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MP Board Class 9th Special Hindi सहायक वाचन Solutions Chapter 9 प्रेरणा दीप (पौराणिक कथा संदर्भ, संकलित)

प्रेरणा दीप अभ्यास

बोध प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
रामायण के रचयिता कौन हैं?
उत्तर:
रामायण के रचयिता महर्षि बाल्मीकि हैं।

प्रश्न 2.
नदी के तट पर किस पक्षी का जोड़ा था?
उत्तर:
नदी के तट पर क्रौञ्ज पक्षी का जोड़ा था।

प्रश्न 3.
बाल्मीकि के शिष्य का नाम क्या था? बताइए।
उत्तर:
बाल्मीकि के शिष्य का नाम भारद्वाज था।

प्रश्न 4.
राम के वंश का नाम लिखिए।
उत्तर:
राम के वंश का नाम सूर्यवंशी इक्ष्वाकु था।

प्रश्न 5.
कौरव सेना के सेनानायक का नाम क्या था?
उत्तर:
कौरव सेना के सेनानायक का नाम भीष्म पितामह था।

प्रश्न 6.
युधिष्ठिर कौरव की सेना में क्यों गये थे?
उत्तर:
युधिष्ठिर कौरव की सेना में भीष्म पितामह एवं अन्य गुरुजनों के चरण स्पर्श करने तथा उनसे आशीर्वाद लेने गये थे।

प्रश्न 7.
बाल्मीकि ने निषाद को क्या और क्यों अभिशाप दिया?
उत्तर:
बाल्मीकि ने निषाद को यह अभिशाप दिया कि “तू अब आने वाले समय में कभी भी प्रतिष्ठा (सम्मान) को प्राप्त नहीं कर सकेगा। क्योंकि तूने कामासक्त क्रौञ्ज के जोड़े में से नर क्रौञ्च का वध कर दिया है।”

प्रश्न 8.
बाल्मीकि को ध्यान के समय ब्रह्मा जी ने दर्शन देकर क्या कहा?
उत्तर:
बाल्मीकि जब ध्यान लगाकर बैठे हुए थे तभी सृष्टि के रचयिता ब्रह्माजी ने दर्शन देकर उनसे कहा-“ऋषिवर मेरी ही इच्छा वाणी अनायास आपके मुँह से निकली और श्लोक रूप में इसलिए निकली है कि आप अनुष्टुप् छन्दों में रामचन्द्र के सम्पूर्ण चरित्र का वर्णन कीजिए। श्रीराम कथा संक्षेप में आप नारदजी से सुन ही चुके हैं। मेरे राम, लक्ष्मण, सीता और राक्षसों का गुप्त अथवा सब वृत्तान्त आपकी आँखों के सामने आ जाएगा, होगा वह भी दिखाई पड़ेगा। अतः जो आप लिखे यथार्थ और सत्य होगा। इस प्रकार आपकी लिखित रामायण इस लोक में अमर हो जायेगी।”

प्रश्न 9.
श्रीकृष्ण ने अर्जुन को अपने विराट स्वरूप में क्या दिखलाया?
उत्तर:
श्रीकृष्ण ने अर्जुन को अपना विराट स्वरूप दिखलाया जिसे देखकर अर्जुन काँप उठे। उन्होंने देखा कि एक विशाल अग्नि-ज्वाला, जिसमें चारों ओर से कीड़े-मकोड़े आते हैं और समाकर भस्म हो जाते हैं। उसी तरह समस्त कौरव भी कृष्ण के मुख में समा रहे हैं। इसे देखकर अर्जुन का मोह भंग हो गया और उन्होंने भगवान कृष्ण की वन्दना की।

प्रश्न 10.
माता सत्यवती से भीष्म ने क्या प्रतिज्ञा की थी?
उत्तर:
माता सत्यवती से भीष्म ने प्रतिज्ञा की थी कि वे राजा के पक्ष में रहेंगे तथा उसी की ओर से युद्ध करेंगे। लेकिन धर्म और सत्य की सदैव विजय होती है अतः विजयी पाण्डव ही होंगे।

प्रश्न 11.
तमसा नदी की प्राकृतिक सुन्दरता का वर्णन करो।
उत्तर:
तमसा नदी का प्राकृतिक सौन्दर्य बहुत मनोहारी था। इस समय बसन्त ऋतु का आगमन हो चुका था। नदी का जल अत्यन्त स्वच्छ एवं पवित्र था। यहाँ तक कि उसका तल भी स्पष्ट नजर आ रहा था। जल के किनारे पक्षी बैठे थे तथा उसमें मछलियाँ तैर रही थीं। नदी के किनारे हरे-भरे जंगल थे। कुछ पक्षी तो पेड़ों पर बैठे थे तथा कुछ नदी के किनारे। कुछ पक्षी नदी के जल में अपनी चोंच डुबोकर पानी पी रहे थे। इस प्रकार इस प्राकृतिक सौन्दर्य का आनन्द लेते हुए पक्षी विचरण कर रहे थे।

प्रश्न 12.
नारद जी की वाणी याद आने पर बाल्मीकि ने नारद जी से क्या पूछा ? तथा नारद जी ने क्या उत्तर दिया? लिखिए।
उत्तर:
एक बार बाल्मीकि जी निषाद को दिये गये कठोर शाप की चिन्ता में मग्न थे कि उसी समय उन्हें नारद जी की वाणी याद आयी। उन्होंने नारद जी से पूछा था-“हे देवर्षि, मुझे किसी ऐसे पुरुष का नाम बताइये जो गुणवान, बलवान एवं धर्मात्मा हो, जो सत्य पर दृढ़ रहता हो, अपने वचन का पक्का हो, सबका हित करने वाला हो, विद्वान हो और जिससे बढ़कर सुन्दर कोई दूसरा न हो।”

इस प्रश्न को सुनकर नारदजी ने कहा था कि मैं ऐसे एक ही पुरूष को जानता हूँ। वे इक्ष्वाकु वंश के राजा दशरथ के पुत्र राम हैं। वे सब तरह से गुणवान और रूपवान हैं और जब क्रोध करते हैं तब डर के मारे देवता और दानव भी काँप उठते हैं।

प्रश्न 13.
श्रीकृष्ण का कर्मयोग संक्षिप्त में समझाइए।
उत्तर:
युद्ध क्षेत्र में जब अर्जुन ने देखा कि कौरव सेना तथा पाण्डव सेना दोनों में ही उनके आत्मीय एवं परिवारीजन हैं और वे दोनों ही एक-दूसरे को राज्य प्राप्ति के लिए मारने को उद्यत हैं तो अर्जुन दु:खी हो जाते हैं और अपना गाण्डीव धनुष रथ में एक तरफ रखकर रथ के पिछले भाग में बैठ जाते हैं।

जब श्रीकृष्ण ने अर्जुन की इस मोह ग्रसित दशा को देखा तो उन्होंने अपना विराट स्वरूप दिखाकर अर्जुन का मोह भंग किया तत्पश्चात् उन्होंने अर्जुन को कर्मयोग का उपदेश देते हुए कहा कि आत्मा अजर और अमर है। इसलिए हे अर्जुन! तुम शोक मत करो तथा युद्ध करो।

प्रश्न 14.
कुरुक्षेत्र में खड़ी सेनाओं का वर्णन कीजिए।
उत्तर:
कुरुक्षेत्र में ग्यारह अक्षौहिणी सेना कौरवों की ओर थीं ओर सात अक्षौहिणी सेना पाण्डवों की ओर थीं। दोनों सेनाएँ आमने-सामने व्यूह-रचना के तरीके से खड़ी थीं। कौरव सेना के प्रधान सेनापति भीष्म पितामह थे तथा पाण्डव सेना के आगे धनुर्धारी अर्जुन थे। अर्जुन के रथ का नाम नंदिघोष था जिसके सारथी स्वयं भगवान श्रीकृष्ण थे। कौरव सेना के सेनापति भीष्म पितामह के रथ के साथ ही रथी दुःशासन था तथा थोड़ी दूरी पर मुक्ताओं से जड़ित सुन्दर रथ पर कौरवराज दुर्योधन था। पास ही गुरू द्रोणाचार्य और अश्वत्थामा थे। इस प्रकार कौरवों एवं पाण्डवों की अपार सेना एक अद्भुत रोमांचकारी दृश्य उपस्थित कर रही थी।

MP Board Class 9th Hindi Solutions

MP Board Class 9th Special Hindi सहायक वाचन Solutions Chapter 8 जीवन का झरना (कविता, आरसी प्रसाद सिंह)

जीवन का झरना अभ्यास

बोध प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
निर्झर किन गुणों के आधार पर आगे बढ़ता है?
उत्तर:
निर्झर अपनी निरन्तर गति और यौवन के गुणों के आधार पर आगे बढ़ता है। उसके जीवन में विपत्तियों से जूझने की क्षमता है।

प्रश्न 2.
निर्झर को किन-किन बाधाओं को पार करना पड़ता है?
उत्तर:
निर्झर को मार्ग में आने वाली चट्टानों एवं वृक्षों आदि की बाधाओं को पार करना पड़ता है।

प्रश्न 3.
निर्झर क्या कहता है?
उत्तर:
निर्झर कहता है कि निरन्तर बिना कोई चिन्ता किए आगे बढ़ते जाओ। मार्ग में चाहे कैसी भी विपत्ति आये उससे घबराओ मत अपितु उसका बहादुरी से मुकाबला करो।

प्रश्न 4.
जीवन रूपी निर्झर के दोनों किनारे कौन-कौन से हैं?
उत्तर:
जीवन रूपी निर्झर के दो किनारे हैं-सुख और दुःख। जिस प्रकार दिन-रात का, लाभ-हानि का जोड़ा रहता है उसी प्रकार सुख-दुःख का भी जोड़ा रहता है। जब व्यक्ति के पुण्य उदय होते हैं तब वह सुख भोगता है और पाप के उदय होने पर दुःख भोगता है।

प्रश्न 5.
निर्झर की सिर्फ एक ही धुन है, वह कौन सी हैं?
उत्तर:
निर्झर की सिर्फ एक ही धुन है, वह है निरन्तर चलने की और मस्ती में गाते हुए चलने की अर्थात् वह दुःख एवं विपत्ति की चिन्ता न करते हुए निरन्तर अपनी मस्ती के गीत गाते हुए विघ्न-बाधाओं को पार करते हुए निरन्तर चलता रहता है।

प्रश्न 6.
कविता के आधार पर मनुष्य कैसे बढ़ता है?
उत्तर:
कविता के आधार पर मनुष्य संघर्ष करता हुआ, विघ्न बाधाओं को पार करता हुआ बढ़ता है। जिस प्रकार झरना कठोर-से-कठोर चट्टानों को तोड़कर अपनी राह बनाता हुआ आगे बढ़ता जाता है उसी प्रकार मनुष्य को भी मार्ग में आने वाली बाधाओं को दूर भगाकर निरन्तर आगे-ही-आगे बढ़ते चला जाना चाहिए।

प्रश्न 7.
कविता के आधार पर निर्झर की तीन विशेषताएँ लिखिए।
उत्तर:
कविता के आधार पर निर्झर की तीन विशेषताएँ इस प्रकार हैं-प्रथम विशेषता है सदैव मस्त रहना, द्वितीय विशेषता है यौवन जैसा जोश लेकर सदैव गतिशील बना रहना। मार्ग में चाहे जैसी भी बाधाएँ, (विपरीत परिस्थितियाँ) आएँ उनसे बिना विचलित हुए अपने लक्ष्य की ओर निरन्तर आगे बढ़ते जाना और तृतीय विशेषता है कभी भी पीछे मुड़कर न देखना अर्थात् अतीत की यादों को याद कर व्यर्थ ही अपना बहुमूल्य समय व्यर्थ न करना।

प्रश्न 8.
निर्झर को बाधाओं को पार करने के लिए क्या करना पड़ता है?
उत्तर:
निर्झर को मार्ग में आने वाली चट्टानों एवं वृक्षों को अपने सामने से हटाकर अपना मार्ग प्रशस्त करना पड़ता है। जीवन के उतार-चढ़ाव के समान ही कभी उसकी लहरें ऊपर चढ़ती हैं तो कभी नीचे गिरती हैं। इन संकटों से वह कभी भी विचलित न होकर निरन्तर आगे-ही-आगे बढ़ता जाता है।

प्रश्न 9.
निर्झर क्या कहना चाहता है और क्यों?
उत्तर:
निर्झर कहता है कि हमें विघ्न और विपत्तियों की चिन्ता न कर निरन्तर आगे बढ़ते जाना चाहिए। मार्ग में आने वाली बाधाओं को अपनी बहादुरी एवं सूझ-बूझ से दूर हटा दो और आगे ही आगे बढ़ते जाओ। पीछे मुड़कर अर्थात् अतीत को मत देखो क्योंकि उससे कुछ भी मिलने वाला नहीं है। निरन्तर आलस्य को त्यागकर हर क्षण अपने जीवन को गतिमान बनाये रखो क्योंकि गति ही जीवन है। जिस दिन व्यक्ति निष्क्रिय हो जाएगा उस दिन निर्जीव व्यक्ति के समान बन जाएगा और यह निष्क्रिता ही मरण का दूसरा नाम है।

MP Board Class 9th Hindi Solutions

MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds

Coordination Compounds NCERT Intext Exercises

Question 1.
Write the formulas for the following co-ordination compounds :
(i) Tetraamminediaquacobalt (III) chloride
(ii) Potassium tetracyanonickelate (II)
(iii) tris (ethane-1,2-diamine) chromium (III) chloride
(iv) Amminebromidochloridonitrito-N- platinate(II)
(v) Dichlorido 6/s(ethane-1,2-diamine) platinum (IV)nitrate
(vi) Iron(III) hexacyanoferrate(II).
Answer:
(a) [CO(NH₃)₄(H₂O)2]Cl₃
(b) K₂[Ni(CN)₄]
(c) [Cr(en)₃]Cl₃
(d) [Pt(NH₃)BrCl NO₂]^–
(e) [PtCl₂(en)₂](NO₃)₂
(f) Fe₄[Fe(CN)₆]₃.

Question 2.
Write the IUPAC names of the following co-ordination compounds :

1. [CO(NH₃)₆]Cl₃
2. [CO(NH₃)5Cl]Cl₂
3. K₃[Fe(CN)₆]
4. K₃[Fe(C₂O₄)₃]
5. K₂|PdCl₄]
6. [Pt(NH₃)₂Cl(NH₂CH₃)]Cl.

Answer:

1. Hexaammine cobalt(III) chloride
2. Pentaamminechloridocobalt(IlI) chloride
3. Potassium hexacyanoferrate(III)
4. Potassium trioxalatoferrate(III)
5. Potassium tetrachloridopalladate(II)
6. Diamminechlorido(methanamine)platinum(II) chloride.

Question 3.
Indicate the types of isomerism exhibited by the following complexes and draw the structures for these isomers :
(i) K[Cr(H₂O)₂(C₂O₄)₂]
(ii) [Co(en)₃]Cl₃
(iii) CO(NH₃)5(NO₂)](NO₃)₂]
(iv) [Pt(NH₃)(H₂O)Cl₂].
Answer:
(i) K[Cr(H₂O)₂(C₂O₄)₂] shows geometrical isomers :

cls-isomers exhibits optical isomerism :

(ii) [Co(en)₃Cl₃] exhibits optical isomerism :

(iii) [CO(NH₃)₅NO₂](NO₃)₂ shows ionisation isomerism [Co(NH₃)₅NO₂](NO₃)₂ and [Co(NH₃)_5-NO₃](NO₂)(NO₃). This also shows linkage isomerism.
[CO(NH₃)₅NO₂](NO₃)₂ and [Co(NH₃)₅(ONO)] NO₃.
(iv) [Pt(NH₃)(H₂O)Cl₂] shows geometrical isomerism.

Question 4.
Give evidence that [CO(NH₃)5Cl]SO₄ and [CO(NH₃)₅SO₄]Cl are ionization isomers.
Answer:
Ionisation isomers when dissolved in water furnish different ions which can be tested.
[CO(NH₃)5SO₄]Cl + AgNO₃ → [CO(NH₃)₅SO₄]NO₃ + AgCl ↓
White precipitate indicates that the isomer has Ck ion outside the co-ordination sphere.
[CO(NH₃)₅Cl]SO₄ + BaCl₂ → [CO(NH₃)₅Cl]Cl₂ + BaSO₄ ↓
ppt
White precipitate indicates the isomer has \(\mathrm{SO}_{4}^{2-}\) ion outside the co-ordination sphere.

Question 5.
Explain on the basis of valence bond theory that [Ni(CN)₄]^2- ion with square planar structure is diamagnetic and the [NiCl₄]^2- ion with tetrahedral geometry is paramagnetic.
Answer:
[Ni(CN)₄]^2-: The oxidation state of Ni is +2 in the complex. Its electronic cofiguration is [Ar]3d⁸. It under goes dsp² hybridization. Because CN^– being strong ligand causes pairing of electrons.

[NiCl₄]^2-: The oxidation state of Ni is +2 in the complex. Its electronic configuration is (Ar)3d⁸. It undergoes sp³ hybridization. Because Cl being weak field ligand does not causes pairing of electron.

Two unpaired electrons are present in the complex ion, hence it is paramagnetic in nature.

Question 6.
[NiCl₄]^2- is paramagnetic while [Ni(CO)₄] is diamagnetic though both are tetrahedral. Why ?
Answer:
[NiCl₄]^2- has 2 unpaired electrons and is paramagnetic (see Q. No. 5 for details).
Like CN^–, Co is also strong field ligand, same like Co, it causes pairing of electrons. No unpaired electrons left, hence it is dimagnetic.

Question 7.
[Fe(H₂O)₆]³⁺ is strongly paramagnetic whereas [Fe(CN)₆]^3- is weakly para-magnetic. Explain.
Answer:
In both the complexes Fe is in +3 oxidation state with the configuration 3d⁵. CN^– is a strong ligand. In its presence, 3d-electrons pair up leaving only one unpaired electron. The hybridization is d²sp³ forming inner orbital complex. H₂O is a weak ligand. In its presence, 3d-electrons do not pair up. The hybridization is sp³d² forming an outer orbital complex containing five unpaired electrons. Hence, it is strongly paramagnetic.

Question 8.
Explain [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ is an inner orbital complex whereas [Ni(NH₃)₆]²⁺ is an outer orbital complex.
Answer:
In [CO(NH₃)₆]³⁺, CO is in +3 oxidation state with the configuration 3d⁶. In the presence of NH₃, 3d-electrons pair up leaving two d-orbitals empty. Hence, the hybridization is d²sp³ forming an inner orbital complex.

In [Ni(NH₃)₆]²⁺, Ni is in +2 oxidation state with the configuration 3d⁶. In presence of NH₃, the 3d-electrons do not pair up. The hybridization involved is sp³d² forming outer orbital complex.

Question 9.
Predict the number of unpaired electrons in the square planar [Pt(CN)₄]^2- ion.
Answer:
Platinum atom has the ground state electronic configuration 5d⁴ 6s¹. In the complex Ft is in +2 oxidation state and has the electronic configuration 5d⁸. To have square planar geometry, one of the 5d-orbitals is vocated and all the other four orbitals get a pair of electrons. Therefore, it involves dsp² hybridization and is diamagnetic.

Question 10.
The hexaaquomanganese(II) ion contains five unpaired electrons, while the hexacyano ion contains only one unpaired electron. Explain using Crystal Field Theory.
Answer:
Mn in +2 oxidation state has the electronic configuration 3d⁵. H₂O is a weak ligand. In presence of H₂O molecules, the distribution of electrons is \(t^{3}_{2 g} e_{g 2}\), all the electrons are unpaired.

CN^– is a strong ligand. In its presence, the distribution of electrons is \(t_{2 g}^{5}\) i e one unpaired electron is present.

Question 11.
Calculate the overall complex dissociation equilibrium constant for the Cu(NH₃)²⁺₄ ion, given that β₄ for this complex is 2.1 × 10¹³.
Solution:
Overall complex dissociation equilibrium constant is the reciprocal of the over all stability constant.

