This happens in most of the wholesale trading business where margins are less and to take benefit of cash discount, wholesalers purchase for cash but have to sell on credit to have more sales.

6. Cyclical and Seasonal Fluctuations : Business firms which are subject to business cycles and seasonal demand may need greater working capital. During depression, investment in stock and debtors may be high while in a boom sales tend to be quick and stocks are smaller.

Question 12.
Write any four characteristics of an ideal financial plan.
Answer:
Following should be the characteristics of an ideal financial plan :

1. Simplicity : Financial plans should be made with the idea of simplicity. This simplicity must not effect working capacity.
2. Complete: The financial plans must possess quality of compactness and complete.
3. Cheaper : While making plans for acquiring capital it must be kept in mind that they should be cheap.
4. Flexibility : For the success of any organization it must be kept in mind that all the plans are flexible in nature.

Question 13.
Write any four executive functions of financial management.
Answer:
Executive Functions : The finance manager performs certain executive functions which are as under.

1. Arrange/Organize Finance : A finance manager has to find and arrange the various sources of finance required for the enterprise so that, on the basis of the finance available, the operations of the enterprise may be carried on.

2. Allotment of Available Funds : The funds. available with the finance manager are meant for requirements of the entire enterprise. Therefore, it is the responsibility of the finance manager to allot funds as and where needed l in the enterprise.

3. Management of Assets : Under these are covered activities like purchase of cur-rent and fixed assets arrangements for their safety’, maintenance etc. which are carried on under the instructions of the finance manager. The finance manager has also to consider, before allotting funds, the use and justification for the funds in different departments.

4. To Organize Expenditure : The finance manager should prepare budget estimates for expenditure required in the entire enterprise and invest the same in a planned manner. For this, the finance manager has to consider the expenditure on pay, interest, taxes, development activities etc.

Question 14.
Explain factors affecting the dividend decision.
Answer:
Dividend decision relates to distribution of profit to the shareholders and its retention in the business for meeting the future investment requirements.
How much of the profits earned by a company will be distributed as profit and how much will be retained in the business is affected by many factors. Some of the important factors are discussed as follows :

1. Earnings : Dividends are paid out of current and past year earnings. Therefore, earnings is a major determinant of the decision about dividend.

2. Stability: Of earnings other things remaining the same, a company having stable earning is in a position to declare higher dividends as against this, a company having unstable earnings is likely to pay. smaller dividend.

3. Growth Opportunities : Companies having good growth opportunities retain more money out of their earnings so as to finance the required investment. The dividend in growth companies is therefore, smaller than that in non-growth companies.

Question 15.
What qualities should be there in an ideal planning ?
Answer:
The success or failure of.any business enterprise depends upon effective financial planning. Following are the characteristics of best financial planning :

1. Simplicity : The financial plan should be such that it should be simple to manage the capital and easier to estimate the formation of capital. In future difficulties may arise in those financial plans where the formation of capital is a complex procedure. Thus financial plans should be understandable to all the persons concerned.

2. Flexibility : The financial plans of an enterprise should not be rigid. According to needs of enterprise and future uncertainties, financial plans should be such that necessary changes can be made.

3. Farsightedness : Financial plans should be made in such a manner that it should run for a long time. Capitalization should be such that fixed and current expenses of enterprise can be properly managed.

4. Liquidity : Financial planning should be such that it should maintain the balance between inflow and outflow of funds. It should make the liquid funds available throughout the year. Financial plan must ensure the maximum utilization of funds.

5. Utility : Whatever capital is invested in business must be properly utilized so that shareholders can receive proper dividend and investors will be attracted towards the enterprise. This will encourage them to invest more in the enterprise. All these provisions are made in the financial planning.

6. Wholeness : It is one of the important characteristic of financial planning that it should have the quality of wholeness. Wholeness means it should pay attention in every area of enterprise. If any area is left than it will cause loss in future.

Question 16.
What is Under Capitalisation ? Write its two causes.
Answer:
Under Capitalisation refers to the situation in which the company’s rate of profit is exceptionally have in relation to the return enjoyed by similar companies. The two causes are as :

1. The enterprises has made excess provision for depreciation on its assets thereby creating secret reserves.
2. It may have acquired assets at low prices due to depreciation. “

Question 17.
Capital structure decision is essentially optimization of risk-return relationship. Comment.
Answer:
Capital structure refers to the mix between owners and borrowed funds. It can be calculated as Debt/Equity.

Debt and equity differ significantly in their cost and riskiness for the firm. Cost of debt is lower than cost of equity for a firm because lender’s risk is lower than equity shareholder’s risk, since lenders earn on assured return and repayment of capital and therefore they should require a lower rate of return. Debt is cheaper but it is more risky for a business because payment of interest and the return of principal is obligatory for the business. Any default in meeting these commitments may force the business to go into liquidation. There is no such compulsion in case of equity, which is therefore, considered risk less for the business. Higher use of debt increases the fixed financial charges of a business, as a result increased. Use of debt increases the financial risk of a business.

Capital structure of a business thus, affects both the profitability and the financial risk. A capital structure will be said to be optimal when the proportion of debt and equity is such that it results in an increase in the value of the equity share.

Question 18.
A capital budgeting decision is capable of changing the financial fortune of a business. Do you agree ? Why or why not ?
Answer:
Investment decision can be long term or short term. A long term Investment decision is also called a capital budgeting decision. It involves committing the finance on a long term basis, e.g., making investment in a new machine to replace an existing one or acquiring a new fixed assets or opening a new branch etc. These decisions are very crucial for any business. They affect its earning capacity over the long-term, assets of a firm, profitability and competitiveness, are all affected by the capital budgeting decisions, Moreover, these decisions normally involve huge amounts of investment and are irreversible except at a huge cost.

Therefore, once made, it is almost impossible for a business to wriggle out of such decisions. Therefore, they need to be taken with utmost career decisions must be taken by those who understand them comprehensively. A bad capital budgeting decision normally has the capacity to severely damage the financial fortune of a business.

Question 19.
Discuss the merits of equity shares. Write its characteristics.
Answer:
1. Fixed capital : These shares constitute a good source of fixed capital for a company as the company is not bound to return it during its life.

2. Flexible dividend policy: The rate of dividend on equity shares is not always fixed and definite. The company may skip dividend. A flexible dividend policy can be adopted in the case of equity shares.

3. Safety of the company : Equity share capital is safety wall for the company on the basis of which it can face any financial crisis easily.

4. Arrange additional capital: The company can raise long term loan on the,security of these shares and thus it can arrange additional capital.
Characteristics :

1. On such shares rate of dividend is not fixed.
2. Equity shareholders enjoy voting rights over the others.
3. Equity shares are redeemed only at the time of liquidation.
4. At the event of liquidation the equity capital is refunded only after the preference shares are paid back.
5. Dividend of such shares are paid only after the preference dividend is paid.

Question 20.
What do you mean by capital budgeting ?
Answer:
Meaning : Capital budgeting is long financial decision making of the firm. It requires decision regarding the purchase of new assets taking into consideration the utility of various other uses of assets.
Characteristics :

1. Its nature is to have heavy investment
2. It increases long term profitability
3. In its decision the risk factor is more
4. It becomes difficult to change its decisions. ‘

Question 21.
Distinguish between Fixed capital and Working capital
Answer:
Differences between Fixed capital and Working capital:

Fixed capital

1. Fixed capital is that capital which more or less remains permanently invested in business.
2. It is known as long term capital. For example : Land, machine etc.
3. There is very less liquidity in this capital because these are not easily meant for resale.
4. Requirement of fixed capital depend on size of the enterprise.

Working capital

1. This is the capital required to meet day to day expenses of the business.
2. It is also known as short term capital.Like purchase of raw material, payment of salaries or wages.
3. It is a liquid capital because flow of this capital does not slop suddenly.
4. It is invested in production of goods.

Question 22.
What are the factors affecting fixed capital ?
Answer:
The various factors affecting fixed capital are :

1. Nature of industry : Fixed capital requirement largely depends on the nature of industry. When there is a need of land, building, machinery etc. in industry, the need of capital increases.
2. Nature of production : The requirement of fixed capital also depends on the nature of production, whether it is capital based or labour based.
3. Scope of business : If business is only a buyer or only a seller the capital requirement is less and if it is both the capital needed is comparatively more.
4. Expansion of business : If business is to be expanded in future then fixed capital is required in great sum. Due to modem machines and management the expenses increases. So capital requirement increases.
5. Preliminary expenses: The need of fixed capital will increase if the promoters at the time of establishment of company speed more on salary of promoters, establishment expenses, purchase of patent etc.
6. Attitude of management: If the manager wants to enter in the market as a major producer from. The very beginning than more fixed capital will be needed.

Financial Management Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between Over capitalization and Under capitalization.
Answer:
Differences between Over capitalization and Under capitalization :

Question 2.
What are the sources of long term working capital ?
Answer:
Sources of Long-Term Working Capital (These are also the Sources of Fixed Capital).
Some part of working capital is permanently required in the organisation and its sources have also to be such which can provide capital for a long time. Following are the sources of long-term or permanent working capital:

1. Issue of shares : For procurement of permanent working capital both equity and preference shares can be issued but equity shares prove better because, unlike on preference shares, no dividend at fixed rate has to be paid.

2. Issue of debentures : Issue of debentures is also a preferred source of long-term working capital. Debentures are issued when it is felt that after sometime there will be lesser need of working capital. Money can be refunded by redeeming redeemable debentures. Equity share capital cannot be returned back during the life time of the company (except by buy back of shares). It proves better to raise permanent working capital partly by issue of equity shares and partly through issue of debentures so that money raised from issue of debentures can be returned back when not required.

3. Publishing back of profits : Reinvestment of profit, called ploughing back of profits, is an important source of raising permanent working capital. It is a free of charge method which does not create a burden on future profits of the business. As the company expands, the need for permanent working capital also increases. This need can be met by reinvesting profits in business; but to do so the management has to adopt a tight or conservative dividend policy and the shareholders have to make a sacrifice. This method can be adopted by profit making companies only.

4. Public deposits : Under this method companies accept deposits from public for medium period at attractive rates of interest. The defect of this method is that public will place deposits only in financially sound companies and there will be rush for withdrawals in cash of financial difficulties.

5. Loans from financial institutions : Various state governments and the central government have set-up specialised financial institutions which provide medium and long term loans to industries. These institutions have become major sources of finance of medium and large scale industries. Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI), State Financial Corporations (SFCs), Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI), Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India (ICICI), Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) and Unit Trust of India (UTI) are examples of such financial institutions.

Question 3.
What are the causes of over capitalization ?
Answer:
Following are the causes of over capitalization :

1. More promotion expenditure : When in a company formation, over time is taken and over expences is done on un appropriate promotion then it gives rise to over capitalization promotion expenditure should be in accordance with the trading of company. When amount of capital is fixed more than acquired capital then over capitalization takes place.

2. Issue of over capital: When in a company more than required capital is issued then in a company more than requirement. When it is not used properly the problem of over capitalization.

3. Formation of company during inflation : When any company is formed during the period of inflation. During inflation it is expensive to purchase assets and they are not profitable to purchase in future. Whenever period of inflation is over the problem of over capitalization starts.

4. More income than expected at the time of promotion : When more income is expected at the time of promotion then over capitalization takes place.

Question 4.
Explain the types of working capital.
Answer:
There are two types of working capital:

1. Fixed or regular working capital: Some type of working capital is that which is required for the whole year. Arrangement of such type of capital is done permanantly through long term capital. Regular or working capital is required to maintain minimum stock, to keep minimum amount of cash in banks, wear and tear of business electricity, wages, salary etc. For general working of the business it is essential. By this capital business can make progress.

