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MP Board Class 11th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 14 पर्यावरणीय रसायन

पर्यावरणीय रसायन NCERT अभ्यास प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
पर्यावरणीय रसायन की परिभाषा दीजिए।
उत्तर:
पर्यावरणीय रसायन विज्ञान की वह शाखा है जो पर्यावरण में रासायनिक परिवर्तनों से सम्बन्धित होती हैं। इसमें हमारा परिवेश सम्मिलित होता है, जैसे कि वायु, जल, मृदा, जंगल, सूर्य का प्रकाश आदि।

प्रश्न 2.
क्षोभमण्डलीय प्रदूषण की 100 शब्दों में व्याख्या कीजिए।
उत्तर:
क्षोभमण्डलीय प्रदूषण वायु में उपस्थित अवांछनीय ठोस अथवा गैस के कणों के कारण उत्पन्न होता है। क्षोभमण्डल में मुख्यतः निम्नलिखित गैसीय तथा कणिकीय प्रदूषण उपस्थित होते हैं

1. गैसीय वायुप्रदूषक – ये सल्फर, नाइट्रोजन तथा कार्बन डाईऑक्साइड, हाइड्रोजन सल्फाइड, हाइड्रोकार्बन, ओजोन तथा अन्य ऑक्सीकारक होते हैं।
2. कणिकीय प्रदूषक – ये धूल, धूम, कोहरा, फुहारा, धुआँ आदि होते हैं।

प्रश्न 3.
कार्बन मोनोऑक्साइड, कार्बन डाइऑक्साइड की अपेक्षा अधिक खतरनाक होती है। क्यों?
उत्तर:
कार्बन मोनोऑक्साइड एक विषैली गैस है। यह रक्त में उपस्थित हीमोग्लोबिन के साथ संयुक्त होकर कार्बोक्सीहीमोग्लोबीन (COHb) बनाती है। यह ऑक्सीहीमोग्लोबिन की अपेक्षा 300 गुना अधिक स्थायी है। जब रक्त में कार्बोक्सीहीमोग्लोबिन की मात्रा 3-4% तक हो जाती है तब रक्त में ऑक्सीजन ले जाने की क्षमता अत्यधिक कम हो जाती है। ऑक्सीजन की इस न्यूनता से सिरदर्द, नेत्रदृष्टि की क्षीणता, तंत्रकीय आवेग में न्यूनता, हृदयवाहिका में तंत्र अवस्था आदि रोग उत्पन्न हो जाते हैं। कार्बन डाइऑक्साइड गैस हीमोग्लोबिन के साथ संयुक्त नहीं होती है। अतः यह एक कम हानिकारक प्रदूषक है। वातावरण में इसकी मात्रा में वृद्धि के कारण मुख्यतः वैश्विक गर्मी (भूमंडलीय ताप वृद्धि) हो रही है।

प्रश्न 4.
ग्रीन हाऊस प्रभाव के लिए कौन-सी गैसें उत्तरदायी हैं ? सूचीबद्ध कीजिए।
उत्तर:
निम्नलिखित गैसों द्वारा हरित गृह प्रभाव उत्पन्न किया जा सकता है, जो कि ऊष्मा ऊर्जा को रोकने में समर्थ होती है –

1. कार्बन डाइऑक्साइड
2. मेथेन
3. ओजोन
4. क्लोरोफ्लुओरोकार्बन के यौगिक (CFCs)
5. जल वाष्प।

प्रश्न 5.
अम्लवर्षा मूर्तियों तथा स्मारकों को कैसे दुष्प्रभावित करती है?
उत्तर:
भारत में मूर्तियाँ तथा स्मारक संगमरमर अर्थात् CaCO₃ के बने होते हैं। जिसके परितः वायु में मुख्यतः सल्फर तथा नाइट्रोजन के ऑक्साइडों की अधिक मात्रा होती है। इसका मुख्य कारण इन क्षेत्रों के आसपास औद्योगिक इकाइयों तथा ऊर्जा संयंत्रों की मात्रा अधिक होना है। सल्फर तथा नाइट्रोजन के ऑक्साइड अम्लीय होते हैं। SO₂ तथा NO₂ जल के साथ ऑक्सीकरण क्रिया करके खनिज अम्ल बनाते हैं जो अम्ल वर्षा के मुख्य स्त्रोत हैं।
2SO_2(g) + O_2(g) + 2H₂O_(l) → 2H₂SO_4(aq)
4NO_2(g) + O_2(g) + 2H₂O → 4HNO_3(aq)
यह अम्ल वर्षा, मूर्तियों तथा स्मारकों के संगमरमर के साथ क्रिया करके उन्हें नष्ट करती हैं।
CaCO₃ + H₂SO₄ → CaSO₄ + H₃O+ CO₂

प्रश्न 6.
धूम-कोहरा क्या है? सामान्य धूम-कोहरा, प्रकाश रासायनिक धूम-कोहरे से कैसे भिन्न है?
उत्तर:
धूम-कोहरा शब्द धूम तथा कोहरा से उत्पन्न हुआ है। यह विश्व के अनेक शहरों में पाया जाने वाला वायु प्रदूषक है। धूम-कोहरा निम्न दो प्रकार का होता है –

1. सामान्य धूम-कोहरा:
यह ठंडे आर्द्र वातावरण में उत्पन्न होता है। यह धुएँ, कोहरे तथा So, का मिश्रण है। रासायनिक रूप से यह अपचायक धूम-कोहरा है।

2. प्रकाश रासायनिक धूम-कोहरा:
यह गर्म, शुष्क तथा सूर्य की पर्याप्त रोशनी वाले वातावरण में उत्पन्न होता है। इसके मुख्य अवयव ओजोन, फॉर्मेल्डिहाइड, एक्रोलीन तथा परॉक्सीऐसीटिल नाइट्रेट (PAN) (असंतृप्त हाइड्रोकार्बनों पर सूर्य के प्रकाश की क्रिया से उत्पन्न) तथा नाइट्रोजन ऑक्साइड (वाहनों तथा कारखानों से उत्पन्न) होते हैं। रासायनिक रूप से यह ऑक्सीकारक धूम-कोहरा है क्योंकि इसमें ऑक्सीकारक अभिकर्मकों की सान्द्रता उच्च रहती है।

प्रश्न 7.
प्रकाश रासायनिक धूम-कोहरे के निर्माण के दौरान होने वाली अभिक्रिया लिखिए।
उत्तर:
जब जीवाश्म ईंधनों का दहन होता है, तब पृथ्वी के वातावरण में कई प्रदूषक उत्सर्जित होते हैं। इनमें से दो प्रदूषक हाइड्रोकार्बन एवं नाइट्रिक ऑक्साइड (NO) है। जब इन प्रदूषकों का स्तर पर्याप्त ऊँचा हो जाता है, तब सूर्य प्रकाश से इसकी अन्योन्य क्रिया के कारण श्रृंखला अभिक्रिया होती है, जिसमें NO₂ नाइट्रोजन डाइऑक्साइड NO₂ में परिवर्तित हो जाती है। यह NO₂ सूर्य प्रकाश से ऊर्जा ग्रहण कर पुनः नाइट्रिक ऑक्साइड एवं मुक्त ऑक्सीजन में विघटित हो जाती है।
NO_2(g) \(\underrightarrow { hv } \) NO_(g) + O_(g) …(i)
ऑक्सीजन परमाणु अत्यधिक क्रियाशील होने के कारण O, के साथ संयुक्त होकर ओजोन में परिवर्तित हो जाता है।
O_(g) + O_2(g) → O_3(g) ….(ii)
निर्मित O₃, शीघ्रतापूर्वक अभिक्रिया (i) में विरचित NO_(g) के साथ अभिक्रिया कर पुन: NO₂ बनाती है। NO₂ एक भूरी गैस है, जिसका उच्च स्तर धुंध का कारण हो सकता है।
NO_(g) + O_3(g) → NO_2(g) + O_3(g)
ओजोन एक जहरीली गैस है। NO, एवं 0, दोनों ही प्रबल ऑक्सीकारक हैं। जैसे –

प्रश्न 8.
प्रकाश रासायनिक धूम-कोहरे के दुष्परिणाम क्या है? इन्हें कैसे नियन्त्रित किया जा सकता है?
उत्तर:
प्रकाश रासायनिक धूम-कोहरे के दुष्परिणाम-प्रकाश रासायनिक धूम-कोहरा के प्रमुख घटक ओजोन, नाइट्रोजन के ऑक्साइड, एक्रोलीन, फॉर्मेल्डिहाइड और परॉक्सीऐसीटिल नाइट्रेट (PAN) आदि हैं। ये हानिकारक प्रभावों के लिए जिम्मेदार होते हैं। इनमें से कुछ निम्न हैं –

1. ओजोन और नाइट्रिक ऑक्साइड नाक एवं गले में उत्तेजना पैदा करते हैं। इनके उच्च सान्द्रण से सिर और सीने में दर्द होने लगता है।
2. प्रकाश रासायनिक धूम-कोहरा के संघटक गैसें सामान्यतः गले में शुष्कता पैदा करती है तथा ये श्वसन समस्याओं के लिए जिम्मेदार होती हैं।
3. प्रकाश रासायनिक धूम-कोहरा पादप जीवन को बहुत क्षति पहुँचाती है।
4. ये धातुओं, इमारती पदार्थों, रबर और रंजित सतह आदि के संक्षारण के लिए भी जिम्मेवार होती हैं।

प्रकाश रासायनिक धूम-कोहरा नियन्त्रित करने के उपाय:
निम्नलिखित उपायों द्वारा प्रकाश रासायनिक धूम-कोहरा से उत्पन्न प्रदूषण को कुछ मात्रा तक रोका जा सकता है –

1. वाहनों के इंजनों में उत्प्रेरकीय परिवर्तकों के उपयोग से NO₂ और कुछ हाइड्रोकार्बन जैसे प्राथमिक पूर्वगामी नियन्त्रित हो जाएंगे। इससे PAN जैसे द्वितीयक पूर्वगामी का विरचन स्वतः नियन्त्रित हो जाएगा।
2. कुछ पादप जैसे पाईनस, पायरस, विटिस, क्वेरकस आदि काफी खतरनाक नाइट्रोजन के ऑक्साइडों का उपापचय करने में समर्थ होते हैं। इनका रोपण निश्चित रूप से वायुमण्डल में इन गैसों को फैलने से रोकने में सहायक होगा।

प्रश्न 9.
क्षोभमण्डल पर ओजोन-परत के क्षय में होने वाली अभिक्रिया कौन-सी है?
उत्तर:
समतापमण्डल में उपस्थित फ्रीऑन जैसे क्लोरोफ्लुओरोकार्बन ओजोन के साथ रासायनिक अभिक्रिया करते हैं। ये मुक्त मूलक प्रकृति के होते हैं तथा अभिक्रिया पराबैंगनी विकिरणों की उपस्थिति में होती है।

चूँकि ओजोन रासायनिक अभिक्रिया में भाग लेती है, इसलिए ओजोन परत का क्रमिक अवक्षय होता है।

प्रश्न 10.
ओजोन छिद्र से आप क्या समझते हैं? इसके परिणाम क्या हैं?
उत्तर:
ओजोन छिद्र हानिकारक पराबैंगनी विकिरणों द्वारा ओजोन परत के ध्वंश को सूचित करता है। इससे हमारे चारों ओर स्थित ओजोन की परत में वस्तुतः छिद्र हो जाएंगे। इसके परिणामस्वरूप, हानिकारक विकिरणों से त्वचा कैंसर, दृष्टिदोष आदि उत्पन्न होंगे और यह हमारे प्रतिरक्षा तंत्र (Immune system) को प्रभावित करेगा।

ओजोन पर्त के दुष्प्रभाव:

1. पराबैंगनी किरणों का बिना रोकथाम के सीधे धरती पर प्रवेश होने पर विभिन्न रोगों का कारण हो सकता है। जैसे-कैंसर।
2. पराबैंगनी किरणें शरीर की प्रतिरोधक क्षमता को कम कर देती हैं।
3. C.EC. ग्रीन हाऊस प्रभाव को कम करती है, परिणामस्वरूप धरती के तापमान में वृद्धि होती है।

नियत्रंण:

1. C.E.C. का उत्पादन कम करना।
2. C.F.C. का विकल्प ढूँढ़ना।

प्रश्न 11.
क्या आपने अपने क्षेत्र में जल-प्रदूषण देखा है, इसे नियन्त्रित करने के कौन-कौन से उपाय हैं?
उत्तर:
पेपर, कपड़ा तथा रासायनिक उद्योगों से अनेक अपशिष्ट पदार्थ जल में मिलकर इसको प्रदूषित करते हैं। अत: जल प्रदूषण की रोकथाम के लिए उद्योग अपशिष्ट को नदी नालों में न डालकर इनका समुचित विस्थापन करना चाहिए। कपड़े धोने के जैव निम्नीकरण साबुन व अपमार्जक का प्रयोग करना चाहिए न कि जैव अनिम्नीकरण पदार्थों का। जल का pH मान ज्ञात करना चाहिए। शुद्ध जल का pH मान 7 है यदि जल का pH मान 7 से कम है तब इसमें उपस्थित अशुद्धियाँ अम्लीय है जैसे SO₂, H₂S आदि।

यदि जल का pH मान 7 से अधिक है, तब अशुद्धियों की प्रकृति क्षारीय है जैसे साबुन व अपमार्जक। ऐसी स्थिति में प्रदूषण नियंत्रक बोर्ड को सूचित कर रोकथाम करना चाहिए। रासायनिक उर्वरकों की बजाय देशी खाद का उपयोग करना चाहिए। DDT, मैलाथीआन आदि का उपयोग नहीं करना चाहिए। KMnO₄ या विरंचक चूर्ण से जल का शुद्धिकरण करना चाहिए।

प्रश्न 12.
आप ‘जैव रासायनिक ऑक्सीजन आवश्यकता’ (B.O.D.) से क्या समझते हैं?
उत्तर:
इसे निम्न प्रकार से परिभाषित किया जा सकता है –

1. यह जल में घुलित ऑक्सीजन की मिलीग्राम में वह मात्रा है, जो एक लीटर जल में उपस्थित कार्बनिक पदार्थ के 5 दिन तक 20°C ताप विघटन के लिए आवश्यक होती है।
2. शुद्ध जल का B.O.D. 3 ppm तक होता है। यदि स्तर अधिक हो तो यह जल में कार्बनिक अपशिष्ट की उपस्थिति का सूचक है।

प्रश्न 13.
क्या आपने आस-पास के क्षेत्र में भूमि-प्रदूषण देखा है ? आप भूमि-प्रदूषण को नियन्त्रित करने के लिए क्या प्रयास करेंगे?
उत्तर:
हाँ, इसको निम्नलिखित विधियों द्वारा नियंत्रित किया जा सकता है –

1. कीटनाशी तथा पीड़कनाशी जिनका प्रयोग फसलों की रक्षा के लिए किया जाता है भूमि प्रदूषण फैलाते हैं। शाकनाशी (दुर्बलनाशी) भी भूमि प्रदूषण फैलाते हैं। अतः इसके समुचित प्रयोग की आवश्यकता है।

2. द्वितीय विश्व युद्ध के पश्चात् डी.डी.टी. का प्रयोग कृषि में कीट, सेडेंट, खरपतवार तथा फसलों के अनेक रोगों को नियंत्रण के रूप में किया जाने लगा। इसके प्रतिकूल प्रभावों के कारण भारत में इसका प्रयोग प्रतिबंधित हो गया है। एल्ड्रीन तथा डाइएल्ड्रीन जैसे पीड़कनाशी वास्तव में जैव विष हैं। ये जल में अविलेय तथा अजैवनिम्नीकरण होते हैं। इनके कारण जीवों में उपापचयी तथा शरीर क्रियात्मक अवस्थाएँ उत्पन्न हो जाती हैं। आजकल ऑर्गेनो फॉस्फेट्स तथा कार्बोनेट्स को पीड़कनाशी के रूप में प्रयोग किया जा रहा है। ये अधिक जैवनिम्नीकरण वाले यौगिक हैं परन्तु ये गंभीर स्नायु जीव विष हैं अतः ये मानव के लिए हानिकारक हैं। अतः उर्वरक, डिटर्जेंट पीड़कनाशी, बहुलक आदि जैसे रसायनों का प्रयोग केवल तभी किया जाना चाहिए जबकि उनकी अति आवश्यकता हो।

3. जैवनिम्नीकृत घरेलू अवशिष्ट को जमीन के गड्ढों में दबाना चाहिए।

4. अजैवनिम्नीकृत अपशिष्टों का पुर्नचक्रण किया जाना चाहिए।

5. पॉलीथीन के प्रयोग से बचना चाहिए।

6. घरेलू अपशिष्ट, जैविक अपशिष्ट तथा रासायनिक अपशिष्टों को अधिकांशतः जला देना चाहिए। भस्मीकरण के फलस्वरूप अपशिष्ट पदार्थों का आयतन घट जाता है।

प्रश्न 14.
पीड़कनाशी तथा शाकनाशी से आप क्या समझते हैं? उदाहरण सहित समझाइए।
उत्तर:
पीड़कनाशी:
मुख्य रूप से संश्लेषित विषैले रसायन हैं जो पारिस्थितिकी प्रतिघाती हैं। पहले DDT का उपयोग फसलों में लगने वाले कीड़े-मकोड़ों की रोकथाम के लिए किया जाता था बाद में कीड़ों को DDT में प्रति, प्रतिरोधकता बढ़ गई । अतः दूसरे विषैले रसायन ऐल्ड्रीन और डाइएल्ड्रीन का उपयोग पीड़नाशी के रूप में होने लगा। लगभग सभी पीड़कनाशी जल में अघुलनशील तथा जैव अनिम्नीकरण होते हैं। आजकल जैव निम्नीकरण पदार्थ जो कार्बो-फॉस्फेट और कार्बामेट के नाम से उपयोग में लाए जाते हैं। परन्तु इनका उपयोग भी विषैला है तथा मानव जाति के लिए हानिकारक है। कृषि क्षेत्र में काम करने वाले लोग इसके शिकार हो चुके हैं।

प्रश्न 15.
हरित रसायन से आप क्या समझते हैं ? यह वातावरणीय प्रदूषण को रोकने में किस प्रकार सहायक है?
उत्तर:
हरित रसायन, रसायन विज्ञान तथा अन्य विज्ञानों के ज्ञात ज्ञान तथा सिद्धांतों के उपयोग की विधि है। जिससे पर्यावरण के दुष्प्रभावों को कम किया जा सके। हरित रसायन उत्पादन का प्रक्रम है जो पर्यावरण में न्यूनतम प्रदूषण या खराबी लाए। एक प्रक्रम में उत्पन्न होने वाले सह-उत्पादों को यदि लाभदायक तरीके से उपयोग नहीं किया जाए तो पर्यावरण प्रदूषण बढ़ाते हैं। ऐसे प्रक्रम न पर्यावरणीय दृष्टि से हानिकारक हैं, बल्कि महँगें भी हैं। उत्पादों के अपव्यय तथा इनका विसर्जन दोनों ही वित्तीय रूप से हानिकारक होते हैं। विकास कार्यों के साथ-साथ वर्तमान ज्ञान का रासायनिक हानि को कम करने के लिए उपयोग में लाना ही हरित रसायन का आधार है।”

प्रश्न 16.
क्या होता है, जब भू-वायुमण्डल में ग्रीन हाऊस गैसें नहीं होती ? विवेचना कीजिए।
उत्तर:
पृथ्वी की सतह से वापस विकरित सौर ऊर्जा को विभिन्न हरित गृह गैसों द्वारा अवशोषित कर लिया जाता है। इसके परिणामस्वरूप पृथ्वी का वायुमण्डल गर्म हो जाता है। यह वनस्पति की वृद्धि में सहायक होता है और जीवन का भी समर्थन करता है। इस प्रभाव की अनुपस्थिति में पृथ्वी की सतह पर पादप और जन्तु, दोनों का ही कोई जीवन नहीं होगा।

प्रश्न 17.
एक झील में अचानक असंख्य मृत मछलियाँ तैरती हुई मिली। इसमें कोई विषाक्त पदार्थ नहीं था, परन्तु बहुतायत में पादपप्लवक पाए गए। मछलियों के मरने का कारण बताइए।
उत्तर:
फाइटोप्लैंकटन में वृद्धि का कारण जल में पत्तियों, घास आदि जैसे कार्बनिक पदार्थ की उपस्थिति होती है। यह जल में घुलित बहुत-सी ऑक्सीजन का उपयोग कर लेते हैं, जो वास्तव में समुद्री जन्तुओं विशेष रूप से मछली के लिए बहुत आवश्यक है। यदि जल में घुलित ऑक्सीजन का स्तर 6 ppm से कम हो तो इसका तात्पर्य है कि यह ऑक्सीजन जल में रहने वाली विविध मछलियों के लिए पर्याप्त नहीं है। वे अन्ततः मर जाएँगी। हो सकता है कि इस स्थिति में भी ऐसा ही हुआ हो।

प्रश्न 18.
घरेलू अपशिष्ट किस प्रकार खाद के रूप में काम आ सकते हैं?
उत्तर:
घरेलू अपशिष्ट में जैव निम्नीय और जैव अनिम्नीय दोनों घटक होते हैं। जैव अनिम्नीय घटक में प्लास्टिक, काँच, धातु की छीलन आदि होता है तथा इसे पृथक् किया जा सकता है। जैव निम्नीय अंश, जो कि कार्बनिक पदार्थ से बना होता है, को उचित विधियों द्वारा खादों में रूपान्तरित किया जा सकता है।

प्रश्न 19.
आपने अपने कृषि-क्षेत्र अथवा उद्यान में कम्पोस्ट खाद के लिए गड्ढे बना रखे हैं। उत्तम कम्पोस्ट बनाने के लिए इस प्रक्रिया की व्याख्या दुर्गन्ध, मक्खियों तथा अपशिष्टों के चक्रीकरण के सन्दर्भ में कीजिए।
उत्तर:
उद्यानों में पौधों एवं घासों के स्वस्थ विकास के लिए समय-समय पर कम्पोस्ट खाद की आवश्यकता पड़ती है। स्थान उपलब्ध होने पर कम्पोस्ट खाद के गड्ढों को नजदीक में ही बनाते हैं। स्थान की कमी के कारण शहरी क्षेत्रों में इस सन्दर्भ में समस्या आ सकती है। इन गड्ढों से सामान्यतः दुर्गन्ध निकलती रहती है एवं मक्खियाँ भिनभिनाती रहती है। यह स्वास्थ्य के लिए बहुत बुरा होता है। इससे बचने के लिए गड्ढे को अच्छी तरह से ढंक देते हैं। काँच के सामान, प्लास्टिक के थैले, पुराने समाचार-पत्र आदि नियमित रूप से कबाड़ी को देना चाहिए। अन्ततः ये पुनर्चक्रीकरण संयंत्रों में भेज दिए जाते हैं, जिससे प्रदूषण की समस्या उत्पन्न नहीं होती है।

पर्यावरणीय रसायन अन्य महत्वपूर्ण प्रश्न अति

पर्यावरणीय रसायन वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए –

प्रश्न 1.
प्रदूषण रहित ऊर्जा का स्रोत है –
(a) जीवाश्म ईंधन
(b) सूर्य
(c) गैसोलीन
(d) नाभिकीय ऊर्जा
उत्तर:
(b) सूर्य

प्रश्न 2.
कौन-से विकिरण O₃, का निर्माण करते हैं –
(a) पराबैंगनी
(b) दृश्य प्रकाश
(c) अवरक्त
(d) रेडियो तरंगें
उत्तर:
(a) पराबैंगनी

प्रश्न 3.
कौन-से विकिरण हरित गृह प्रभाव देते हैं –
(a) अवरक्त
(b) दृश्य प्रकाश
(c) पराबैंगनी
(d) x-किरण।
उत्तर:
(a) अवरक्त

प्रश्न 4.
PAN उत्तरदायी है –
(a) ओजोन अपक्षय के लिये
(b) स्मॉग के लिये
(c) अम्ल वर्षा के लिये
(d) विषाक्त भोजन के लिये
उत्तर:
(b) स्मॉग के लिये

प्रश्न 5.
कौन-सा वायु प्रदूषक नहीं है –
(a) H₂
(b) H₂S
(c) NO_x
(d) O₃
उत्तर:
(a) H₂