Coordination Compounds NCERT Textbook Exercises

Question 1.
Explain the bonding in co-ordination compounds in terms of Werner’s pos-tulates.
Answer:
Werner’s co-ordination theory : Alfred Werner gave his co-ordination theory in 1893. The important postulates of this theory are :
(i) All metals in atomic or ionic form exhibit two types of valencies in co-ordination compounds :
(a) Primary or principal or ionic valency (—–),
(b) Secondary or auxiliary or nonionic valency (—).
The primary valency is ionizable and it is shown by dotted lines. The secondary va-lency is non-ionizable and it is shown by continuous line.
(ii) Primary valency represents oxidation states of metal atom or ion and secondary valency represents co-ordination number of metal ion which is fixed for a particular atom.
(iii) The primary valencies are satisfied by negative ions whereas the secondary valencies may be satisfied either by negative ions (e.g., Cl^–, Br^–, CN^– etc.) or neutral molecules (ag.,H₂O).
(iv) Secondary valencies are directed towards fixed position in space.
(v) Eveiy element tends to satisfy both its primary and secondary valencies. For this purpose a negative ion may often act a dual behaviour i.e., it may satisfy primary as well as secondary valency (—–,-).
Example : (i) Luteo cobaltic chloride CoCl₃.6NH₃ or [Co(NH₃)₆]Cl₃.
(ii) Purpureo cobaltic chloride COC1₃.5NH₃ or [Co(NH₃)₅Cl]Cl₂

Question 2.
FeSO₄ solution mixed with (NH₄)₂SO₄ solution in 1:1 molar ratio gives the test of Fe²⁺ ion but CuSO₄ solution mixed with aqueous ammonia in 1:4 molar ratio does not give the test of Cu²⁺ ion. Explain, why ?
Answer:
FeSO₄ solution mixed with (NH₄)₂SO₄ solution in 1 : 1 molar ratio given double salt, FeSO₄(NH₄)₂.SO₄.6H₂O (Mohr’s salt). Being double salt, it ionizes in the solution to give Fe²⁺ ions. Hence, it gives the test of Fe²⁺ ions. CuSO₄ solution mixed with aqueous ammonia in 1 : 4 molar ratio gives a complex compound.
CuSO₄ + 4NH₃ → [CU(NH₃)₄]SO₄.
The complex ion [Cu(NH₃)₄]²⁺ does not ionise to give of Cu²⁺ ions. Hence, it doesn’t give the test of Cu²⁺ ions.

Question 3.
Explain with two examples each of the following: co-ordination entity, ligand, co-ordination number, co-ordination polyhedron, homoleptic and heteroieptic.
Answer:
Co-ordination entity: This entity usually contitutes a central metal atom or ion, to which are attached a fixed number if other atoms or ions or groups by co-ordinate bonds.
e.g. [Ni(CO₄)], [CoCl₃(NH₃)₃], etc.
Ligand : It is an ion having at least one lone pair of electrons and capable of forming a co-ordinate bond with central atom/ion in the co-ordination entity.
e.g. Cl^–, (OH)^–, (CN)^–, etc.
Co-ordination number: The total number of co-ordination bonds with which central atom/ion is linked to ligands in the co-ordination entity is called co-ordination number of central atom/ion.
Co-ordination polyhedron: The spatial arrangement of the ligands which are directly attached to the central atom/ion defines a co-ordination polyhedron about the central atom.
e.g. [CO(NH₃)₆]³⁺ is octahedral, [Ni(CO)₄] is tetrahedral.
Homoleptic and heteroieptic : Complexes in which a metal is bound to only one kind of donor groups are known as homoleptic.
eg. [CO(NH₃)₆]³⁺.
Complex in which a metal is bound to more than one kind of donor groups are called heteroieptic. e.g. [CO(NH₃)₄Cl₂]⁺

Question 4.
What is meant by unidentate, bidentate and ambidentate ligands ? Give two examples for each.
Answer:
Unidentate ligand : When a ligand is bound to a metal ion through a single donor atom as with Cl^–, H₂O. The ligand is said to be unidentate.
Didentate ligand : When a ligand is bind through two donor atoms the ligand is said to be didentate.
Example: C₂O^2-₄ (Oxalate)
H₂NCH₂ – CH₂NH₂ (ethane 2 diammine)
Ambidentate ligand : Ligand which can ligate through two different atoms is called ambidentate ligand.
Example : -NO₂– and SCN^–.

Question 5.
Specify the oxidation numbers of the metals in the following co-ordination entities:
(i) [Co(H₂O)(CN)(en)₂]²⁺
(ii) [CoBr₂(en)₂]⁺
(iii) [PtCl₄]^2-
(iv) K₃[Fe(CN)₆]
(v) [Cr(NH₃)₃Cl₃].
Answer:
(a) x + (-1) = +2, x = +3
(b) x + 4(-1) = -2,x = +2
(c) x + 3 (-1) = 0, x = +3
(d) x + 2 (-1) = +1, x = +3
(e) x + 6 (-1) = -3, x = +3.

Question 6.
Using IUPAC norms write the formulas for the following :

1. Tetrahydroxozincate(II)
2. Potassium tetrachloridopalladate(II)
3. Diamminedichloridoplatinum(II)
4. Potassium tetracyanonickelate(II)
5. Pentaamminenitrito-o-cobalt(III)
6. Hexaamminecobalt(III) sulphate
7. Potassium tri-(oxalato)chromate(III)
8. Hexaammineplatinum(IV)
9. Tetrabromidocuprate(II)
10. Pentaamminenitrito-N-cobalt(III).

Answer:

1. [Zn(OH]^2-
2. K₂[PdCl₄]
3. [Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂]
4. K₂[Ni(CN)₄]
5. [CO(NH₃)₅(ONO)]²⁺
6. [CO(NH₃)₆]₂ (SO₄)₃
7. K₃[Cr(C₂O₄)₃]
8. [Pt(NH₃)₆]⁴⁺
9. [Cu(Br)₄]^2-
10. [CO(NH₃)₅(NO₂)]²⁺.

Question 7.
Using IUPAC norms write the systematic names of the following :

1. [CO(NH₃)₆]CI₃
2. [Pt(NH₃)₂Cl(NH₂CH₃)]Cl
3. [Ti(H₂O)₆]³⁺
4. [CO(NH₃)₄Cl(NO₂)]Cl
5. [Mn(H₂O)₆]²⁺
6. [NiCl₄]^2-
7. [Ni(NH₃)₆]Cl₂
8. [Co(en)₃]³⁺
9. [Ni(CO)₄].

Answer:

1. Hexaamminecobalt(III) chloride
2. Diammine chlorido (methylamine) platinum (II) chloride
3. Hexaquatitanium(III) ion
4. Tetraamminechloridonitrito-N-Cobalt(III) chloride
5. Hexaquamanganese(II) ion
6. Tetrachloridonickelate(II) ion
7. Hexaamminenickel(II) chloride
8. tris (ethane-1, 2-diammine) cobalt(III) ion
9. Tetracarbonylnickel (0).

Question 8.
List various types of isomerism possible for co-ordination compounds, giving an example of each.
Answer:
Isomerism in Co-ordination Compounds : Two or more compounds having the same molecular formula but different arrangement of atoms are-called isomers.
Isomerism in Co-ordination Compounds is given below :

1. Structural Isomerism
This type of isomerism arises due to the difference in structures of co-ordination compounds. It is further sub divided into four different types as explained below :

(a) Ionization isomerism : This type of isomerism is shown by such compounds which have same composition but liberate different ions in solution.
Example : [Co(NH₃)₅Br]SO₄ (dark violet). It liberates SO^2-₄ ions in solution, whereas [Co(NH₃)₅ SO₄] (red) liberates Br- ions in solution. Both of these are ionization isomers.

(b) Co-ordination isomerism : This type of isomerism is shown by such compound which contain both cationic and anionic species and it arises from the inter change of ligands between cationic and anionic entities of different metal ions present in a complex.
For example, [Co(NH₃)₆][Cr(CN)₆] and [Cr(NH₃)₆][Co(CN)₆]
hexaamminecobalt (III) hexacyano chromate (III) and hexaamminechromium (III) hexacyano- cobalt (III).

(C) Linkage isomerism : Linkage isomerism occurs when different atoms of the ligand are attached to the central metal ion. The structure obtained are called linkage isomers. Such type of ligands are called ambidentate ligand.

In structure I Ni²⁺ is linked by thiocyanate sulphur and in structure II it is linked by nitrogen atom.
Ionisation Isomerism : This type of isomerism is shown by such compounds which have same composition but liberate different ions in solution.
[Co (NH₃)₅ Br]SO₄ – It liberates SO^2-₄ ions.
[Co(NH₃)₅SO₄]Br – It liberates Br^– ions.

(d) Hydrate isomerism : This type of isomerism is shown by such compounds which differ in the number of molecules of water inside the coordination sphere.

Example : The three hydrate isomers of are as follows :

1. [Cr(H₂O)₆]Cl₃ (violet)
2. [Cr(H₂O)5Cl]Cl₂.H₂O (green)
3. [Cr(H₂O)₄Cl₂]Cl.2H₂O (darkgreen).

2. Stereoisomerism
Two compounds are called stereoisomers when they contain the same ligand in their co-ordination sphere but differ in their spatial arrangement. Stereoisomerism is further classified as geometrical and optical isomerism.

(a) Geometrical isomerism : When the ligands are situated at different position around the metal it gives rise to geometrical isomerism. The isomer in which similar groups are in adjacent position (making an angle 90° with metal ion) is called c/s-isomer. The iso-mer in which the similar group occupy the opposite position (making an angle of 180° with metal ion) is called trans-isomer.

This type of isomerism is observed in square planar (CN = 4) and octahedral (CN = 6) type of complexes.

(b) Optical Isomerism : Optical isomers are sensitive to plane polarised light. When light passed through the solution of optically active substances these rotates the light-plane in clockwise or anticlockwise direction.

This type of isomerism is exhibited by the substances which are mirror image of each other but cannot be superimposed. Optical isomerism is shown by the substances which have minimum one assymmetric carbon atom.

The compound which rotate plane polarized light in left side are called l-isomers and which rotate in right side called d-isomers. These types of isomerism are generally found in tetrahedral complex [-CN = 4] and octahedral complex [-CN = 6].

(i) Tetrahedral complex : [As (CH₃) (C₂H₅) (S) (C₆H₄COO)]²⁺

(ii) Octahedral complex : [CO(en)₂]³⁺

Question 9.
How many geometrical isomers are possible in the following co-ordination entities :

1. [Cr(C₂O₄)₃]^3-
2. [CO(NH₃)₃Cl₃].

Answer:

1. Nil
2. Two (fac and mer).

Question 10.
Draw the structures of optical isomers of:
(i) [Cr(C₂O₄)₃]^3-
(ii) [PtCl₂(en)₂]²⁺
(iii) [Cr(NH₃)₂Cl₂(en)]⁺.
Answer:

Question 11.
Draw all the isomers (geometrical and optical) of:
(i) [CoCl₂(en)₂]⁺
(ii) [Co(NH₃)Cl(en)₂]²⁺
(iii) [Co(NH₃)₂Cl₂(en)]⁺.
Answer:

cis-isomer will show optical isomer [see question (ii)]



cis isomer shows optical isomers

Question 12.
Write all the geometrical isomers of [Pt(NH3)(Br) (Cl)(py)] and how many of these will exhibit optical isomers ?
Answer:
Three isomers:

These type of isomer do not show optical isomerism. Optical isomerism in square planar complexes occurs only with unsymmetrical chelating ligand.

Question 13.
Aqueous copper sulphate solution (blue in colour) gives:
(i) A green precipitate with aqueous potassium fluoride, and
(ii) A bright green solution with aqueous potassium chloride. Explain these ex-perimental results.
Answer:
Aqueous copper sulphate exists as [Cu(H₂O)₄]SO₄ which has blue colour due to [CU(H₂O)₄]²⁺ ions.

(a) When KF is added, the weak water ligand are replaced by F^– ligand and forms [CUF₄]²⁺ ions which is green precipitate.
[CU(H₂O)₄]SO₄ + 4F^– → [CUF₄]^2- + 4H₂O.

(b) When KCl is added, the weak water ligand are replaced by CT ion forming [CuCl₄]^2- which has bright green colour.
[CU(H₂O)₄C1] SO₄ + 4C1^– → [CUC1₄]^2- + 4H₂O.

Question 14.
What is the co-ordination entity formed when excess of aqueous KCN is added to an aqueous solution of copper sulphate ? Why is it that no precipitate of copper sulphide is obtained when H₂S_(g) is passed through this solution ?
Answer:
When excess of aqueous KCN is added to an aqueous solution of CuSO₄, Potassiumtetra-cyanocuprate (II) is formed.
[CU(H₂O)₄]²⁺ + 4CN^– → [CU(CN)₄]^2- + 4H₂O.
When H₂S_(g) is passed through above solution, no precipitate of copper sulphide is obtained because CN^– ions are strong ligands so the complex [Cu(CN)₄]^2- is very stable. As Cu²⁺ ion are not available so CuS precipitate is not formed.

Question 15.
Discuss the nature of bonding in the following co-ordination entities on the basis of valence bond theory :
(i) [Fe(CN)₆]^4-
(ii) [FeF₆]^3-
(iii) [Co(C₂O₄)₃]^3-
(iv) [CoF₆]^3-.
Answer:
(i) [Fe(CN)₆]^4- : d₂sp³, octahedral, diamagnetic (Refer NCERT Text-book).
(ii) [FeF₆]^3- : sp³d², octahedral, paramagnetic (Refer NCERT Text-book) Similar to [CoF₆],
(iii) [Co(C₂O)₄]^3- : d²sp³, octahedral, paramagnetic (similar to [Fe(CN)₆]^4-).
(iv) [CoF₆]^3- : sp³ d², octahedral, paramagnetic (Refer NCERT Text-book).

Question 16.
Draw figure to show the splitting of 4-orbitals in an octahedral crystal field.
Answer:
CFSE can be calculated as :
CFSE = [-0.4x + 0.6y]∆₀
Where, ∆₀ = CFSE in octahedral complex
x = Number of electrons in t_2g orbitals
y = Number of unpaired electrons in e_g orbitals.

Question 17.
What is spectrochemical series ? Explain the difference between a weak field ligand and a strong field ligand.
Answer:
Spectrochemical series : The arrangement of ligands in order of their increasing field strengths i.e. increasing crystal field splitting energy (CFSE) values is called spectrochemical series, which is as follows :
I < Br < SCN < Cl < S^2- < F^– < OH^– < C₂O^2-₄ < H₂O < NCS^– < edta^-4 < NH₃ < en < CN^– < CO.
Difference between weak field ligand and a strong field ligand : The ligand with small value of CFSE (∆₀) are called weak field ligands whereas those with large value of CFSE are called strong field ligands.

Question 18.
What is crystal field splitting energy (CFSE) ? How does the magnitude of ∆0 decide the actual configuration of d-orbitals in a co-ordination entity ?
Answer:
When ligands approach a transition metal ion, the 4-orbital split into two sets, with lower energy and higher energy. The difference of energy between two sets of orbitals is called crystal field splitting energy (CFSE) i.e. ∆₀ for octahedral field.
For example : d⁴ system has following configuration depending upon ∆₀.
(i) If ∆₀ < P (pairing energy), the 4^th e^– entres one of the e_g orbital giving configuration. \(t_{2 \mathrm{g}}^{4} e_{g 0}\)
(ii) If ∆₀ > P, the 4^th e^– paired up in one of the e_g orbital giving \(t_{2 \mathrm{g}}^{3} e_{g 1}\) configuration.

Question 19.
[Cr(NH₃)₆]³⁺ is paramagnetic while |Ni(CN)₄]^2- is diamagnetic. Explain, why ?
Answer:
[Cr(NH₃)₆]³⁺ ion is paramagnetic whereas [Ni(CN₄)]²⁺ is diamagnetic.

Six NH₃ ligands donate electrons and form d² sp³ hybrid orbitals. Since there are three unpaired electrons in 3d subshell. Thus, [Cr(NH₃)₆]³⁺ ion is paramagnetic.

CN^– ion is a strong ligand.
Therefore, it forces the electrons to pair up in 3d subshell and vacant them which participate in hybridization. One 4.9, two 4p and one 4d subshell form dsp² hybrid orbital.

Question 20.
A solution of [Ni(H₂O)₆]²⁺ is green but a solution of [Ni(CN)₄]^2- is colourless. Explain.
Answer:
H₂O is a weak ligand [Ni(H₂O)₆]^2- is a outer orbital complex. The complex has two unpaired electron. The d-d transition is possible. It absorbs red light and complemen-tary green light is emitted.

CN^– is a strong ligand. The unpaired electrons are paired up. The central atoms undergoes dsp² hybridization. Square planar complex is formed. No unpaired electrons are present i. e. d-d transition is not possible, hence the complex is colourless.

Question 21.
[Fe(CN)₆]^4- and [Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺ are of different colours in dilute solutions, why?
Answer:
In both the complexes, Fe is in +2 state with the configuration 3d⁶ i.e., it has four unpaired electrons. As the ligand H₂O and CN^– possess different crystal field splitting energy (∆₀), they absorb different components of the visible light (VIBGYOR) for transition. Hence, the transmitted colours are different.

Question 22.
Discuss the nature of bonding in metal carbonyls.
Answer:
The metal-carbon bonds in metal carbonyls have both s nad p characters. M-C σ-bond is formed by the donation of lone pair of electrons on the carbonyl carbon into a vacant orbital of the metal. M-C π-bond is formed by the donation of a pair of electrons from the filled metal d orbital into the vacant anti-bonding π^* orbital of carbon monoxide. This is also known as back bonding of the carbonyl group. The metal to ligand bonding creates a synergic effect which strengthens the bond between CO and the metal. This synergic effect strengthens the bond between CO and the metal.

Question 23.
Give the oxidation state, rf-orbital occupation and co-ordination number of the central metal ion in the following complexes :
(i) K₃[CO(C₂O₄)₃]
(ii) cis-[Cr(en)₂Cl₂]Cl
(iii) (NH₄)₂[CoF₄]
(iv) [Mn(H₂O)₆]SO₄.
Answer:

Question 24.
Write down the IUPAC name for each of the following complexes and indicate the oxidation state, electronic configuration and co-ordination number. Also give stereochemistry and magnetic moment of the complex :

1. K[Cr(H₂O)₂(C₂O₄)₂].3H₂O
2. [Co(NH₃)₅Cl]Cl₂
3. CrCl₃(py)₃
4. Cs[FeCl₄]
5. K₄[Mn(CN)₆].

Answer:

1. Potassium diaquadioxalatochromate (III) hydrate.
2. Pentaamminechloridocobalt(III) chloride
3. Trichloridotripyridinechromium (III)
4. Caesium tetrachloroferrate (III)
5. Potassium hexacyanomanganate(II).

Question 25.
What is meant by stability of a co-ordination compound in solution ? State the factors which govern stability of complexes.
Answer:
The stability of a complex in a solution refers to the degree of association between the two species involved in a state of equilibrium. Stability can be expresed quantitatively in terms of stability constant or formation constant.

For this reaction, the greater the value of the stability’ constant, the greater is the proportion of ML₃ in the solution. Stability can be of two types:

(a) Thermodynamic stability : The extent to which the complex will be formed or will be transformed into another species at the point of equilibrium is determined by thermodynamic stability.

(b) Kinetic stability: This helps in determining the speed with which the transformation will occur to attain the state of equilibrium.
Factors affect complex compounds :
(1) Nature of metal ion : The term nature means change density on the central metal ion, greater the charge density more will be the stability of complex.

(2) Size of metal ion :

(3) Nature of ligand (a) : If the ligand is small in size and its charge is more, the complex will be more stable.

(b) Greater the basicity of ligand, greater the stability of complex.

(4) Chelate ligand : Complex formed by chelate ligand is ten times more stable than ordinary ligand.

(5) Nature of solvent : If a metal and ligand are made to react in a solvent of low dielectric constant and low dipole moment, the stability of the complex increases.

Question 26.
What is meant by the chelate effect ? Give an example.
Answer:
When a ligand attaches to the metal ion in a manner that forms a ring, then the metal-ligand association is found to be more stable. In other words, we can say that com-plexes containing chelate rings are more stable than complexes without rings. This is known as the chelate effect for example :

Question 27.
Discuss briefly giving an example in each case the role of co-ordination compounds in:
1. Biological system
2. Medicinal chemistry
3. Analytical chemistry
4. Extraction/metallurgy of metals.
Answer:
1. Biological system : Zinc and iron deficiency of plants is very common. Plants require iron and zinc for healthy growth. When applied to the soil in the form of their saluble salts, these increase metals get precipitated in the from of their hydroxides at pH 7-8 the soil.

To prevent it and their rapid and absorption by the plants, their soluble complexes like iron-EDTA and zinc-EDTA are used.

2. Medicinal chemistry : Many co-ordination complex are used in medicines:
(i) Vitamin B₁₂ which is used to prevent anaemia is a complex compound of cobalt (I), an unusual oxidation atate of cobalt.
(ii) The platinum complex cis-[Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂] known as cis platin is used in the treatment of cancer. It also inhibits the growth of fiimours. This is known as Chemotherapy.
(iii) The excess of copper and iron are removed by the chelating ligands D-penicil- lamine and desferrioxime-B via the formation of co-ordination compounds.
(iv) The chelate complex of calcium and EDTA is used in the treatment of lead poi¬soning. Inside the body calcium in the complex is replaced by lead. The more soluble lead- EDTA complex is eliminated in urine.

3. Analytical chemistry : Co-ordination compounds find their applications in both qualitative and quantitative methods of analysis.
(a) In qualitative analysis : The formation of complex substance by using suitable reagents is very effectively used in seperation and detection of cations in qualitative analysis. For example :

(i) The seperation of Ag⁺ from \(\mathrm{Hg}_{2}^{+2}\) in the first group of analysis is based on the fact that, while silver chloride is soluble in aqueous ammonia and Hg₂Cl₂ forms back. Insoluble complex which can be seperates by filtration.