2. Seasonal or Variable working’capital: It is such type of capital which is used in a specific season in a year. This expenditure is goes on changing. Due to this reason, it is called seasonal or variable working capital.

For example, capital required to purchase woollen clothes in winter season, rainy materials before rainy season. The year in which more rainfall is there or more cold is there such products are sold on large scale. Thus proportion of capital increases.

Question 5.
What is the importance of working capital ?
Answer:

1. Prompt payment to suppliers and others : A business enterprise with sufficient working capital can make prompt payments to its suppliers and meet other liabilities promptly. It increases credit standing or reputation of the enterprise.

2. Can avail benefits of cash discounts : A business with sufficient working capital can avail cash discounts by making prompt payments to its creditors.

3. Garbing business opportunities : Adequate working capital enables Finns to take advantage of any favourable business opportunity like purchasing and storing raw material at low prices or executing special orders.

4. Increase in credit worthiness and goodwill : Availability of sufficient working capital is considered as sign of good financial position by creditors and banks and there is no difficulty in borrowing funds in case of need.

5. Distribution of dividend : If there are sufficient liquid assets with an organisation, it can afford to declare and distribute good dividends. A firm starved of working capital can not do so, it has to plough back its profits in business.

6. Facing emergencies : A company having sufficient working capital can overcome short-term financial difficulties and meet other emergencies.

Question 6.
What are the disadvantages of equity shares ?
Answer:
Disadvantages of Equity Shares are :

1. Disruption in working : By exercising their rights in company meetings equity shareholders may cause disruption in smooth working of the company for their own gains.

2. Loosing benefit of trading on equity : By raising whole the capital through equity shares the company cannot take benefit of trading on equity. .

3. Danger of over capitalization : Excessive issue of equity shares may lead to over capitalization which is harmful for the company.

4. Loss of control on management: With the sale of equity shares, there is transfer of voting right also. If any group is able to acquire a large number of shares in the company, it may gain control over its affairs and the present management may be ousted.

5. Payment of high dividends : To attract investors in equity shares the management has to maintain high rate of divident. Dividend paid is not deductible as a business expense. All this makes equity shares method of raising finance a costly affair.

6. Difficulty in increasing share capital: If the authorised capital of the company has to be increased or some shares with special rights have to be issued, the consent of existing equity shareholders has to be obtained which is not an easy task always.

7. Uncertainty of income : From the viewpoint of investors, equity shares do not guarantee a regular income, the rate of dividend may vary each year and there may be non in some years.

8. Fall in value of shares : Due to speculation and other economic and political factors there may be fall in the value of equity shares which may cause financial loss to investors.

Question 7.
Write the advantages of preferential shares ?
Advantages of Preference Shares :

1. Trading on equity is possible : As preference shareholders get dividend at fixed rate, trading on equity are available to equity shareholders.
2. No burden on company : Though rate of dividend is fixed on preference shares but if profits in any year are insufficient, their payment can be postponed.
3. Retaining control on management: As preference shareholders have limited voting rights, the management can get capital without granting any voting rights and, thus retain control over the company.
4. No charge over assets of the company : Issue of preference shares creates no charge over assets of the company (as is the case when secured debentures are issued). The company can, therefore, utilize its assets for borrowing later.
5. Flexibility : To get funds for medium term the company can issue redeemable preference shares adding flexibility to its capital structure.
6. Cautious investors are attracted : By issuing preference shares, which offer special security, the company can raise capital from cautious investors, not willing to undertake risks.

Question 8.
What is the bad effects of over capitalization on company ?
Answer:
Effects or demerits of over capitalization : The effects or demerits of over capitalization are as follows :

1. Loss of goodwill
2. Difficulty in obtaining capital
3. Difficulty in obtaining loans
4. It creates artificial high dividend rate
5. Demand for winding up can be raised
6. It is difficult to face competition
7. Shareholders receive dividend at low rate
8. The face value of shares reduces due to over capitalization
9. Welfare facilities of employees is reduced
10. It also affects the society as the prices of products increases
11. Low quality of goods are provided to consumers
12. It creates unemployment
13. Frustration in economic system develops due to over capitalization.

Question 9.
What are the internal factors affecting the capital structure ?
Answer:
Internal Factors : The following internal factors affect capital structure :

1. Nature of business : The nature of business of an enterprise effects the business
most. Enterprises indulged in the process of manufacturing requires more fixed capital compared to working capital. While other business enterprises require more working capital than fixed capital. The enterprises which require more capital can form it through long term loans or shares while working capital can be formed through other sources.

2. Regularity and certainty of income : The regularity and certainty of income also affects the capital structure. Thus, according to estimated incomes capital structure should be formed. If enterprise has certainty of income then capital should be formed by issuing debentures, bonds and preference shares but when there is uncertain income, capital should be formed by issue of equity shares.

3. Future plans : In the capital structure of an enterprise the current needs as well as the future development plans should be also kept in mind, so that in future the required capital can be formed. First of all equity shares are issued and later on according to needs preference shares and debentures are issued. Thus, future plans affects capital structure.

4. Trading on equity : Trading on equity means borrowing funds at reasonable rates with the help of share capital. Trading on equity also affects the capital structure of an enterprise. It should be adopted by the enterprise which have regular income and have goodwill.

5. Structure of commercial assets : The enterprises in which the structure of commercial assets include more fixed capital, in its capital structure consists more share of long term loans and debentures while less share of share capital. But the structure of commercial which includes more current assets, in its capital structure consists of less long term loans.

6. Desire to control the business : Desire to control business also affects the capital structure. If funds are raised by issuing equity shares then the number of owners controlling the company increases. It will not be acceptable to existing shareholders. But when funds are raised through debt capital there is no effect on the control of company because debenture holders have no control over the affairs of enterprise.

7. Age of firm: The goodwill of a new enterprise is very less in the market and extent of risk is more. Thus, it is difficult for these type of firms to raise the capital. So these firms try to raise capital at their own risk. Later on when these enterprise increases the goodwill then it becomes easier to raise the funds.

Question 10.
What are the external factors of affecting capital structure ?
Answer:
External factors: The following external factors also affect the capital structure:

1. Conditions of capital market: The conditions of capital market also affects capital structure up to a certain extent. At the time of depression when rate of interest is low and chances of profit is uncertain then in place of shares, debentures are more popular.

2. Psychological condition of investors : The capital structure of an enterprise is affected by the nature and types of investors. The psychological conditions and risk facing ability of investors affects the capital structure. According to these conditions the various types of securities are issued.

3. Legal Provision : Capital structure is also influenced by the legal provisions or government regulations. The public issue of shares and debentures have to be made under SEBI guidelines.

4. Tax provisions : The tax rules and regulations of any country affects the capital structure.

Question 11.
Write the types of Financial planning.
Answer:
Following are the types of financial planning :

(1) Short term financial planning: Generally in a business planning is made for one year is called short term financial planning. In short term financial planning mainly working capital is used. Short term planning is the part of long term and mid term planning.

(2) Mid term financial planning: Mid term planning is that planning which is made for more than one year and less than five years. This type of planning is made for maintenance of business and for developmental work.

(3) Long term financial planning : Planning which is made for five years or more than five years is called Long-term financial planning. This type of planning is based on broad type of outlook. This type of planning is done for long term problems.

Question 12.
What do you mean by investment decisions ? Write the factors affecting investment decisions.
Answer:
It means the selection of best financing alternative or best investment alternative. Financial decision-making is concerned with three broad decisions. A firm’s resources are
scarce in comparison to the uses to which they can be put. A firm, therefore, has to choose where to invest these resources, so that they are able to earn the highest possible return for their investors.

The investment decision, therefore, relates to how the firm’s funds are invested in different assets. Factors which affect capital budgeting decisions :

(a) Cash flows of the project : When a company takes an investment decision involving huge amount it expects to generate some cash flows over a period. These cash flows are in the form of a series of cash receipts and payments over the life of an investment. The amount of these cash flows should be carefully analysed before considering a capital budgeting decision.

(b) The rate of return : The most important criterion is the rate of return of the project. These calculations are based on the expected returns from each proposal and the assessment of risk involved. Suppose, there are two projects A and B (with the same risk involved) with a rate of return of 10 percent and 12 percent, respectively, then under normal circumstance, project B will be selected.

(c) The investment criteria involved : The decision to invest in a particular project involves a number of calculations regarding the amount of investment, interest rate, cash flows and rate of return. There are different techniques to evaluate investment proposals which are known as capital budgeting techniques.These techniques are applied to each proposal before selecting a particular project.

Question 13.
What is meant by working capital ? How is it calculated ? Discuss five important determinants of working capital requirements.
Answer:
Working capital is that part of total capital which is required to meet day-to-day expenses. To buy raw materials, to pay wages and other expensess of routine nature in the production process or we can say it refers to excess of current assets over current liabilities.
Working Capital = Current Assets-Current Liabilities
Factors affecting working capital requirement are :

(i) Nature of Business : The basic nature of a business influences the amount of working capital required. A trading organisation usually needs a lower amount of working capital compared to a manufacturing organisation. This is because in trading. There is no processing required. In a manufacturing business, however raw materials need to be converted into finished goods. Which increases the expenditure on raw material, labour and other expenses.

(ii) Scale of Operation : The firms which are operating on a higher scale of operations, the quantum of inventory, debtors required is generally high. Such organisations there fore, require large amount of working capital as compared to the organisations which operate on a lower scale.

(iii) Production Cycle : Production cycle is the time span between the receipts of raw materials and their conversion into finished goods. Some businesses have a longer production cycle while some have a shorter one. Working capital requirement is higher in terms with longer processing cycle and lower in firms with shorter processing cycle.

(iv) Credit Allowed : Different firms allow different credit terms to their customers. A liberal credit policy results in higher amount of debtors, increasing the requirements of working capital.

(v) Credit Availed : Just as a firm allows credit to its customers, it also may get credit from its suppliers. The more credit, a firm avails company may be profitable but short on cash. Availability of enough cash in the company is necessary for declaration of dividend by it.

MP Board Class 12 Business Studies Important Questions

MP Board Class 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 2 मात्रक एवं मापन

मात्रक एवं मापन अभ्यास के प्रश्न एवं उनके उत्तर

प्रश्न 2.1.
रिक्त स्थान भरिए –

1. किसी 1 cm भुजा वाले घन का आयतन …………… m³ के बराबर है।
2. किसी 2 cm त्रिज्या व 10 cm ऊँचाई वाले सिलिंडर का पृष्ठ क्षेत्रफल …………. (mm)² के बराबर है।
3. कोई गाड़ी 18 km/h की चाल से चल रही है तो यह 1 s में ………….. m चलती है।
4. सीसे का आपेक्षिक घनत्व 11.3 है। इसका घनत्व – g cm^–3 या …………. kg m^–3 है।.