प्रश्न 6.
जेट विमानों से फ्लोरोकार्बन के रूप में निकलने वाला वायु प्रदूषक है –
(a) प्रकाश रासायनिक ऑक्सीकारक
(b) प्रकाश रासायनिक अपचायक
(c) ऐरोसॉल
(d) भौतिक प्रदूषक
उत्तर:
(c) ऐरोसॉल

प्रश्न 7.
अम्ल वर्षा में नहीं होता –
(a) H₂SO₄
(b) HNO₃
(c) H₂SO₃
(d) CH₃COOH
उत्तर:
(d) CH₃COOH

प्रश्न 8.
फेफड़ों की बीमारी के लिये उत्तरदायी है –
(a) O₂
(b) N₂
(c) CO₂
(d) SO₂
उत्तर:
(d) SO₂

प्रश्न 9.
O₃ का निर्माण किसमें होता है –
(a) ट्रोपोस्फीयर
(b) स्ट्रेटोस्फीयर
(c) मेसोस्फीयर
(d) थर्मोस्फीयर
उत्तर:
(b) स्ट्रेटोस्फीयर

प्रश्न 10.
अम्ल वर्षा के लिये ‘सिंक’ है –
(a) पत्तियाँ
(b) जलाशय
(c) चूने का पत्थर
(d) CO₂
उत्तर:
(c) चूने का पत्थर

प्रश्न 11.
प्राथमिक प्रदूषक है –
(a) SO₃
(b) NO₂
(c) N₂O
(d) NO
उत्तर:
(d) NO

प्रश्न 12.
सबसे खतरनाक है –
(a) धुआँ
(b) धूल
(c) स्मॉग
(d) NO
उत्तर:
(c) स्मॉग

प्रश्न 13.
निम्न में कौन-सा हीमोग्लोबिन से तीव्रता से संयोग करता है –
(a) CO
(b) NO
(c) O₂
(d) CO₂
उत्तर:
(b) NO

प्रश्न 14.
ऐरोमैटिक यौगिक जो कणिका पदार्थ के रूप में पाया जाता है –
(a) बेंजीन
(b) टॉलूईन
(c) नाइट्रोबेंजीन
(d) बहुवलय हाइड्रोकार्बन
उत्तर:
(d) बहुवलय हाइड्रोकार्बन

प्रश्न 15.
ओजोन के क्षय से निम्न रोग होता है –
(a) रक्त कैंसर
(b) फेफड़े का कैंसर
(c) त्वचा कैंसर
(d) छाती कैंसर
उत्तर:
(c) त्वचा कैंसर

प्रश्न 2.
रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिए –

1. जेट विमानों से ……………… फ्लोरोकार्बन के रूप में निकलने वाला प्रदूषक है।
2. B.H.C. की तुलना में D.D.T. ………. खतरनाक प्रदूषक है।
3. वायुमंडल के …………… स्तर में सर्वाधिक वायु प्रदूषक होते हैं।
4. ओजोन परत ………….. किरणों से हमारा बचाव करती है।
5. ……………… तथा …………. के ऑक्साइड अम्ल वर्षा कराते हैं।
6. ……………. ओजोन परत क्षय का प्रमुख कारण है।
7. वे घटक, जो प्रदूषण उत्पन्न करते हैं …………… कहलाते हैं।
8. ……………. के कारण फेफड़ों पर हानिकारक प्रभाव पड़ता है।
9. सल्फर डाइऑक्साइड प्रदूषक …………… की बीमारी के लिये उत्तरदायी हैं।
10. पराबैंगनी प्रकाश …………… के लिये उत्तरदायी है।

उत्तर:

1. ऐरोसॉल
2. अधिक
3. ट्रोपोस्फीयर
4. पराबैंगनी
5. नाइट्रोजन, सल्फर
6. C.F.C.
7. प्रदूषक
8. प्रकाश रासायनिक स्मॉग
9. फेफड़ों
10. त्वचा कैंसर।

प्रश्न 3.
उचित संबंध जोडिए –

उत्तर:

1. (b)
2. (a)
3. (d)
4. (c)
5. (g)
6. (h)
7. (e)
8. (f).

प्रश्न 4.
एक शब्द/वाक्य में उत्तर दीजिए –

1. दो वायु प्रदूषक के नाम लिखिए।
2. दो प्रदूषकों के नाम बताइए जो ओजोन परत का क्षय करते हैं।
3. ओजोन किस क्षेत्र में पायी जाती है?
4. कोई दो ग्रीन हाऊस गैसों के नाम बताइए।
5. P.A.N. क्या है?
6. C.E.C. क्या है?
7. दूषक क्या हैं?
8. स्पेसियेशन क्या है?
9. सिंक क्या है?
10. पृथ्वी पर सबसे बड़े सिंक का नाम लिखिए।
11. ग्रीन हाऊस प्रभाव क्या है?
12. अम्ल वर्षा की क्रिया-विधि समझाइये।
13. सन् 1984 में भोपाल त्रासदी में रिसने वाली गैस थी।
14. ओजोन परत के क्षरण के लिये प्रमुख उत्तरदायी घटक का नाम क्या है?
15. जल प्रदूषण के कारण होने वाली बीमारी का नाम लिखिए।

उत्तर:

1. SO₂, SO₃
2. (i) नाइट्रिक ऑक्साइड का चक्र (NO) तथा (ii) C.E.C. (क्लोरो- फ्लुओरोकार्बन) जिनमें फ्रीऑन प्रमुख है।
3. समताप मण्डल में
4. C.F.C. और CO₂
5. परॉक्सी-एसिल नाइट्रेट (PAN) है जो एक प्रकाश रासायनिक स्मॉग है।
6. यह क्लोरो-फ्लुओरो कार्बन (C.F.C.) है, जो ओजोन परत के क्षय का मुख्य कारण है।
7. ऐसे पदार्थ जो बाहर से अतिरिक्त रूप से पर्यावरण को दूषित करते हैं दूषक कहलाते हैं।
8. एक ही तत्व से अनेक प्रदूषक निर्मित हो सकते हैं उनमें यह निर्धारण करना कि कौन-सा पदार्थ अधिक खतरनाक है, स्पेसियेशन कहलाता है।
9. सिंक वह है जिसमें कोई वस्तु पूरी तरह से समा जाती है फिर भी सिंक पर कोई असर नहीं होता।
10. पृथ्वी पर समुद्र से बड़ा कोई सिंक नहीं है।
11. ऊष्मा विकिरणों (IR किरणें) का CO₂ जैसी गैसों के कारण पृथ्वी की सतह पर ही बार-बार परावर्तित होकर तापमान में वृद्धि करना ग्रीन हाऊस प्रभाव कहलाता है।
12. सभी प्रदूषक गैसों का धुएँ के रूप में विभिन्न प्रदूषण कण जीवाश्म तथा ईंधनों के जलने के कारण ही मुख्य रूप से फैलते हैं। कारखाने तथा अन्य इंजनों के अत्यन्त उच्च ताप के कारण N,तथा 0)के संयोग से नाइट्रोजन के ऑक्साइड भी वायुमंडल में फैलते हैं। ये विभिन्न गैसें वर्षा की बूंदों के रूप में पृथ्वी पर गिरती हैं, इसे अम्ल वर्षा कहते हैं।
13. CH₃-N = C = 0 (मेथिल आइसोसाइनेट)
14. क्लोरो फ्लुओरो कार्बन
15. कॉलरा, पेचिश, पीलिया इत्यादि।

पर्यावरणीय रसायन अति लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
पर्यावरणीय रसायन शास्त्र को परिभाषित कीजिए।
उत्तर:
पर्यावरणीय रसायन शास्त्र, विज्ञान की वह शाखा है, जिसमें हमारे वातावरण पर रसायनों के परिणाम (जैसे-उत्पत्ति, परिवहन, अभिक्रियाएँ, प्रभाव तथा तथ्यों आदि) का अध्ययन किया जाता है।

प्रश्न 2.
ग्रीन हाऊस प्रभाव के कारण भूमण्डलीय ताप में वृद्धि हो रही है। ग्रीन हाऊस प्रभाव के लिए कौन-से पदार्थ उत्तरदायी हैं?
उत्तर:
ग्रीन हाऊस गैसें तथा कार्बनमोनोऑक्साइड, मेथेन, नाइट्रस ऑक्साइड, ओजोन तथा क्लोरोफ्लु ओरोकार्बन (C.E.C.S.) ग्रीन हाऊस प्रभाव के लिए उत्तरदायी हैं। ये गैसें पृथ्वी की सतह से जाने वाली विकिरणों को अवशोषित करके पृथ्वी का तापमान नियंत्रित करती हैं।।

प्रश्न 3.
ओजोन एक विषैली गैस तथा प्रबल ऑक्सीकारक अभिकर्मक है फिर भी ऊपरी समतापमण्डल में इसकी उपस्थिति अति महत्वपूर्ण है। यदि इस क्षेत्र से ओजोन को पूर्णतया हटा लिया जाए तो क्या होगा?
उत्तर:
ओजोन सूर्य की हानिकारक पराबैंगनी किरणों को पृथ्वी की सतह तक पहुँचने से रोकती है जिसके कारण यह पराबैंगनी किरणों के दुष्प्रभाव से जन-जीवन की रक्षा करती है। यदि ऊपरी समतापमण्डल से ओजोन को पूर्णतया हटा लिया जाए तो पराबैंगनी किरणें पृथ्वी पर पहुँच जाएगी तथा अनेकों बीमारियाँ जैसेत्वचा झुलसना, त्वचा कैंसर आदि बीमारियाँ उत्पन्न हो जाएंगी।

प्रश्न 4.
जल में विलेय ऑक्सीजन के स्रोत क्या हैं?
उत्तर:
जल में विलेय ऑक्सीजन के स्रोत निम्न हैं –

1. प्रकाश-संश्लेषण
2. प्राकृतिक ऐरेशन
3. कृत्रिम ऐरेशन।

प्रश्न 5.
जल में घुली हुई ऑक्सीजन जलीय जीवन के लिए अत्यन्त महत्वपूर्ण है। जल में घुली ऑक्सीजन की कमी के लिए कौन-से कारक उत्तरदायी है?
उत्तर:
जल में घुलित ऑक्सीजन की कमी के लिए, फॉस्फेटी तथा नाइट्रेट उर्वरकों, अपमार्जक, मानवजन्तु मल का बहाव तथा भोजन, कागज, लुग्दी उद्योगों द्वारा कार्बनिक अपशिष्टों आदि का जल में अत्यधिक उत्सर्जन है। सूक्ष्मजीव जो कार्बनिक पदार्थों का ऑक्सीकरण करते हैं, वे भी जल में विलेय ऑक्सीजन का प्रयोग करते हैं। इसके साथ-साथ रात में प्रकाश-संश्लेषण तो रुक जाता है परन्तु जलीय जीव तथा पादप निरंतर श्वसन करते हैं, जिसके कारण जल में घुलित ऑक्सीजन की मात्रा में कमी आती है।

प्रश्न 6.
जैवनिम्नीकृत तथा अजैवनिम्नीकृत प्रदूषक कौन-कौन से हैं?
उत्तर:
जैवनिम्नीकृत प्रदूषक-जीवाणुओं द्वारा अपघटित हो सकने वाले पदार्थ हैं। उदाहरण-मल, पशुओं का गोबर, फल-सब्जियों के छिलके आदि। अजैवनिम्नीकृत प्रदूषक-जीवाणुओं द्वारा अपघटित न हो सकने वाले पदार्थ हैं। उदाहरण-मर्करी, लेड, डी.डी.टी. काँच एवं प्लास्टिक आदि।

प्रश्न 7.
प्रदूषण किसे कहते हैं?
उत्तर:
संतुलित वातावरण में प्रत्येक घटक लगभग एक निश्चित मात्रा एवं अनुपात में रहता है। कभीकभी वातावरण में एक अथवा अनेक घटकों की मात्रा या तो आवश्यकता से अधिक बढ़ जाती है अथवा वातावरण में हानिकारक घटकों का प्रवेश हो जाता है जो जीवधारियों के लिये किसी-न-किसी रूप में हानिकारक सिद्ध होता है, प्रदूषण कहलाता है।