(ii) Similarly, seperation of Cd⁺² from Cu⁺² could also be achieved by treating the solution of Cu⁺² and Cd⁺² with exess of CN^– reaction takes place.

Now, when H₂S is passed in the solution, ionic product does not exceed the K_sp of Cl₂S due to formation of a highly stable complex of copper and hence only CdS gets precipitated.

(b) In quantitive analysis : (i) Gravimetric estimation of Ni⁺² is carried out by precipitating Ni+2 as red nickel-dimethyl oxime complex in thr presence of ammonia.

(ii) EDTA is a versatile complexing agent. It is used in the complexometric determina¬tion of several metal ions such as Ca⁺², Mg⁺², Zn⁺², Mn⁺², Fe⁺², Co⁺², Ni⁺² etc.

4. Extraction/metallurgy of metals : The extraction of silver and gold is done by the formation of cyanide complexes. The crushed ore is treated with an aqueous cyanide solution in the presence of air to dissolve gold by forming the soluble complex ion [Au(CN)₂]^–.

The complex is separated and then treated with an electropositive metal, such as zinc to recover gold.

The extraction of nickel by means of Mond’s process is based on the preparation of volatile nickel carbonyl. Carbon monoxide gas is passed over impure nickel metal at about 70 °C to form the volatile nickel carbonyl. Distillation of this at 200°C yields nickel.

Question 28.
How many ions are produced from the complex [Co(NH₃)₆CI₂] in solution :
(i) 6
(ii) 4
(iii) 3
(iv) 2.
Answer:

Question 29.
Amongst the following ions which one has the highest magnetic moment value :
(i) [Cr(H₂O)₆]³⁺
(ii) [Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺
(iii) [Zn(H₂O)₆]²⁺.
Answer:
(ii) [Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺ has the highest magnetic moment because Fe²⁺ ion has maxi-mum Cl unpaired electrons.

Question 30.
The oxidation number of cobalt in K[Co(CO)₄] is :
(i) +1
(ii) +3
(iii) -1
(iv) -3.
Answer:
(c) K[Co(CO)₄]
1 + x + 0 = 0
x = -1.

Question 31.
Amongst the following, the most stable complex is :
(i) [Fe(H₂O)₆]³⁺
(ii) [Fe(NH₃)₆]³⁺
(iii) [Fe(C₂O₄)₃]^3-
(iv) [FeCl₆]^3-.
Answer:
(iii) [Fe(C₂O₄)₃]^3- is most stable because it is chelate ligand complex.

Question 32.
What will be the correct order for the wavelengths of absorption in the visible region for the following :
[Ni(NO₂)₆]^4-, [Ni(NH₃)₆]²⁺, [Ni(H₂O)₆]²⁺.
Answer:
In all the three complexes, the central metal ion is same hence, the increasing field strengths of the ligand from the spectrochemical series are in the order :
H₂O < NH₃ < NO^–₂
Thus, the energies absorbed for excitation will be in the order :
[Ni(H₂O)₆]²⁺ < [Ni(NH₃)₆]²⁺ < [Ni(NO₂)₆]^4-.
As E = \(\frac{h c}{\lambda}\) , the wavelength absorbed will be in opposite order.

Coordination Compounds Other important Questions and Answers

Coordination Compounds Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
The correct structural formula of Zeise’s salt is :
(a) K⁺ [PtCl₃(C₂H₄)]^–
(b) K⁺ [PtCl₂(n² – C₂H₄]Cl^–
(c) K₂ [PtCl₃(n – C₂H₄)]
(d) K⁺ [PtCl₃(n² – C₂H₄)]^–
Answer:
(d) K⁺ [PtCl₃(n² – C₂H₄)]^–

Question 2.
Which of the following is not an olefinic organometallic :
(a) C₄H₄Fe(CO)₃
(b) (C₂H₄PtCl₃)₂
(c) Be(CH₂)₂
(d) K[C₂H₄PtCl₃].3H₂O.
Answer:
(c) Be(CH₂)₂

Question 3.
IUPAC name of K₃[Al(C₂O₄)₃] is :
(a) Potassium alumino oxalate
(b) Potassium trioxalato aluminate (III)
(c) Potassium aluminium (III) oxalate
(d) Potassium trioxalato aluminate (IV).
Answer:
(b) Potassium trioxalato aluminate (III)

Question 4.
AgCl is soluble in aqueous ammonia due to formation of:
(a) [Ag(NH₃)²⁺
(b) [Ag(NH₄)₂]⁺
(c) [Ag(NH₃ )₄ ]⁺
(d) [Ag(NH₃)₂]⁺.
Answer:
(d) [Ag(NH₃)₂]⁺.

Question 5.
Which of the following gives a white precipitate in aqueous solution with silver nitrate :
(a) [Cr(NH₃)₅Cl](NO₂)₂
(b) [Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂]
(c) [Pt(CN)₂Cl₂]
(d) [Pt(NH₃)₂]Cl₂.
Answer:
(d) [Pt(NH₃)₂]Cl₂.

Question 6.
Correct nomenclature of Fe₄[Fe(CN)₆]₃ is :
(a) Ferroso ferric cyanide
(b) Ferric ferrous hexacyanate
(c) Iron (III) hexacyanoferrate (III)
(d) Hexa cyano ferrate (III-II).
Answer:
(c) Iron (III) hexacyanoferrate (III)

Question 7.
Number of geometrical isomers of [Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂] will be :
(a) Two
(b) One
(c) Three
(d) Four.
Answer:
(a) Two

Question 8.
In co-ordination compounds, coordination number of metal is :
(a) Equal to primary valency
(b) Sum of primary and secondary valency
(c) Equal to secondary valency
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Equal to secondary valency

Question 9.
In which of the following complex, oxidation state of metal is zero :
(a) [Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂]
(b) [Cr(CO)₆]
(c) [Cr(NH₃)₃Cl₃]
(d) [Cr(CN)₂Cl₂].
Answer:
(b) [Cr(CO)₆]

Question 10.
Which of the following is not an organometallic compound :
(a) Ethyl magnesium bromide
(b) Tetra-ethyl lead
(c) Sodium ethoxide
(d) Tetra methyl aluminium.
Answer:
(c) Sodium ethoxide

Question 11.
Co-ordination number of Fe in [Fe(CN)₆]^4-, (Fe(CN)₆]^3- and [Fe(Cl)₄]^– is :
(a) 2, 2, 3
(b) 6, 6, 4
(c) 6, 3, 3
(d) 6, 4, 6.
Answer:
(b) 6, 6, 4

Question 12.
Example of dsp² hybridization is :
(a) [Fe(CN)₆]^3-
(b) [Ni(CN)₄]^2-
(c) [Zn(NH₃)₄]²⁺
(d) [FeF₆]^3-
Answer:
(b) [Ni(CN)₄]^2-

Question 13.
Which of the following complex is used as an anti-cancer agent:
(a) trans[Co(NH₃)₃Cl₃]
(b) cis[Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂]
(c) cis-K₂[PtCl₂Br₂]
(d) Na₂CO₃.
Answer:
(b) cis[Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂]

Question 14.
Correct order of hybridization of central atoms in NH₃.[PtCl₄]^2- PCl₅ and BCl₃ is:
(a) dsp², dsp³, sp² and sp³
(b) sp³, sp³, sp² and sp²
(c) dsp², sp², sp³ and dsp³
(d) dsp², sp³, sp² and dsp³
Answer:
(b) sp³, sp³, sp² and sp²

Question 15.
Oxidation state of Fe in Fe(CO)₅ complex is :
(a) -1
(b) +2
(c) +4
(d) Zero.
Answer:
(d) Zero.

Question 16.
Grignard reagent is :
(a) Organometallic compound
(b) Complex compound
(c) Double salt
(d) Neutral compound.
Answer:
(a) Organometallic compound

Question 17.
Structure of complex salts was proposed by :
(a) Berzelius
(b) Werner
(c) Raoult
(d) Faraday.
Answer:
(b) Werner

Question 18.
Mohrs salt is :
(a) Double salt
(b) Complex salt
(c) Neutral salt
(d) Reagent.
Answer:
(a) Double salt

Question 19.
The formula of sodium nitro prusside is :
(a) Na₄ [Fe (CN)₅ NO₅]
(b) Na₂ [Fe (CN)₅ NO]
(c) NaFe [Fe (CN)₆]
(d) Na₂ [Fe (CN)₆ NO₂].
Answer:
(b) Na₂ [Fe (CN)₅ NO]

Question 20.
Which of the following compound is different:
(a) Potassium ferrocyanide
(b) Ferrous ammonium sulphate
(c) Potassium ferricyanide
(d) Tetrammine copper (II) sulphate.
Answer:
(b) Ferrous ammonium sulphate

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks :

1. cis [Pt(NH₃)2Cl₂] complex is used as an …………………… agent.
2. Haemoglobin is a …………………… compound of iron.
3. Geometrical isomerism is found in both …………………… and …………………… complexes.
4. Oxidation state of Ni in Ni(CO)₄ is ……………………
5. Diethyl zinc is a …………………… compound.
6. The correct I.U.P.A.C. name of K₄[Fe(CN)₆] is ……………………
7. Oxidation state of Co in [Co (E.D.T.A)] is ……………………
8. The formula of dibromo chlorotriaquo chromium (III) is ……………………
9. [COF₆]^-3 is a spin …………………… complex.
10. The formula of antiknock organo-metallic substance is ……………………
11. E. D. T. A is …………………… ligand.

Answers:

1. Anti-cancer
2. Complex
3. Tetrahedral, Octahedral
4. Zero
5. Organo-metallic compound
6. Pottassium hexacyano ferrate (II)
7. +3
8. [Cr(H₂O)₃Cl Br₂]
9. High
10. Tetra ethyl lead (C₂H₅)₄Pb
11. Hexadentate.

Question 3.
Match the following :

Answer:

1. (h)
2. (g)
3. (f)
4. (e)
5. (b)
6. (d)
7. (a)
8. (c)
9. (i).

Question 4.
Answer in one word/sentence :

1. Which type of isomerism is found in [Co(NH₃)₅Br]SO₄ and [Co(NH₃)₅SO₄]Br ?
2. Name the organo-metallic compound which is used as an antiknock compound in petrol.
3. Complexes of E.D.T.A. formed with calcium is used to remove the poisoning caused due to which metal ?
4. How is the structure of dibenzene ?
5. What type of hybridization is found in [Ni(CO)₄] ?
6. Which type of isomerism is represented by [Cr(H₂O)₅SCN]²⁺ and [Cr(H₂O)₅NCS]²⁺ ?

Answers:

1. Ionization isomerism
2. Tetra ethyl lead
3. Lead
4. Sandwich
5. sp³
6. Linkage isomerism.

Coordination Compounds Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain double salt and complex salt. Give one-one example of each.
Answer:
Double salt: Double salts are additive compounds which are stable in the crys-tal lattice but when dissolved in water break into different compounds.
Example : Ferrous ammonium sulphate is a double salt which ionise in water as

Complex salt : The compounds in which ligand with lone-pair electron are linked with any metal atom or metal ion by coordinate bonds, are called coordination compounds. In these compounds metal ion and ligand in combined state act as complex ion and thus these compounds are also known as complex compounds.
Example : K₄[Fe(CN)₆].

Question 2.
Explain Ambidentate ligand.
Answer:
Ligands which contain more than one atom to donate electron pair to central metal atom but it donates through one atom at a time are known as ambidentate ligand.
Example : NO₂^– ion ligand can co-ordinate to central metal atom either through N or by O.

Question 3.
What do you understand by ligand ? Explain giving example.
Answer:
Ligand : Any atom, ion or molecule which can donate electron pair to central ion and forms co-ordinate bond are called ligand. Example : In K₄[Fe(CN)₆], CN is ligand.

In ligand the specific atom which donates the electron pair is known as donor atom. On the basis of number of donor atoms in a ligand, they are classified as monodentate, bidentate, tridentate, polydentate ligands. Some such ligands are given below :

Question 4.
What is complex ion ?
Answer:
Complex Ion : A complex ion is an electrically charged redical or a species, carrying either positive or negative charge, in which the central metal ion is surrounded through co-ordinate bond by a suitable number of ligands (neutral molecules or negative ions).

Example : Complex ferrocyanide ion[Fe(CN)₆]^4- is formed by the union of six CN^– ions with one Fe²⁺ ion. While writing the formula of a complex ion, the co-ordinating groups are written inside the bracket ( ), and the whole of the complex ion in a square bracket [ ]. The net charges is written on right hand top comer of the square bracket.

The square bracket is known as co-ordination sphere.

Question 5.
Give example of bidentate and hexadentate ligand.
Answer:
Bidentate ligand :

Hexadentate ligand:

Question 6.
What is co-ordination number ? Give any two examples.
Answer:
Co-ordination number: Number of ligands which are directly linked with central metal or metal ion by co-ordinate bonds, are co-ordination number.
Example : (i) [CO(NH₃)₆]Cl₃ co-ordination number of CO³⁺ ion is 6.
(ii) In [Ag(CN)₂]^– co-ordination number of Ag is 2.

Question 7.
What are organometallic compounds ? Write its two applications.
Answer:
Those compounds in which the carbon atom of organic groups are directly bonded to metal atoms are called organometallic compound. The compound of element such as boron, phosphorus, silicon, germanium and antimony with organic groups are also included in the organometallics.

Applications of organometallic compounds :

1. Tetra ethyl lead (C₂H₅)₄ Pb is used as on antiknock compound.
2. Ziegler-Natta catalysis is used in the polymerization of ethylene or other alkenes.
3. Ethyl mercuric chloride (C₂H₅HgCl) is used in agriculture as an insecticide.
4. Willkinson catalyst is used in the hydrogenation of some alkenes.

Question 8.
Explain geometrical isomerism with an example.
Answer:
Geometrical isomerism : When the ligands are situated at different position around the metal it gives rise to geometrical isomerism. The isomer in which similar groups are in adjacent position (making an angle 90° with metal ion) is called c/s-isomer. The iso-mer in which the similar group occupy the opposite position (making an angle of 180° with metal ion) is called trans-isomer.

This type of isomerism is observed in square planar (CN = 4) and octahedral (CN = 6) type of complexes.

Question 9.
Explain the principle of Werner with the example of K₄[Fe(CN)₆] complex.
Answer:
The various terms used for a co-ordination compound are shown in the following example:

(i) When it is dissolved in water it does not break into its constitutent ions K⁺, Fe²⁺, CN^– but it forms K⁺ and complex ion [Fe(CN)₆]^4-.
(ii) IUPAC name of the compound is Potassium hexacyanoferrate (II).
(iii) Ionisation of K₄Fe(CN)₆ in aqueous solution.

According to Werner’s theory : Central metal atom in the compound is Fe whose oxidation number (Primary valency) is 4 and co-ordination number (Secondary valency) is 6.

Question 10.
Explain structure of [Ni(CN)₄]^2- on the basis of valence bond theory.
Answer:
In [Ni(CN)₄]^2- ion, Nickel is present as Ni²⁺ ion and its valency shell configuration is

Co-ordination number of Ni²⁺ in this complex ion is 4 and experimentally it is found to be diamagnetic. This is possible if it does not have unpaired electron i.e., \(3 d_{z^{2}}\) gives its electron to 3d_x²-y² Now \(3 d_{z^{2}}\), 4s, 4p_x and 4p_y orbital hybridizes forming four dsp² hybrid orbital oriented along the comer of a planar square.

These hybrids accept lone pair of electron from four CN^– ion forming σ – bonds. Now there is no unpaired electron in it. Therefore, [Ni(CN)₄]^2- is diamagnetic.

Question 11.
What is effective atomic number (EAN) ?
Answer:
In co-ordination compounds, sum of electrons present in central metal ion and electrons received in bond formation is called effective atomic number.
EAN = Atomic number – Electrons lost in ion formation + Electrons obtained in bond formation
In K₄[Fe(CN)₆]EAN for Fe = 26 – 2 + 12 = 36.

Question 12.
Write the I.U.P.A.C. names of the following compounds :
(i) (a) [Hgl₄]^2-
(b) [Ag (CN)₂]^–
(c) [Fe (C₅H₅)2l
(d) K [Ag (CN)₂
(ii) What is Zeise’s Salt and Ferrocene ? Explain with structure.
Answer:
(i) (a) Tetraiodomercurate (II) ion.
(b) Dicyanoargentate (I) ion.
(c) Bis (cyclopentadienyl) iron (II).
(d) Potassium dicyano argentate (I).
(ii) (a) Zeise’s salt K [PtCl₃ – n² (C₂H₄):

This salt was prepared by Danish pharmacist Zeise in 1830. it is one of the compound of transition metals which was prepared earlier. The plane of ethylene molecule and the C = C axis are perpendicular to the expected bond direction of the central atom.

(b) Ferrocene Fe (n⁵ – C₅H₅)₂: It is an orange-yellow coloured compound. Kealy and Pauson reported it in 1951. It has sandwich structure in which iron atom is in between two cyclopentadienyl rings. The planes of the rings are parallel so that all the carbon atoms are equidistant from iron atom.

Question 13.
What are chelates ? Give example. Write importance of Chelate.
Answer:
Chelates is a multidentate ligand which co-ordinates with central metal atom to form ring compound, the process is called chelation.

Importance of chelate ligands :

1. In qualitative analysis, for the detection of some elements.
2. They are used in the separation of lanthanides and actinides.
3. In softening of hard water.

Question 14.
What is the difference between primary and secondary valency ? Give example also.
Answer:
Primary valency is ionisable while secondary valency does not ionise. Primary valency is represented in figure by solid lines and secondary valency by broken or dotted lines.
Example : [Co (NH₃)₆] Cl₃, primary valency is 3 and secondary valency is 6.

Question 15.
What is the importance of coordination compound in extraction of metals ?
Answer:
In metallurgy, extraction of metals like gold and silver is down by forming complexes. Metals are converted into soluble cyanide complexes by treating with dilute cyanide solution. These soluble complexes liberates metals when treated with electropositive metals like zinc.

Question 16.
Write I.U.P.A.C. name of the following :
(a) [CU(NH₃)₄]SO₄
(b) [Cr(H₂O)₆ ]Cl₃
(c) [Pt(NH₃)₆]Cl₄
(d) K₂[HgI₄].
Answer:
(a) Tetraammine copper (II) sulphate
(b) Hexaaquo chromium (III) chloride
(c) Hexaammine platinum (IV) chloride
(d) Potassium tetraiodomercurate (II).

Question 17.
Explain difference between Double salt and Complex compound.
Answer:
Differences between Double salt and Complex compound :

Double salt

1. Addition compound in solid state but ionize in components when dissolved in the water.
2. These dissociate into constituent ions in aqueous solution.
3. The physical and chemical properties are similar to properties of constituents.
4. The nature of bond is ionic or electro-valent.

Complex compound

1. Stable in solid or in solution may be partialy ionize in to complex ion.
2. When dissolved in water form a complex ion.
3. Physical and chemical properties of complex compourids are quite different from constituents.
4. In complex compound, the bond present between the central metal ion and ligand is always co-ordinate.

Question 18.
Write the chemical formulae of the following :
(a) Trinitritotriamminecobalt (III)
(b) Tris (ethylenediamine) Chromium (III) chloride.
(c) Pentacarbonyliron (0)
(d) Tetrachloroplatinate (II) ion.
Answer:
(a) [Co(NH₃)₃(ONO)₃]
(b) [Cr (en)₃]Cl₃
(c) [Fe (CO)₅]
(d) [Pt Cl₄]^2-

Question 19.
Write IUPAC name of the following :

1. K₄[Ni(CN)₄]
2. H₂[CUCl₄]
3. [Ag(NH₃)₂]Cl
4. [Ni(CO)₄].

Answer:

1. Potassium tetracyanonickelate (0)
2. Hydrogen tetrachloro cuprate (II)
3. Diammine silver (I) chloride.
4. Tetra carbonyl nickel (0).

Question 20.
Explain Linkage and Ionisation isomerism with example.
Answer:
Linkage isomerism : Linkage isomerism occurs when different atoms of the ligand are attached to the central metal ion. The structure obtained are called linkage isomers. Such type of ligands are called ambidentate ligand.

In structure I Ni²⁺ is linked by thiocyanate sulphur and in structure II it is linked by nitrogen atom.
Ionisation Isomerism : This type of isomerism is shown by such compounds which have same composition but liberate different ions in solution.
[Co (NH₃)₅ Br]SO₄ – It liberates SO^2-₄ ions.
[Co(NH₃)₅SO₄]Br – It liberates Br^– ions.

Question 21.
(i) Write I.U.P.A.C. name of

(ii) Write the ligands and co-ordination number of the complex [Cr (NH₃)₄(ONO) Cl]NO₃.
(iii) Write chemical formula of carbonate pentaammine cobalt (III) chloride.
Answer:
(i) µ -amido- µ -hydroxobis-(tetraammine cobalt) (III) ion.
(ii) Ligands (a) NH₃, (b) ONO, (c) Cl. Thus, number of ligands are 3 and co-ordination number is 6.
(iii) [CO(NH₃)₅CO₃]Cl.