उत्तर:
1. घन का आयतन = (भुजा)³ = (1 सेमी)³
= 9(\(\frac { 1 }{ 100 }\)मी) [∵ 1 सेमी = \(\frac { 1 }{ 100 }\)मी]

2. सिलिंडर का पृष्ठ क्षेत्रफल
= वक्र पृष्ठ का क्षे० x वृत्तीय सिरों का क्षे०
= 2nr (h + r)
= 2 x 3.14 x 2 सेमी (10 सेमी + 2 सेमी)
= 2 x 3.14 x 2 x 12 वर्ग सेमी
= 150.72 सेमी ²
= 150.72 x (10)² वर्ग मिमी
= 1.5 x 104 वर्ग मिमी

3. गाड़ी की चाल = 18 किमी/घण्टा
= 18 x 5 मी/सेकण्ड = 5 मीटर/सेकण्ड
∴ 1 सेकण्ड में चली दूरी = चाल x समय
= 5 मी/सेकण्ड x 1 सेकण्ड = 5 मीटर

4. सीसे का घनत्व
= सीसे का आपेक्षिक घनत्व x जल का घनत्व
= 11.3 x 1 ग्राम/सेमी³
= 11.3 ग्राम/सेमी³
= 113( \(\frac { 1 }{ 1000 }\) किग्रा)/(\(\frac { 1 }{ 100 }\)मीटर)³
= 1.13 x 10¹⁴ किग्रा प्रति मीटर³

प्रश्न 2.2.
रिक्त स्थानों को मात्रकों के उचित परिवर्तन द्वारा भरिए

1. 1 kg m²s^–2 =………. g cm²s^–2
2. 1 m =………. ly
3. 3.0 ms^–2 =…….. Kmh^–2
4. G = 6.67 x 10^–11 Nm² (kg)^–2 = ……….. (cm)³ s^–2 g^–1

उत्तर:
1. 1 kg m²s² = 1kg x 1 m²s^–2
= (100 gm) x (100 cm) ² x 1 s^–2
= 10 gm cms-2 – 1 ly (light year) = 9.46 x 1015 मीटर

2. ∵ 1 मीटर = \(\frac { 1 }{ 9.46×10^{ 15 } } \) ly = 1.06 x 10^–16 ly

3. 3 m^–2 = 3 m x 1 s^–2

= 3.9 x 10⁴ km h^–2

4. G = 6.67 x 10^–11 Nm² (kg)^–2
= 6.67 x 10^–11 Nm² x (\(\frac { 1 }{ kg }\))²)
= 6.67 x 10^–11 (kg ms^–2) x 1 m² x (\(\frac { 1 }{ kg }\)²)
= 6.67 x 10^–11 x m³s^–2) x \(\frac { 1 }{ kg }\)
= 6.67 x 10^–11 x \(\frac { 1 }{ 1000 gm }\) x (100)³ x s^–2
= 6.67 x 10^–8(cm)³s^–2g^–1

प्रश्न 2.3.
ऊष्मा (परागमन में ऊर्जा ) का मात्रक कैलोरी है और यह लगभग 4.2 J के बराबर है। जहाँ 1 J = 1kg m²s^–2 मान लीजिए कि हम मात्रकों की कोई ऐसी प्रणाली उपयोग करते हैं जिससे द्रव्यमान का मात्रक α kg के बराबर है, लंबाई का मात्रक β m के बराबर है, समय का मात्रक γ s के बराबर है। यह प्रदर्शित कीजिए कि नए मात्रकों के पदों में कैलोरी का परिमाण 4.2 α ^–1β^–2 γ² है।
उत्तर:
कैलोरी = 4.2 जूल = 4.2 किग्रा-मीटर प्रति सेकण्ड।
हम जानते हैं कि ऊर्जा का विमीय सूत्र = [ML²T²]
माना कि दो अलग-अलग मापन पद्धतियों के द्रव्यमान के मात्रक M₁ व M₂ लम्बाई के मात्रक L₁ व L₂ एवम् समय के मात्रक T₁ व T₂ है।

प्रश्नानुसार M₁ = 1 किग्रा, L₁ = 1 मीटर, T₁=1 सेकण्ड, तथा M₂ = α किग्रा, L₂ = β मीटर, T₂ = γ सेकण्ड
इस प्रकार u₁ = [M₁L²₁T₁^–2]
तथा u₂ = [M₂L²₂T₂^–2]
n₁ = 4.2, n₂ = ?
सूत्र n₁u₁ = n₁u₂ से,

अर्थात् दूसरी मापन पद्धति में 1 कैलोरी का मान 4.2 α^–1 β^–2 γ² है।

प्रश्न 2.4.
इस कथन की स्पष्ट व्याख्या कीजिए : तुलना के मानक का विशेष उल्लेख किए बिना “किसी विमीय राशि को बड़ा’ या ‘छोटा’ कहना अर्थहीन है।” इसे ध्यान में रखते हुए नीचे दिए गए कथनों को जहाँ कहीं भी आवश्यक हो, दूसरे शब्दों में व्यक्त कीजिए:

1. परमाणु बहुत छोटे पिण्ड होते हैं।
2. जेट वायुयान अत्यधिक गति से चलता है।
3. बृहस्पति का द्रव्यमान बहुत ही अधिक है।
4. इस कमरे के अंदर वायु में अणुओं की संख्या बहुत अधिक है।
5. इलेक्ट्रॉन, प्रोटॉन से बहुत भारी होता है।
6. ध्वनि की गति प्रकाश की गति से बहुत ही कम होती

उत्तर:
दिया गया कथन सत्य है। सामान्यत: हम कहते हैं कि परमाणु बहुत छोटा पिण्ड है। लेकिन इलेक्ट्रॉन परमाणु से भी छोटा कण है। तब यह भी कह सकते हैं कि इलेक्ट्रॉन की अपेक्षा परमाणु एक बड़ा पिण्ड है। जबकि टेनिस गेंद की तुलना में परमाणु बहुत छोटा पिण्ड है। इस प्रकार हम देखते हैं कि परमाणु को किसी एक वस्तु की अपेक्षा बहुत छोटा कह सकते है जबकि इलेक्ट्रॉन की तुलना में बड़ा पिण्ड का संकेत है।

1. आलपिन की नोक की तुलना में परमाणु बहुत छोटे पिण्ड होते हैं।
2. रेलगाड़ी की तुलना में जेट वायुयान अत्यधिक गति से चलता है।
3. बृहस्पति का द्रव्यमान पृथ्वी की तुलना में बहुत अधिक होता है।
4. इस कमरे के अन्दर वायु में अणुओं की संख्या वायु के एक ग्राम अणु में उपस्थित अणुओं से काफी अधिक है।
5. यह कथन सही है।
6. यह कथन सही है।

प्रश्न 2.5.
लंबाई का कोई ऐसा नया मात्रक चुना गया है जिसके अनुसार निर्वात में प्रकाश की चाल 1 है। लम्बाई के नए मात्रक के पदों में सूर्य तथा पृथ्वी के बीच की दूरी कितनी है, प्रकाश इस दूरी को तय करने में 8 min और 20 s लगाता है।
उत्तर:
प्रश्नानुसार प्रकाश की चाल = 1 मात्रक प्रति सेकण्ड प्रकाश द्वारा लिया गया समय, t = 8 मिनट 20 सेकण्ड
= 8 x 60 + 20 = 500 सेकण्ड
∴ सूर्य एवम् पृथ्वी के मध्य दूरी
= प्रकाश की चाल x लिया गया समय
= 1 मात्रक प्रति सेकण्ड x 500 सेकण्ड
= 500 मात्रक

प्रश्न 2.6.
लंबाई मापने के लिए निम्नलिखित में से कौन – सा सबसे परिशुद्ध यंत्र है:

1. एक वर्नियर कैलीपर्स जिसके वर्नियर पैमाने पर 20 विभाजन हैं।
2. एक स्क्रूगेज जिसका चूड़ी अंतराल 1 mm और वृत्तीय पैमाने पर 100 विभाजन है।
3. कोई प्रकाशिक यंत्र जो प्रकाश की तरंग दैर्ध्य की सीमा के अंदर लंबाई माप सकता है।

उत्तर:
1. वर्नियर कैलीपर्स का अल्पतमांक

2. स्क्रूगेज की अल्पतमांक

3. चँकि प्रकाशिक यन्त्र द्वारा प्रकाश की तरंग दैर्ध्य की सीमा के अन्दर लम्बाई मापी जा सकती है।
अतः इसकी अल्पतमांक
= 10^–7 मीटर = 10¹⁵ सेमी
अर्थात् प्रकाशिक यन्त्र की अल्पतमांक सबसे कम है। इस कारण यह सर्वाधिक परिशुद्ध यन्त्र है।

प्रश्न 2.7.
कोई छात्र 100 आवर्धन के एक सूक्ष्मदर्शी के द्वारा देखकर मनुष्य के बाल की मोटाई मापता है। वह 20 बार प्रेक्षण करता है और उसे ज्ञात होता है कि सूक्ष्मदर्शी के दृश्य क्षेत्र में बाल की औसत मोटाई 3.5 mm है। बाल की मोटाई का अनुमान क्या है?
उत्तर:
हम जानते हैं कि, सूक्ष्मदर्शी की आवर्धन क्षमता

अतः बाल की अनुमानित मोटाई = 0.035 मिमी।

प्रश्न 2.8.
निम्नलिखित के उत्तर दीजिए:

1. आपको एक धागा और मीटर पैमाना दिया जाता है। आप धागे के व्यास का अनुमान किस प्रकार लगाएँगे?
2. एक स्क्रूगेज का चूड़ी अंतराल 1.0 mm है और उसके वृत्तीय पैमाने पर 200 विभाजन हैं। क्या आप यह सोचते हैं कि वृत्तीय पैमाने पर विभाजनों की संख्या स्वेच्छा से बढ़ा देने पर स्क्रूगेज की यथार्थता में वृद्धि करना संभव है?
3. वर्नियर कैलीपर्स द्वारा पीतल की किसी पतली छड़ का माध्य व्यास मापा जाना है। केवल 5 मापनों के समुच्चय की तुलना में व्यास के 100 मापनों के समुच्चय के द्वारा अधिक विश्वसनीय अनुमान प्राप्त होने की संभावना क्यों हैं?