प्रश्न 8.
प्रदूषक किसे कहते हैं?
उत्तर:
ऐसे पदार्थ जिनकी मात्रा पर्यावरण में आवश्यकता से अधिक होने लगे तथा एक सीमा से अधिक बढ़ जाने के कारण मानव को, प्राणी जगत को या वनस्पति जगत को नुकसान पहुँचाने लगे, वे प्रदूषक कहलाते हैं। ये पदार्थ मुख्य रूप से निम्नलिखित हो सकते हैं – CO, CO₂, NO, NO₂, SO, इत्यादि।

प्रश्न 9.
दूषक किसे कहते हैं?
उत्तर:
कुछ पदार्थ ऐसे होते हैं, जो प्रकृति में तो नहीं पाये जाते किन्तु मानव द्वारा कृत्रिम रूप से निर्मित किये जाते हैं। ये पदार्थ नष्ट हुये बगैर पर्यावरण को दूषित करते हैं।

प्रश्न 10.
ओजोन पर्त क्षरण के लिये उत्तरदायी गैसों या रसायन के नाम लिखिए।
उत्तर:
ओजोन पर्त के क्षरण के लिये वायुमण्डल में उपस्थित नाइट्रिक ऑक्साइड, परमाणवीय ऑक्सीजन तथा क्लोरोफ्लुओरो कार्बन उत्तरदायी हैं।

प्रश्न 11.
ग्रीन हाऊस गैसें क्या हैं?
उत्तर:
CO₂ ओजोन व जलवाष्प को ग्रीन हाऊस गैसें कहा जाता है। इनमें अवरक्त विकिरणों को अवशोषित करने का गुण होता है। अतः इन्हें ग्रीन हाऊस गैसें कहा जाता है।

प्रश्न 12.
प्रदूषित वायु किसे कहते हैं?
उत्तर:
यदि वायु में ऐसे पदार्थ उपस्थित हो जो जीवों के स्वास्थ्य पर बुरा प्रभाव डालें तो उस वायु को प्रदूषित वायु कहते हैं। प्रदूषित वायु में मुख्यत: CO₂, SO₂, SO₃, CO निलम्बित अणु रहते हैं।

प्रश्न 13.
अंटार्कटिका पर ही ओजोन का क्षय होता है, क्यों?
उत्तर:
क्योंकि समतापमण्डल के दूसरे भागों में मुक्त क्लोरीन अणुओं में बदल जाते हैं, जबकि अंटार्कटिका पर उत्पन्न यौगिक क्लोरीन मुक्त मूलकों से घिर जाते हैं जिससे ओजोन का क्षय होता है।

प्रश्न 14.
जल के किसी नमूने के BOD मापन की क्या उपयोगिता है?
उत्तर:
BOD जल के किसी दिए गए नमूने में उपस्थित कार्बनिक जैवनिम्नीकृत पदार्थ द्वारा जनित प्रदूषण का मापन है। BOD का कम मान संकेत करता है कि जल में कार्बनिक अपशिष्ट कम मात्रा में उपस्थित है।

प्रश्न 15.
सल्फर डाइऑक्साइड का उत्प्रेरक की अनुपस्थिति में सल्फर ट्राइऑक्साइड में ऑक्सीकरण एक मंद परिवर्तन है परन्तु इसका ऑक्सीकरण वायुमण्डल में शीघ्रता से होता है बताइये कि ऐसा क्यों होता है? SO₂ में SO₃, के परिवर्तन की रासायनिक समीकरण भी दीजिए।
उत्तर:
SO₂ से SO₃ के ऑक्सीकरण में, प्रदूषित वायु में उपस्थित कणिकीय द्रव्य उत्प्रेरक की भाँति कार्य करते हैं।

प्रश्न 16.
समतापमण्डल में ओजोन किस प्रकार निर्मित होती है?
उत्तर:
समतापमण्डल में ओजोन पराबैंगनी विकिरणों की डाइऑक्सीजन (O₂) अणु पर क्रिया से उत्पन्न होती है। पराबैंगनी किरणें ऑक्सीजन अणु को ऑक्सीजन परमाणु में अपघटित कर देती है। ये ऑक्सीजन परमाणु, ऑक्सीजन अणु के साथ संयुग्मित होकर ओजोन अणु बनाते हैं।

प्रश्न 17.
क्लोरोसीन क्या है?
उत्तर:
पौधों में क्लोरोफिल पदार्थ धीमी गति से बनता है। यह SO की उपस्थिति के कारण होता है। यह प्रदूषण क्लोरोसीन कहलाता है।

प्रश्न 18.
मैटाथेसीज क्या है?
उत्तर:
मैटाथेसीज उस विज्ञान का नाम है, जिसमें वैज्ञानिक विधियों का सामान्य आदमी के लिए क्या उपयोग है, का अध्ययन किया जाता है।

प्रश्न 19.
प्राथमिक एवं द्वितीयक वायु प्रदूषक किसे कहते हैं?
उत्तर:
प्राथमिक वायु प्रदूषक-जो वायु प्रदूषक प्राकृतिक या मानवीय कारणों से सीधे वायु को प्रदूषित करते हैं, प्राथमिक वायु प्रदूषक कहलाते हैं। जैसे – CO, NO, CO₂, SO₂.
द्वितीयक वायु प्रदूषक-ऐसे वायु प्रदूषक जो वायुमण्डल में ही प्रदूषकों के बीच रासायनिक क्रियाओं से या गैसों तथा प्रदूषकों के बीच क्रियाओं से बनते हैं, उन्हें द्वितीयक प्रदूषक कहते हैं। जैसे –

प्रश्न 20.
प्रकाश रासायनिक स्मॉग किसे कहते हैं?
उत्तर:
स्मॉग का अर्थ धुएँ और कोहरे का सम्मिश्रण है जब इस स्मॉग में ऑक्सीकारकों की उच्च सान्द्रता उपस्थित हो तो इसे प्रकाश रासायनिक स्मॉग कहते हैं। धुआँ एक वायु प्रदूषक है जिसमें ईंधन पदार्थों के अपूर्ण दहन के कारण अनेक ठोस कण वायुमण्डल में निलम्बित रहते हैं। गैसीय माध्यम में अति सूक्ष्म आकार के ठोस कणों के विक्षेपण से उत्पन्न बादल को वायु विलय कहते हैं और धुएँ व कोहरे के संयोग से धुन्ध बनती है।

प्रश्न 21.
अम्लीय वर्षा किसे कहते हैं?
उत्तर:
वायु प्रदूषण के कारण वायुमण्डल में विभिन्न गैसों जैसे – CO₂, SO₂, SO₃, NO₂, इत्यादि की सान्द्रता में वृद्धि होती है। ये विभिन्न गैसें वर्षा की बूंदों में अपनी-अपनी विलेयता के अनुसार विलेय होकर अम्ल बनाती हैं। वर्षा के रूप में गिरने वाली ये बूंदें ही अम्लीय वर्षा कहलाती हैं।
CO₂ + H₂O → H₂CO₃
SO₃ + H₂O → H₂SO₄

प्रश्न 22.
CO₂ कब प्रदूषक कहलाती है?
उत्तर:
वायुमण्डल में CO₂ की सामान्य मात्रा किसी प्रकार भी हानिकारक नहीं है। बल्कि जीव एवं पेड़-पौधे इससे अपने भोजन का निर्माण करते हैं। लेकिन जब विभिन्न प्रक्रियाओं के कारण जब वायुमण्डल में इसकी सान्द्रता आवश्यकता से अधिक हो जाती है तो प्राकृतिक संतुलन को बिगाड़ कर नुकसान पहुँचाती है।

प्रश्न 23.
ग्रीन हाऊस प्रभाव के लिये कार्बन डाइऑक्साइड को अधिक उत्तरदायी समझा जाता है, क्यों?
उत्तर:
जलवाष्प केवल पृथ्वी के अत्यधिक निकट पायी जाती है तथा ओजोन वायुमण्डल के ऊपरी भाग में पायी जाती है। इनकी तुलना में CO₂ वायुमण्डल में समान रूप से सभी स्थान में पायी जाती है। इसलिये ग्रीन हाऊस प्रभाव के लिये CO₂ अधिक उत्तरदायी है क्योंकि CO₂ में सूर्य के अवरक्त प्रकाश की किरणों को अवशोषित करने की क्षमता होती है। इसके फलस्वरूप वातावरण में ग्रीन हाऊस प्रभाव उत्पन्न होता है।

प्रश्न 24.
अम्ल वर्षा को ताजमहल के लिए हानिकारक माना जाता है, क्यों?
उत्तर:
ताजमहल संगमरमर (CaCO₃) से बना है। अम्लीय वर्षा में H₂SO₄ होता है, जो बहुत ही तनु अवस्था में होता है, जो संगमरमर से क्रिया करता है। अतः संगमरमर धीरे-धीरे क्षय हो जाता है।
CaCO_3(aq) + H₂SO_4(aq) → CaSO_4(aq) + CO_2(g) + H₂O_(l)

प्रश्न 25.
एक व्यक्ति नगर निगम द्वारा सप्लाई किए जल का उपयोग करता है। जल की कमी के कारण भू-जल का प्रयोग प्रारंभ कर देता है। उसे विरेचकता का अनुभव होता है। इसके क्या कारण हो सकते हैं?
उत्तर:
विरेचकता का अनुभव केवल तभी हो सकता है जब जल में उपस्थित सल्फेट की सान्द्रता 500 ppm से अधिक हो। अन्यथा माध्यमिक स्तर पर जल हानिरहित होता है।

प्रश्न 26.
फ्लाई ऐश प्रदूषण किसे कहते हैं?
उत्तर:
कोल में उपस्थित लाइम स्टोन राख में CaO के रूप में रहता है तथा राख के साथ धूल में उड़ सकता है। वातावरण में स्थित H₂SO₄ की सूक्ष्म बूंदें CaO से क्रिया कर CaSO₄ के कण बना देती है। हवा में उपस्थित अमोनिया भी H₂SO₄ के साथ क्रिया कर (NH₄)₂SO₄ के कणों में बदल जाता है। राख का हवा के साथ उड़कर प्रदूषण उत्पन्न करना फ्लाई ऐश प्रदूषण कहलाता है।

प्रश्न 27.
संक्रमित जल किसे कहते हैं? संक्रमित जल से होने वाली बीमारियों के नाम लिखिए।
उत्तर:
वह जल जिसमें प्रदूषण के कारण जीवों के विविध हानिकारक पदार्थ तथा सूक्ष्म जीव उपस्थित हैं, संक्रमित जल कहलाता है। संक्रमित जल से होने वाली बीमारियाँ निम्नलिखित हैं –

1. हैजा
2. पीलिया
3. पेचिश
4. चर्म रोग।

प्रश्न 28.
ग्लोबल वॉर्मिंग से क्या समझते हो?
उत्तर:
CO₂ मेथेन, क्लोरो फ्लुओरो कार्बन आदि गैसों की वायुमण्डल में अधिक मात्रा में उपस्थिति के कारण सूर्य की गर्मी रुक जाने से पृथ्वी के तापमान में वृद्धि ग्लोबल वॉर्मिंग कहलाती है। ग्लोबल वॉर्मिंग ग्रीन हाऊस का दुष्परिणाम है।

प्रश्न 29.
आयनोस्फीयर किसे कहते हैं?
उत्तर:
पृथ्वी की सतह से 50 से 90 कि.मी. की ऊँचाई तक लगभग 40 कि.मी. की मोटाई वाली पर्त मेसोस्फीयर कहलाती है। इस क्षेत्र में सभी गैसें आयनित अवस्था में रहती हैं इसलिये इसे आयनोस्फीयर भी कहते हैं।
O₂ + O⁺ → O₂⁺ + O
O⁺ + N₂ → NO⁺ + N
N₂⁺ + O₂ → N₂ + O₂⁺

पर्यावरणीय रसायन लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
कार्बन मोनोऑक्साइड हमारे शरीर पर क्या बुरा प्रभाव डालती है?
उत्तर:
कार्बन मोनोऑक्साइड का हीमोग्लोबिन पर अवशोषण ऑक्सीजन की तुलना में अधिक होता है। यह कार्बन मोनोऑक्साइड लाल वर्णक हीमोग्लोबिन से संयोग कर ज्यादा स्थायी यौगिक कार्बोक्सी हीमोग्लोबिन बनाता है जो स्थायी होने के कारण कोशिकाओं में पहुँचकर हीमोग्लोबिन को मुक्त नहीं करता है, अतः रक्त की ऑक्सीजन संवहन क्षमता कम हो जाती है। इसके कारण मामूली सिर दर्द, सुस्ती से लेकर अंत में मृत्यु तक हो सकती है।