Question 22.
Write IUPAC names of the following complex compounds.

1. NH₄[Cr(NH₃)₂ (NCS)₄]
2. K₂[Pt Cl₆]
3. [CoCI(en)₂NH₃]⁺⁺,
4. K[Pt(NH₃)Cl₅]
5. [Fe(CO)₅].

Answer:

1. Ammonium tetraisothiocyanatodiamminechromate (III)
2. Potassium hexachloroplatinate (IV)
3. Chlorobis-(ethylenediamine) amminecobalt (III).
4. Potassium pentachioroammineplatinate (IV).
5. Pentacarbonyl iron.

Question 23.
Write IUPAC name of the following :

1. Li(AlH₄)
2. [Cr(NH₃)₆](NO₃)₃
3. (Cr(H₂O)₆]Cl₃
4. K₄[Fe(CN)₆]

Answer:

1. Lithium tetrahydridoaluminate (III)
2. Hexaammine chromium (III) nitrate
3. Hexaaquoch’romium (III) chloride
4. Potassium hexacyanoferrate (II).

Question 24.
Explain optical isomerism in co-ordination compounds.
Answer:
Optical isomerism : This type of isomerism is observed in such similar compounds which are the mirror images of each other and are non-superimposable. They rotate the path of plane polarized light to the left (l) or to the right (d).

Question 25.
Describe important applications of organometallic compounds.
Answer:
Important applications of organometallic compounds are :

1. In medicine : Antiseptics like mercurochrome, mercury hydrix tincture are organometallic compounds of mercury.
2. In agriculture: Organometallic compounds of mercury like ethyl mercury chloride is used for treatment of seeds.
3. Antiknock compound : Tetraethyl lead (TEL) is an important antiknock compound.
4. In industries : Organolithium and organoaluminium compounds are used as catalyst for the manufacture of dyes and chemicals.
5. In chemical synthesis: Grignards reagent and organolithium compounds are useful in synthesis of organic compound.
6. Catalyst: Organometallic compounds of transition metals acts as heterogeneous catalyst, e.g., Wilkinson’s catalyst -(Ph₃P)₃ RhCl is used in hydrogenation of double bonds.

Question 26.
Write IUPAC names of the following :

1. [Cr(H₂O)₆]Cl₃
2. [Ag (NH₃)₂]CI
3. H₂[CuCl₄]
4. [CO(NH₃)₆]Cl₃
5. K₂[PtCl₆]
6. [Pt Cl₄(NH₃)₂]

Answer:

1. Hexaaquachromium (III) chloride.
2. Diammine silver (I) chloride.
3. Hydrogen tetrachlorocuprate (II).
4. Hexammine cobalt (III) chloride.
5. Potassium hexa cloroplatinum (IV).
6. Diammine tetrachloroplatinum (IV).

Question 27.
Write IUPAC name of the following co-ordination compounds :

1. K[Ag(CN)₂]
2. K₄[Fe(CN)₆]
3. [Ag(NH₃)₂]Cl
4. [Cr(NH₃)₆]Cl₃.

Answer:

1. Potassium dicyanoargentate (I).
2. Potassium hexacyanoferrate (II).
3. Diamminesilver (I) chloride.
4. Hexamminechromium (III) chloride.

Question 28.
Explain ionization isomerism and hydrate isomerism in coordination complexes giving suitable example.
Answer:
Ionization isomerism : This type of isomerism is shown by such compounds which have same composition but liberate different ions in solution.
Example : [Co(NH₃)₅Br]SO₄ (dark violet). It liberates SO^2-₄ ions in solution, whereas [Co(NH₃)₅ SO₄] (red) liberates Br^– ions in solution. Both of these are ionization isomers.
Hydrate isomerism : This type of isomerism is shown by such compounds which differ in the number of molecules of water inside the coordination sphere.

Example : The three hydrate isomers of are as follows :

1. [Cr(H₂O)₆]Cl₃ (violet)
2. [Cr(H₂O)5Cl]Cl₂.H₂O (green)
3. [Cr(H₂O)₄Cl₂]Cl.2H₂O (darkgreen).

Question 29.
Write chemical formulae of the following co-ordination compounds :
(a) Hexammine cobalt (III) chloride
(b) Tetrammine copper (II) sulphate
(c) Tetrammine platinum (II) chloride
(d) Potassiumhexacyanoferrate (II).
Answer:
(a) [CO(NH₃)₆]Cl₃
(b) [Cu(NH₃)₄]SO₄
(c) [Pt(NH₃)₄]Cl₂
(d) K₄[Fe^II(CN)₆].

Question 30.
Write chemical formulae of the following co-ordination compounds :
(a) Chloropentammine cobalt (II) chloride
(b) Potassiumdicyanoargentate (I)
(c) Hexaquachromium (III) chloride
(d) Tetracyano nickelate (I)
Answer:
(a) [CO(NH₃)5Cl]Cl₂
(b) K[Ag(CN)₂]
(c) [Cr(H₂O)₆]Cl₃
(d) [Ni(CN)₄]^2-.

Question 31.
Write chemical formulae of co-ordination compounds :
(a) Hexammineplatinum (IV) chloride
(b) Potassiumhexacynoferrate (III)
(c) Dichlorodiammine platinum (II)
(d) Sodium pentacyanonitrosyl ferrate (III)
Answer:
(a) [Pt(NH₃)₆]Cl₄
(b) K₃[Fe(CN)₆]
(c) [Pt(NH₃)2Cl₂]
(d) Na₂[Fe(CN)₅NO]

Question 32.
Write IUPAC name of the following :
(a) [Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂]
(b) K₃[Fe(CN)₆]
(c) [CO(NH₃)₆]Cl₃
(d) Pt[(NH₃)₆]Cl₄
(e) CuCl^2-₄.
Answer:
(a) Diachlorodiammine platinum (II)
(b) Potassium hexacyanoferrate (III)
(c) Hexammine cobalt (III) chloride
(d) Hexammine platinum (IV) chloride
(e) Tetrachlorocuprate (II).

Question 33.
Write IUPAC name of the following :
(a) K₄[Fe(CN)₆]
(b) [Cr(NH₃)₆(NO₂)₃]
(c) [Ni(CN)₃]CI₃
(d) K₂[Pt(Cl)₆]
(e) Ni (CO)₄ U.
Answer:
(a) Potassium hexacyanoferrate (II)
(b) Trinitrohexammine chromium (III)
(c) Tricyanonickel (III) chloride
(d) Potassiumhexachloro platinate (IV)
(e) Tetracarbonylnickel (0).

Question 34.
[NiCI₄]^-2 is paramagnetic while [Ni(CO)₄] is diamagnetic though both are tetrahedral. Why ?
Answer:
In [NiCl₄]^-2, Ni is +2 oxidation state with the configuration 4s⁰3d⁸. Cl^– is weak ligand. It cannot pair up electrons in 3d- orbitals. Hence, it is paramagnetic. In [Ni(CO)₄], Ni is in zero oxidation state with the configuration 4s² 3d⁸. In the presence of CO ligand the 45 electron shift to 3d to pair up 3d electrons. Thus, there is no unpaired electron present. Hence, it is diamagnetic.

Question 35.
How will you differentiate [Co(NH₃)₅Br]SO₄ between and [Co(NH₃)₅SO₄]Br ?
Answer:
Both these complexes are ionisation isomers. First will give white precipitate (BaSO₄) with BaCl₂, second will give no precipitate with BaCl₂. Similarly, second complex [Co(NH₃)₅SO₄]Br will give yellow precipitate with AgNO₃ whereas first will not give any precipitate.

Coordination Compounds Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Find the oxidation no. of central metal in the following :
(a) [Pt(NH₃)₃Cl₃]^–
(b) [Zn(H₂O)₃OH]⁺
(c) Na₄[Ni(CN)₄]
(d) K₂[Zn(OH)₄]
Answer:

Question 2.
Give methods of preparation of following (one method for each):
(i) Tetrabutyl tin
(ii) Tetraethyl lead
(iii) n-butyl lithium
(iv) Ferrocene
(v) Nickel tetracarbonyl
(vi) Zeise’s salt.
Answer:
(i) Tetra butyl Tin:

(ii) Tetraethyl lead:

(iii) n-butyl lithium:

(iv) Ferrocene:

(v) Nickel tetracarbonyl:

(vi) Zeise’s salt:

Question 3.
Explain the structure of [Ni(CO)₄] on the basis of valence bond theory.
Answer:
Structure of [Ni(CO)₄]: In nickel tetracarbonyl oxidation state of nickel atom is zero (0). Electronic configuration of Ni is 4s² 3d⁸ or 3d¹⁰. As a result of sp³ hybridization four sp³ orbitals are formed in tetrahedral form which are vacant. Four CO molecule join with them, as a result of which tetrahedral nickel tetracarbonyl molecule is formed.

Question 4.
Explain the structure of [Zn(NH₃)₄]²⁺ on the basis of valence bond theory.
Answer:
Structure of [Zn(NH₃)₄]²⁺ Tetraammine zinc (II) ion : Outer electronic configuration of zinc (Z = 30) in ground state is 3d¹⁰ 4s². In this complex zinc is in + 2 oxidation state with the outer electronic configuration of 3d¹⁰.
The 3d orbital being completely filled does not take part in hybridization. The vacant 4s and 4p orbitals hybridize and form four hybridized sp3 rorbitais directed

towards the four comers of a tetrahedron. The four lone pairs from four NH₃ overlap with these sp³ orbitals and forms four cr-bonds. The compound is diamagnetic as it does not contain unpaired electrons.

Question 5.
Explain optical isomerism with the example of tetrahedral and octahedral co-ordinate compounds.
Answer:
Optical Isomerism : Optical isomers are sensitive to plane polarised light. When light passed through the solution of optically active substances these rotates the light-plane in clockwise or anticlockwise direction.

This type of isomerism is exhibited by the substances which are mirror image of each other but cannot be superimposed. Optical isomerism is shown by the substances which have minimum one assymmetric carbon atom.

The compound which rotate plane polarized light in left side are called l-isomers and which rotate in right side called d-isomers. These types of isomerism are generally found in tetrahedral complex [-CN = 4] and octahedral complex [-CN = 6].

(i) Tetrahedral complex : [As (CH₃) (C₂H₅) (S) (C₆H₄COO)]²⁺

(ii) Octahedral complex : [CO(en)₂]³⁺

Question 6.
Write the application of complex compounds in the extraction of metals and detection of metal ions.
Answers:
(i) In extraction of metals: Silver and gold ores are treated with NaCN solution and form soluble complex.
(a) Silver glance (Ag₂S) dissolves in NaCN solution and forms soluble complex Na- [Ag(CN)₂] from which Ag is precipitated by adding Zn dust.
Ag₂S + 4NaCN → 2Na[Ag(CN)₂] + Na₂S
2Na [Ag(CN)₂ ] + Zn → Na₂ [Zn (CN)₄] + 2 Ag ↓

(b) Gold is found in native state. Its powdered ore is kept in NaCN or KCN solution for 12 to 24 hours. Au dissolves by forming soluble complex K[Au(CN)₂], Now zinc sharings are added to precipitate Au.
4AU + 8KCN + 2H₂O + O₂ (from air) → 4K[Au(CN)₂] + 4KOH
2K[AU(CN)₂] + Zn → K₂ [Zn(CN)₄] + 2Au ↓

(ii) In the detection of metal ion : In the qualitative analysis of Ni²⁺ a scarlet pink colour complex is obtained with (D.M.G.) dimethyl glyoxine

Question 7.
Explain crystal field theory.
Answer:
This theory was proposed by Bethe and Von Black. According to this theory bonding between central metal ion and ligand is due to pure electrostatic attraction. If ligand is anion then attraction towards cation is just like the attraction between two oppositely charged particles. If ligand is neutral molecule then the anionic end of this dipole is attracted to central positive ion. Thus, bonding between them is due to ion-ion attraction or ion dipole attraction.

In crystal field theory due to approaching ligands the d-orbitals split into different energy levels on the basis of extent of splitting (depend on metal ion and nature of ligand) structure and properties of complex can be discussed. Colour of transition metal complex is due to absorption of visible light which leads to excitation of electron from one d-orbital to the other d-orbital (d-d transition). This way this theory is easy and successfully explains maximum properties of the complexes.

MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions

MP Board Class 9th Special Hindi सहायक वाचन Solutions Chapter 7 उड़ता चल कबूतर (यात्रा वृत्तांत, रामवृक्ष बेनीपुरी)

उड़ता चल कबूतर अभ्यास

बोध प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
सोनभद्र नदी किस प्रदेश में बहती है?
उत्तर:
सोनभद्र नदी बिहार प्रदेश में बहती है।

प्रश्न 2.
यूरोप यात्रा पर जाने के लिए किसने पत्र लिखा?
उत्तर:
यूरोप यात्रा पर जाने के लिए सन् 1947 ई. में आचार्य नरेन्द्र देव ने पत्र लिखा।

प्रश्न 3.
जयप्रकाश जी को किस-किसकी चिन्ता थी?
उत्तर:
जयप्रकाश जी को दैनिक-पत्र ‘जनता’ की चिन्ता थी और आगामी आम चुनाव की भी चिन्ता थी।

प्रश्न 4.
बिहार से चलने के बाद लेखक का प्लेन कौन-से शहर में उतरा?
उत्तर:
बिहार से चलने के बाद लेखक का प्लेन बनारस शहर में उतरा।

प्रश्न 5.
शरीर की भंगिमा द्वारा भाव प्रकट करने वाले व्यक्ति का नाम क्या था?
उत्तर:
शरीर की भंगिमा द्वारा भाव प्रकट करने वाले व्यक्ति का नाम उदय शंकर था।

प्रश्न 6.
ननिहाल जाते समय लेखक की हाथी के साथ क्या घटना घटी?
उत्तर:
ननिहाल जाते समय लेखक एक हाथी पर चढ़कर ऊँचे आसन पर बैठकर आनन्द लेना चाहता था पर हाथी की वह सवारी भीतरी मन को जितना आनन्द नहीं दे पाई उससे ज्यादा मन में भय बैठा गई थी।

प्रश्न 7.
बर्नार्ड शा ने अंग्रेजों के बारे में क्या लिखा है?
उत्तर:
बर्नार्ड शा ने अंग्रेजों के बारे में लिखा है कि इस कौम के दिल में कोई इरादा जागता है तो वह इस तरह उसे छिपाकर रखती है कि एक दिन यह इरादा एक ज्वलन्त विश्वास में परिणत हो जाता है और इस विश्वास की अखण्ड ज्योति, इसमें इतनी शक्ति पैदा कर देती है कि वह जो चाहती है, उसे करके ही दम लेती है।

प्रश्न 8.
ब्रजनन्दन आजाद ने तार के द्वारा क्या सूचना दी?
उत्तर:
ब्रजनन्दन आजाद ने तार के द्वारा विलायत जाने की तैयारी करने की सूचना दी।

प्रश्न 9.
गोरे अंग्रेज ने हिन्दी के बारे में क्या कहा?
उत्तर:
गोरे अंग्रेज ने हिन्दी के बारे में कहा कि आजकल हिन्दी को लोग संस्कृत बना रहे हैं। प्रेमचन्द की हिन्दी कितनी अच्छी थी। पटना के हिन्दी अखबार तक ऐसी हिन्दी लिखते हैं कि उनका अर्थ समझने के लिए डिक्शनरी की जरूरत होती है।

प्रश्न 10.
दिल्ली के राजभवन में कौन-कौन से चित्र लगे थे?
उत्तर:
दिल्ली के राजभवन में वायसराय के चित्र, अंग्रेजों द्वारा बनाये गये भवनों के चित्र, उन युद्धों के चित्र जिनमें विजयी बनकर अंग्रेज भारत के शासक हुए। सुरक्षा की दृष्टि से ये चित्र राजभवन को म्यूजियम मानकर लगा दिये गये थे।

प्रश्न 11.
हवाई जहाज यात्रा के समय नीचे के दृश्यों का वर्णन लेखक ने किस प्रकार किया है?
उत्तर:
हवाई जहाज यात्रा के समय नीचे के दृश्यों का वर्णन करते हुए लेखक कहता है कि ऊपर उड़ने पर ताड़ के वृक्ष छोटे-छोटे लगते हैं। धरती की सीमाएँ जैसे सिमटी जा रही हैं। खेत ऐसे लग रहे हैं जैसे मुसल्लम धारीदार चादर हो। तेजधूप में गंगा का कछार हिमालय की सीढ़ी का पहला जीना जैसा लग रहा था। नीचे की सारी चीजें छोटी होती जा रही हैं। ताड़-खजूर आम-नीम सब छोटे-छोटे से पौधे लग रहे हैं। पृथ्वी शतरंज की एक लम्बी विसात सी लगती है। जैसे-जैसे हम ऊँचे चढ़ते जाते हैं भेदभाव मिटते जाते हैं, सीमाएँ नष्ट हो जाती हैं और एकरूपता बढ़ती जाती है।

प्रश्न 12.
अन्तर्मन और बहिर्मन का परस्पर क्या सम्बन्ध है? उदाहरण द्वारा स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर:
प्रत्येक वस्तु के दो पहलू होते हैं-आन्तरिक और बाह्य। इसी प्रकार मानव मन के भी दो पहलू होते हैं-अन्तर्मन और बहिर्मन। जब किसी वस्तु के प्रति हमारा आकर्षण अधिक होता है तो हमारा बहिर्मन उस वस्तु को प्राप्त करने का प्रयास करता है। अभिप्राय यह है कि अन्तर्मन किसी के भी बारे में सोचता रहता है, योजनाएँ बनाता रहता है पर उन योजनाओं को कार्य रूप में परिणत नहीं कर पाता है। उन योजनाओं को कार्य रूप में ‘परिणत करता है बहिर्मन। इस प्रकार हम कह सकते हैं कि अन्तर्मन का कार्य योजना बनाना है और उसे क्रिया रूप में परिणत करता है बहिर्मन। अत: इन दोनों का परस्पर अटूट सम्बन्ध है। एक के बिना दूसरे का काम नहीं चल सकता है।

प्रश्न 13.
बनारस में उदय शंकर जी से लेखक की क्या बातचीत हुई?
उत्तर:
जब लेखक बिहार से चलकर बनारस हवाई अड्डे पर उतरा तो उसने लॉन में किसी को बैठा देखा। उसे देखकर लेखक की जो बातचीत हुई, वह इस प्रकार है-“क्षमा करें, क्या आप उदय शंकर हैं?”