उत्तर:
1. एक बेलनाकार छड़ लेकर, इसके ऊपर धागे को सटाकर लपेटते हैं। धागे के फेरों द्वारा घेरी गई छड़ की लम्बाई का मीटर पैमाने द्वारा माप लेते हैं। माना लपेटे गए फेरों की संख्या 20 है।
अत: धागे का व्यास =इस प्रकार धागे का व्यास ज्ञात हो सकता है।

2. हम जानते हैं कि स्क्रूगेज का अल्पतमांक

प्रश्नानुसार स्क्रूगेज पर बने विभाजनों (भागों) की संख्या बढ़ा देने से, स्क्रूगेज का अल्पतमांक घटेगा अर्थात् यथार्थता बढ़ेगी।

3. हम जानते हैं कि, प्रेक्षणों की माध्य निरपेक्ष त्रुटि,

उपरोक्त सूत्र के अनुसार प्रेक्षणों की संख्या बढ़ाने से माध्य निरपेक्ष त्रुटि घटेगी। अर्थात् अधिक प्रेक्षणों द्वारा प्राप्त, छड़ का माध्य व्यास अधिक विश्वसनीय होगा।

प्रश्न 2.9.
किसी मकान का फोटोग्राफ 35 mm स्लाइड पर 1.75 cm² क्षेत्र घेरता है। स्लाइड को किसी स्क्रीन पर प्रक्षेपित किया जाता है और स्क्रीन पर मकान का क्षेत्रफल 1.55 m² है। प्रक्षेपित्र -परदा व्यवस्था का रेखीय आवर्धन क्या
उत्तर:
दिया है: स्लाइड पर मकान का क्षेत्रफल = 1.75 वर्ग सेमी स्क्रीन पर मकान का क्षेत्रफल
= 1.55 वर्ग मीटर
= 1.55 x (100 सेमी)²
= 1.55 x 10000 सेमी²
= 15500 सेमी²

प्रश्न 2.10.
निम्नलिखित में सार्थक अंकों की संख्या लिखिए:

1. 0.007 m²
2. 2.64 x 10²⁴ kg
3. 0.2370 g cm
4. 6.320 J
5. 6.032 Nm^–2
6. 0.0006032 m²

उत्तर:

1. 1
2. 3
3. 4
4. 4
5. 4
6. 4

प्रश्न 2.11.
धातु की किसी आयताकार शीट की लंबाई, चौड़ाई व मोटाई क्रमशः 4.234 m, 1.005 m व 2.01 cm है। उचित सार्थक अंकों तक इस शीट का क्षेत्रफल व आयतन ज्ञात कीजिए।
उत्तर:
दिया है:
लम्बाई a = 4.234
मीटर चौड़ाई b = 1.005 मीटर
मोटाई c = 2.01 सेंटीमीटर
शीट का पृष्ठ क्षेत्रफल = 2 (ab + bc + ca)
= 2 [4.234 x 1.005 + 1.005 x 2.01 + 2.01 x 4.234]
= 8.7209478 मी²
= 8.72 मीटर²
चूँकि मोटाई में न्यूनतम सार्थक अंक (i.e., 3) है। शीट का आयतन = a x b x c
= 4.234 x 1.005 x 0.0201 मी³
= 0.0855 मीटर³

प्रश्न 2.12.
पंसारी की तुला द्वारा मापे गए डिब्बे का द्रव्यमान 2.300 kg है। सोने के दो टुकड़े जिनका द्रव्यमान 20.15 g व 20.17g है, डिब्बे में रखे जाते हैं।

1. डिब्बे का कुल द्रव्यमान कितना है
2. उचित सार्थक अंकों तक टुकड़ों के द्रव्यमानों में कितना अंतर हैं?

उत्तर:
1. दिया है : डिब्बे का द्रव्यमान m = 2.300 किग्रा
पहले टुकड़े का द्रव्यमान m₁ = 20.15 ग्राम
= 0.02015 किग्रा
दूसरे टुकड़े का द्रव्यमान m₂ = 20.17 ग्राम
= 0.02017 किग्रा
∴ टुकड़े रखने के बाद डिब्बे का कुल द्रव्यमान
M = m + m₁ + m₂
= 2.300 + 0.02015 + 0.02017
= 2.34032 किग्रा
चूँकि डिब्बे के द्रव्यमान में न्यूनतम सार्थक अंक 4 है। अतः डिब्बे के कुल द्रव्यमान का अधिकतम चार सार्थक अंकों में पूर्णांक करना चाहिए।
∴ कुल द्रव्यमान = 2.340 किग्रा

2. द्रव्यमानों में अन्तर
∆m = m₂ – m₁ = 20.17 – 20.15
= 0.02 ग्राम
चूँकि अधिकतम सार्थक अंक 4 हैं। अतः इनके अन्तर का दशमलव के दूसरे स्थान तक अर्थात् 0.02 ग्राम होगा।

प्रश्न 2.13.
कोई भौतिक राशि P, चार प्रेक्षण-योग्य राशियों a, b, c तथा d से इस प्रकार संबंधित हैं:
p = \(\frac { a^{ 3 }b^{ 2 } }{ (\sqrt { c } d) } \)
a, b, c तथा d के मापने में प्रतिशत त्रुटियाँ क्रमशः 1%, 3%,4% तथा 2% हैं। राशि Pमें प्रतिशत त्रुटि कितनी है? यदि उपर्युक्त संबंध का उपयोग करके Pका परिकलित मान 3.763 आता है, तो आप परिणाम का किस मान तक निकटन करेंगे?
उत्तर:
दिया है: P =p =\(\frac { a^{ 3 }b^{ 2 } }{ \sqrt { c } d} \)
P के मान में % त्रुटि
= \(\frac {∆p }{ p }\) x 100
= 3 x \(\frac {∆a }{ a }\) x 100 + 2 x \(\frac {∆b }{ b }\) x 100 + \(\frac { 1}{ 2 }\) x \(\frac {∆c }{ c }\) x 100 x \(\frac {∆d }{ d }\) x 100
= 3 x 1% + 2 x 3% +\(\frac { 1}{ 2 }\) x 4% + 2%
= 3% + 6% + 2% + 2%
= 13%
∴ \(\frac {∆p }{ p }\) = 13
∴ ∆P \(\frac { 13 x p}{ 100 }\)
= \(\frac { 13 x 3.763}{ 100}\)
= 0.4891
= 0.489 (उचित सार्थक अंक तीन तक)
अतः
P के मान में त्रुटि 0.489 है। इससे स्पष्ट है कि P के मान में दशमलव के पहले स्थान पर स्थित अंक ही संदिग्ध है। अर्थात् P के मान को दशमलव के दूसरे स्थान तक लिखना कार्य । अतः P के मान का दशमलव के पहले स्थान तक ही पूर्णांकन रना होगा।

प्रश्न 2.14.
किसी पुस्तक में, जिसमें छपाई की अनेक टियाँ हैं,आवर्त गति कर रहे किसी कण के विस्थापन के चार भन्न सूत्र
दिए गए हैं:

1. y = a sin 2nt / T
2. y = a sin vt
3. y = (a/T) sin tla
4. y = (av2)(sin 2nt IT + cos 2nt IT)

(a = कण का अधिकतम विस्थापन, y = कण की चाल, “= गति का आवर्त काल)। विमीय आधारों पर गलत सूत्रों को निकाल दीजिए।
उत्तर:
किसी भी त्रिकोणमितीय फलन का कोण एक बमाहीन राशि होती है।

1. सही है।
2. ∵ vt विमाहीन नहीं है। अतः यह सूत्र गलत है।
3. ∵ t / a विमाहीन नहीं है। अत: यह सूत्र गलत है।
4. सही है।
   ∴ P का निकटतम मान =3.763 =33.8

प्रश्न 2.15.
भौतिकी का एक प्रसिद्ध संबंध किसी कणके ‘चल द्रव्यमान (moving mass)’ m, ‘विराम द्रव्यमान (rest mass) m₀ इसकी चाल , और प्रकाश की चाल के बीच है। (यह संबंध सबसे पहले अल्बर्ट आइंस्टाइन के विशेष आपेक्षिकता के सिद्धांत के परिणामस्वरूप उत्पन्न हुआ था।) कोई छात्र इस संबंध को लगभग सही याद करता है लेकिन स्थिरांक c को लगाना भूल जाता है। वह लिखता है:

अनुमान लगाइए कि c कहाँ लगेगा?
उत्तर:
दिया है:

(1 – v²)^1/2 = \(\frac { m_{ 0 } }{ m } \)
यहाँ दायाँ पक्ष विमाहीन है जबकि बायाँ पक्ष विमापूर्ण है। अतः सूत्र के सही होने के लिए बायाँ पक्ष भी विमाहीन होना है। अर्थात् (1-v²)^1/22 के स्थान पर ((1 – v²)/c²)^1/2 होना चाहिए।

प्रश्न 2.16.
परमाण्विक पैमाने पर लम्बाई का सुविधाजनक मात्रक एंगस्ट्रम है और इसे Å : 1 Å= 10^–10 m द्वारा निर्दिष्ट किया जाता है। हाइड्रोजन के परमाणु का आमाप लगभग 0.5 Å है। हाइड्रोजन परमाणुओं के एक मोल का m’ में कुल आण्विक आयतन कितना होगा?
उत्तर:
हाइड्रोजन के एक अणु में दो परमाणु होते हैं।
∴ एक हाइड्रोजन अणु की त्रिज्या (r) = 1 हाइड्रोजन परमाणु . का आमाप
= 0.5 Å = 0.5 x 10^–10 मीटर
∴ एक हाइड्रोजन अणु का आयतन
\(\frac { 4 }{ 3 }\) πr³
= \(\frac { 4 }{ 3 }\) x 3.14 x 10.5 x 10^–10 मी³
= 5.23 x 10^–31 मीटर³
∴ 1 मोल हाइड्रोजन गैस में अणुओं की संख्या
= 6.023 x 10²³
∴ 1 मोल हाइड्रोजन गैस में आण्विक आयतन  = अणुओं की संख्या – एक अणु का आ०
= 6.023 x 10²³ x 5.23 x 10^–31 मीटर
= 3.15 x 10^–7 मीटर³

प्रश्न 2.17.
किसी आदर्श गैस का एक मोल (ग्राम अणुक)मानक ताप व दाब पर 22.4L आयतन (ग्राम अणुक आयतन) घेरता है। हाइड्रोजन के ग्राम अणुक आयतन तथा उसके एक मोल के परमाण्विक आयतन का अनुपात क्या है? (हाइड्रोजन के अणु की आमाप लगभग Å मानिए)। यह अनुपात इतना अधिक क्यों है?
उत्तर:
∵1 मोल हाइड्रोजन गैस का NTP पर आयतन
= 22.4 लीटर
= 22.4 x 10^–3 मीटर³
जबकि 1 मोल हाइड्रोजन गैस का NTP पर परमाण्विक आयतन = 3.15 x 10^–7 मीटर³

= 7.11 x 104
इस अनुपात का मान अधिक होने का कारण है कि गैस का आयतन उसमें उपस्थित अणुओं के वास्तविक आयतन की अपेक्षा बहुत अधिक होता है। अर्थात् गैस के अणुओं के मध्य बहुत अधिक खाली स्थान होता है।

प्रश्न 2.18.
इस सामान्य प्रेक्षण की स्पष्ट व्याख्या कीजिए : यदि आप तीव्र गति से गतिमान किसी रेलगाड़ी की खिड़की से बाहर देखें तो समीप के पेड़, मकान आदि रेलगाड़ी की गति की विपरीत दिशा में तेजी से गति करते प्रतीत होते हैं, परन्तु दूरस्थ पिण्ड (पहाड़ियाँ, चंद्रमा, तारे आदि) स्थिर प्रतीत होते हैं। (वास्तव में, क्योंकि आपको ज्ञात है कि आप चल रहे हैं, इसलिए, ये दूरस्थ वस्तुएँ आपको अपने साथ चलती हुई प्रतीत होती हैं)।
उत्तर:
किसी वस्तु का हमारे सापेक्ष गति करते हुए प्रतीत होना, हमारे सापेक्ष वस्तु के कोणीय वेग पर निर्भर करता है। जबकि गाड़ी से यात्रा करते समय सभी वस्तुएँ समान वेग से हमारे पीछे की ओर गतिमान रहती है लेकिन समीप स्थित वस्तुओं का हमारे सापेक्ष कोणीय वेग ज्यादा होता है। अर्थात् वे वस्तुएँ तीव्र गति से पीछे की ओर जाती हुई प्रतीत होती हैं जबकि दूर स्थित वस्तुएँ हमारे सापेक्ष, कम कोणीय वेग से चलती हैं। इस प्रकार वे हमें लगभग स्थिर नजर आती हैं।