प्रश्न 2.
सल्फर डाइऑक्साइड के दुष्प्रभाव लिखिए।
उत्तर:
SO₂ के दुष्प्रभाव:

1. SO₂ श्वसन नली एवं फेफड़ों को नुकसान पहुँचाती है। इस कारण फेफड़ों की कई बीमारी, कैंसर आदि हो सकता है।
2. यह पेड़-पौधों की वृद्धि को भी रोकती है। इसके कारण हरी पत्तियों का पीला पड़ना क्लोरोसिस कहलाता है।
3. SO₂ के कारण होने वाली अम्ल वर्षा कीमती इमारती पत्थरों को नुकसान पहुँचाती है।
4. SO₂ गैस कोरोसन (Corrosion) को बढ़ावा देती है।

प्रश्न 3.
नाइट्रोजन ऑक्साइड के दुष्प्रभाव लिखिए।
उत्तर:
नाइट्रोजन ऑक्साइड के दुष्प्रभाव:

1. वातावरण में NO, NO₂ आदि गैसों की आवश्यकता से अधिक उपस्थिति आँखों में जलन उत्पन्न करती है।
2. इसकी अधिकता से फेफड़ों एवं हृदय संबंधी रोग हो जाते हैं।
3. नाइट्रोजन के ऑक्साइड धातुओं में संक्षारण को बढ़ा देते हैं।
4. प्रकाश संश्लेषण की दर को कम करता है।
5. रंजकों के चमक को कम कर देता है।

प्रश्न 4.
ग्रीन हाऊस प्रभाव के कुप्रभाव क्या हैं?
उत्तर:
ग्रीन हाऊस प्रभाव का मुख्य कारण वायुमण्डल में CO₂ की अधिक मात्रा में उपस्थिति है। जो अवरक्त प्रकाश को अवशोषित कर वातावरण का ताप बढ़ाने में सहायक होती है। इस प्रकार ताप में वृद्धि के कारण मौसम में बदलाव आयेगा। सूर्य की किरणें कैंसर जैसे भयानक रोग को जन्म देती हैं। कहीं सूखा पड़ेगा, कहीं गर्म हवायें चलेंगी, कहीं भीषण तूफान एवं कहीं बाढ़ आयेगी। आर्कटिका एवं अंटार्कटिका के विशाल हिमखण्ड पिघल जायेंगे जिससे समुद्र के जल स्तर में वृद्धि हो जायेगी जिसके कारण समुद्र तटीय नगर समुद्र में डूब जायेंगे।

प्रश्न 5.
स्मॉग क्या है? इसके प्रकार लिखते हुये इसकी क्रियाविधि को समझाइये।
उत्तर:
धुएँ तथा कोहरे का सम्मिश्रण स्मॉग कहलाता है।

स्मॉग के प्रकार:

1. रासायनिक स्मॉग – कोहरे के साथ मिली SO₂ गैस का धुएँ से संयोग रासायनिक स्मॉग को जन्म देती है।
2. प्रकाश रासायनिक स्मॉग – जहाँ तेज धूप पड़ती है वहाँ प्राथमिक वायु प्रदूषक प्रकाश रासायनिक क्रिया द्वारा द्वितीय प्रदूषक निर्मित करते हैं। इनकी प्रकृति ऑक्सीकारक होती है। जहाँ प्रदूषक गैस अधिक हो हवा रुकी हुई है, वहाँ धुएँ के साथ स्मॉग निर्मित होता है।

क्रियाविधि:

1. सूर्योदय से पहले ऑटोमोबाइल इंजन का प्रयोग किया जा रहा हो तो मुख्य रूप से CO तथा NO गैस निकलती है। यह वायु के संपर्क में भूरे रंग की NO₂ गैस बनाती है।
   2NO + O₂ → 2NO₂
2. पराबैंगनी किरणों के प्रभाव से NO₂ द्वारा क्रियाशील ऑक्सीजन मुक्त होती है।
   2NO + O₂ → 2NO₂
3. यह क्रियाशील ऑक्सीजन इंजन से निकलने वाले हाइड्रोकार्बन को मुक्त मूलक में बदल देती है।
4. ये कार्बनिक मुक्त मूलक कई शृंखला अभिक्रियाओं द्वारा अवांछित यौगिकों का निर्माण करते हैं और ये प्रदूषक ही स्मॉग का निर्माण करते हैं।

प्रश्न 6.
जल प्रदूषण के कारणों का उल्लेख कीजिए।
उत्तर:

1. बड़े-बड़े कारखानों के अपशिष्ट पदार्थों को समुद्रों, नदियों या झीलों में फेंका जाता है।
2. खेतों में तरह-तरह के उर्वरक, खाद तथा कीटनाशकों का प्रयोग किया जाता है। ये सभी पदार्थ खेतों की मिट्टी में मिश्रित हो जाते हैं तथा वर्षा के जल में घुलकर नदियों तथा जलाशय में गिरते हैं।
3. परमाणु विद्युत् केन्द्र जल को प्रदूषित करते हैं।
4. जनसंख्या में वृद्धि के कारण नदियों के किनारे बस्तियाँ बन गई हैं इनके घर से निकलने वाले अपशिष्ट जल को प्रदूषित करते हैं।
5. ग्रामीण क्षेत्रों में तालाब में लोग नहाते हैं, कपड़े धोते हैं जो जल को प्रदूषित करते हैं।

प्रश्न 7.
कृत्रिम ग्रीन हाऊस का निर्माण कैसे कर सकते हैं?
उत्तर:
काँच में यह गुण होता है कि वह दृश्य प्रकाश की किरणों को तो लगभग पूरी तरह अपवर्तित कर देता है परन्तु अधिक तरंग लंबाई के कारण IR किरणों को अपवर्तित कम तथा परावर्तित अधिक करता है। अतः काँच के अंदर उपस्थित IR विकिरणों का हिस्सा जो पृथ्वी से परावर्तित कर दिया जाता है। कुछ मात्रा में काँच द्वारा परावर्तित हो जाता है। इस प्रकार काँच द्वारा घिरा भाग गर्म होने लगता है।

प्रश्न 8.
जल प्रदूषण के कुप्रभाव लिखिए तथा इसका नियंत्रण कैसे करते हैं?
उत्तर:
जल प्रदूषण के कुप्रभाव:

1. प्रदूषित जल के सेवन से हैजा, पीलिया, अतिसार, टायफाइड जैसे संक्रामक रोगों का प्रसार होता है।
2. वाहितमल के कारण प्रदूषित जल में विलेय ऑक्सीजन की मात्रा घट जाती है, जिस कारण जलीय प्राणियों की मृत्यु हो जाती है।
3. साबुन, डिटर्जेन्ट अपशिष्ट के कारण प्रदूषित जल मछलियों के लिये जानलेवा होता है।

नियंत्रण:

1. वाहितमल को सीधे नदियों जलाशय में न फेंककर रासायनिक अभिक्रिया द्वारा खाद में परिवर्तित कर दिया जाये।
2. समुद्र के नीचे परमाणु परीक्षण पर रोक लगाना चाहिये।
3. पुनः चक्रण (Recycling) तरीकों द्वारा गोबर या मलमूत्र जैसे पदार्थों को उपयोगी पदार्थ में परिवर्तित किया जा सकता है।

प्रश्न 9.
मृदा प्रदूषण क्या है ? मृदा प्रदूषण पर किस प्रकार नियंत्रण किया जा सकता है?
उत्तर:
मृदा प्रदूषण:
मृदा के भौतिक, रासायनिक या जैविक गुणों में ऐसा कोई भी अवांछित परिवर्तन जिनका हानिकारक प्रभाव मनुष्य तथा अन्य जीवों पर पड़ता है या मृदा या भूमि की प्राकृतिक गुणवत्ता तथा उपयोगिता नष्ट हो जाये मृदा प्रदूषण कहलाता है।

नियंत्रण:

1. औद्योगिक अपशिष्टों को कारखानों में उपचारित करके ही भूमि में डालना चाहिए।
2. उर्वरक, कीटनाशी, कवकनाशी दवाओं का कम-से-कम प्रयोग करना चाहिए।
3. मृदा अपरदन को रोकने के लिये वृक्षों का कटाव रोकना चाहिए जिससे भूमि की पर्त नष्ट न हो।

प्रश्न 10.
ओजोन पर्त के क्षय की क्रियाविधि को समझाइये।
उत्तर:
1. नाइट्रोजन ऑक्साइड के द्वारा क्षय-स्ट्रेटोस्फीयर में कुछ मात्रा में NO उपस्थित है। यह परमाणवीय ऑक्सीजन से संयोग कर NO बनाता है।
N₂O + O → 2NO
NO₂ गैस O₃ से संयोग कर NO₂ बनाती है।
NO + O₃ → NO₂ + O₂
NO₂ परमाणवीय ऑक्सीजन से टूटकर पुनः NO देता है।
NO₂ + O → NO + O₂
यह NO का चक्र O₃ के क्षय का कारण बनता है।

2. C.F.C. के द्वारा क्षय-प्रकाशीय विघटन द्वारा यह मुक्त मूलक उत्पन्न करता है।

मुक्त मूलकों का निर्माण ओजोन पर्त का निरंतर क्षय कर रहा है।

पर्यावरणीय रसायन दीर्घ उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
वायुमण्डल को कितने भागों में बाँटा गया है? प्रत्येक क्षेत्र में होने वाली रासायनिक क्रियाओं को समझाइये।
उत्तर:
वायुमण्डल को चार भागों में बाँटा गया है –

1. ट्रोपोस्फीयर
2. स्टेट्रोस्फीयर
3. मेसोस्फीयर
4. थर्मोस्फीयर।

1. ट्रोपोस्फीयर:
पृथ्वी की सतह से 8 से 12 कि.मी. की ऊँचाई तक का क्षेत्र ट्रोपोस्फीयर कहलाता है। इसके मुख्य घटक N₂, O₂, CO₂, तथा H₂O हैं। जीवाश्म ईंधन ऑक्सीजन में जलकर CO₂ बनाता है।
CH₄ + 2O₂ → CO₂ + 2H₂O ट्रोपोस्फीयर में विभिन्न जीवाणुओं द्वारा यौगिक का विघटन होता है।
जीवाणु यौगिक + O₂ → CO₂ + H₂O प्रकाश संश्लेषण भी इसी पर्त में होती है।

2. स्ट्रेटोस्फीयर:
10 से 50 किमी तक की लगभग 40 कि. मी. मोटाई की पर्त स्ट्रेटोस्फीयर कहलाती है।
(a) ऑक्सीजन का प्रकाश रासायनिक अपघटन
O₂ \(\underrightarrow { hv } \) O + O
O + O + O \(\underrightarrow { hv } \) O₂ + O^*
उत्तेजित ऑक्सीजन अणु O₂ दृश्य प्रकाश क्षेत्र में 636, 630, 558nm तरंग लंबाई वाले विकिरण उत्सर्जित करता है। इसे वायु दीप्त कहते हैं।
O^* \(\underrightarrow { hv } \) O⁺ + e^–
ऑक्सीजन परमाणु उत्तेजित होकर इलेक्ट्रॉन त्याग सकता है, जिससे धनावेशित ऑक्सीजन आयन बनता है।
O₂ + O₃ → O₂ + O
पराबैंगनी किरणों से O₃ का अणु पुनः विघटित हो जाता है।
O₃ \(\underrightarrow { hv } \) O₂ + O
O₃ + O → O₂ + O₂
ओजोन को स्थायित्व प्रदान करने के लिये N₂, O₂ जैसा कोई दूसरा आवश्यक है, जो विकिरणों की अतिरिक्त ऊर्जा को अवशोषित कर O, के अपघटन को रोकता है।
O + O₂, + M → O₃ + M
इसके विपरीत स्ट्रेटोस्फीयर में NO या OH जैसे स्पीशीज हैं, तो वे Oz को विघटित कर देती हैं।
O₃ + OH → O₂ + HOO
O₃ + NO → NO₂ + O₂
NO₂ + O → NO + O₂
N₂ अणु स्वतः विकिरणों द्वारा अपघटित होता है तथा O₂ से संयोग कर NO बनाता है।
N₂ \(\underrightarrow { hv } \) N + N
O₂ + N → NO + O