“जी हाँ, आप मुझे पहचानते हैं?” जी, मैं भी एक छोटा-मोटा कलाकार ही हूँ। जिसे आप शरीर की भंगिमा द्वारा प्रकट करते हैं, उसे मैं कलम द्वारा उतारने की कोशिश करता हूँ।”

“अपने कला-केन्द्र के बारे में कुछ बता ………”
हाँ, सोच रहा हूँ, 1952 में उसे अल्मोड़ा के बदले देहरादून में खोलूँ। देहरादून बड़ी अच्छी जगह है।” मैने बताया लेखनीधारी का बेटा राइफलधारी बनने जा रहा है। “देश को उसकी भी जरूरत है। अच्छा किया है।”

प्रश्न 14.
भावार्थ स्पष्ट कीजिए-“ज्यों-ज्यों ऊँचे चढ़िए भेदभाव मिटते जाते हैं। सीमाएँ नष्ट होती जाती हैं, एकरूपता बढ़ती जाती है।”
उत्तर:
भावार्थ-लेखक कहता है कि ज्यों-ज्यों हम हवाई जहाज के द्वारा ऊपर आकाश की ओर बढ़ते जाते हैं, नीचे की सब वस्तुएँ एकसी दिखाई देने लगती हैं। इस यात्रा में सीमाएँ नष्ट होती जाती हैं और ऐसा लगता है कि सारा संसार, सारी पृथ्वी एक ही है।

MP Board Class 9th Hindi Solutions

MP Board Class 9th Special Hindi सहायक वाचन Solutions Chapter 6 सिपाही का पत्र (कविता, शिवमंगल सिंह ‘सुमन’)

सिपाही का पत्र अभ्यास

बोध प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
सिपाही ने अपना पत्र किसको सम्बोधित करते हुए लिखा है?
उत्तर:
सिपाही ने अपना पत्र देशवासियों को सम्बोधित करते हुए लिखा है।

प्रश्न 2.
पंचायत का रेडियो किसका सहारा है?
उत्तर:
पंचायत का रेडियो सैनिक की माता का सहारा है।

प्रश्न 3.
सिपाही अपना पत्र कहाँ से लिख रहा है?
उत्तर:
सिपाही अपना पत्र गंगा, यमुना और ब्रहापुत्र के मुहाने से लिख रहा है। वह वहाँ अपने देश की सीमा की सुरक्षा के लिए तैनात है।

प्रश्न 4.
सिपाही युद्ध को राम-राज के रूप में क्यों स्वीकार करता है?
उत्तर:
सिपाही युद्ध को राम-राज के रूप के रूप में इसलिए स्वीकार करता है क्योंकि वह जीवन मूल्यों तथा मानवता की रक्षा के लिए लड़ रहा है। उसका मानना है कि राम-काज की सिद्धि में यदि यह क्षणभंगुर शरीर चला भी जाए तो यह पुण्य का काम होगा।

प्रश्न 5.
अपनी माँ को विश्वास दिलाते हुए सिपाही क्या कहता है?
उत्तर:
अपनी माँ को विश्वास दिलाते हुए सिपाही कहता है कि हे माँ! तू धीरज मत खो। मेरे सिर पर तुम्हारे आशीषों की छाया है। मैं तुम्हारा ही नाम ले लेकर इन नरभक्षी दुष्टों से उलझ रहा हूँ। मैं तेरे दूध की शपथ खाकर कहता हूँ कि मैं वीरमाताओं के यश को कलंकित नहीं करूँगा और इन शत्रुओं को छठी का दूध याद दिला दूंगा। मैं जब भी युद्ध क्षेत्र से विजय प्राप्त कर लौहँगा तो अपने माथे पर तेरी चरणरज लगा-लगाकर आनन्दित हो उलूंगा। मैं किसी भी दशा में तेरी कोख को कलंकित नहीं होने दूंगा।

प्रश्न 6.
सिपाही अपने बच्चों को क्या सिखाना चाहता है?
उत्तर:
सिपाही अपने बच्चों को यह सिखाना चाहता है कि वे अपने पिता की भाँति देशभक्त एवं कर्त्तव्यपरायण व्यक्ति बनें। नन्हें-मुन्ने आग से खेलना सीखें। वह उन बच्चों को वीरता, धैर्य एवं आत्म बलिदान का पाठ पढ़ाना चाहता है।

प्रश्न 7.
“ऐसा सौभाग्य बड़ी मुश्किल से मिलता है।”-इस पंक्ति का आशय स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर:
ऐसा सौभाग्य बड़ी मुश्किल से मिलता है-यह कथन कवि ने मातृभूमि की सुरक्षा में तैनात सिपाही की आन्तरिक भावनाओं को व्यक्त किया है। सिपाही का कथन है कि वह अपनी मातृभूमि की आजादी की सुरक्षा के लिए बलिदान होने का इच्छुक है। मातृभूमि उसकी माँ है और वह उसका पुत्र है।

सिपाही का कथन है कि देश की सेवा के लिए समर्पण करने का अवसर सौभाग्यशाली व्यक्ति को ही मिलता है। वह अपने बलिदान को कभी भी कलंकित नहीं होने देगा।

प्रश्न 8.
सिपाही अपनी उदास पत्नी के प्रति क्या भावना व्यक्त करता है?
उत्तर:
सिपाही अपनी उदास पत्नी के प्रति इस प्रकार की भावना व्यक्त करता है-“मुझे ऐसा लग रहा है कि तुम बहुत दुर्बल हो रही हो। बार-बार हिचकी भरती हुई एवं पीपल के पत्ते के समान झकझोरी-सी लग रही हो।

मुझे यह कदापि उम्मीद नहीं थी कि तुम अपने मन में कायरता के भाव उत्पन्न करोगी। इस मंगलमय बेला में चण्डी का द्वार खोल उपासना में जुट जाओ। यह अकेला मेरा प्रश्न नहीं है यह तो राष्ट्र की सुरक्षा का प्रश्न है। देश पर संकट आया हुआ है, ऐसे में देश हितार्थ अपना-अपना उत्सर्ग करने की सबमें होड़ लगी हुई है। तुम धैर्य धारण करो, अपनी सन्तानों को कर्तव्य निष्ठा एवं देश प्रेम का पाठ पढ़ाओ। बलिदान ही मानव का गौरव है। मातृभूमि स्वर्ग से बढ़कर है।

प्रश्न 9.
इस कविता के आधार पर युद्ध क्षेत्र का वर्णन अपने शब्दों में कीजिए।
उत्तर:
सीमा पार से शत्रु सेना ने देश पर आक्रमण कर दिया है। देश के वीर सैनिक सीमाओं की रक्षा के लिए बहुत ऊँचे दुर्गम पर्वतों पर अपनी जान की बाजी लगाकर शत्रु से संघर्ष कर रहे हैं। देश के सैनिकों का एकमात्र लक्ष्य अपने देश की सुरक्षा करना है। वे सरहदों पर रहकर न माँ की चिन्ता करते हैं, न पत्नी की और न बच्चों की। वे तो देश की रक्षा हेतु अपने प्राणों को बलिदान करने को तैयार हैं। वे यह मानते हैं कि युद्ध क्षेत्र में बलिदान देने से भारत माता की अनुपम सेवा होगी।

MP Board Class 9th Hindi Solutions

MP Board Class 11th Business Studies Important Questions Chapter 11 International Business

International Business Important Questions

International Business Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which document is not necessary for getting license –
(a) IPC number
(b) Credit letter
(c) Registration cum membership certificate
(d) Bank account number.
Answer:
(b) Credit letter

Question 2.
Which document is not required for import –
(a) Shipping builty
(b) Shipping bill
(c) Certificate of origin
(d) Loading information.
Answer:
(a) Shipping builty

Question 3.
Which is not related to money refund policy –
(a) Refund of production expenses
(b) Refund of excise duty
(c) Refund of export duty
(d) Duty at loading port
Answer:
(d) Duty at loading port

Question 4.
Which is not a part of custom documentation process –
(a) Shipping bill
(b) Export license
(c) Insurance letter
(d) Proforma invoice.
Answer:
(d) Proforma invoice.

Question 5.
Which is not a part of export related documents –
(a) Commercial invoice
(b) Certificate of origin
(c) Entry bill
(d) Mate’s receipt
Answer:
(c) Entry bill

Question 6.
When goods are loaded on the ship, then the captain of the ship issues a receipt which is called –
(a) Shipping receipt
(b) Mate’s receipt
(c) Loading receipt
(d) Receipt of rent of bill.
Answer:
(b) Mate’s receipt

Question 7.
Which document is made by the exporter which contains details of the goods to be sent by ship like name of the sender, number of packages, shipping bill, destination port, name of ship, etc –
(a) Shipping bill
(b) Packaging list
(c) Mate’s receipt
(d) Bills of exchange.
Answer:
(c) Mate’s receipt

Question 8.
The document in which the bank gives guarantee to make the payment of exporter’s bill:
(a) Mortgage letter
(b) Credit letter
(c) Shipping builty
(d) Bills of exchange.
Answer:
(b) Credit letter

Question 9.
Which is not a member of World Bank group:
(a) International Bank of Development and Reconstruction
(b) Multiple Investment Guarantee Agency
(c) International Development Union
(d) International Monetary Fund.
Answer:
(d) International Monetary Fund.

Question 10.
TRIP is one of the WTO agreements that deals with –
(a) Agricultural trade
(b) Service trade
(c) Trade related investment measures
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(d) None of these.

Question 11.
In which of the following modes of entry, does the domestic manufacturer give the right to use intellectual property such as patent and trade mark to a manufacturer in a foreign country for a fee –
(a) Licensing
(b) Contract manufacturing
(c) Joint venture
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Licensing

Question 12.
Outsourcing a part of or entire production and concentrating on marketing operations in international business is known as –
(a) Licensing
(b) Franchising
(c) Contract manufacturing
(d) Joint venture.
Answer:
(c) Contract manufacturing

Question 13.
When two or more firms come together to create a new business entity that is legally separate and distinct from its parents it is known as –
(a) Contract manufacturing
(b) Franchising
(c) Joint ventures.
(d) Licensing.
Answer:
(c) Joint ventures.

Question 14.
Which of the following is not an advantage of exporting –
(a) Easier way to enter into international markets
(b) Comparatively lower risks
(c) Limited presence in foreign markets
(d) Less investment requirements.
Answer:
(c) Limited presence in foreign markets

Question 15.
Which one of the following modes of entry requires higher level of risks –
(a) Licensing
(b) Franchising
(c) Contract manufacturing
(d) Joint venture.
Answer:
(d) Joint venture.

Question 16.
Which one of the following modes of entry permits greatest degree of control over overseas operations –
(a) Licensing/franchising
(b) Wholly owned subsidiary
(c) Contract manufacturing
(d) Joint venture.
Answer:
(d) Joint venture.

Question 17.
Which one of the following modes of entry brings the firm closer to international markets –
(a) Licensing
(b) Franchising
(c) Contract manufacturing
(d) Joint venture.
Answer:
(d) Joint venture.

Question 18.
Which one of the following is not amongst India’s major export items –
(a) Textiles and garments
(b) Gems and jewellery
(c) Oil and petroleum products
(d) Basmati rice.
Answer:
(c) Oil and petroleum products

Question 19.
Which one of the following is not amongst India’s major import items –
(a) Ayurvedic medicines
(b) Oil and petroleum products
(c) Pearls and precious stones
(d) Machinery.
Answer:
(a) Ayurvedic medicines

Question 20.
Which one of the following is not amongst India’s major trading partners –
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Germany
(d) New Zealand.
Answer:
(d) New Zealand.

Question 21.
Which is related to World Bank –
(a) ICICI
(b) Ex – Im Bank
(c) IDA
(d) Asian Development Bank.
Answer:
(c) IDA

Question 22.
Which is not correct –
(a) India is not primary member of World Bank
(b) UNCTAD is organization of UNO
(c) UNCTAD Secretariat is at Geneva
(d) India became member of GATT in 1947.
Answer:
(a) India is not primary member of World Bank

Question 23.
GATT was implemented on –
(a) 30 October, 1947
(b) 15 March, 1947
(c) 26 April, 1945
(d) 12 May, 1947.
Answer:
(a) 30 October, 1947

Question 24.
GATT came to an end in the year –
(a) 1944
(b) 1997
(c) 1995
(d) 1985.
Answer:
(c) 1995

Question 25.
The scope of WTO as compared to GATT is –
(a) Wide
(b) Narrow
(c) Equal
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Wide

Question 26.
India became member of World Bank in the year –
(a) 1950
(b) 1948
(c) 1945
(d) 1949.
Answer:
(c) 1945

Question 27.
For membership of World Bank it is necessary to be the member of –
(a) Member of IMF
(b) Member of UNCTAD
(c) Member of WTO
(d) Member of UNO.
Answer:
(a) Member of IMF

Question 28.
In international trade CIF includes –
(a) Cost
(b) Cost and insurance
(c) Cost and rent
(d) Cost, rent and insurance.
Answer:
(d) Cost, rent and insurance.

Question 29.
Characteristics of EPZ –
(a) Established in special region
(b) Established by government
(c) Entry in good industrial units
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above.

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. The trade which is undertaken within two country is called as …………….
2. Goods sending by a country to other country is called as …………….
3. Goods purchased by a country from another country is called as …………….
4. The documents which is related to ownership is in International business is called as …………….
5. The World Bank is established in ……………. year.
6. The trade which exist in within the boundary of a country is called …………….
7. The head office of World Trade Center in …………….
8. The head office of I.M.F. is in …………….
9. The number of members in world trade organisation is …………….
10. Indent is system of importing of …………….
11. International invoice is prepared by …………….
12. Shipping receipt is ……………. document of bills of exchange.
13. GATT organisation converted in …………….
14. The world trade organisation held ……………. ministerial conference up to 2013.

Answer:

1. External trade
2. Export,
3. Import
4. Shipping receipt
5. 1945.
6. Internal trade
7. Geneva
8. Washington
9. 151
10. Indirect
11. Importer
12. Half
13. World Trade Organisation
14. 9

Question 3.
Write true or false:

1. Shipping receipt is contract.
2. Indent is sent to direct producer.
3. Captain gives shipping receipt to captain.
4. Indent is also called demand draft.
5. Export promotion means import is more then export.
6. Charter party contract is two types.
7. Mates receipt is used in export.
8. External trade give foreign exchange.
9. In external trade the payment is easy.
10. Nav Bhatak and charter party are different document.
11. For promoting export business India start devaluation of money in 1991.
12. Shipping receipt is issued by captain.
13. Indent send to producers.
14. The head office of World Trade Organisation is in Geneva.
15. Number of member in World Trade Organisation is 164.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. True
5. False
6. False
7. True
8. True
9. False
10. False
11. True
12. False
13. False
14. True
15. True.

Question 4.
Match the columns:

Answer:

1. (b)
2. (c)
3. (d)
4. (a)
5. (j)
6. (i)
7. (h)
8. (g)
9. (e)
10. (f).

Question 5.
Give answer in one word / sentence:

Question 1.
Trade between two countries.
Answer:
Foreign trade.

Question 2.
When World Bank was established?
Answer:
1945.

Question 3.
Sending of goods from one country to another country.
Answer:
Export trade.

Question 4.
Document related to ownership in foreign trade?
Answer:
Shipping builty.

Question 5.
Establishment of WTO?
Answer:
1995.

Question 6.
Office at port for collection of tax?
Answer:
Custom house.

Question 7.
Order for goods in foreign trade?
Answer:
Indent.

Question 8.
When one country purchases goods from other country then it is called?
Answer:
Import.

Question 9.
The document which contains information of the imported goods?
Answer:
Entry bill.

Question 10.
The document which contains incomplete details of the imported goods?
Answer:
Sight bill.

Question 11.
Number of copies made of shipping builty?
Answer:
4 (four).

Question 12.
When the whole ship is hired for the export then by which name it is called?
Answer:
Charter party.

Question 13.
Write other name of charter party?
Answer:
Travel or time charter.

Question 14.
Write different types of foreign trade?
Answer:
Import, export, entreport.

Question 15.
WTO stands for?
Answer:
World Trade Organization.

Question 16.
Objective of WTO?
Answer:
Implementation of new trade policy.

Question 17.
Headquarter of WTO is situated at?
Answer:
Geneva (Switzerland).

Question 18.
One function of WTO?
Answer:
Working for business liberalization.

Question 19.
Two MNC’s in India?
Answer:
LG, Samsung.

Question 20.
WTO members meeting is held after every year?
Answer:
2 year.

International Business Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is international trade?
Answer:
The exchange of goods and services for money’s worth among different countries is known as foreign trade.

Question 2.
Why there is need of international trade?
Answer:
Division of labour and specialization, depending of one country on other country for goods and services so the economies have now got working on global level leading to the need of international trade.

Question 3.
What is Dead Rent?
Answer:
The exporter for exporting goods hire the shipping company by means of con-tract, but it due to some reason, if the exporter is not able to send the goods, then also the shipping company get the claim of the transportation charges which is called as Dead Rent.

Question 4.
What is certificate of origin?
Answer:
Some importing countries provide tariff concessions or other exemptions to the goods coming from a particular country. If such benefits are available, the importer may ask the exporter to send a certificate of origin.

Question 5.
What is bill of entry?
Answer:
Bill of entry is a form filled by the importer for assessment of customs import duty. One appraiser examines the document carefully and gives the examination order.

Question 6.
What do you understand by shipping order?
Answer:
The forwarding agent arranges for obtaining order for loading the goods on the ship. Hie shipping order is an order to the captain of the ship directing him to accept and load the goods on the ship.

Question 7.
What is Mate’s Receipt?
Answer:
The shipping order, shipping bill, insurance policy, dock receipt, etc., are given to the captain of the ship. After verification, he orders that the goods may be loaded into the ship. He also issued a receipt to this effect. This is known as Mate’s Receipt.

Question 8.
What is Shipping bill?
Answer:
After entering into contract with the shipping company, the forwarding agent prepares a shipping bill. Three copies of this bill are prepared. These copies are of different colours. One copy is kept by the customs department and the remaining two copies are given to the exporters.

Question 9.
Write about the documents which are used in the import business?
Answer: Following are the documents used in the import business:

1. Import license
2. Delivery of indent
3. Foreign B/E
4. Delivery of entry bill
5. Dock challan
6. Dock warranty
7. Order
8. Railway/Motor Receipt.

Question 10.
How many types of Mate’s Receipt are there? Why it is received?
Answer:
There are two types of Mate’s Receipt:

1. Clean Mate’s Receipt
2. Foul Mate’s Receipt.

It is received as the consent of the captain of the ship or his assistant.

Question 11.
What are bonded warehouses?
Answer:
If the import duty is not paid on the imported goods they are kept in the special warehouses and they are called as ‘bonded warehouses’.

Question 12.
Write the meaning of foreign trade?
Answer:
Legal trade between two or more countries is called as foreign trade.

Question 13.
What is Indent?
Answer:
When any exporter send order for the purchaser of goods then this demand letter is called as indent.

Question 14.
Explain Charter Party?
Answer:
The exporter can hire the whole vessel or a large part of the ship for shipping the goods to the importer. The agreement made by the hirer with the ship owner for such an arrangement is known as ‘Charter Party’.

Question 15.
What is dock challan?
Answer:
Like railway platform, there is a platform at ports which is called dock and where the goods are dumped before loading them on the ship. For this purpose, a dock challan is i filled up in duplicate by the forwarding agent and submitted to the dock officer enclosing one copy of shipping order and one copy of shipping bill.

Question 16.
Name the act passed by the government to check the quality of goods to be exported?
Answer:
Export Quality Control and Inspection Act, 1963.

Question 17.
Under which act the payment of the excise duty is done on the goods used for the reconstruction?
Answer:
As per central excise duty.

Question 18.
What is Bitty?
Answer:
After delivering the good the receipt issued by the officer certifying it called as Bilty.

Question 19.
Name the document on the basis of which the custom office give permission of export?
Answer:
Shipping bill.

Question 20.
How many copies of shipping bill is submitted to the custom officer?
Answer:
Five copies.

Question 21.
What is Air – way bill?
Answer:
When the goods are to be sent by the air route then the shipping company is required to sent the goods upto the required destination is called as Air – way bill.

Question 22.
From where the exporters/importers get the Exam code?
Answer:
Ministry of Foreign Trade.

Question 23.
For ensuring die quality control in the export, what step has been taken by the government?
Answer:
Establishment of Export Quality Control and Inspection Act, 1963.

International Business Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
List the items which are exported by the India?
Answer:
The items which are exported by the India are:

1. Cloths and ready made clothes
2. Pearls and ornaments
3. Engineering products and chemical items
4. Agricultural and its equipment’s.

India share 0 – 8% of world export.

Question 2.
List the country to which India trade?
Answer:
The countries which India trade are: America, England, Belgium, Germany, Japan, Switzerland, Hong Kong, UAE, China, Singapore, Malaysia.

Question 3.
Write three profits of international trade?
Answer:
Profits from international trade is as under:

1. Indifferent distribution of natural resources:
Each and every country is not gifted by the nutural resources. This indifference is solved by having trading with different nations.

2. Division of labour and specialization:
Due to difference in availability of natural resources, use of these also differs from place to place. Each and every country produces those goods which have favourable condition in their country through the labour and its specialization.

3. Different in currency:
Due to difference in currency, it is only possible through the foreign or international trade.

Question 4.
Write limitation of manufacturing through the contract
Answer:
Followings are the limitations of manufacturing through the contract:

1. Local firms do not produce standard goods.
2. Other country local manufacturers do not have any control on production process.

Question 5.
Differentiate between the International trade and international business?
Answer:

1. International trade have narrow scope and international business have wide scope.
2. International trade include export import of goods and services while in international business along with trading other factors are also included.

Question 6.
Why it is called that licensing is a simple path to global expansion? Clarify.
Answer:
Licensing is a simple path to global expansion because under it there is no need of any firm or businessmen to invest any capital also they are not required to take risk. By means of licensing a firm gives right to other firm either in country or abroad to work and against that they get the royalty from it. If the goods are not produced as per order then the license can be cancelled. But under this the businessmen need not required to suffer any loss.

Question 7.
Why country do trade ? Explain.
Answer:
Because of following reason country do business:

1. Comparative cost principle – As per this principle every country should try to produce that commodity which is skilled because of this specialization production will increase and it can exchange it with other goods and services.
2. Increase in national income – Through the trading people get profit and also profit is available for the country also.
3. Profit of geographical location – Each and every country have own internal and external geographical location.

Question 8.
Differentiate between contract manufacturing to foreign countries and full ownership production subsidiary company.
Answer:

1. Contract manufacturing:
   Under it contract is given to other country producer for production.
2. Full ownership production subsidiary company:
   Under it goods and services are produced under self supervision by the company.

Question 9.
What are the reasons of trade between two countries?
Answer:
The reasons of trade between two countries are:

1. Export of die extra production.
2. Labour division and supervision.
3. Increase in the living standard
4. Facility of trade education.

Question 10.
Differentiate between licensing and franchising?
Answer:
Licensing:
Related to purchase and sale of goods and it is flexible to operate.

Franchising:
Related to purchase and sale of services and it is complicated to operate.

Question 11.
Write limitations of contract manufacturing?
Answer:
Followings are the limitations of contract manufacturing:

1. Local firms do not produce goods as per international standards.
2. No control on production process.
3. Manufacturing firm can not sell the commodity produced as per their will.