प्रश्न 2.19.
समीपी तारों की दूरियाँ ज्ञात करने के लिए अनुभाग 2.3.1 में दिए गए’लंबन’ के सिद्धांत का प्रयोग किया जाता है। सूर्य के परितः अपनी कक्षा में छः महीनों के अंतराल पर पृथ्वी की अपनी दो स्थानों को मिलाने वाली, आधार रेखा AB है। अर्थात् आधार रेखा पृथ्वी की कक्षा के व्यास = 3 x 10¹¹ m के लगभग बराबर है। लेकिन, चूँकि निकटतम तारे भी इतने अधिक दूर हैं कि इतनी लंबी आधार रेखा होने पर भी वे चाप के केवल 1′ (सेकंड, चाप का) की कोटि का लंबन प्रदर्शित करते हैं। खगोलीय पैमाने पर लंबाई का सुविधाजनक मात्रक पारसेक है। यह किसी पिण्ड की वह दूरी है जो पृथ्वी से सूर्य तक की दूरी के बराबर आधार रेखा के दो विपरीत किनारों से चाप के 1′ का लंबन प्रदर्शित करती है। मीटरों में एक पारसेक कितना होता है?
उत्तर:
दिए गए चित्र में S सूर्य तथा E पृथ्वी है। पृथ्वी बिन्दु Pसे 1 पारसेक की दूरी पर है। पृथ्वी की कक्षा की त्रिज्या

प्रश्नानुसार रेखाखण्ड SE, बिन्दु P पर 1′ पर 1′ का कोण अन्तरित करता है।
इस प्रकार, ∠SPE =1” = (\(\frac { 1 }{ 60 x 60}\))⁰
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 3600}\) x \(\frac { π }{ 180}\) रेडियन
∠SPE के छोटा होने के कारण PS तथा PE लगभग सम्पाती होंगी।

प्रश्न 2.20.
हमारे सौर परिवार से निकटतम तारा 4.29 प्रकाश वर्ष दूर है। पारसेक में यह दूरी कितनी है? यह तारा (एल्फा सेंटौरी नामक) तब कितना लंबन प्रदर्शित करेगा जब इसे सूर्य के परितः अपनी कक्षा में पृथ्वी के दो स्थानों से जो छः महीने के अन्तराल पर है, देखा जाएगा?
उत्तर:
तारे की सौर परिवार से दूरी = 4.29 प्रकाश वर्ष
= 4.29 x 9.46 x 10¹⁵ मीटर

अभीष्ट लम्बन = 2 Q
= 2 x तारे की सौर परिवार से दूरी
= 1.32 x 2 = 2.64 सेकण्ड चाप का।

प्रश्न 2.21.
भौतिक राशियों का परिशुद्ध मापन विज्ञान की आवश्यकताएँ हैं। उदाहरण के लिए, किसी शत्रु के लड़ाकू जहाज की चाल सुनिश्चित करने के लिए बहुत ही छोटे समय-अंतरालों पर इसकी स्थिति का पता लगाने की कोई यथार्थ विधि होनी चाहिए। द्वितीय विश्व युद्ध में रेडार की खोज के पीछे वास्तविक प्रयोजन यही था। आधुनिक विज्ञान के उन भिन्न उदाहरणों को सोचिए जिनमें लंबाई, समय द्रव्यमान आदि के परिशुद्ध मापन की आवश्यकता होती है। अन्य जिस किसी विषय में भी आप बता सकते हैं, परिशुद्धता की मात्रात्मक धारणा दीजिए।
उत्तर:

1. द्रव्यमान का मापन – द्रव्यमान स्पेक्ट्रम लेखी द्वारा परमाणुओं के द्रव्यमान का परिशुद्ध मापन किया जाता है।
2. लम्बाई का मापन – विभिन्न यौगिकों के क्रिस्टलों में परमाणुओं के मध्य की दूरी का मापन करने के लिए लम्बाई के परिशुद्ध मापन की आवश्यकता होती है।
3. समय का मापन – फोको विधि से किसी माध्यम में प्रकाश की चाल निकालने के प्रयोग में समय के परिशुद्ध मापन की आवश्यकता होती है।

प्रश्न 2.22.
जिस प्रकार विज्ञान में परिशुद्ध मापन आवश्यक है, उसी प्रकार अल्पविकसित विचारों तथा सामान्य प्रेक्षणों को उपयोग करने वाली राशियों के स्थूल आंकलन कर सकना भी उतना ही महत्त्वपूर्ण है। उन उपायों को सोचिए जिनके द्वारा आप निम्नलिखित का अनुमान लगा सकते हैं : (जहाँ अनुमान लगाना कठिन है वहाँ राशि की उपरिसीमा पता लगाने का प्रयास कीजिए।

1. मानसून की अवधि में भारत के ऊपर वर्षाधारी मेघों का कुल द्रव्यमान।
2. किसी हाथी का द्रव्यमान।
3. किसी तूफान की अवधि में वायु की चाल।
4. आपके सिर के बालों की संख्या।
5. आपकी कक्षा के कमरे में वायु के अणुओं की संख्या।

उत्तर:
1. भारत में कुल वर्षा का द्रव्यमान = बादल का द्रव्यमान
= औसत वर्षा x भारत का क्षेत्रफल – जल का घनत्व
= 10 सेमी x 3.3 x 10¹² मीटर² x 10³ किग्रा मीटर^–3
= 3.3 x 10¹⁴ किग्रा

2. हाथी का द्रव्यमान लीवर के सिद्धान्त द्वारा निकाला जा सकता है। यह लगभग 3000 किग्रा होता है।

3. किसी तूफान की अवधि में वायु द्वारा उत्पन्न दाब को मापकर, वायु की चाल ज्ञात की जा सकती है। तूफान की चाल लगभग 80 किमी प्रति घण्टा होती है। यह चाल 300 किमी प्रति घण्टा से अधिक भी हो सकती है।

4. मनुष्य के बालों की संख्या

हम जानते हैं : बाल की मोटाई t = 5 x 10^–3 सेमी तथा मनुष्य के सिर की औसत त्रिज्या =8 सेमी

5. वायु के 1 मोल का NTP पर आयतन = 22.4 लीटर
= 22.4 x 10^–3मीटर³
माना कक्षा के कमरे का आयतन = V
= 5 x 4 x 3 (माना)
= 60 मी³
∴ कक्षा के कमरे में गैस अणुओं की संख्या कक्षा के कमरे का आ०

प्रश्न 2.23.
सूर्य एक ऊष्म प्लाज्मा (आयनीकृत पदार्थ) है। जिसके आंतरिक क्रोड का ताप 10⁷ K से अधिक और बाह्य पृष्ठ का ताप लगभग 6000 K है। इतने अधिक ताप पर कोई भी पदार्थ ठोस या तरल प्रावस्था में नहीं रह सकता। आपको सूर्य का द्रव्यमान घनत्व किस परिसर में होने की आशा है? क्या यह ठोसों, तरलों या गैसों के घनत्वों के परिसर में है? क्या आपका अनुमान सही है, इसकी जाँच आप निम्नलिखित आंकड़ों के आधार पर कर सकते हैं : सूर्य का द्रव्यमान = 2.0 x 10³⁰ kg; सूर्य की त्रिज्या = 7.0 x 10⁸ ml
उत्तर:
दिया है : M = 2 x 10³⁰ किग्रा,
R=7.0 x 108 मीटर

सूर्य का द्रव्यमान द्रवों/ठोस के घनत्व परिसर में होता है। यह गैसों के घनत्वों के परिसर में नहीं होता है। सूर्य की भीतरी पर्तों के कारण बाहरी पर्तों पर अंतर्मुखी गुरुत्वाकर्षण बल के कारण ही गर्म प्लाज्मा का इतना अधिक घनत्व हो जाता है।

प्रश्न 2.24.
जब बृहस्पति ग्रह पृथ्वी से 8247 लाख किलोमीटर दूर होता है, तो इसके व्यास की कोणीय माप 35.72” की चाप है। बृहस्पति का व्यास परिकलित कीजिए।
उत्तर:
दिया है : पृथ्वी से बृहस्पति की दूरी =d
= 824.7 x 10¹⁶ किमी
θ = 35.72″
= 35.72 x 4.85 x 10^–6 रेडियन
बृहस्पति का व्यास, D = ?

D = θ x d
= 35.72 x 4.85 x 10^–6 x 824.7 x 10⁶
= 1.429 x 105 किमी।

प्रश्न 2.25.
वर्षा के समय में कोई व्यक्ति चाल के साथ तेजी से चला जा रहा है। उसे अपने छाते को टेढ़ा करके ऊर्ध्व के साथ एकोण बनाना पड़ता है। कोई विद्यार्थी कोण θ व v के बीच निम्नलिखित संबंध व्युत्पन्न करता है:
tan θ = v
और वह इस संबंध के औचित्य की सीमा पता लगाता है : जैसी कि आशा की जाती है यदि v → 0 तो θ → 0 (हम यह मान रहे हैं कि तेज हवा नहीं चल रही है और किसी खड़े व्यक्ति के लिए वर्षा ऊर्ध्वाधरतः पड़ रही है)। क्या आप सोचते हैं कि यह संबंध सही हो सकता है? यदि ऐसा नहीं हो तो सही संबंध का अनुमान लगाइए।
उत्तर:
दिया है : tan θ = v
यह सम्बन्ध असत्य है क्योंकि इस सम्बन्ध में बायाँ पक्ष विमाहीन है जबकि दाएँ पक्ष की विमा [LT^–1] है। अतः दाएँ पक्ष में वर्षा की बूंदों के वेग से भाग देना चाहिए।
∴सही सम्बन्ध tan θ = \(\frac { v }{ u}\) होगा।

प्रश्न 2.26.
यह दावा किया जाता है कि यदि बिना किसी बाधा के 100 वर्षों तक दो सीज़ियम घड़ियों को चलने दिया जाए, तो उनके समयों में केवल 0.02 s का अंतर हो सकता है। मानक सीज़ियम घड़ी द्वारा 15 के समय अंतराल को मापने में यथार्थता के लिए इसका क्या अभिप्राय है?
उत्तर:
कुल समय = 100 वर्ष
= 100 x 365 x 24 x 60 x 60 सेकण्ड
समय में अन्तर = 0.2 सेकण्ड
∴ 1 सेकण्ड के मापन में त्रुटि
= \(\frac { ∆T}{ T }\)
= \(\frac { 0.2}{ 100 x 365 x 24 x 60 x 60 }\)
= 6.34×10^–12
= 10^–11
\(\frac { 1 }{ 10^{ 11 } } \)
अर्थात् सीजियम घड़ी द्वारा 1 सेकण्ड में मापने में, 10¹¹ में से 1 भाग की परिशुद्धता होती है।

प्रश्न 2.27.
एक सोडियम परमाणु का आमाप लगभग 2.5 A मानते हुए उसके माध्य द्रव्यमान घनत्व का अनुमान लगाइए। (सोडियम के परमाण्वीय द्रव्यमान तथा आवोगाद्रो संख्या के ज्ञात मान का प्रयोग कीजिए।) इस घनत्व की क्रिस्टलीय प्रावस्था में सोडियम के घनत्व 970 kg m^–3 के साथ तुलना कीजिए। क्या इन दोनों घनत्वों के परिमाण की कोटि समान है? यदि हाँ, तो क्यों? ।
उत्तर:
दिया है: सोडियम परमाणु की त्रिज्या (आमाप)
= 2.5 A = 2.5 x 10^–10 मीटर
सोडियम का ग्राम परमाणु भार = 23 ग्राम
= 23 x 10^–3 किग्रा
एक ग्राम परमाणु में परमाणुओं की संख्या
= N = 6.023 x 10²³
सोडियम के एक परमाणु का द्रव्यमान