3. मेसोस्फीयर:
पृथ्वी की सतह से 50 से 90 कि.मी. की ऊँचाई तक लगभग 40 कि.मी. मोटाई वाली पर्त मेसोस्फीयर है।
O₂ + O → O₂ + O
O⁺ + N₂ → NO⁺ + N
N₂⁺ + O₂ → N₂ + O₂⁺

4. थर्मोस्फीयर:
पृथ्वी की सतह से 90 कि.मी. की ऊँचाई से वायुमण्डल की यह पर्त प्रारम्भ होती है। 500 कि.मी. ऊँचाई तक का यह क्षेत्र थर्मोस्फीयर कहलाता है।

प्रश्न 2.
पार्टिकुलेट कितने प्रकार के होते हैं? वर्णन कीजिए।
उत्तर:
वातावरण में अत्यंत सूक्ष्म कण भी प्रदूषण के कारण हैं। विभिन्न प्रकार के कण तथा उनके स्रोत निम्नलिखित हैं –

1. कालिख:
कार्बन युक्त ईंधन के अपूर्ण ज्वलन से धुएँ के साथ कार्बन के सूक्ष्म कण वातावरण में फैल जाते हैं। इस प्रकार का दहन प्रायः सभी जगह होता रहता है।

2. धूल:
प्राकृतिक तथा मानवीय स्रोतों में ज्वालामुखी के फूटने के कारण, आँधी के कारण, खनन कार्य के कारण, वाहनों के चलने के कारण धूल वातावरण में फैलती है।

3. धातुओं के कण:
सीसा, पारा, Cr, As, Zn, Fe, Ni, Cd धातुओं के कण विभिन्न प्रकार से धातु उपचार के कारण वातावरण में फैलते हैं। इनकी कम मात्रा भी अत्यन्त हानिकारक है।

4.धातु ऑक्साइड के कण:
ईंधन में उपस्थित धातु दहन के पश्चात् ऑक्साइड बनाती है जिनके कण वातावरण में फैल जाते हैं। प्राकृतिक तेल में उपस्थित V₂O₅ के कण कोल के दहन Fe₃O₄ के कण मुख्य रूप से फैल जाते हैं।

5. फ्लाई ऐश प्रदूषण:
कोल में उपस्थित लाइम स्टोन राख में CaO के रूप में बच जाता है। राख के साथ धूल में उड़ सकता है। वातावरण में स्थित H₂SO₄ की सूक्ष्म बूंदें CaO से क्रिया कर CaSO₄ के कण बना देती है। हवा में उपस्थित NH₃ भी H₂SO₄ के साथ संयोग कर (NH₄)₂SO₄ के कणों में बदल जाती है। राख हवा के साथ उड़कर सूक्ष्म कणों में बदलकर प्रदूषण उत्पन्न करती है।

6. एस्बेस्टस कण:
उद्योग तथा कारखानों से निकलने वाले धुएँ में उपस्थित एस्बेस्टस के कण प्रदूषण उत्पन्न करते हैं।

7. P.A.H. तथा T.E.L.:
PAH – पॉलीसाइक्लिक ऐरोमैटिक हाइड्रोकार्बन, TEL – टेट्राएथिल लेड है। जीवाश्म ईंधन तथा पेट्रोलियम के अपूर्ण दहन से P.A.H. सूक्ष्म कणों के रूप में प्रदूषण उत्पन्न करते हैं। नोदन को कम करने के लिए T.E.L. का उपयोग करते हैं। T.E.L. का दहन के पश्चात् PbO में ऑक्सीकरण होता है तथा इसमें C₂H₄Br₂ तथा C₂H₄Cl मिलाया जाता है। यह PbO को PbBr₂ व PbCl₃ में परिवर्तित कर देता है। इस प्रकार T.E.L. का प्रदूषण लैड हैलाइड के रूप में होता है।

प्रश्न 3.
अम्ल वर्षा क्या होती है? पर्यावरण पर इससे होने वाले दुष्प्रभावों का विस्तार से वर्णन कीजिए।
उत्तर:
वायुमण्डल में अनेक प्रकार के गैसीय ऑक्साइड उपस्थित रहते हैं। वायु प्रदूषण के कारण वायु में इनकी % मात्रा में वृद्धि हो रही है। जब वर्षा का जल नीचे आता है तो ये ऑक्साइड जल में विलेय होकर अम्ल बनाते हैं तथा पृथ्वी पर वर्षा की बूंदों के रूप में गिरते हैं इसे अम्लीय वर्षा कहते हैं।
CO₂ + H₂O → H₂CO₃
SO₃ + H₂O → H₂SO₄

अम्ल वर्षा के प्रभाव:

1. अम्ल वर्षा जमीन में उपस्थित क्षार का उदासीनीकरण कर देती है जिसके फलस्वरूप मिट्टी अम्लीय हो जाती है। इससे जीवाणुओं, पौधों और नाइट्रोजन स्थिरीकरण पर प्रभाव पड़ता है।
2. अम्लीय वर्षा से नदियों, सरोवरों का जल अम्लीय हो जाता है जिससे इनमें रहने वाले जीव-जन्तुओं पर हानिकारक प्रभाव पड़ता है।
3. अम्लीय वर्षा के कारण वन संपदा तथा वनस्पतियों का क्षय हो रहा है जिससे पतझड़ शीघ्र आ रहा है और पौधे सूख रहे हैं।
4. अम्लीय वर्षा के कारण मूर्तियाँ तथा भवन अपनी चमक खो रहे हैं क्योंकि उसमें उपस्थित धातुओं का क्षरण होता है। कोटिंग भी नष्ट होती है। आगरा के ताजमहल पर अम्लीय वर्षा के कारण संगमरमर का क्षय हो रहा है।
5. अम्ल वर्षा का जल पौधों की पत्तियों को हानि पहुँचाकर प्रकाश संश्लेषण की दर को मंद कर देता है।
6. अम्ल वर्षा द्वारा त्वचा, फेफड़े तथा गले पर हानिकारक प्रभाव पड़ता है।

अम्ल वर्षा का नियंत्रण:

1. नदियों तथा तालाबों को अम्लीय वर्षा से नहीं बचाया जा सकता है पर इसमें चूना मिलाकर इसके प्रभाव को कम किया जा सकता है।
2. खेतों में भी चूना डालने से अम्लीय वर्षा के प्रभाव को कम किया जा सकता है।
3. कम गंधक युक्त कोयले या लेड रहित पेट्रोल का उपयोग करने से तथा संयंत्रों में ईंधन के दहन की प्रक्रिया को नियंत्रित करके अम्लीय वर्षा के प्रभाव को नष्ट किया जा सकता है।
4. अम्ल प्रदूषण करने वाली गैस तथा अधजले हाइड्रोकार्बन को प्रभावहीन यौगिक में परिवर्तित करके इसके प्रभाव को नियंत्रित करने का प्रयास किया जा रहा है।

प्रश्न 4.
सल्फर तथा नाइट्रोजन के ऑक्साइडों की प्रदूषण प्रक्रिया समझाइये। इन पर नियंत्रण किस प्रकार किया जा सकता है?
उत्तर:
नाइट्रोजन के ऑक्साइड:
NO प्राथमिक प्रदूषक है जबकि N₂O तथा NO₂ अन्य ऑक्साइड द्वितीयक प्रदूषक हैं।

स्रोत:

1. आसमान में बिजली चमकने के कारण उत्पन्न अत्यधिक ताप पर N₂ तथा O₂ के संयोग से NO का बनना।
2. ताप विद्युत् केन्द्रों में तथा ऑटोमोबाइल इंजन में अत्यधिक ताप के कारण NO का बनना।
3. विभिन्न उद्योग में NO तथा ऑक्साइड का बनना।
4. प्राकृतिक तथा जैविक क्रियाओं द्वारा NO का बनना।

N₂ + O₂ → 2NO
2NO + O₂ → 2NO₂
2NO + N₂ → 2N₂O

दुष्परिणाम:

1. CO की तरह NO भी हीमोग्लोबिन की क्षमता को घटाता है।
2. सूर्य प्रकाश में NO₂ विघटित होकर परमाणवीय ऑक्सीजन देता है जो खतरनाक स्मॉग तैयार करता है।
3. प्रकाश संश्लेषण की दर को घटाता है।
4. श्वसन संबंधी रोगों को बढ़ाता है।
5. रंजकों की चमक को नष्ट कर देता है।

नियंत्रण:

1. विभिन्न प्रकार के ईंधनों को जलाने के लिये कुछ कम वायु रखी जाये तो NO के निर्माण की साम्यावस्था पीछे जायेगी जिससे NO का उत्पादन कम होगा।
2. नाइट्रोजन के ऑक्साइड अम्लीय होते हैं इसलिये क्षारीय विलयनों द्वारा दूर किया जा सकता है।
3. नाइट्रोजन के ऑक्साइड को उत्प्रेरकों द्वारा N₂ या NH₃ में अपचयन किया जा सकता है।

सल्फर के ऑक्साइड:
SO₂ प्राथमिक प्रदूषक है तथा SO₃ व H₂SO₄ द्वितीयक प्रदूषक हैं।

स्रोत:

1. ज्वालामुखी से निकलने वाली गैसों में SO₂ की पर्याप्त मात्रा होती है।
2. कई जीवाणु में जैविक क्रियाओं के दौरान H₂S गैस मुक्त होती है जो वायु द्वारा ऑक्सीकृत होकर SO₂ देती है।
3. कई धातुओं के अयस्क भी सल्फाइड तथा पाईराइटीज के रूप में पाये जाते हैं। धातुओं के निष्कर्षण में SO₂ गैस निकलती है।
   2ZnS + 3O₂ → 2ZnO + 2SO₂
   2PbS + 3O₂ → 2PbO + 2SO₂
4. जीवाश्म ईंधन जैसे-कोल तथा पेट्रोलियम में भी सल्फर होता है, जो दहन के पश्चात् SO₂ बनाती है।
   S + O₂ → SO₂

नियंत्रण:

1. कारखानों से निकलने वाली SO₂ युक्त गैसों के चूर्ण से उपचारित किया जाता है। जिससे यह CaSO₄, में बदल जाती है।
   CaO + \(\frac{1}{2}\)O₂ + SO₂ → CasO₄
2. बुझा हुआ चूना Ca(OH)₂ (लाइम स्लेटी) के द्वारा SO₂ दूर कर सकते हैं।
   Ca(OH)₂ + SO₂ → CaSO₃ + H₂O
3. NaOH के द्वारा भी SO₂ दूर कर सकते हैं।
   2NaOH + SO₂ → Na₂SO₃ + H₂O

प्रश्न 5.
कुछ समय पूर्व, अंटार्कटिका के ऊपर ध्रुवीय समतापमण्डलीय बादल बने थे। ये क्यों बने थे? जब ये बादल सूर्य की गर्मी से विखंडित होते हैं, तो क्या होता है?
उत्तर:
गर्मी के मौसम में नाइट्रोजन डाइऑक्साइड तथा मेथेन, क्लोरीन मोनोऑक्साइड तथा क्लोरीन परमाणुओं के साथ अभिक्रिया करके क्लोरीन सिंक बनाते हैं, जो ओजोन क्षय को काफी हद तक रोकता हैं।

सर्दी के मौसम में, अंटार्कटिका के ऊपर विशेष प्रकार के बादल, ध्रुवीय समतापमण्डलीय बादल बनते हैं। ये ध्रुवीय समतापीमण्डलीय बादल एक प्रकार के सतह प्रदान करते हैं। जिसमें क्लोरीन नाइट्रेट जलयोजित होकर हाइपोक्लोरस अम्ल बनाता है। यह हाइड्रोजन क्लोराइड के साथ क्रिया करके आण्विक क्लोरीन बनाता है।

बसंत में जब अंटार्कटिका पर सूर्य का प्रकाश लौटता है, तो सूर्य की गर्मी बादलों को विखंडित कर देती है तथा HOCI तथा Cl, सूर्य के प्रकाश द्वारा अपघटित हो जाते हैं।

इस प्रकार उत्पन्न क्लोराइड मूलक ओजोन क्षय के लिए श्रृंखला अभिक्रिया प्रारंभ कर देते हैं।