Question 12.
Differentiate between contract manufacturing and setting up wholly owned production subsidiary abroad?
Answer:
Contract manufacturing refers to a type of international business where a firm enters into a contract with one or a few local manufacturers in foreign countries to get certain components or goods produced as per its specifications while in a wholly owned subsidiary the parent company acquires full control over the foreign company by making 100% investment in its equity capital.

Question 13.
Explain the procedure of getting payment under export?
Answer:
Importer writes a bill on exporter in order to receive the payment. Bills of exchange is an order of payment of certain amount to the certain person. It is of two types:

1. Sight bill
2. Time bill.

Question 14.
What is shipping bill?
Answer:
The bill which is prepared after entering into contract with the shipping company, the forwarding agent prepare it which is called as shipping bill. It is prepared in 3 copies of different colour.

Question 15.
What is World Bank? Write its functions.
Answer:
The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), commonly known as World Bank, emerged from the Bretton Woods Conference. The main objectives of World Bank were to aid the task of reconstruction of the war-affected economies of Europe and assist in the development of the underdeveloped nations of the world. At present, the World Bank is a group of five international organizations responsible for providing finance to different countries. Its headquarters is situated at Washington DC.

World Bank is entrusted with the task of economic growth and widening the scope of international trade. During its initial years of inception, it placed more emphasis on developing infrastructure facilities like energy, transportation and others but the results were not found to be very satisfactory due to poor administrative structure, lack of institutional frame work and non – availability of skilled labour in under developed countries.

World Bank also extends assistance to different countries for raising cash crops so that their incomes rise and they may export the same for earning foreign exchange. The bank has also been providing resources for education, sanitation, health care and small scale enterprises.

Question 16.
Why it is necessary to get registered in Export Promotion Council?
Answer:
It is necessary to get registered in Export Promotion Council in order to get the profit which made available by the government.

Question 17.
What is Export – Import code number?
Answer:
Export – Import code number is that number which every export firm should have in order to deal in foreign trade which is generally issued by DGFT or regional export import licensing authority.

Question 18.
Write the names of main organization related to World Bank.
Answer:
The names of main organization related to World Bank are:

1. IBRD
2. IFC
3. EDA
4. MIGA
5. ICSID.

Question 19.
What is letter of credit? Why this document is necessary for the exporter?
Answer:
Letter of credit is a guarantee letter issued by the bank in which the payment to the exporter bank guarantee is given. It is required by the exporter because:

1. It is safe method of payment in foreign trade.
2. Exporters do not have to wait for the payment.

Question 20.
Why there was need of making WTO?
Answer:
After first and second world war almost all the economics got affected due to large destruction of.life and assets. Due to faulty currency system of different economies also led to adverse effect on the international trading system. Under these conditions almost 40 countries under the chairmanship of J.M. Keynes made 3 international organizations.

1. (1) IMF
2. IBRD
3. ITO.

Question 21.
Discuss the formalities to be fulfilled in getting the export license.
Answer:
Following formalities are to be performed in getting the export license:

1. Getting account opened and receiving of account number in any bank authorized by RBI.
2. Getting license from DGFT and receiving IEC code.
3. Submission of documents to export council.
4. Registration with ECGL for non-receipt of payment risks.
5. For get IEC number applying to the DGFT.

Question 22.
Write different steps of import?
Answer:
Different steps of import are as under:

1. Trade enquiry
2. Procurement of import license
3. Obtaining foreign exchange or currency
4. Placing order or indent
5. Acknowledgement of indent
6. Dispatching letter of credit
7. Obtaining shipping documents
8. Appointment of clearing agent
9. Endorsement of shipping bill
10. Payment of custom duty
11. Payment of dock charges
12. Taking delivery of goods.

Question 23.
Write different steps of export?
Answer:
The steps of export are:

1. Receipt of letter of enquiry
2. Sending quotation
3. Receipt of order/indent
4. Acknowledgement of indent
5. Obtaining export license
6. Collection of goods
7. Packing of goods
8. Appointment of forwarding agent
9. Preparation of invoice
10. Information to importer
11. Payment.

Question 24.
Differentiate between the following:

1. Sight and usance drafts
2. Bill of lading and airway bill
3. Pre – shipment and post – shipment finance.

Answer:

1. Sight and usance drafts:
In the case of sight draft, the drawer instructs the bank to handover the relevant documents to die importer against payment But in the case of usance draft, the drawer instructs the bank to handover the relevant documents to the importer against acceptance of the bill of exchange.

2. Bill of lading and airway bill:
Bill of lading is a document prepared and signed by the master of the ship acknowledging the receipt of goods on board. It contains terms and conditions on which the goods are to be taken to the port of destination. On the other hand, Airway Bill is a document wherein an airline/shipping company gives its official receipt of the goods on board its aircraft and at the same time gives an undertaking to carry them to the port of destination.

3. Pre – shipment and post – shipment finance:
Pre – shipment finance is provided to an exporter for financing the purchase, processing, manufacturing or packaging of goods for export purpose while the post-shipment finance is provided to the exporter from the date of extending the credit after the shipment of goods to the export country.

Question 25.
What is pre – shipment finance?
Answer:
Pre – shipment finance is provided to an exporter for financing the purchase, processing, manufacturing or packing of goods for export purpose.

Question 26.
Why it is important for a export firm to get pre – shipment inspection?
Answer:
In order ensure that only quality goods should be export the country to the other country.

Question 27.
Discuss the procedure related to excise clearance of goods?
Answer:
The exporter has to apply to the concerned Excise Commissioner in the region with an invoice because according to the Central Excise Tariff Act, excise duty is payable on the materials used in manufacturing goods. If the Excise Commissioner is satisfied, he may issue the excise clearance.

Question 28.
Explain briefly the process of customs clearance of export goods.
Answer:
The goods must be cleared from the customs before these can be loaded on the ship. For obtaining customs clearance, the exporter prepares the shipping bill which contains particulars of the goods being exported, the name of the vessel, the port at which goods are to be discharged, country of final destination, exporter’s name and address, etc. Five copies of the shipping bill along with the following documents are submitted to the Customs . Appraiser at the Customs House for clearance:

1. Export Contract or Export Order
2. Letter of Credit
3. Commercial Invoice,
4. Certificate of Origin
5. Certificate of Inspection, where necessary
6. Marine Insurance Policy.

After submission of these documents the superintendent of the concerned port trust is approached for carting order and after obtaining it, the Cargo is physically moved into the port area and stored in shed.

Question 29.
What is Multinational Investment Guarantee Agency?
Answer:
It is established in 1988 in order to help in functions of World Bank and I. L. C.

Question 30.
Write the important agreements of WTO?
Answer:
The WTO officially commenced on 1 January, 1995 under the Marrakesh Agreement signed by 123 nations on 15 April, 1994. Following agreement were made:

1. ATC – This was made on 1 January, 2005 to regulate the clothing trade.
2. AA – It was made to have proper trading in the agricultural sector.
3. GATS – It is made to regulate the services which cannot seen but only can be felt.

Question 31.
What is bill of lading? How does it differ from bill of entry?
Answer: Bill of lading is issued by the shipping company after the receipt of freight, it serves as an evidence that the shipping company has accepted the goods for carrying to the designated destination. In case the goods are being sent by air, this document is referred to as airway bill.

On the other hand “Bill of entry” is filled by the importer for assessment of customs import duty. One appraiser examines the document carefully and gives the examination order. The importer procures the said document prepared by the appraiser and pays the duty, if any. After payment of the import duty, the bill of entry has to be presented to the dock superintendent.

International Business Long Answer Type Questions – I

Question 1.
Explain the meaning of the following documents used in connection with import transactions:

1. Trade enquiry
2. Import licence
3. Shipment of advice
4. Import general manifest

Answer:

1. Trade enquiry:
A trade enquiry is a written request by an importing firm to the exporter for supply of information regarding the price and various terms and conditions on which the letter is ready to exports goods.

2. Import licence:
Licence which permits the import of goods that cannot be im-ported freely is called an import licence. The importer needs to consult the Export – Import (EX – IM) policy in force to know whether the goods that he or she wants to import are subject to import licensing. In case goods can be imported only against the licence, the importer needs to procure an import licence.

3. Shipment of advice:
Shipment advice contains information about the shipment of goods. The information provided in the shipment advice includes details such as invoice number, bill of lading/airways bill number and date, name of the vessel with date, the port of export, description of goods and quantity, and the date of sailing of vessel. The overseas supplier dispatches the shipment advice to the importer after loading the goods on the vessel.

4. Import general manifest:
Import general manifest is a document that contains the details of the imported goods. It is a document on the basis of which unloading of cargo takes place. It is provided by the person in charge of the carrier (ship or airway) to the officer in charge at the dock.

Question 2.
Write short notes on the following:

1. UNCTAD
2. MIGA
3. World Bank
4. ITPO
5. IMF.

Answer:
1. UNCTAD:
The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) was established in 1964 as a permanent intergovernmental body. It is the principal organ of the United Nations General Assembly dealing with trade, investment and development issues.

The organization’s goals are to “maximize the trade, investment and development opportunities of and developing countries and assist them in their efforts to integrate into the world economy on an equitable basis”. UNCTAD was created to address the concerns of developing countries over the international market, multinational corporations, and the disparity between developed nations and developing nations.

The primary objective of the UNCTAD is to formulate policies relating to all aspects of development including trade, aid, transport, finance and technology. The conference ordinarily meets once in four years. UNCTAD has 194 member states and has its permanent secretariat in Geneva.

2. MIGA:
The Multinational Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA) was established in April, 1988 to supplement the functions of the World Bank and IfC with the fol-lowing objectives:

1. To encourage flow of direct foreign investment into the less developed member countries.
2. To provide insurance cover to investors against political risks.
3. To provide guarantee against non – commercial risks (like currency transfer risk, war and civil disturbances and breach of contract).
4. To insure new investments, expansion of existing investments, privatisation and financial restructuring.
5. To provide promotional and advisory services.
6. To establish credibility.

3. World Bank:
The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), commonly known as World Bank, emerged from the Bretton Woods Conference. The main objectives of World Bank were to aid the task of reconstruction of the war – affected economies of Europe and assist in the development of the underdeveloped nations of the world. At present, the World Bank is a group of five international organizations responsible for providing finance to different countries. Its headquarter is situated at Washington DC.

World Bank is entrusted with the task of economic growth and widening the scope of international trade. During its initial years of inception, it placed more emphasis on developing infrastructure facilities like energy, transportation and others but the results were not. found to be very satisfactory due to poor administrative structure, lack of institutional frame¬work and non-availability of skilled labour in under developed countries.

4. TPO:
Indian Trade Promotion Organization (ITPO) was set up on 1st January, 1992 under the Companies Act. 1956 by the Ministry of Commerce, Government of India. Its headquarter is at New Delhi. ITPO was formed by merging the two erstwhile agencies viz Trade Development Authority and Trade Fair Authority of India. ITPO is a service organization and maintains regular and close interaction with trade, industry and government.

It serves the industry by organizing trade fairs and exhibitions within the country as well as abroad. It helps export firms in participating in international trade fairs and exhibitions, developing exports of new items and providing support and updated commercial business information. ITPO has five regional offices at Mumbai, Bengaluru, Kolkata, Kanpur and Chennai and four international offices at Germany, Japan, UAE and USA.

5. IMF:
International Monetary Fund (IMF) came into existence in 1945 and has its headquarters located in Washington DC. In 2005 it had 191 countries as its members. The major idea underlying the setting up of the IMF is to evolve an orderly international monetary system to facilitate the system of international payments and adjustments in exchange rates among national currencies.

Some of the important functions of IMF include:

1. Acting as a short – term credit institution.
2. Providing machinery for the orderly adjustment of exchange rates.
3. Acting as a reservoir of the currencies of all the member countries from which a borrower nation can borrow the currency of other nations.
4. Acting as a lending institution of foreign currency and current transaction.
5. Determining the value of a country’s currency and altering it, if needed, so as to bring about an orderly adjustment of exchange rates of member countries.
6. Providing machinery for international consultations.

Question 3.
Write advantages of foreign trade?
Answer:
Advantages of Foreign Trade:

1. Advantages of geographical facilities:
Every country has different natural and geographical facilities. Their production, minerals, agriculture and industries are different. Foreign trade helps to obtain goods which are not produced.

2. Specialization and efficiency in production:
Foreign trade enables a country to produce only such goods which can be most efficiently and economically produced. As a result the cost of production will be reduced.

3. Availability of goods not produced in the country:
Foreign trade enables a country to enjoy the possession of goods which it is not producing.

4. Ability to face natural calamities:
The production in a country is affected due to draught, earthquake, flood, epidemic, war and such other natural calamities. Such calamities are faced by importing goods from other countries.

5. Advantage to agricultural and industrial countries:
Agricultural countries can easily exchange their raw materials with finished goods or machinery from other countries.

Question 4.
Explain the nature of Indian foreign trade. Which goods are traded by India with the foreign countries?
Answer:
India had very small percentage of the total foreign trade. Due to fast development in the Indian economy since few years there had been tremendous growth in the foreign trade. As a result the share of foreign trade in GDP in 1990 – 91 was 14-6% which rised to 24.1% in 2003 – 04. The level of export in 1950 – 51 was Rs. 606 crore which rosed to Rs. 293367 in 2003 – 04. Import has also raised from Rs. 608 crore (1950 – 51) to Rs. 359108 in 2003 – 04. Now GDP is 20% of the foreign trade which include the trade of cloth, ornaments, chemical and agricultural products.

Question 5.
Explain:

1. IDA
2. IFC
3. MIGA
4. IMF.

Answer:
1. IDA:
IDA is agency working under the World Bank. It provides finance on easy terms, help in poverty alleviation, provides help in economic development programmes and also extend macro economic management services.

2. IFC:
It was established in July 1956 for providing the finance to the private sector. It is also separate organization related to World Bank having its separate existence with legal entity, fund and functions. All the member of World Bank can also be the member of IFC.

3. MIGA:
The Multinational Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA) was established in April, 1988 to supplement the functions of the World Bank and IfC with the following objectives:

1. To encourage flow of direct foreign investment into the less developed member countries.
2. To provide insurance cover to investors against political risks.
3. To provide guarantee against non – commercial risks (like currency transfer risk, war and civil disturbances and breach of contract).
4. To insure new investments, expansion of existing investments, privatisation and
   financial restructuring.
5. To provide promotional and advisory services.
6. To establish credibility.

4. IMF:
International Monetary Fund (IMF) came into existence in 1945 and has its headquarters located in Washington DC. In 2005 it had 191 countries as its members. The major idea underlying the setting up of the IMF is to evolve an orderly international monetary system to facilitate the system of international payments and adjustments in exchange rates among national currencies.

Question 6.
Write a detailed note on features, structure, objectives and functioning of WTO?
Answer:
GATT was transformed into World Trade Organisation (WTO) with effect from 1st January 1995. The headquarter of WTO is situated at Geneva, Switzerland.

Features of WTO:

1. WTO is a permanent organisation created by an international treaty ratified by the governments and legislatures of member states.
2. It governs trade not only in goods,”but also in services and intellectual property rights.
3. It is a‘member driven rule based organisation in the sense that all the decisions are taken by the member governments on the basis of a general consensus.
4. It is the principal international body concerned with solving trade problems between countries and providing a forum for multilateral trade negotiations.
5. It has a global status similar to that of the IMF and the World Bank.
6. As on 11th December 2005, there were 149 members in WTO.

Structure of WTO:

1. WTO comprises of The Ministerial Conference, which is composed of international trade ministers from all member countries and is responsible for setting the strategic direction of the organization and making all final decisions on agreements under its wings. The Ministerial Conference meets atleast once every two years.

2. The General Council is composed of senior representatives of all members responsible for overseeing the day – to – day business and management of the WTO.

3. The Trade Policy Review Body is also composed of all the WTO’members. It periodically reviews the trade policies and practices of all member states.

4. The Dispute Settlement Body is also composed of all the WTO members and over – sees the implementation and effectiveness of the dispute resolution process for all WTO agreements.

5. The Councils on Trade in Goods and Trade in Services operate under the policy of the General Council and are members. They provide a mechanism to oversee composed the details of all of the general and specific agreements on trade in goods and services.

Major Objectives of WTO:

1. To ensure reduction of tariffs and other trade barriers imposed by different countries.
2. To engage in such activities which improve the standards of living, create employment, increase income and effective demand and facilitate higher production and trade.
3. To facilitate the optimal use of the world’s resources for sustainable development.
4. To promote an integrated, more viable and durable trading system.

Functions of WTO:

1. Promoting an environment that is encouraging to its member countries to come forward to WTO in mitigating their grievances.
2. Laying down a commonly accepted code of conduct with a view to reducing trade barriers including tariffs and eliminating discriminations in international trade relations.
3. Acting as a dispute settlement body.
4. Ensuring that all the rules and regulations prescribed in the Act are duly followed by the member countries for the settlement of their disputes.

Question 7.
Discuss the principal documents used in exporting?
Answer:
Following are the principal documents used in exporting:

1. Documents Related to Goods:

(a) Export Invoice:
Export invoice is a sellers’ bill for merchandise and contains information about goods such as quantity, total value, number of packages, marks on packing, port of destination, name of ship, bill of lading number, terms of deli very and payments, etc.

(b) Packing List:
A packing list is a statement of the number of cases or packs and the details of the goods contained in these packs. It gives details of the nature of goods, which are being exported and the form in which these are being sent.

(c) Certificate of Origin:
This is a certificate which specifies the country in which the goods are being produced which entitles the importer to claim tariff concessions or other exemptions on goods originating from certain pre – specified countries.

(d) Certificate of Inspection:
For ensuring quality, the government has made it compulsory for certain products to be inspected by some authorised agency like Export Inspection Council of India (EICI) which issues the certificate that the consignment has been inspected as required under the Export (Quality Control and Inspection) Act 1963, and satisfies the conditions relating to quality control and inspection as applicable to it, and is export worthy.

2. Documents Related to Shipment:

(a) Mate’s Receipt:
The mate’s receipt indicates the name of the vessel, berth, date of shipment, description of packages, marks and numbers, condition of the cargo at the time of receipt on board the ship, etc. and is given by the commanding officer of the ship to the exporter after the cargo is loaded on the ship.

(b) Shipping Bill:
The shipping bill contains particulars of the goods being exported, the name of the vessel, the port at which goods are to be discharged, country of final destination, exporter’s name and address, etc. It is the main document on the basis of which customs office grants permission for the export.

(c) Bill of Lading/Airway Bill:
Bill of lading is issued by the shipping company after receipt of the freight, which serves as an evidence that the shipping company has accepted the goods for carrying to the designated destination. In the case the goods are being sent by air, this document is referred to as airway bill.

(d) Marine Insurance Policy:
It is a certificate of insurance contract whereby the insurance company agrees in consideration of a payment called premium to indemnify the insured against loss incurred by the latter in respect of goods exposed to pennies of the sea.

3. Documents Related to Payment:

(a) Letter of Credit:
A letter of credit is a guarantee issued by the importer’s bank that it will honour up to a certain amount the payment of export bills to the bank of the exporter letter of credit is the most appropriate and secure method of payment adopted to settle international transactions.

(b) Bill of Exchange:
Bill of exchange is a written instrument drawn by exporter on the importer asking the tatter to pay a certain amount to a certain person or the bearer of the bill of exchange. The documents giving title to the export consignment are passed on to the importer only when the importer accepts die order contained in die bill of exchange.

(c) Bank Certificate of Payment:
Bank certificate of payment is a certificate that the necessary documents relating to the particular export consignment has been presented to the importer for payment and the payment has been received in accordance with the exchange control regulations.

Question 8.
Explain the procedure of Export trade?
Answer:
Procedure of Export Trade:
The procedure of export trade commences with the receipt of inquiry letter following procedure is followed in export trade:

1. Receipt of letter of inquiry:
The export receives a letter of inquiry from the importer inquiring about die availability of goods, quantity and of goods, price, delivery time, other terms and conditions, etc.

2. Sending quotation:
In response to the inquiry letter the export sends a letter of quotation containing all details inquiry about the goods and other terms and conditions.

3. Receipt of order / indent:
The exporter either receives order directly from the importer or receives an indent through indent house agent. The order / indent is received in response to the quotation letter sent by the exporter.

4. Acknowledgement of indent:
The exporter acknowledges the receipt of indent which enables the importer to know that the procedure of export is going to start.

5. Obtaining export licence:
The next step is to obtain export licence from the authority concerned. For instance, if the exporter belong to India, he would receive permission from the controller of export, Ministry of Finance Government of India. He will have to submit an application in a prescribed form along with requisite fee mentioning the type, quality and quantity of goods, name of importing country, etc. The export licence is valid for three months which is extendable for a period of 1 month more.

6. Collection of goods:
As per the indent, the exporter starts collecting the goods. If the goods are not available in sufficient quantity in his inventory, he arranges the goods from the various suppliers of his country. Emphasis is levied on quality and quantity of goods as per the indent.