प्रश्न 2.28.
नाभिकीय पैमाने पर लंबाई का सुविधाजनक मात्रक फर्मी है : (1f= 10^–15 m)। नाभिकीय आमाप लगभग निम्नलिखित आनुभविक संबंध का पालन करते हैं :
r = r₀A^1/3
जहाँ नाभिक की त्रिज्या,A इसकी द्रव्यमान संख्या और r₀ कोई स्थिरांक है जो लगभग 1.2f के बराबर है। यह प्रदर्शित कीजिए कि इस नियम का अर्थ है कि विभिन्न नाभिकों के लिए नाभिकीय द्रव्यमान घनत्व लगभग स्थिर है। सोडियम नाभिक के द्रव्यमान घनत्व का आंकलन कीजिए।

प्रश्न 2.29.
लेसर (LASER), प्रकाश के अत्यधिक तीव्र एकवर्णी तथा एकदिश किरण – पुंज का स्त्रोत है। लेसर के इन गुणों का लंबी दूरियाँ मापने में उपयोग किया जाता है। लेसर को प्रकाश के स्त्रोत के रूप में उपयोग करते हुए पहले ही चंद्रमा की पृथ्वी से दूरी परिशुद्धता के साथ ज्ञात की जा चुकी है। कोई लेसर प्रकाश किरण-पुंज चंद्रमा के पृष्ठ से परावर्तित होकर 2.56 s में वापस आ जाता है। पृथ्वी के परितः चंद्रमा की कक्षा की त्रिज्या कितनी है?
उत्तर:
दिया है : लेसर प्रकाश द्वारा लिया गया समय, t = 2.56 सेकण्ड
माना चन्द्रमा की कक्षा की त्रिज्या = r
अत: लेसर प्रकाश द्वारा चली दूरी = 2r
प्रकाश की चाल, c = 3 x 10⁸ मीटर/सेकण्ड

=3.84 x 10⁸ मीटर
=3.8 x 10⁵ किमी

प्रश्न 2.30.
जल के नीचे वस्तुओं को ढूँढ़ने व उनके स्थान का पता लगाने के लिए सोनार (SONAR) में पराश्रव्य तरंगों का प्रयोग होता है। कोई पनडुब्बी सोनार से सुसज्जित है। इसके द्वारा जनित अन्वेषी तरंग और शत्रु की पनडुब्बी से परावर्तित इसकी प्रतिध्वनि की प्राप्ति के बीच काल विलंब 77.0 s है। शत्रु की पनडुब्बी कितनी दूर है? (जल में ध्वनि की चाल
= 1450 ms^–1)
उत्तर:
दिया है : ध्वनि द्वारा लिया गया समय = 77 सेकण्ड
जल में ध्वनि की चाल = 1450 मीटर/सेकण्ड
माना पनडुब्बी की दूरी = x
∴ ध्वनि तरंगों द्वारा चली गई दूरी = 2x

या
x = \(\frac {1450×77 }{ 2 }\)
= 55825 मीटर
= 55.83 x 10³ मीटर
= 55.83 किमी

प्रश्न 2.31.
हमारे विश्व में आधुनिक खगोलविदों द्वारा खोजे गए सर्वाधिक दूरस्थ पिण्ड इतनी दूर हैं कि उनके द्वारा उत्सर्जित प्रकाश को पृथ्वी तक पहुँचने में अरबों वर्ष लगते हैं। इन पिंडों (जिन्हें क्वासर (Quasar) कहा जाता है) के कई रहस्यमय लक्षण हैं जिनकी अभी तक संतोषजनक व्याख्या नहीं की जा सकी है। किसी ऐसे क्वासर की km में दूरी ज्ञात कीजिए जिससे उत्सर्जित प्रकाश को हम तक पहुँचने में 300 करोड़ वर्ष लगते हों।
उत्तर:
लिया गया समय, t = 3 x 10⁹ वर्ष
= 3 x 10⁹ x 365 x 24 x 60 x 60 सेकण्ड
प्रकाश की चाल c = 3 x 10⁸ मीटर/सेकण्ड
माना क्वासर की पृथ्वी से दूरी = x
∴ x = चाल x समय
= 3 x 10⁸ x 3 x 10⁹ x 365 x 24 x 60 x 60
= 2.84 x 1022 किमी

प्रश्न 2.32.
यह एक विख्यात तथ्य है कि पूर्ण सूर्यग्रहण की अवधि में चंद्रमा की चक्रिका सूर्य की चक्रिका को पूरी तरक ढक लेती है। इस तथ्य और उदाहरण 2.3 और 2.4 से एकत्र सूचनाओं के आधार पर चंद्रमा का लगभग व्यास ज्ञात कीजिए।
उत्तर:
दिया है : चन्द्रमा की पृथ्वी से दूरी
(a) = 3.84 x 10⁸ मीटर
माना चन्द्रमा का व्यास = 2r
सूत्र कोणीय व्यास = 4 से
चन्द्रमा का कोणीय व्यास = \(\frac { d }{ 3.84×10^{ 8 } } \) रेडियन
= \(\frac { d }{ 3.84×10^{ 8 } } \) x \(\frac { 180 }{ π }\) x 60 x 60
प्रश्नानुसार पूर्ण सूर्य ग्रहण की अवधि में चन्द्रमा की चक्रिका सूर्य की चक्रिका को पूरा ढक लेती हैं।
∴ चन्द्रमा का कोणीय व्यास = सूर्य का कोणीय व्यास
∴d = \(\frac { 1920×3.84×10^{ 8 }π }{ 180x60x60 } \) मीटर
= 3.573 x 10⁶ मीटर
= 3573 x 10³ मीटर
= 3573 किमी
अतः चन्द्रमा का व्यास 3573 किमी है।

प्रश्न 2.33.
इस शताब्दी के एक महान भौतिकविद (पी० ए० एम० डिरैक) प्रकृति के मूल स्थिरांकों (नियतांकों) के आंकिक मानों के साथ क्रीड़ा में आनंद लेते थे। इससे उन्होंने एक बहुत ही रोचक प्रेक्षण किया। परमाण्वीय भौतिकी के मूल नियतांकों (जैसे इलेक्ट्रॉन का द्रव्यमान, प्रोटॉन का द्रव्यमान तथा गुरुत्वीय नियतांक G) से उन्हें पता लगा कि वे एक ऐसी संख्या पर पहुंच गए हैं जिसकी विमा समय की विमा है। साथ ही, यह एक बहुत ही बड़ी संख्या थी और इसका परिमाण विश्व की वर्तमान आकलित आयु (~1500 करोड़ वर्ष) के करीब है। इस पुस्तक में दी गई मूल नियतांकों की सारणी के आधार पर यह देखने का प्रयास कीजिए कि क्या आप भी यह संख्या (या और कोई अन्य रोचक संख्या जिसे आप सोच सकते हैं) बना सकते हैं? यदि विश्व की आयु तथा इस संख्या में समानता महत्वपूर्ण है, तो मूल नियतांकों की स्थिरता किस प्रकार प्रभावित होगी?
उत्तर:

MP Board Class 11 Physics Solutions

MP Board Class 12th Business Studies Important Questions Chapter 8 Controlling

Controlling Important Questions

Controlling Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
Controlling is which level of management function :
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Middle
(d) Last
Answer:
(d) Last

Question 2.
Control is related to :
(a) Result
(b) Work
(c) Effects
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(a) Result

Question 3.
Planning and Control are :
(a) Completely different
(b) Adverse to each other
(c) Similar to each other
(d) Interrelated activities.
Answer:
(d) Interrelated activities.

Question 4.
Out of the following which is not a technique of control:
(a) Exceptional control
(b) Budgetary control
(c) Cost control
(d) Punishable control.
Answer:
(d) Punishable control

Question 5.
Control is:
(a) Negative process
(d) Positive process
(c) Re-formative process
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Re-formative process

Question 6.
What is the first step of controlling:
(a) Budget preparation
(b) To lay down proportion
(c) Evaluation of performance
(d) Identification of deviations.
Answer:
(a) Budget preparation

Question 7.
What is the aim of control:
(a) To estimate production
(b) Arrangement of financial resources
(c) Evaluation of actual performance
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(c) Evaluation of actual performance

Question 8.
Control Process is :
(a) Continuous
(b) Primary
(c) Planning
(d) Essential.
Answer:
(a) Continuous

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks :

1. The work of……………….. is to see whether the works are in conformity to plans or not.
2. ………………..is forward looking……………….. and is backward looking.
3. In control process it is……………….. that all the work is processing/done as per plans.
4. Effective control is related to ………………..
5. In control standard work is compared with………………..
6. ………………..steps are taken in controlling process.
7. In control process……………….. points are marked.
8. Control is useful in controlling ………………..
9. Control process of business enterprise is helpful for……………….. operations of business.

Answer:

1. Control
2. Planning, Controlling
3. Evaluating test
4. Results
5. Actual work,
6. Corrective
7. Weak
8. Wastage
9. Skilled.

Question 3.
Write the answer in one word/sentence :

1. In controlling actual performance is compared with.
2. Name the remedial measures taken to correct deviations in process of control.
3. Write the technique of control.
4. Name the technique of control in which the exceptional works are only informed to managers ?
5. Which technique of control is adopted for departments related with finance ?
6. To determine the work standard is which step of control ?
7. Write one advantage of control by exception.
8. What is Budgeting ?
9. What do you mean by control through budgeting ?
10. On what function of management control depends ?

Answer:

1. Standard performance
2. Corrective action
3. Auditing
4. Exceptional control
5. Auditing
6. To determine the work standard is the 1st step of control
7. By control by exception time is saved
8. Budgeting is a process by which budget is controlled.
9. by controlling through budgeting we mean the comparison between the budget provision and the actual goals set
10. control depends on planing

Question 4.
Write true or false :

1. Control is the primary function of management.
2. In control actual performance is compared with standard performance.
3. Control is the last function of management.
4. Control provides security from risk.
5. Control does not need at all levels of management.
6. Deviation is always positive.
7. Control should be rigid.
8. Control is both positive and negative.
9. Control is a continuous process.
10. Control can be done for present and future activities only.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. True
4. True
5. False
6. False
7. False
8. True
9. False
10. True.

Question 5.
Match the columns :

Answers:

1. (e)
2. (c)
3. (b)
4. (a)
5. (d)
6. (g)
7. (f)
8. (j)
9. (h)
10. (i)

Controlling Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
“Planning is of no use without control.” Explain.
Answer:
Planning and controlling both are interdependent and interrelated activities. They are complementary and supplementary to each other.
The close relationship between planning and controlling can be justified on the following points:

1. Planning is the origin of controlling
2. Both are interrelated
3. Planning is theoretical whereas controlling is practical.

Question 2.
What is control by exception ?
Answer:
A good control system should focus managerial attention on exceptional deviations. This is called ‘Control by exception’. It means if things are going smoothly, management should not interfere. Management should interfere only in exceptional circumstances.

Question 3.
Why is control incomplete without planning ?
Answer:
Control is fully dependent upon planning because it is the work of controlling to see whether the work is in conformity to plans or not, if not give directions for correction.

Question 4.
What is deviation in control ?
Answer:
The difference between actual performance and standard performance is deviation in control.

Question 5.
Ravi Ltd. wants to produce stapler pins in huge quantity. As per the policy of the company 44% of the production can be spoiled. Since last 5 lots 8 to 10% production is spoiled. The reason is the repair in the machine. What will be your suggestion for corrective action ?
Answer:
Current machine repair must be monitored or new machine must be purchased.

Question 6.
Why is control a blank exercise without planning ?
Answer:
Control is fully dependent upon planning because it is the work of controlling to see whether the work is in conformity to plans or not, if not give directions for correction.