प्रश्न 6.
पौधों से प्राप्त कम-से-कम सात औषधियों का वर्णन कीजिए।
उत्तर:
1. नीम-वानस्पतिक नाम – Azadirachta indica.
उपयोग:

1. वातावरण को शुद्ध रखता है।
2. नीम की पत्ती कीटाणुनाशक है।
3. नीम का तेल घाव के उपचार में होता है।

2. आँवला-वानस्पतिक नाम – Emblica officinalis.
उपयोग:

1. त्रिफला चूर्ण औषधि के निर्माण में।
2. आँवला के बीज का पाउडर बाल धोने के काम आता है।

3. तुलसी-वानस्पतिक नाम – Ocimum sanctum.
उपयोग:

1. इसे घरों तथा मंदिरों में लगाया जाता है ताकि वातावरण स्वच्छ रहे।
2. इनकी पत्तियों का उपयोग बुखार तथा खाँसी के उपचार में किया जाता है।
3. एन्टीसेप्टिक गुण होता है।

4.महआ-वानस्पतिक नाम – Madhuca indica.
उपयोग:

1. पत्तियों, बीजों तथा फूलों का उपयोग चर्म रोग के उपचार में किया जाता है।
2. इसके फूल से शराब बनायी जाती है।

5. अरण्डी -वानस्पतिक नाम – Ricinus communis.
उपयोग:

1. इसके तेल का उपयोग साबुन बनाने में, मोमबत्ती बनाने में।
2. तेल का उपयोग औषधि में होता है।

6. हर्रा-वानस्पतिक नाम – Terminalia chebula.
उपयोग:

1. चमड़े की रंगाई में होता है।
2. औषधि के निर्माण में।
3. फल के पाउडर का उपयोग दमा के इलाज में उपयोगी है।

7.खस-वानस्पतिक नाम – Veliveraziga nicucles.
उपयोग:

1. तेल का उपयोग सौंदर्य प्रसाधन, इत्र तथा पेय बनाने में।
2. एक कीट प्रतिकर्षी है।
3. इनका उपयोग गठिया, वात, कमरदर्द तथा मोच के उपचार में होता है।
4. यह उत्तेजक तथा प्रशीतक

प्रश्न 7.
आप निम्नलिखित के लिए हरित रसायन का प्रयोग किस प्रकार करेंगे –

1. प्रकाश रासायनिक धूम-कोहरे के नियंत्रण में।
2. कपड़ों की निर्जल धुलाई में हैलोजनीकृत विलायक तथा विरंजन में क्लोरीन के उपयोग से बचाव में।
3. संश्लेषित अपमार्जकों के उपयोग को कम करने में।
4. पेट्रोल तथा डीजल के उपयोग को कम करने में।

उत्तर:

1. कुछ पौधे जैसे-पाइनस, जुनीपेरस, क्वेरकस, पायरस तथा विटिस, नाइट्रोजन ऑक्साइड (NO) का उपापचय कर सकते हैं। अत: इनके रोपण द्वारा प्रकाश रासायनिक धूम-कोहरे को नियंत्रित किया जा सकता है।
2. कपड़ों की निर्जल धुलाई में हैलोजनीकृत विलायक के स्थान पर उचित अपमार्जक के साथ द्रवीकृत CO₂ तथा कपड़ों, कागज के विरंजन में Cl₂ के स्थान पर H₂O₂ के प्रयोग के अच्छे परिणाम आते हैं तथा जल का बहुत कम उपयोग होता है।
3. साबुन 100% जैवनिम्नीकृत होते हैं अतः इनका प्रयोग अपमार्जकों के स्थान पर किया जा सकता है। आजकल जैव-निम्नीकृत अपमार्जक भी उपलब्ध हैं। अतः अजैवनिम्नीकृत कठोर अपमार्जक के स्थान पर इनका प्रयोग किया जाना चाहिए।
4. C.N.G. (संपीडित प्राकृतिक गैस) का प्रयोग किया जाना चाहिए क्योंकि यह बहुत कम प्रदूषण करती है। साथ ही, विद्युतीय वाहन के प्रयोग द्वारा भी पेट्रोल तथा डीजल की खपत कम की जा सकती है।

प्रश्न 8.
लंदन (सामान्य) कोहरा व प्रकाश रासायनिक कोहरा में अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर:
लंदन (सामान्य) धूम कोहरा व प्रकाश रासायनिक धूम कोहरा में अंतर –
सामान्य धूम कोहरा

1. इस प्रकार का धूम कोहरा प्रथम बार 1952 में में देखा गया था।
2. यह SO₂ आर्द्रता का H₂SO₄ से क्रिया करने पर बनता है, जो कणिकीय पदार्थ के रूप में जमा होता है।
3. यह धुआँ और कोहरे से बनता है।
4. वह सुबह के समय सर्दी के मौसम में बनता है।
5. यह फेफड़ों में रोग उत्पन्न करता है।
6. यह अपचायक गुणधर्म दर्शाता है।

प्रकाश रासायनिक धूम कोहरा

1. यह धूम कोहरा प्रथम बार लॉस ऐंजिलीस में 19501 लंदन में देखा गया था।
2. यह प्रकाश रासायनिक क्रिया से जो NO₂ व हाइड्रोकार्बन के बीच संपन्न होती है।
3. यह धुआँ या कोहरा नहीं रखता है।
4. यह गर्मीयों के दिन के मध्यांतर में बनता है।
5. इससे आँख में जलन उत्पन्न होती है।
6. यह ऑक्सीकारक गुणधर्म दर्शाता है।

प्रश्न 9.
(a) मृदा प्रदूषण के प्रमुख स्रोत क्या हैं?
(b) पर्यावरण प्रदूषण को कैसे नियंत्रित किया जा सकता है?
उत्तर:
(a) मृदा प्रदूषण के प्रमुख कारण निम्न हैं –

1. औद्योगिक अवशेष
2. कीटनाशी, पीड़कनाशी तथा शाकनाशी
3. उर्वरक, D.D.T.., B.H.C., NaClO₃, Na₃AsO₃, आदि,
4. रेडियोधर्मी पदार्थ।

(b) पर्यावरणीय प्रदूषकों में घर में उत्पन्न कूड़ा-करकट, औद्योगिक अवशेष आदि हैं। जिन्हें निम्न विधियों द्वारा नियंत्रित किया जा सकता है –

1. पुनः चक्रण करके, प्रयोग किया गया काँच, प्लास्टिक, लोहा, पॉलीथीन, कागज का पुनः चक्रण किया जावे।
2. दहन से।
3. सीवेज व्यवस्था से।
4. अपशिष्टों का उचित प्रबंधन करके।
5. हरित रसायन का प्रयोग करके।
6. जन-जागृति द्वारा।
7. पेड़-पौधों को अधिक मात्रा में लगाकर।
8. नियंत्रक यंत्रों तथा युक्तियों को अपनाकर।
9. प्रदूषक निकालने वाले यंत्रों को उच्च उन्नतांश तक लगाकर (ऊँची चिमनी के प्रयोग द्वारा)।

MP Board Class 11th Chemistry Solutions

MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 5 Dissolution of a Partnership Firm

Dissolution of a Partnership Firm Important Questions

Dissolution of a Partnership Firm Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Profit on Realization is credited to Partner’s:
(a) Bank AJc
(b) Capital A/c
(c) Revaluation A/c
(d) Realization A/c.
Answer:
(b) Capital A/c

Question 2.
Assets and liabilities accounts are closed by transferring them into:
(a) Revaluation A/c
(b) Realization A/c
(c) Cash A/c
(d) Capital A/c.
Answer:

Question 3.
Compulsory dissolution of a firm:
(a) On the death of a partner
(b) On insolvency of a partner.
(c) On becoming insane of a partner
(d) When the business of the firm become illegal.
Answer:
(b) On insolvency of a partner.

Question 4.
Assets are transferred to Realization account on their :
(a) Book value
(b) Cost price
(c) Market price
(d) Establishment cost.
Answer:
(d) Establishment cost.

Question 5.
On payment of Liabilities, amount written :
(a) Book value
(b) Originally paid amount
(c) After deducting discount
(d) Any other price.
Answer:
(a) Book value

Question 6.
After transferring creditors and Bills payable to Realization account, if nothing is mentioned about its payment then these liabilities are:
(a) Not paid
(b) Fully paid
(c) Partially paid
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Fully paid

Question 7.
When a partner pay the dissolution expenses on behalf of the firm, then these expenses will be debited in :
(a) Realization A/c
(b) Partner’s Capital A/c
(c) Partner’s loan A/c
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Realization A/c

Question 8.
When unrecorded assets is taken over by a partner, it is shown in :
(a) Debit side of Realization A/c
(b) Debit side of Bank A/c
(c) Credit side of Realization A/c
(d) Credit side of Bank A/c.
Answer:
(c) Credit side of Realization A/c

Question 9.
When unrecorded liabilities are paid, it is shown in :
(a) Debit side of Realization A/c
(b) Debit side of Bank A/c
(c) Credit side of Realization A/c
(d) Credit side of Bank A/c.
Answer:
(a) Debit side of Realization A/c

Question 10.
Which of the following is an internal liability .
(a) Bank loan
(b) Bank overdraft
(c) General Reserve
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) General Reserve

Question 11.
On dissolution of firm all assets and liabilities are transferred to :
(a) Capital A/c
(b) Revaluation A/c
(c) Realization A/c
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Realization A/c

Question 12.
The asset which is not transferred in realization A/c but it is sold :
(a) Stock
(b) Goodwill
(c) Investment
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(d) None of these.

Question 13.
Realization A/c is prepared :
(a) On admission of new partner
(b) On retirement of partner
(c) On dissolution of firm
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) On dissolution of firm

Question 14.
Dissolution of a firm, partner’s loan account is transferred to: (MP 2009 Set A)
(a) Realization account
(b) Partner’s capital account
(c) Partner’s current account
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(d) None of these.

Question 15.
Insolvency of a partner leads to which type of dissolution :
(a) Dissolution of agreement
(b) Compulsory dissolution
(c) Dissolution by incidence
(d) Dissolution by court.
Answer:
(b) Compulsory dissolution

Question 16.
Realization A/c is: (MP 2015,16)
(a) Real A/c
(b) Personal A/c
(c) Nominal A/c
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Nominal A/c

Question 17.
At the time of dissolution of a firm Bank Overdraft is transferred to: (MP 2014)
(a) Cash A/c
(b) Realization A/c
(c) Capital A/c
(d) Revaluation A/c.
Answer:
(b) Realization A/c

Question 18.
Undistributed losses and reserves are transferred to: (MP 2017)
(a) Cash account
(b) Bank account
(c) Capital account of partners
(d) Profit & loss A/c.
Answer:
(c) Capital account of partners

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. On the dissolution of firm the court appoint an ………………
2. All the assets except ……………. are transferred to debit side of Realization account.
3. Payment of liabilities is entered in …………….. side of cash account.
4. The realized amount of assets is entered in ………….. account.
5. All the Assets (except cash in hand and Bank) are transferred to ………….. side of …………. Account.
6. All ……………… (External / Internal) liabilities are transferred to …………… side of …………… Account.
7. Reserve loss / Undistributed losses are transferred to ……………… in their …………… ratio.
8. When a partner took over any liability of the firm, his capital account is ………………
9. Partner’s loan account is …………… in Realization Account.
10. When a partner took over any assets of the firm, his capital account will be …………..
11. Balance of Partner’s current account is transferred to partner’s …………… account.
12. When all the partners of firm become insolvent except one then there is …………… dissolution of firm.
13. Amount due to deceased partner is transferred to …………… account.
14. By dissolution of partnership there is not compulsory dissolution of ……………..
15. On dissolution of firm first of all ……………. liabilities are paid. (MP 2010)
16. On dissolution of firm cash in hand is transferred to ………….. account.
17. Realization account is a kind of …………….. account. (MP 2011)
18. After dissolution of the firm, partner can transact their own ……………. (MP 2017)

Answer:

1. Solicitor
2. Cash & Bank balance
3. Credit
4. Realization
5. Credit, Realization
6. External, Debit, Realization
7. Capital A/c, Profit Sharing ratio
8. Debited
9. Credited
10. Not recorded
11. Capital
12. Compulsory
13. legal executors
14. firm
15. outsiders
16. cash
17. real
18. business.