7. Packing of goods:
Goods are packed according to the instructions maintained in the indent or as per the prevalent methods. The name of sender and receiver is written along with the precautions. The trade symbol is to be compulsorily printed on the packed goods in order to facilitate easy identification of goods and their proper arrangement on the ships by the shipping personnels.

8. Appointment of forwarding agent:
The job of sending goods is performed by the forwarding agent on behalf of the exporter. He has to perform the following tasks:

• Accepting goods from trader.
• Obtain permit from custom officials.
• Arrangement of ship.
• Obtain shipping order.
• Obtain shipping bill.
• Payment of export duty.
• Obtain dock challan.
• Loading goods on ship.
• Obtain mates receipt.
• Insurance of goods.
• Obtaining certificate of origin and consular invoice.

9. Preparation of invoice:
After receiving the various documents and expenditure details, the exporter prepare invoice of the goods. It is prepared in triplicate. It is most important document and base of all other expenses and final payment

10. Information to importer:
The exporter inform is the importer regarding sending of goods. It is informed in two ways:

• Through a letter known as letter of advice other documents are also sent.
• The invoice is sent along with the letter of advice through post and other documents are sent through the bank of exporter to the bank of importer.

11. Payment:
If the documents are sent through bank, the payment is received through bank itself else the payment is done according to other terms and conditions mentioned in the indent.

Question 9.
Write the difficulties which comes in path of foreign trade?
Answer:
Difficulties of Foreign Trade:

1. Difficulties relating to language:
Language of every country is different, therefore it is difficult for businessmen of various countries to understand each other.

2. Distance:
Due to long distance between the countries goods take long time to reach from one country to another and payment for the goods may also be delayed.

3. Difficulties of payment:
Each country businessman wants to get payment of goods in the currency of his own country. Thus, there are lot of difficulties in making payments.

4. Difficulty to get right type of goods:
It is often difficult to get the right type of goods because of the absence of personal contact and inspection.

5. Difficulty of sea – perils:
There are various hazards in sea routes. The cyclone or sea winds overturn the ships, which may lead to the loss of ship and goods both.

6. Local and foreign duties:
Many local and foreign duties are imposed on foreign goods. It increases the cost of goods. Therefore, the markets are spoiled.

Question 10.
Differentiate between Inland trade and Foreign trade?
Answer:
Differences between Inland and Foreign trade:

International Business Long Answer Type Questions – II

Question 1.
Your firm is planning to import textile machinery from Canada. Describe the procedure involved in importing?
Answer:
Following is the procedure involved in importing textile machinery from Canada:

1. Trade Enquiry:
The importing firm approaches the textile machinery export firms in Canada with the help of trade enquiry they collecting information about their export prices and terms of exports. After receiving a trade enquiry, the exporter will prepare a quotation called proforma invoice and send it to our firm.

2. Procurement of Import Licence:
We will consult the Export Import (EXIM) policy in force to know whether the textile machinery imports are subject to import licensing. In case, it can be imported only against the licence, we will procure an import licence.

3. Obtaining Foreign Exchange:
As payment for imports will be made in Canadian dollars, our firm will have to make an application to a bank authorised by RBI to issue foreign exchange.

4. Placing Order or Indent:
After obtaining the import licence, our firm will place an import order or indent with the exporter for supply of the specified products containing information about the price, quantity, grade and quality of machinery and the instructions relating to packing, shipping, ports of shipment and destination, delivery schedule, insurance and mode of payment.

5. Obtaining Letter of Credit:
If the payment terms agreed between us and the overseas supplier then our firm should obtain the letter of credit from its bank and forward it to the overseas supplier.

6. Arranging for Finance:
Our firm would make arrangements in advance to pay to the exporter on arrival of goods at the port.

7. Receipt of Shipment Advice:
After loading the ordered textile machinery on the vessel, the overseas supplier will dispatch the shipment advice to our firm which contains information about the shipment of goods.

8. Retirement of Import Documents:
After shipping the machinery, the overseas supplier will prepare a set of necessary documents including bill of exchange, commercial invoice, bill of lading/airway bill, packing list, certificate of origin, marine insurance policy, etc. and will hand it over to his or her banker for their onward transmission and negotiation to our firm.

The acceptance of bill of exchange for the purpose of getting delivery of the documents is known as retirement of import documents after which the bank handover the import documents to the importer.

9. Arrival of Goods:
Goods will be shipped by the overseas supplier as per the contract. The officer in charge at the dock will provide the document called import general manifest on the basis of which unloading of cargo will take place.

10. Customs Clearance and Release of Goods:
Textile machinery imported into India will have to pass through customs clearance. Firstly, our firm will have to obtain a delivery order, pay dock dues and obtain port trust dues receipt and then fill in a form ‘bill of entry’ for assessment of customs import duty. After payment of the import duty, the bill of entry has to be presented to the dock superintendent.

The examiner will give his report on the bill of entry and we will present the bill of entry to the port authority who will issue the release order after receiving necessary charges.

Question 2.
List and explain various incentives and schemes that the government has evolved for promoting the country’s export.
Answer:
Major export promotion measures are as follows:

1. Duty Drawback Scheme:
Excise and customs duties paid on export goods are refunded to exporters on production of proof of exports of these goods to the concerned authorities.

2. Export Manufacturing Under Bond Scheme:
This facility entitles firms to produce goods without payment of excise and other duties if the firms give an undertaking (i.e. bond) that they are manufacturing goods for export purposes and will export such products on then production.

3. Exemption from Payment of Sales Taxes and Income Tax Goods Meant for Export Purposes are not Subject to Sales Tax: Exemption from income tax is available only to 100% Export Oriented Units (100% EOUs) and units set-up in Export Processing Zones (EPZs)/Special Economic Zones (SEZs) for select years.

4. Advance Licence Scheme:
It is a scheme under which an exporter is allowed to duty free supply of domestic as well as imported inputs required for the manufacture of export goods.

5. Export Promotion Capital Goods Scheme (EPCGS):
The main objective of this scheme is to encourage the import of capital goods for export production. This scheme allows export firms to import capital goods at very low rates of customs duties subject to actual user condition and fulfilment of specified export obligations.

6. Scheme of Recognising Export Finns as Export House, Trading House and Superstar Trading House:
The government grants the status of export house, trading house, star trading house to select export finns based on achieving a prescribed average export of performance in past select years and assistance is given to them in marketing their products globally.

Question 3.
What is international trade? How it is different from internal trade?
Or,
What is international business? How is it different from domestic business?
Answer:
Manufacturing and trade beyond the boundaries of one’s own country is known as international business. International business is defined as those business activities that take place across the national frontiers. It involves not only the international movements of goods and services, but also of capital, personnel, technology and intellectual property like patents, trademarks, and copyrights.

Differences between Domestic and International businesses:

1. Nationality of Buyers and Sellers:
In the case of domestic business, both the buyers and sellers are from the same country but in international business buyers and sellers come from different countries and their languages, attitudes, social customs and business goals and practices are not identical as in case of domestic business. This makes relatively more difficult for them to interact with one another and finalize business transactions.

2. Nationality of Other Stakeholders:
The other stakeholders such as employees, suppliers, shareholders/partners and general public associated with firms doing international business have different nationalities while in the case of domestic business all such factors belong to one country. Therefore, decision making in international business becomes much more complex due to wider set of values and aspirations of the stakeholders belonging to different nations.

3. Mobility of Factors of Production:
The degree of mobility of factors like labour and capital is generally less between countries than within a country due to legal restrictions and variations in socio – cultural environments, geographic influences and economic conditions.

4. Customer Heterogeneity:
Across markets since buyers in international markets hail from different countries, they differ in their socio -cultural background. Differences in their tastes, fashions, languages, beliefs and customs, attitudes and product preferences cause variations in not only’their demand for different products and services, but also in variations in their communication patterns and purchase behaviors. Such variations greatly complicate the task of designing products and evolving strategies appropriate of customers in different countries.

5. Differences in Business Systems and Practices:
The differences in business systems and practices are considerably higher among countries than within a country as countries differ from one another in terms of their socio – economic development, availability, cost and efficiency of economic infrastructure and market support services, etc. which make it necessary for firms interested in international business to adapt their production, finance, human resource and marketing plans as per the conditions prevailing in the international markets.

Question 4.
Differentiate between internal trade and foreign trade.
Answer:
Differences between Inland and Foreign trade:

Question 5.
How entry in foreign trade for export is more beneficial than the establishment of full owned and controlled companies in the foreign countries?
Or,
Write advantages of foreign trade.
Answer:
Advantages of Foreign Trade:

1. Advantages of geographical facilities:
Every country has different natural and geographical facilities. Their production, minerals, agriculture and industries are different. Foreign trade helps to obtain goods which are not produced.

2. Specialization and efficiency in production:
Foreign trade enables a country to produce only such goods which can be most efficiently and economically produced. As a result the cost of production will be reduced.

3. Availability of goods not produced in the country:
Foreign trade enables a country to enjoy the possession of goods which it is not producing.

4. Ability to face natural calamities:
The production in a country is affected due to draught, earthquake, flood, epidemic, war and such other natural calamities. Such calamities are faced by importing goods from other countries.

5. Advantage to agricultural and industrial countries:
Agricultural countries can easily exchange their raw materials with finished goods or machinery from other countries.

Question 6.
Discuss the elements for entry in foreign trade?
Answer:
Following elements are required for entry in the foreign trade:

1. Import and Export:
The process of purchasing goods from the foreign countries is called as import and the process of sending or selling goods to foreign countries is called as export

Profits:

• It is very simple method which can be handled singly, jointly without opening any unit in foreign countries.
• No much investment is required and also time.
• Risk in this is also zero.

Limitations:

• Goods are purchased and sold physically. Only packaging, transport and insurance expenditure is incurred.
• When in any country import is restricted then export cannot be done. Then only in such conditional unit is to be setup in those countries for trade.
• Manufacturing is done in home country and then it is send to the other country for
  sale.

2. Contract manufacturing:
It is that mode when one company makes contract with other foreign company for manufacturing of goods in other country as per the need and benefit of the both companies and the country.

Profits:

• Some items like upper part of car or upper portion shoes is done under contract manufacturing.
• Then those items are assembled into complete goods and sold.
• Some goods are manufacture fully.

Limitations:

• Under its international firm get manufacturing on large scale without much investment.
• Less capital is invest and production is done.
• Manufacturing on contract make costing less.

3. Joint venture establishment.

4. Fully owned and controlled unit can be established.

Question 7.
How business units gets profit from the international trade?
Answer:
Advantages of Foreign Trade:

1. Advantages of geographical facilities:
Every country has different natural and geographical facilities. Their production, minerals, agriculture and industries are different. Foreign trade helps to obtain goods which are not produced.

2. Specialization and efficiency in production:
Foreign trade enables a country to produce only such goods which can be most efficiently and economically produced. As a result the cost of production will be reduced.

3. Availability of goods not produced in the country:
Foreign trade enables a country to enjoy the possession of goods which it is not producing.

4. Ability to face natural calamities:
The production in a country is affected due to draught, earthquake, flood, epidemic, war and such other natural calamities. Such calamities are faced by importing goods from other countries.

5. Advantage to agricultural and industrial countries:
Agricultural countries can easily exchange their raw materials with finished goods or machinery from other countries.

Question 8.
Identify various organisations that have been set – up in the country by the government for promoting country’s foreign trade?
Answer:
Various organisations that have been set-up in the country by the government for promoting country’s foreign trade are as follows:

1. Department of Commerce:
Department of Commerce in the Ministry of Commerce, Government of India is the apex body responsible for formulating policies in the. sphere of foreign trade, increasing commercial relations with other countries, state trading, export promotional measures and the development and regulation of certain export oriented industries and commodities.

2. Export Promotion Councils (EPCs):
Export Promotion Councils are non-profit organisations registered under the Companies Act or the Societies Registration Act, as the case may be. Their basic objective is to promote and develop the country’s exports of particular products falling under their jurisdiction.

3. Commodity Boards:
Commodity Boards are the boards which have been specially established by the Government of India for the development of production of traditional commodities and their exports and supplement the EPCs. At present there are seven commodity boards in India : Coffee Board, Rubber Board, Tobacco Board, Spice Board, Central Silk Board, Tea Board, and Coir Board.

4. Export Inspection Council (EIC):
Export Inspection Council of India was set – up by the Government of India under Section 3 of the Export Quality Control and Inspection Act – 1963. The council aims at sound development of export trade through quality control and pre – shipment inspection.

5. Indian Trade Promotion Organisation (ITPO):
Indian Trade Promotion Organisation was set – up on 1st January 1992. ITPO is a service organisation which serves the industry by organising trade fairs and exhibitions within the country and abroad and helps export firms in participating in international trade fairs and in developing exports of new items.

6. Indian Institute of Foreign Trade (HFT):
Indian Institute of Foreign Trade is an institution that was set – up in 1963 by the Government of India as an autonomous body. It has recently been recognised as Deemed University. It provides training in international trade, conduct researches in areas of international business and analysing and disseminating data relating to international trade and investments.

Question 9.
What is World Bank? Discuss its various objectives and role of its affiliated agencies?
Answer:
The World Bank was established in 1945, the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD) is the common name of World Bank, which was formed as a result of the Bretton Woods Conference.

The main objectives behind setting up this international organisation were to aid the task of reconstruction of the war affected economies of Europe and assist in the development of the underdeveloped nations of the world. Till late 1950s, the World Bank remained preoccupied with the task of restoring war tom nations in Europe after which it turned its attention to the development of underdeveloped nations.

Various objectives and roles of its affiliated agencies are given below International Development Association (EDA). The main objectives of IDA are:

1. It provides finance on easy terms.
2. It provides help in poverty alleviation.
3. It provides help in economic development programmes.
4. Extend macro economic management services.

The Multinational Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA) Major objectives of MIGA
are:

1. To encourage flow of direct foreign investment into the less developed member countries.
2. To provide insurance cover to investors against political risks.
3. To provide guarantee against non – commercial risks (like, dangers involved in currency transfers, war and civil disturbances and breach of contract).
4. To insure new investments, expansion of existing investments, privatisation and financial restructuring.
5. To provide promotional and advisory services.
6. To establish credibility.

We can conclude that the World Bank is no longer confined to simply providing financial assistance for infrastructure development, agriculture, industry, health and sanitation  and is involved in areas like removal of rural poverty through raising productivity, providing technical support, and initiating research and co – operative ventures.

Question 10.
Differentiate between Indent and Order?
Answer:

Question 11.
Give suggestion to increase foreign trade in India?
Answer:
Following suggestions should be implemented for increasing foreign trade:

1. Reforms in production – Quality of production should be increased in order to growth in the foreign trade.
2. Tax rebate – Export units should be given tax reforms so that, the exporter may get benefit of it.
3. Widespread market – Along with structural, there should be bi-agreement among the different nations for its spread.
4. Quality control – The goods which are used for foreign trade should go on strict inspection to enhance its quality.
5. Distribution research – There should be proper reach made for the new commodities also so that it can be dealt with.
6. Export subsidy – Government should give subsidy in order to promote the foreign

MP Board Class 11 Business Studies Important Questions

MP Board Class 9th Special Hindi सहायक वाचन Solutions Chapter 5 विश्व मन्दिर (सामाजिक निबन्ध, वियोगी हरि)

विश्व मन्दिर अभ्यास

बोध प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
लेखक अपना विश्व मन्दिर कहाँ निर्मित करना चाहता है?
उत्तर:
लेखक अपना विश्व मन्दिर भारत की तपोभूमि पर ही निर्मित करना चाहता है।

प्रश्न 2.
परमेश्वर का महामन्दिर किसे कहा गया है?
उत्तर:
परमेश्वर का महामन्दिर इस समस्त विश्व को कहा गया है। यह समस्त विश्व उसी घट-घट व्यापी का घर है जब हम उसे अपने दिल के मन्दिर में बैठा लेंगे तो सर्वत्र हमें सुख शान्ति एवं आनन्द मिलेगा। उसके आने से अविद्या की अँधेरी रात समाप्त हो जाएगी और प्रेम का आलोक सर्वत्र बिखर जाएगा। यह महामन्दिर सर्वजन हिताय सर्वजन सुखाय होगा। यह महामन्दिर किसी एक धर्म सम्प्रदाय का न होकर सर्व धर्म सम्प्रदायों का समन्वय मन्दिर होगा।

प्रश्न 3.
विश्व मन्दिर हमें कब दिखाई देगा?
उत्तर:
यह विश्व मन्दिर हमें प्रेम के प्रकाश में दिखाई देगा।

प्रश्न 4.
समन्वय मन्दिर किसके लिए होगा?
उत्तर:
समन्वय मन्दिर सभी धर्म एवं सम्प्रदायों के लिए होगा। यह किसी विशेष धर्म या सम्प्रदाय के लिए नहीं होगा।

प्रश्न 5.
विश्व मन्दिर की दीवारों पर किन-किन धर्म ग्रन्थों के महावाक्य खुदे होंगे? धर्म ग्रन्थों के नाम लिखिए।
उत्तर:
विश्व मन्दिर की दीवारों पर वेद के मन्त्र, कुरान की आयतें, अवेस्ता की गाथाएँ, बौधों के सुत्त, इंजील के सरमन, कन्फ्यू शियस के सुवचन, कबीर के सबद और सूर के भजन आप उस मन्दिर की पवित्र दीवारों पर पढ़ सकेंगे।

प्रश्न 6.
इस काल्पनिक विश्व मन्दिर में “मैं-तू न होगा।” इस वाक्य का भाव स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर:
उपर्युक्त कथन का भाव यह है कि उस काल्पनिक विश्व मन्दिर में साधकगण लोक सेवा एवं विश्व प्रेम का प्रचार-प्रसार करेंगे। धार्मिक झगड़े से ऊबे हुए या घबराये हुए शान्ति प्रिय साधक वहाँ बैठकर दिव्य प्रेम की साधना किया करेंगे। उस मन्दिर में ‘मैं’ और ‘तू’ का झगड़ा नहीं होगा। वहाँ तो वही एक प्रभु होगा जो सबका होगा।

प्रश्न 7.
काल्पनिक विश्व मन्दिर के भव्य और दिव्य रूप को देखकर विपक्षियों के मन में कौन-से भाव जाग्रत होंगे?
उत्तर:
काल्पनिक विश्व मन्दिर के भव्य और दिव्य रूप को देखकर विपक्षियों के मन में प्रेम एवं सत्य की भावनाएँ जन्म लेंगी। चारों ओर स्नेह ही स्नेह होगा। सभी एक साथ मिलकर स्नेह का प्रसाद वितरित कर रहे होंगे। विपक्षियों का भी प्रवेश मन्दिर में वर्जित नहीं होगा।

प्रश्न 8.
समन्वय मन्दिर में बैठकर लोग क्या करेंगे?
उत्तर:
समन्वय मन्दिर में किसी विशेष धर्म या सम्प्रदाय का प्रवेश न होगा अपितु वहाँ तो सर्वधर्म सम्प्रदायों के लोगों का वास रहेगा। वह सबके लिए होगा, सबका होगा। यहाँ बैठकर लोग सत्य, प्रेम एवं करुणा का सन्देश दुनिया को सुनायेंगे। उसमें आपसी मन-मुटाव तथा तू-तू, मैं-मैं का झगड़ा नहीं होगा।

प्रश्न 9.
विश्व मन्दिर पाठ का उद्देश्य क्या है?
उत्तर:
‘विश्व मन्दिर’ पाठ का प्रमुख उद्देश्य है कि समस्त विश्व में धर्म, जाति देश एवं दिशा के आधार पर भेद-भाव को समाप्त करके सर्वत्र एकता, सहानुभूति एवं सह-अस्तित्व की भावना को जाग्रत करना है। इसी बन्धुत्व भाव से रहते हुए हमें जगत् पिता के दर्शन हो जाएँगे।

प्रश्न 10.
लेखक ने काल्पनिक विश्व मन्दिर के निर्माण की कल्पना किस उद्देश्य से की है? लिखिए।
उत्तर:
लेखक ने काल्पनिक विश्व मन्दिर के निर्माण की कल्पना सब धर्म एवं सम्प्रदायों में आपसी सहमति एवं सहृदयता जगाने की भावना से की है। उसकी दीवारों पर संसार के सभी प्रचलित धर्म ग्रन्थों के समन्वय सूचक महावाक्य दीवारों पर खुदे होंगे। किसी भी धर्मवाक्य में भेद न दिखाई देगा। सबका एक ही लक्ष्य एक ही मतलब होगा। उसकी दीवारों पर खुदे हुए प्रेम मन्त्र मानवों के मन से संशय और भ्रम का पर्दा उठायेंगे तथा उनसे अनेकता में एकता की झलक दिखाई देगी।