Question 7.
What is feedback in control ?
Answer:
A feedback is a common and powerful tool of control process. It helps to take the system output into consideration, which enables the system to adjust the performance by corrective actions.

Question 8.
Define control.
Answer:
Definitions : According to Henri Fayol, “In an undertaking, control consists in verifying whether everything occurs in conformity with the plan adopted, the instructions issued and the principles established.”

Question 9.
Why do you need control ?
Answer:
In the current scenario of industrial revolution technological advancement, market and taste of customers are frequently changing, In this era the management has to work efficiently and effectively to meet the qualitative and quantitative standards. Therefore, control is must.

Question 10.
What is physical standard proportion ?
Answer:
Physical standard proportion includes number of tasks, labour, hours and other physical units.

Question 11.
What is monetary standard proportion ?
Answer:
Monetary standard proportion includes per unit cost, per unit sale, labour expenses and distribution expenses etc.

Question 12,
What do you mean by budget ?
Answer:
A budget is a financial plan for a defined period of time, usually a year, it may also include planned sales, volumes and revenues, resource quantities, cost and expenses, assets, liabilities and cash flows.

Question 13.
How does control improves the future plans ?
Answer:
Control improves future plans by suggestions from past experiences.

Question 14.
What is Budgetary control ?
Answer:
Budgets are quantitative statements of objectives, plans and programmed of an organization. Budgetary control regulates, all these important aspects for better functioning

Question 15.
How are planning and control interrelated and how does they provide to each other ?
Answer:
Relationship Between Planning and Control: Planning and controlling both are interdependent and interrelated activities. They are complementary and supplementary to each other.
The close relationship between planning and controlling can be justified on the following points:

1. Planning is the origin of controlling
2. Both are interrelated
3. Planning is theoretical whereas controlling is practical
4. Planning is meaningless without controlling and controlling is blind without planning
5. Controlling ensures realizing planned goals efficiently and provides basis for improvement in future plans
6. Planning is looking ahead and controlling is looking back.

Interrelation between planning and controlling can be understood from the following

Question 16.
What do you understand by negative and positive deviation ?
Answer:
Negative Deviation : This occurs when the actual performance is less than the standard preformance.
Positive Deviation : This occurs when the actual performance is more than the standard performance.

Question 17.
How can control helpful to curtail the dishonest attitude of employees ?
Answer:
Controls can keep constant or steady watch on those employees and can be helpful to curtail dishonest behavior of employees.

Question 18.
Write one point of difference between planning and control.
Answer:
Planning is forward looking and controlling is backward looking.

Question 19.
Give two examples of qualitative standards in the control process.
Answer:

1. Relationship with employees
2. Ability of management.

Question 20.
Why should proportion/standard flexible and can be changed anytime ?
Answer:
The internal and external environment keeps changes very frequently so the standards must be flexible.

Question 21.
What is the last step of process of control ?
Answer:
Taking corrective action in the last step of process of control.

Question 22.
What do you mean by management information mechanism ?
Answer:
Management information mechanism is a technique which provide information and assistance to managerial decisions.

Question 23.
“Control is universal.” Explain why ?
Answer:
Control is universal because it is found at all levels of management. Controlling work is neither related to top level nor to lower level but it is required at all levels. In all organizations (Religious, Social, Political etc.) the need of control is felt.

Question 24.
Why is it said that planning is essential for control ?
Answer:
Determination and establishing standards are the first step of control. The object
of establishing standard is to know what consideration are expected from any work and how and through whom the consideration will be achieved. For all this planning is essential.

Question 25.
What do you mean by control ?
Answer:
Control is related to checking whether everything occurs in conformity with the standards stipulated in the plan. It measures and evaluates performance and brings to light the variations if any.

Question 26.
Write names of any four specific methods of control.
Answer:
The four methods are :

1. Budget control
2. Cost control
3. Production control
4. Quality control
5. Material control.

Question 27.
What are the general methods of control ?
Answer:
General methods of control:

1. Actual inspection
2. Control through auditing
3. Control through motivation
4. By sending notices
5. Return on investment.

Question 28.
Why is control backward looking ?
Answer:
Control is backward looking because in control we see the performance backward which is already performed by the workers and its comparison is done through plan

Question 29.
What is the relation between planning and controlling ?
Answer:
Planning and controlling both are interdependent and interrelated activities. They are complementary and supplementary to each other.
The close relationship between planning and controlling can be justified on the following points :

1. Planning is the origin of controlling.
2. Both are interrelated.
3. Planning is theoretical whereas controlling is practical.

Question 30.
What is control through example ?
Answer:
Under this system of control, the manager himself places an example before his employees by being punctual, working for specific period, good behavior etc. This method is very effective.

Question 31.
Explain the cost control.
Answer:
By exercising cost control as per unit production cost can be ascertained and can find out the method of minimizing the cost in future so as to complete with the other items in the market, e.g., cost raw material, labour cost, direct expenses and indirect expenses etc.

Question 32.
What does control ensure ?
Answer:
Control ensures whether the actual work is going on according to the targets ! determined or not.

Question 33.
How is control full of objectives ?
Answer:
Control is full of objectives because it ensures whether the predetermined objectives of organizations are fulfilled or not by effective and efficient utilization of resources.

Controlling Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain two aspects of control.
Answer:
The two aspects of control are :

1. Political control
2. Managerial control

1. Political control means to inspect the impact and implementation of rules and plans of the organization.
2. Managerial control means to focus on the managerial and other activities of the organization.

Question 2.
What are points that should be kept in mind while preparing standards/proportion ?
Answer:

1. Standards must be capable of measuring,
2. Standard should be such which can be achieved with some efforts.
3. Standards should be easy and clear.
4. Standards must be flexible.
5. While setting standards the deviation limits must be specified.

Question 3.
Explain, briefly, the features of a good control system.
Answer:
A good control system must fulfill the following requirements :

1. Suitability: The control system should be appropriate to the nature and need of the organization. A control system that is good to small organization may be inadequate for a big organization.

2. Objectivity : The control system should focus on the objectives of the organization. The determination of standard measurement of performance and corrective actions thereby, should be objective and impersonal. Subjective and arbitrary control cannot be effective. .

3. Simplicity: A good control system should be clear, easy to understand and operate. Unless the control system is understood fully by those responsible for its operation, it cannot be successful.

4. Economical: A good control system is one which is economical in terms of time and money. Small units may not be able to afford huge cost of control.

5. Flexible : A good control system must be flexible because business conditions are not stable. If the system of control can work only on the basis of one specific plan, it becomes useless if the plan breaks down and another has to be substituted. According to Theo Haimann, “A good control system must keep pace with continuously changing pattern of a dynamic business world. ”

6. Promptness : The control system should be such that actual result and all deviations from standards are quickly reported to the concerned officers. Delay in reporting will make control ineffective. Speed is also required in initiating the corrective actions.

Question 4.
Explain the meaning of control process.
Answer:
Control is a universal and important function of management. It is the power to direct, order or restrain. Managerial control seeks to achieve conformity to plan as closely as possible. It is applied to all activities of the organization like purchases, sales, finance, marketing, personnel management etc.

Meaning: Control is the most important element of management. It is concerned with verifying whether actions are in conformity with the standard stipulated in the plan. It measures and evaluates performance and brings to light the variations, if any, for the purpose of necessary action by the management and to prevent the recurrence of such variations in future. Controlling as a function of management means the measurement and correction of performance of activities of subordinates in order to make sure that enterprise objectives and plans devised to attain them are accomplished.

Question 5.
How should a newly appointed foreman should manage the process of control ?
Answer:
A newly appointed foreman should manage the process of control:

1. Setting of Standard/Proportion.
2. Measurement of performance.
3. Comparison of actual performance with standard performance:
4. Analysis of deviation.

Question 6.
The ideal control system inspects every aspect of performance. Explain.
Answer:
An ideal control system is one which focuses on important aspect of performance. There may be thousands of jobs related to control but the prime focus must be control on the prime aspects as it is difficult to control all. If we keep controlling all the aspects then we face the problem of control delay, increase in cost and the important points are neglected.

Question 7.
Write the advantages of control by exception.
Answer:
Advantages of control by exception :

1. It concentrates attention of managers towards important things.
2. It differentiates between the important and ordinary problems.
3. It saves the efforts of managers.
4. There is no wastage of time and energy of managers in solving daily problems.

Question 8.
What do you mean by control ? How does control stimulates action ?
Answer:
Meaning of control:Control is related to checking whether everything occurs in conformity with the standards stipulated in the plan. It measures and evaluates performance and brings to light the variations if any

Control stimulate action : An effective control system stimulates action by spotting the variations from the original plan and highlighting them for the people who can set things right. Control helps in detecting the deviation and their causes. It enables the management to act quickly.

Question 9.
What things should be kept in mind while determine standards ?
Answer:
While determining standards following things should be kept in mind :

1. Standard should be accurate.
2. Standard should be lawful.
3. Determined standard should be able to acquire.
4. Standard should be according to planning.
5. Standard should be such which can be measured.

Question 10.
Explain the setting up standards as first step of control.
Answer:
Determination and establishment of standards are the first step of control. The object of establishing standard is to know what consideration are expected from any work and how and through whom the consideration will be achieved. What will be different levels of activating in work and what will be the expenditure ? For all this, a policy is prepared, which is called planning, without planning and policies, work cannot be estimated and standards cannot be established. In this way, for control planning is important.

Question 11.
Controlling is a Dynamic Process”. How its help in achieving the objectives ?
Answer:
Controlling involves view of standard as well a corrective action which may lead to changes in other managerial functions. The control system has to be adapted to the changing conditions and requirement of organization.

Controlling ensures that results of operations conform as closely as possible, to the predetermined objectives. Every organization draw up a plan of action at periodical intervals. The plan indicates the expected behavior and activities of people working in different units of the organization. By keeping a close watch over performance at various levels, controlling tries to correct the deviation between actual results and desired results. Mistakes are located promptly and appropriate remedial actions are initiated. Thus, it helps in achieving the objectives laid down in the plan of action.

Question 12.
Define Net Working Capital.
Answer:
Net Working Capital: It represents the excess of current assets over current liabilities. Current assets include cash in hand, cash at bank, stock, debtors, bills receivables etc. while current liabilities consists of accounts payable, outstanding bills payable, bank overdraft, and outstanding expenses etc. Net working capital is a qualitative concept and it reveals the soundness of current financial position. Working capital may be classified as follows:

1. Permanent or regular working capital
2. Temporary or variable working capital
3. Seasonal working capital and
4. Special working capital.

Controlling Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1
Describe the salient features of control.
Or
Explain main characteristics of control.
Answer:

1. Control is a management function : Controlling work is done by the line officer and line officer may take advice and help from different experts and colleagues.

2. At all levels of management: Controlling work is neither related to top level nor to the lower level but it is required at all levels. At top level, controlling work is done by the chief manager and at the lower level foreman or other officer does the work of control.

3. Continuous process : Control is a regular activity, required at all levels. It is not an activity in isolation. The management has to be continuously vigilant to ensure that the management is in the right track. If control is withdrawn midway, then it may affect performance and subsequently, the efficiency of the organization.

4. Control is futuristic or Forward looking : The object of control is to wipe away present errors and defects so that no hindrance or defect may arise in future. Necessary steps are to be taken for this before hand. Whatever, faults have occurred in the past, should be examined and care is taken so that it should not be repeated in future.