प्रश्न 11.
विश्व मन्दिर की स्थापना की आवश्यकता लेखक क्यों अनुभव करता है?
उत्तर:
विश्व मन्दिर की स्थापना की आवश्यकता लेखक इसलिए अनुभव करता है क्योंकि इससे यह समस्या समाप्त हो जाएगी कि यह राम का निवास स्थल है या नहीं। ईश्वर की सार्वभौमिकता प्रश्नों की परिधि से बाहर रहेगी। सर्वसामान्य के हितों की रक्षा हो पाएगी। इसकी स्थापना से संशय, नास्तिकता एवं भेदभाव की भावना समाप्त हो जाएगी। इसमें सभी धर्म, वर्ण एवं जातियों के लोग प्रवेश पाने में समर्थ होंगे। इसमें पापी-पुण्यात्मा तथा ऊँचा-नीच का भेद नहीं होगा।

MP Board Class 9th Hindi Solutions

MP Board Class 9th Special Hindi सहायक वाचन Solutions Chapter 4 वैद्यराज जीवक (वैज्ञानिक निबन्ध, घनश्याम ओझा)

वैद्यराज जीवक अभ्यास

बोध प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
जीवक किस शास्त्र के विद्वान थे?
उत्तर:
जीवक आयुर्वेदिक चिकित्साशास्त्र के विद्वान थे।

प्रश्न 2.
जीवक के मन में किनके दर्शन की इच्छा थी?
उत्तर:
जीवक के मन में बौद्ध धर्म के प्रवर्तक महात्मा बुद्ध के दर्शन की इच्छा थी।

प्रश्न 3.
राजकुमार अभय के प्रति जीवक ने अपनी कृतज्ञता कैसे व्यक्त की?
उत्तर:
अयोध्या नगरी में एक सेठ की बीमार पत्नी के सफल इलाज के फलस्वरूप सेठ द्वारा जीवक को सहस्र स्वर्ण मुद्राएँ दी गयीं। राजगृह पहुँचकर जीवक ने अपने प्रतिपालक राजकुमार अभय को सेठ द्वारा दी गयी सारी स्वर्ण मुद्राएँ देकर कृतज्ञता ज्ञापित की।

प्रश्न 4.
अवंती नरेश से तेज चलने वाला हाथी माँगने के पीछे जीवक का क्या उद्देश्य था?
उत्तर:
अवन्ती नरेश पीलिया रोग से पीड़ित थे और इस रोग का इलाज गाय के घी के सेवन से ही हो सकता था पर अवन्ती नरेश को घी से उल्टी आती थी। बिना घी के सेवन के उपचार नहीं हो सकता था। जीवक इसी समस्या से उलझे हुए थे तभी उन्होंने अवन्ती नरेश से तेज चलने वाला हाथी माँगा। हाथी मिल जाने पर जीवक ने घी के साथ राजा को औषधि देने का ऐसा समय बताया जबकि वे हाथी पर सवार होकर अवन्ती राज्य की सीमा पार कर चुके होते। यदि दवाई का अनुकूल प्रभाव उनकी उपस्थिति में न होता तो उन्हें दण्ड का भागी होना पड़ता। इसी भय से उन्होंने राजा से तेज गति से चलने वाला हाथी माँगा।।

प्रश्न 5.
जीवक के खाली हाथ लौटने पर भी आचार्य ने उन्हें परीक्षा में उत्तीर्ण क्यों कहा?
उत्तर:
तक्षशिला के आचार्य ने जीवक की परीक्षा लेने के लिए यह प्रश्न दिया था कि वत्स संसार में ऐसी किसी वनस्पति को खोजो जिसमें औषधीय गुण न हो। जीवक ने अनेक दिनों तक अथक परिश्रम किया पर उसे एक भी वनस्पति ऐसी न मिली जिसमें औषधीय गुण न हों। यद्यपि जीवक अपने आचार्य के प्रश्न का उत्तर नहीं ढूँढ़ सका था। पर फिर भी आचार्य ने उसे परीक्षा में उत्तीर्ण कह दिया। क्योंकि आचार्य जी जानते थे कि मेरे द्वारा प्रस्तुत किया गया प्रश्न वास्तव में गलत था।

प्रश्न 6.
जीवक ने कौन-सा संकल्प लिया था?
उत्तर:
जीवक ने यह संकल्प लिया था कि वे कठिन परिश्रम और तप से योग्यता हासिल करेंगे तथा कभी भी किसी पर आश्रित बनकर नहीं रहेंगे और अपनी सामर्थ्य के अनुसार सबकी सहायता करेंगे।

प्रश्न 7.
सम्राट बिम्बसार के पुत्र ने ‘जीवक’ नाम क्यों दिया?
उत्तर:
महाराज बिम्बसार के पुत्र राजकुमार ‘अभय’ को यह नवजात शिशु एक मिट्टी के ढेर पर पड़ा हुआ मिला था। इतनी विषम परिस्थिति में भी वह जीवित था इसलिए उसका नाम ‘जीवक’ रख दिया गया।

प्रश्न 8.
आचार्य द्वारा जीवक को विदा करते समय कौन-सी सीख दी गई थी? अपने शब्दों में लिखिए।
उत्तर:
जीवक को जब कोई भी वनस्पति औषधीय गुणों से हीन नहीं दिखाई दी तथा सभी में उन्हें सजीवता के दर्शन हुए तो इस बात से प्रसन्न होकर तक्षशिला के आचार्य ने उसे उसकी अन्तिम परीक्षा में उत्तीर्ण कर दिया तथा उसे आशीर्वाद दिया। जीवक को विदाई देते समय आचार्य ने उन्हें शिक्षा दी कि तुम्हें ऋग्वेद में जो रोग एवं उनके उपचार बताए हैं, उन्हें तुम्हें आगे बढ़ाना है। भारद्वाज, अत्रेय, धन्वंतरि, चरक एवं सुश्रुत आदि आचार्यों ने इस कार्य को आगे बढ़ाया है। इन सभी ने वनस्पतियों में भी प्राणियों के समान जीवन माना है। अत: इसी कार्य को तुम्हें और आगे बढ़ाना है। यह कहकर आचार्य चुप हो गये। यह उपदेश सुनकर जीवक बहुत प्रसन्न हुआ।

प्रश्न 9.
जीवक द्वारा किन-किन रोगियों की चिकित्सा की गयी? विवरण दीजिए।
उल्लर:
अपने आचार्य से दीक्षा प्राप्त करके तथा उनसे विदा लेकर जीवक राजगृह लौट आये। राजगृह वापस आने के बाद जीवक ने दो असाध्य रोगियों को शल्य क्रिया द्वारा स्वस्थ बनाया। उन्होंने एक युवक के पेट की शल्य क्रिया करके उसकी उलझी हुई आँतों की गाँठे खोलकर तथा पुनः सिलाई करके औषधि का लेप लगाया। दूसरी शल्य क्रिया एक सेठ के मस्तिष्क की करके उसे नया जीवन प्रदान किया था।

अयोध्या नगरी में सात वर्षों से सिर की पीड़ा से तड़प रही नगर सेठ की पत्नी का बिना शल्य क्रिया के ही उपचार कर दिया था। इसी भाँति उन्होंने अवंती नरेश चंदप्रद्योत के पीलिया रोग का इलाज किया था।

प्रश्न 10.
जीवक को ऐसा क्यों लगा कि वे भगवान बुद्ध के कृपापात्र बन गये हैं?
उत्तर:
आयुर्वेद का पूर्ण ज्ञान प्राप्त कर जीवक वैद्य बहुत सन्तुष्ट थे पर वे उस युग के महान् धर्म प्रवर्तक भगवान बुद्ध के दर्शन करना चाहते थे। संयोग से उन्हें भगवान बुद्ध की चिकित्सा का अवसर प्राप्त हो गया। भगवान बुद्ध के पाँव में धारदार पत्थर से चोट लग गई थी। इससे पाँव से खून बहने लगा था। जीवक ने औषधियों का लेप करके पैर पर पट्टी बाँध दी। लेकिन पट्टी के एक निश्चित सीमा के बाद खोलने का उन्हें ध्यान नहीं रहा। इससे वे बड़े दुःखी हुए।

इधर भगवान बुद्ध ने जीवक के मन की बात जानकर स्वयं पट्टी खोल दी थी। भगवान बुद्ध से सुबह भेंट होने पर भगवान ने जीवक को स्वयं ही बताया कि “जीवक जब तुम मेरी पट्टी खोलने के लिए चिंतित हो रहे थे, तभी मैंने उस पट्टी को खोल दिया था।” जीवक ने आश्चर्य से भगवान बुद्ध की ओर देखा और वे उनके चरणों में नतमस्तक हो गये। उन्हें यह जानकर बड़ी प्रसन्नता हुई कि भगवान बुद्ध ने उनके मन को अपने मन से जोड़ लिया है, वे उनके कृपापात्र बन चुके हैं।

प्रश्न 11.
सेठ के मस्तिष्क की शल्य क्रिया करने के पूर्व जीवक ने क्या शर्त रखी?
उत्तर:
सेठ के मस्तिष्क की शल्य क्रिया करने से पूर्व जीवक ने एक शर्त रखी थी कि तुम्हें इक्कीस महीने तक बिस्तर पर लेटना होगा। सात महीने दाईं तरफ, सात महीने बाईं तरफ और सात महीने सीधे।

पर सेठ सात महीने के स्थान पर सात दिन भी एक तरफ नहीं लेट पाया तो जीवक ने सात, सात दिन में ही उसे करवटें बदलवा कर स्वस्थ कर दिया था। उन्होंने सेठ से कहा कि मैं आपको केवल इक्कीस दिन ही विश्राम देना चाहता था लेकिन आपके धैर्य की कमी को देखकर मैंने इक्कीस दिनों को इक्कीस महीने बताया था।

MP Board Class 9th Hindi Solutions

MP Board Class 9th Special Hindi सहायक वाचन Solutions Chapter 3 हल्दीघाटी (कविता, श्यामनारायण पाण्डेय)

हल्दीघाटी अभ्यास

बोध प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
चेतक को प्रलय मेघ-सा क्यों कहा गया है?
उत्तर:
चेतक को प्रलय मेघ-सा इसलिए कहा गया है क्योंकि वह रणभूमि में शत्रु सेना पर प्रलय काल के मेघ के समान भयंकरता से टूट पड़ता था।

प्रश्न 2.
राणा प्रताप की तलवार को किसके समान कहा गया है?
उत्तर:
राणा प्रताप की तलवार को विषयुक्त नागिन, विद्युत् एवं जिह्वा निकाले हुए चण्डी के समान कहा गया है।

प्रश्न 3.
अजब विषैली नागिन किसे कहा गया है?
उत्तर:
अजब विषैली नागिन राणा प्रताप की तलवार को कहा गया है।

प्रश्न 4.
मानसिंह के हाथी की कमर क्यों झुक गई?
उत्तर:
मानसिंह ने राणा प्रताप के ऊपर भाले से प्रहार करना चाहा तभी राणा प्रताप ने उस प्रहार को थाम कर इस तरह का झटका दिया कि हाथी की भी कमर झुक गई।

प्रश्न 5.
अम्बर कलंक किसे और क्यों कहा गया है?
उत्तर:
अम्बर कलंक का अर्थ होता है आकाश को कलंकित करने वाला। अम्बर कलंक मानसिंह को कहा गया है क्योंकि मानसिंह ने मेवाड़ पर आक्रमण करने का षड्यंत्र रचा था। अकबर तो राणा प्रताप के शौर्य एवं रणकौशल से भयभीत था। लेकिन मानसिंह के उकसाने पर और उसी के नेतृत्व में हल्दी घाटी पर आक्रमण किया गया। मेवाड़ की धरती के आकाश को कलंकित करने के कारण ही मानसिंह को अम्बर कलंक कहा गया है।

प्रश्न 6.
‘तो फिर लड़ ले भाला लेकर’ यह किसने, किससे कहा?
उत्तर:
‘तो फिर लड़ ले भाला लेकर’ यह कथन राणा प्रताप ने मानसिंह से कहा।

प्रश्न 7.
प्रताप के भाले के वार से मानसिंह कैसे बचा? उसके बदले में कौन मारा गया?
उत्तर:
प्रताप के भाले के वार से मानसिंह हौंदे के तल में छिपकर बच सका पर भाले के वार से हाथी का चालक पीलवान मारा गया।

प्रश्न 8.
हल्दी घाटी कहाँ स्थित है और क्यों प्रसिद्ध है? वर्णन कीजिए।
उत्तर:
हल्दी घाटी अरावली पर्वत श्रेणियों के मध्य स्थित है। इस क्षेत्र में अकबर द्वारा भेजी गयी सेना ने मानसिंह के नेतृत्व में हमला किया। यह युद्ध एक भयनाक युद्ध था। अकबर, राणा प्रताप की शक्ति से डरता था पर मानसिंह के उकसाने पर उसने युद्ध किया। इस युद्ध में अकबर की सेना का बहुत नुकसान हुआ। महाराणा प्रताप सैनिकों की कमी के कारण युद्ध तो नहीं जीत पाये पर उन्होंने हार कभी भी स्वीकार नहीं की। भामाशाह से धन की मदद मिलने पर उन्होंने अपनी सेना को फिर इकट्ठा किया और वे देश की स्वतंत्रता के लिए जंगल-जंगल भटकते फिरे पर अपनी प्रतिज्ञा से पीछे नहीं हटे। भारत के स्वतंत्रता संग्राम में राणा प्रताप का नाम सुनहरे अक्षरों में लिखा हुआ है।

प्रश्न 9.
चेतक के शौर्य का वर्णन अपने शब्दों में कीजिए।
उत्तर:
महाराणा प्रताप का घोड़ा चेतक अत्यन्त तीव्र गति से दौड़ता था। वह दौड़ने में हवा को कभी को भी मात देता था। उसको चलाने के लिए चाबुक का प्रयोग नहीं किया जाता था। वह तो इशारे में ही उड़ जाता था। वह शत्रुओं को रौंदता हुआ युद्ध क्षेत्र से निकल जाता था। चौकड़ी भरते समय वह आकाश में उड़ने लगता था। तलवारों के युद्ध में भी वह बिना किसी डर के सरपट दौड़ जाता था।

वह शत्रु सेना पर प्रलय काल के बादलों के समान आक्रमण करता था। वह हाथी के मस्तक पर अपने आगे के दोनों पैर गड़ाकर उन्हें रोक देता था।

प्रश्न 10.
राणा प्रताप के युद्ध कौशल व वीरोचित व्यवहार का वर्णन अपने शब्दों में कीजिए।
उत्तर:
राणा प्रताप एक महान वीर योद्धा था। वह शत्रुओं से जरा भी नहीं डरता था। राणा प्रताप युद्धक्षेत्र में शत्रुओं के सिरों को एक झटके में काट डालता था। जब भी राणा का आक्रमण होता था शत्रुदल में आतंक मच जाता था और वे इधर-उधर बचने के लिए भागने लग जाते थे। उसकी तलवार शत्रुओं के सिर काट-काटकर लहराती रहती थी। उसकी तलवार को देखकर ऐसा लगता था मानो रणचण्डी अपनी जीभ पसार कर खून पीने के लिए व्याकुल हो रही है।

महान् योद्धा होते हुए भी वीरोचित व्यवहार शत्रु से भी करता था। जब प्रताप के प्रहार से मानसिंह का भाला टूट गया था। वह चाहता तो इस मौके का लाभ उठाकर मानसिंह का वध कर सकता था पर उसने ऐसा नहीं किया अपितु मानसिंह से पुनः भाला हाथ में लेने को कहा। जब मानसिंह ने दुबारा भाला ले लिया तो राणा प्रताप ने हँसकर कहा-हे मानसिंह अब तू बस कर युद्ध हो चुका। अब यदि तू अपनी खैर चाहता है तो अपनी जान बचाकर यहाँ से भाग जा। जब मानसिंह नहीं माना तो राणा ने ऐसा भीषण प्रहार किया कि हाथी का हौदा टूट गया और मानसिंह ने उसमें छिपकर अपनी जान बचाई लेकिन दूसरे ही क्षण राणा के प्रहार से पीलवान की मौत हो गई। इस प्रकार हम देखते हैं कि राणा जहाँ महान् योद्धा था वहीं वह शत्रु के निशस्त्र होने पर उस पर वार नहीं करता था।

MP Board Class 9th Hindi Solutions

MP Board Class 9th Special Hindi सहायक वाचन Solutions Chapter 2 पुस्तक (आत्मकथा, पदुमलाल पुन्नालाल बख्शी)

पुस्तक अभ्यास

बोध प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
मनुष्य पुस्तकों से कौन-कौन-से गुण अर्जित करता है?
उत्तर:
मनुष्य पुस्तकों से सदाचार, प्रेम, करुणा, परोपकार तथा न्याय आदि मानवीय गुण अर्जित करता है।

प्रश्न 2.
सत् साहित्य की रचना कब होती है?
उत्तर:
जब कवि का विवेक या ज्ञान उल्लास का रूप धारण करता है तभी सत् साहित्य की रचना होती है।

प्रश्न 3.
इस पाठ में वर्णित दो महाकाव्यों के नाम लिखिए।
उत्तर:
इस पाठ में लेखक ने तुलसीकृत रामचरितमानस और महाकवि व्यास रचित ‘महाभारत’ महाकाव्यों की चर्चा की है।

प्रश्न 4.
चिरन्तन आनन्द और गौरव किसमें निहित है?
उत्तर:
चिरन्तन आनन्द और गौरव सत् साहित्य में निहित है। जब कवि का विवेक आनन्द का रूप ग्रहण करता है, तब सत् साहित्य का निर्माण होता है।

प्रश्न 5.
मुझमें किसी दूसरे की आत्मा निवास करती है से क्या आशय है? समझाइए।
उत्तर:
‘मुझमें किसी दूसरे की आत्मा निवास करती है’ से यह आशय है कि एक पुस्तक की रचना में रचनाकार की साधना ही प्रमुख तथा अपूर्व प्रकाश सम्पन्न होती है। उसके अन्तर्गत उल्लास, सुख, सुषमा, शौर्य, आतंक एवं विस्मय जब किसी रचनाकार के हृदय स्थल में रसरूप में परिणत होते हैं, तभी पुस्तक की रचना होती है। वास्तव में पुस्तक में लेखक की आत्मा का प्रकाश ही निहित होता है।

प्रश्न 6.
‘किताब का यथार्थ मूल्य’ किसमें निहित है?
उत्तर:
किताब का यथार्थ मूल्य तो पुस्तक में निहित ज्ञान में होता है। ज्ञान की कोई सीमा नहीं है। किताब एक अमूल्य कोश है। पुस्तक रचनाकार के आनन्द का स्रोत है। वास्तव में किताब का यथार्थ मूल्य रचनाकार के यश, गौरवपूर्ण चिन्तन और उल्लास में होता है जिसका रसास्वादन पाठक किया करते हैं।

प्रश्न 7.
व्यक्ति द्वारा किस उद्देश्य की पूर्ति के लिए कार्य किए जाते हैं?
उत्तर:
जीवन निर्वाह के लिए धन की आवश्यकता होती है। अतः व्यक्ति द्वारा किसी-न-किसी रूप में इसी अर्थसिद्धि के लिए अर्थात् उद्देश्य की पूर्ति के लिए काम करना पड़ता है।

प्रश्न 8.
पुस्तक एक निष्प्राण ग्रंथ क्यों नहीं है?
उत्तर:
पुस्तक एक निष्प्राण ग्रंथ नहीं हो सकती क्योंकि उसमें कवि/लेखक की आत्मा का प्रकाश समाया हुआ है। पुस्तक में कवि/लेखक का ज्ञान, अनुभव एवं अध्यवसाय समाया रहता है। इन्हीं गुणों को धारण कर मानव सच्चा मानव बनता है। वह समाज एवं मानवता को सन्मार्ग पर ले जाता है जिससे जीवन में समरसता और आनन्द की वर्षा होती है।

प्रश्न 9.
संसार में सफलता की कसौटी क्या है?
उत्तर:
संसार में जब ज्ञान आनन्द के रूप में प्रतिष्ठित होता है तब सत् साहित्य का निर्माण होता है। इसके विपरीत जब वह व्यवसाय के रूप में परिणत हो जाता है तब वह लाभ-हानि एवं लेन-देन का एक उपकरण मात्र रह जाता है। सामान्यतः अपनी इच्छा की पूर्ति को ही मानव सफलता की कसौटी मानता है लेकिन यह भावना चिरस्थायी नहीं है। यदि हममें आत्मबल है, दृढ़ संकल्प है तो हमारा कोई काम असफल नहीं होगा। अतः संसार में सफलता की कसौटी प्राप्त करने के लिए हमें इन गुणों का संचय अपने में करना चाहिए।

प्रश्न 10.
जिन्हें केवल उदरपूर्ति की चिन्ता रहती है वे किस महत्व को नहीं जानते?
उत्तर:
जिन्हें केवल उदरपूर्ति की चिन्ता रहती है वे ज्ञान के गौरव के महत्त्व को नहीं जानते हैं। जो ज्ञान के महत्त्व को नहीं जानते वे न सत् साहित्य की महिमा को जानते हैं और न विज्ञान की शक्ति को।

MP Board Class 9th Hindi Solutions