Question 2.
“Planning and controlling are interrelated.” Explain.
Answer:
Relationship Between Planning and Control: Planning and controlling both are interdependent and interrelated activities. They are complementary and supplementary to each other.
The close relationship between planning and controlling can be justified on the following points:

1. Planning is the origin of controlling
2. Both are interrelated
3. Planning is theoretical whereas controlling is practical
4. Planning is meaningless without controlling and controlling is blind without planning
5. Controlling ensures realizing planned goals efficiently and provides basis for improvement in future plans
6. Planning is looking ahead and controlling is looking back.

Interrelation between planning and controlling can be understood from the following

1. Controlling without planning is blind: Control uses the standards of performance provided by planning as a base of evaluation and comparison.

2. Planning without controlling is meaningless : Controlling monitors the progress of plans implemented, discovers deviation and initiates corrective measures to ensure that activities conform to plans.

3. Planning seeks consistent, integrated and articulated programmed while controlling seeks to compel events to conform to plans.

4. Planning involves thinking and analysis to prescribe and appropriate course of action while controlling checks it prescribed decisions have been translated into desired action and verifies their accuracy and objectivity.

Conclusion : To conclude we can say that planning based on facts makes controlling easier and effective and controlling improves future planning. Therefore, planning is a prerequisite for controlling and the two are inseparable twins of management.

Question 3.
Explain the limitations of control.
Answer:
Though control is essential in every organization, it does suffer from limitations. The following are the main limitations :

1. External factors : Though an effective external control is possible, the management virtually cannot exercise any control over external factors such as government policies, technological changes etc. All these affect planning.

2. Expensive: Control requires deputation of large personnel at various level to analyse deviations. This become an expensive affair for small organization.

3. Problems in fixing standards : There are various areas in management like employee morale, R & D, customer reactions, human relations etc. where standards for performance cannot be set in quantitative terms. In the absence of standards, control is ineffective.

4. Resistance : It is an accepted fact that control techniques are always looked upon as an interference in work by subordinates. Hence, full cooperation for effective control may not be obtained from the subordinates.Thus, these are some of the limitations of control

Question 4.
What are the types of standard ?
Answer:
Types of standard : Standards can be divided into the following parts :

1. Physical standard : In it, determination of work is made about per hour, per day, per week, per unit etc.

2. Monetary standard : In it, standard is determined about per unit labor cost, per unit material cost, per unit factory cost. These standards can be measured in money.

3. Tangible standard : In it, standard is determined about per day production cost, per article production cost, per day production quantity and standard of fixed units.

4. Intangible standard : In it, to increase the morale of employees, to increase efficiency and to appreciate good work etc. are determined. Intangible standards cannot be measured in quantity. It can be felt by experience.

5. Revenue standard : In it, such standards are included which can be measured in terms of sales value, e.g., for transport company, income per passenger.

6. Capital standard : The standard capital ratio is two units of capital to one unit of borrowing. Standard of it in capital expenditures are determined for this different ratios are
determined as current ratio, ratio of loan with the owners capital etc. The capital standard should be increased or decreased looking to the size, nature of business.

Question 5.
What are various core areas of control and its methods ?
Answer:
The core areas of control are :

1. Policy control: Real policy and control policy always vary which leads to deviation.
2. Employee control: Management gets divided into sub-section management departments to have control on employees.
3. Wage and salary control: Management controls the wage and salary of employees through the evaluation of their work.
4. Capital control : The prime task of control is to monitor whether the usage of capital is for achieving the goal or not. If not then corrective measures are taken.
5. Cost control: Control on various production departments to check and have optimum utilization of resources results in cost control.
6. Inventory control: In production sufficient inventory must be available. There usage, purchase and storage must be properly monitor and corrective actions must be taken.
7. Comprehensive control: Under this all the plans are collectively.

Question 6.
What are the various principles of control ?
Answer:
The various principles of control are :

1. Principle of security of goal: Control process should be such which understands the difference between plans and actual deviation of tasks and take corrective actions.
2. Principal of ability: Control process should be such which should be in expensive and should also take care of subordinates without hampering the image and confidence of management.
3. Principle of priority : Control process should prioritize the activities and should focus on the important activities. If there is any deviation then they must be rectified.
4. Principle of responsibility : Control is the responsibility of management and it cannot be taken lightly.
5. Principle of flexibility : Control process must have lot of flexibility to amend easily if need be.
6. Principle of revaluation : For effective control the control process must evaluated at regular intervals to incorporate the changing situations.

Question 7.
What are the essential factors of effective control system ?
Answer:
Essential Factors of Efficient Control System : Following are the essential factors of efficient control system:

1. Suitability : The control system must suit the requirements of an organization. It should be designed after considering the nature, size and functions of organization.

2. Flexibility : The control system should have the flexibility to adjust itself to the changing requirements of the organization. It should not be very rigid and strict.

3. Simple and understandable : The controlling system must be simple and easily understandable to the officials and employees of organization. Controlling system can be effectively applied if it is simple and understandable.

4. Economical: Controlling system should be economical with regard to time and money. It should be within the means of the enterprises.

5. Efficient control techniques: An effective and efficient control system should use efficient control techniques. Through these techniques the uncertainties in business can be easily tackled

Question 8.
Explain the methods of control.
Answer:
(A) General methods :

1. Actual inspection : By actual inspection we mean actual inspection of worker’s performance by taking rounds, visiting the departments.

2. Control through auditing : Internal or external auditing of certain accounts and books are necessary. By auditing we mean stock in going and incoming inventory, fixed assets books, cost accounting etc.

3. Control through motivation : This method is the best method of control. By motivating the labour, the sincere labour is encouraged to do more and more work.

4. By sending notices: Management can be controlled by sending notices, circulars, orders to subordinates for coordinating their work and establishing control thereby.

5. Return on investment (ROI): Return on investment is another wily used management control method of all. It is aimed of measuring profit as return on the capital employed for production. It uses a number of financial variables to arrive at the return on investment.

6. Control by policies : Policies are also one of the sources of control. Policies are
pre-determined for performance of activities. The employees work according to these policies. By these policies the employees get full opportunity to seek direction and they work within their own limits. Thus, control is observed by policies also.

7. Control by exception: Under this method, the controller or manager concentrates only on the exceptional circumstances and tries to remove them. Exceptions are activities which are not supposed to be done i.e., the activities should not be out of the area of activity of the employee. In management, control by exception has been imparted universal acceptance.

8. Control by example : This is specific example of control. The manager, in his leadership role, himself becomes a model example of the employees’ work and behaviour. The ideal behaviour of the manager becomes a ‘norm’ for the employees to follow, which in other words, means that the employees will behave in accordance with the example set by the manager. This method is called control by example.

9. Control by records and reports : The management scrutinizes the records and reports called from various branches from time to time. After scrutiny, the concerned branch or branches are issued necessary instructions or directions. Thus control is observed by scrutinizing the records and report of the concerned branches or offices.

10. Control by fixing of limitation: In an organization, area of activity or operation of an employee is fixed. It is necessary to obtain prior permission of the higher officials to work beyond the area of operation. This permission is granted in the interest of the organization only when it is found necessary. In this way, control is observed over the subordinates.

11. Control by disciplinary action : Disciplinary action along with criticism of an employee is a negative aspect of control. This has an adverse effect on the moral of the employee, reduces his efficiency and initiative. Even so. this method, at times, becomes necessary as a weapon of the last resort. This method is applied to those employees who do not improve in their efficiency in spite of use of all positive methods. This method should, however, be adopted only in instances of serious lapses or shortcomings.

12. Control by written order : Under this method the employees are served with written notice or memorandum. Sometimes, demi-official (D.O.) letters are also issued with instructions to bring improvement in their working using simple and clear language.

13. Control by other methods : In addition to above methods, control is adopted by additional budget, break-even analysis, ratio analysis, self-control, charts and tables, indices etc.

(B) Specific methods:

1. Budgetary control: It is a traditional form of control and it is a widely used device in management. Budgets are used to control the day today operations of an enterprise.

2. Cost control : By exercising cost control the per unit production cost can be ascertained and can find out the method of minimizing the cost in future.

3. Break even analysis: The relationship of sales and expenses is depicted by a break even point chart. This chart shows the volume at which revenues exactly covers expenses.

4. Quality control: The best quality product of same grade and size can be produced at a cheaper rate. Such attractive goods will capture the market.

5. Production control : Under production control, all the activities involved in production are controlled in such a manner that the work of production is accomplished within the fixed time. In production control, control measures like the quality of goods, quantity, cost etc. are also adopted. In production control, the following two factors are kept in mind :

(a) When, how much and by which methods goods are to be produced
(b) Whether production is being accomplished as per per-determined plans or not ?

6. Material control: In cost of production, materials form a major portion. Therefore, the availability of the best material and minimum cost is very essential. Less than required quantity or more than required quantity of material are both considered unsuitable. Whereas production will be affected in the absence of required quantity of material, in case of excess of material, a part of capital! will remain idle. “Therefore, observing required control over all activities of material management is material control.

Question 9.
What is controlling ? Explain its importance.
“Controlling is a continuous activity in an organization.”
Answer:
controlling is a continuous or never-ending process. According to Koontz and O’ Donnell, “Just as the navigator continually takes a planned action, so should the business manager continually take to reading to assure himself that his enterprise or department is on course. ” Controlling never stops. Planning and controlling are two interrelated functions are reinforce each other. Control follows a definite pattern and time-table, month after month and year after year on a continuous basis.
The following are the points due to which control has a great importance :

1. Increasing size of business: At present the size of business is increasing day by day, from sole trader to partnership, from partnership to company. One man cannot control such big organization. So it is necessary to take help from others, therefore, control is necessary to see that no type of irregularity creeps into the organization.

2. Motivation for efficient employee : Efficient employee always welcomes control system because he gets a good opportunity for good work and finds his way to progress. He may be appreciated by managers for good work and so an employee is motivated towards work.’ ‘

3. For complete discipline : Discipline is necessary for any enterprise. To maintain discipline, control is very necessary. So, it can be said where there is control, discipline will come automatically. In the absence of control, indiscipline arises and hence morale of good employees hampers.

4. Helpful in future planning : Through controlling process, managers get full knowledge about the limitations of their objects and their efficiency. On the basis of this knowledge, it becomes easier for managers to prepare future planning. Through the process of controlling, managers get very important information about targets which may be useful in preparing future planning. .

5. Aids efficiency : Basically, control is concerned with ensuring that all activities proceed as per plans. Hence, it brings about efficiency in the organization.

6. Decrease in risk : Generally business and risk cannot be segregated but limitation and obstacles of business can be fully controlled. If it is done, then risk of business may be minimized to a great extent.

7. Helpful in coordination : Coordination has an important place in management, where control is best, the discipline will be best and in the presence of discipline, coordination becomes easier.

8. Helpful in decentralization : Decentralization (Dispersion) of authority is essential in big enterprises. Management cannot delegate authority without ensuring controls management must retain control in its hands to make sure whether authority is being used properly.

9. Helps in further planning : Planning and control are closely related. While planning is forward-looking, control is backward looking. Good control enables to analyse causes for deviations, and if required alter the plans according to circumstances. Thus, control is essentially a review of work done, whereas planning drafts the course of future action. Thus, control helps in further planning.

10. Highlights deviations : Since control is basically a review of past actions, it highlights any deviation while implementing work. This is primarily done by comparing with the standards set. Constant review of actions definitely proves beneficial for the organization.

MP Board Class 12 Business Studies Important Questions