Match the columns:

Answer:

1. (d) Goodwill
2. (c) Loan from partner (MP 2010,17)
3. (b) Bank loan
4. (a) Unrecorded asset
5. (e) Preferred (MP 2010)
6. (f) Dissolution
7. (h) At the time of dissolution. (MP 20I5)
8. (g) Realization A/c Dr. (MP 2016)

Question 4.
Write true or false:

1. Unrecorded assets are transferred to realization A/c.
2. In a firm the dissolution of partnership among all partners is called dissolution of firm.
3. Provision for bad debts is not transferred to realization A/c.
4. Profit and loss of Realization A/c is divided among partners in profit and loss sharing ratio.
5. Revaluation account is opened for closing the books of a firm under dissolution. (MP 2009 Set A)
6. Balance sheet is prepared at the time of firm’s dissolution. (MP 2010,15)
7. Partners loan is an internal liability. (MP 2010)
8. The balance of realization account is transferred among partners in capital ratio.
9. There are five methods of dissolution of firm. (MP 2011)
10. The business is closed in case of dissolution of a firm. (MP 2012)
11. Realization account is made many times in the life of a firm. (MP 2012)
12. There is no difference between the dissolution of firm and dissolution of partner-ship. (MP 2016)
13. On dissolution, payment made to creditors is debited to realization account. (MP 2017)

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. False
4. True
5. False
6. False
7. True
8. False
9. True
10. True
11. False
12. False
13. True.

Question 5.
Write the answer in one word / sentence:

1. Realization account is prepared. (MP 2008,17)
2. Assets and liabilities are transferred at book value. (MP 2012)
3. The balance of current account is transferred.
4. When liabilities of the partner are more than his assets, then he is called as ?
5. The act which is applicable on dissolution of a firm.
6. When all the partners or all the partners except one is declared insolvent then which type of dissolution it is ?
7. At which value the assets of a dissolved firm are transferred to realization A/c.
8. On the expiry of time the dissolution of partnership is called ? (MP 2016)
9. On dissolution of firm, assets bought by partners is entered in Capital A/c in which side ?
10. Profit or loss on Realization is divided among partners in which ratio ?
11. Which assets are not transferred to Realization account ?
12. Assets are transferred to Realization account in which value ?
13. After the expiry of term, partnership that comes to an end is known ?

Answer:

1. On dissolution of firm
2. In realization account
3. In capital account
4. Insolvent
5. Indian partnership act 1932
6. Compulsory dissolution
7. Book value
8. Dissolution by co-incidence
9. Debit side
10. Profit sharing
11. Cash & Bank balance
12. Book value
13. Partnership at will.

Dissolution of a Partnership Firm Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by dissolution of a partnership ?
Answer:
Dissolution of partnership firm means closing down the business of the firm. There is distinction between dissolution of partnership and dissolution of firm. Dissolution of partnership involves a change in the relation of partners, but the business is carried on. Section 39 of Indian Partnership Act, 1932 provides that, “The dissolution of partnership among all the partners of a firm is called the dissolution of the firm.”

Question 2.
What do you mean by realization account ?
Answer:
When the firm is dissolved, it is essential to close the accounts of various assets and liabilities. In this circumstance the assets are sold off and cash is realized. This cash is used for paying the liabilities. This process is entered in a separate account, which is known as realization account. It is a temporary account.

Question 3.
Write the names of those accounts entered in assets side of balance sheet which are not transferred to realization account.
Answer:
The following accounts are not transferred to realization account:

• Cash Account
• Bank Account
• Prepaid Expenses Account
• Accrued Income A/c
• Debit Balance of Profit and Loss Account.

Question 4.
Write the names of those accounts entered in the liability side of balance sheet which are not transferred to realization account.
Answer:
The following accounts are not transferred to realization account:

• Undivided Profit
• General Reserve
• Capital Account
• Partners Loan Account.

Question 5.
What journal entries are passed on sale of unrecorded Asset ?
Answer:
Cash A/c                – Dr.
To Realization A/c

Question 6.
Which accounts are opened when a firm is dissolved ?
Answer:
The following accounts are opened when a firm is dissolved:

• Realization Account
• Partner’s Loan Account
• Partner’s Capital Account
• Cash Account or Bank Account.

Question 7.
In which condition partnership act will be dissolved ?
Answer:
According to Indian partnership Act section 43. When partnership act will be there then the firm can be dissolve by giving information to all the partners.

Question 8.
What do you mean by Compulsory dissolution of a firm ? Explain.
Answer:
Compulsory Dissolution: As per Indian partnership Act the compulsory dissolution of a firm takes place under the following conditions:

• When all the partners or all the partners except one partners are declared insolvent.
• When the business of the firm is declared illegal due to happening of any specific event.
• When the maximum number of members exceeds the stipulated Limit.
• When the citizen of an enemy nation is the partner of the firm.

Question 9.
Under what circumstances a court may order for the dissolution of a firm ? Explain.
Answer:
Court may order the dissolution of a firm if a partner files a suit for the purpose. The grounds on which such dissolution may be ordered are as under :

• When a partner became insane.
• When any of the firm’s partner becomes handicapped or permanently disabled.
• When any of the firm’s partner willfully breaches the agreement.
• When there is possibility of losses regularly in the firm’s business.
• On any other reason for which the court is satisfied that it is necessary to dissolve the firm.

Question 10.
Write the internal Liabilities which are not paid in cash by the firm during dissolution.
Answer:
Following are the internal Liabilities of any firm which are not paid in cash during firm’s dissolution.
Partner’s Capital A/c
Partner’s Loan A/c
Loan A/c of partner’s wife.

Question 11.
Which assets are not transferred in the debit side of Realization account but the amount received on their sale are entered in it ?
Answer:
Unrecorded assets are not transferred in the debit side of the Realization ac-count but the amount received on their sale are entered in it.

Question 12.
How do the left over or unrecorded assets and liabilities were recorded in realization A/c ? Explain .
Answer:
Unrecorded Assets and Liabilities are not transferred to realization account. But the amount received from the sale of unrecorded assets is entered in the credit side and payment made for unrecorded liabilities are entered in the debit side of realization account.

Question 13.
Which assets shown in the assets side of the balance sheet were not transferred to the realization account ?
Answer:
Cash in hand
Bank A/c
Dr. Balance of P/L A/c.

Question 14.
Which Liabilities shown in the liabilities side of the balance sheet were not transferred to the realization A/c ?
Answer:
Following liabilities were not transferred to the realization A/c :

• Undistributed profits
• General Reserve
• Partner’s Capital A/c
• Partner’s Loan A/c.

Question 15.
What is Memorandum balance Sheet ?
Answer:
Sometimes the partner’s capital accounts and all other liabilities were given in the question but the amount of total assets is not given. Under such condition, the amount of total assets is ascertained. Total of all the Liabilities is done on the basis of old balance sheet and from it, the amount of total sundry assets is calculated. Such a balance sheet is known as Memorandum Balance sheet.

Dissolution of a Partnership Firm Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write three differences between the dissolution of a firm and dissolution of part-pep?
Answer:
Differences between dissolution of a firm and dissolution of partners:

Question 2.
State the rules given under Section 48 of Partnership Act of 1932 to close the accounts when a firm is dissolved.
Or
How are accounts settled on dissolution of a firm ?
Answer:
The following rules are given under Section 48 of the Partnership Act of 1932 to close the accounts when a firm is dissolved:
(1) All the loss including the capital deficiency of the partners is adjusted at first from the profit, then from their capital balance and if need arise they have to bring in sufficient amount in their profit or loss sharing ratio.

(2) The realized amount from the sale of assets (including the amount brought by the partner) is used in the following order:

• The outside liabilities of the firm
• Proportionate payment of partner’s loan
• Payment of capital balance
• If any amount is left, it is shared by the partners in their profit or loss-sharing ratio.

Dissolution of a Partnership Firm Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What accounts are opened on the dissolution of a firm ? Explain the realization account.
Answer:
When a partnership is dissolved, the following accounts are opened:

• Realization Account
• Partner’s Capital Account
• Bank/Cash Account
• Loan Account.

Realization account:
When a partnership is dissolved for closing all the assets and liabilities account and for entering the amount realized from the sale of assets and payments of all the liabilities, an account is opened, which is known as realization account. Preparation of realization account:

In the debit side of realization account, all the assets excluding cash and bank balance are entered. In the credit side of this account all the liabilities excluding the partners capital balance, partners loan towards the firm and the reserves are entered.

After that the amount received from the sale of assets credited and the payment of liabilities is debited in this account. After the dissolution, the balance of this account is transferred to all the partners capital account in their profit or loss sharing ratio.

Question 2.
Differentiate between revaluation account and realization account.
Answer:
Differences between revaluation account and realization account:

Question 3.
which circumstances a partnership firm may be dissolved ?
Or
Explain the methods of dissolution of a firm.
Answer:
Section 40 to 44 of the Indian Partnership Act of 1932 tells that, on the following circumstances a partnership firm may be dissolved:

1. Dissolution by agreement:
A firm may be dissolved with the consent of all the partners or according to the terms of the agreement among the partners.

2. Compulsory dissolution:
Under section 41 of the Indian partnership act 1932, by the adjudication of all the partners but one as insolvent, or by the business of the firm becomes unlawful or illegal due to the happening of any such incident or event, the firm may be compulsory dissolved.

3. Dissolution by court: If any of the circumstances lays down, the court may under to dissolve the firm:

• When a partner becomes unsound mind
• When a partner suffers from permanent incapacity and incapable for performing his duties as a partner
• When a partner is found guilty out of misconduct affecting the firm
• On the will full and persistent breach of partnership agreement by a partner
• On the transfer of the whole or the interest by a partner in favor of a third party or when his share is attached
• under a decrease or sold under process of law.
• When the business of the firm can’t be carried on.
• On any other just and equitable ground.

4. Dissolution on the happening of contingencies: A firm may be dissolved in any of the following ways unless there is a contract between the partners to the contrary:

• By expiry of the term fixed
• By the completion of the adventure that which the firm is constituted
• By the death of a partner
• By the adjudication of a partner as insolvent.

MP Board Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions

MP Board Class 12th Business Studies Important Questions Chapter 4 Planning

Planning Important Questions

Planning Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
Out of the following which one is the objective of planning :
(a) Forecast
(b) Thrift
(c) Fixed objective implementation
(d) all of the above.
Answer:
(d) all of the above.

Question 2.
“Planning is a cage to hold the future”. Who said this :
(a) Hart
(b) Henri Fayol
(c) Urwick
(d) Allen
Answer:
(d) Allen

Question 3.
The last step of planning is :
(a) Setting objectives
(b) Forecast
(c) Selection of best option
(d) Follow up action.
Answer:
(d) Follow up action.

Question 4.
Which function ascertains fixation of future tasks of management:
(a) Planning
(b) Organizing
(c) Control
(d) Direction
Answer:
(a) Planning

Question 5.
Objectives should be :
(a) Ideal
(b) Complex
(c) Practical
(d) Single use
Answer:
(c) Practical

Question 6.
From the following which is not related to plan :
(a) Budget
(b) Motivation
(c) Programme
(d) Procedure.
Answer:
(b) Motivation

Question 7.
“Take all my wealth, industry just leave my organization, I will rebuild my business”.Who said this :
(a) Henri Fayol
(b) F.W. Taylor
(c) Henri Ford
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Henri Ford

Question 2.
Write the answer in one word/sentence :

1. What is required for achievement of objectives ?
2. Which type of process is planning ?
3. What is the base of managerial activity ?
4. What is important in removing future uncertainly ?
5. What type of process is planning ?
6. What is the base for formulation of policies ?
7. To do or not to do activities is affected by which factor ?
8. Is planning a process to see backward ?
9. What is called the financial plan for five or more than five years ?
10. At the time of planning management needs to assume certain things what are they called ?
11.  Among management functions, one function is considered as a function with no dependency on any other. Name it.
12. To analyze competition policies which plan is used ?
13. What is the name of the plan which specifies about the tasks of the employee ?
14. At what level the management has to do the planning ?
15. Planning has intense connection with which function ?

Answer:

1. Effective planning
2. Intellectual process
3. Planning
4. Planning
5. Continuous process
6. Objectives
7. Rules
8. No
9. Long term financial planning
10. Hypotheses
11. Planning
12. View composition
13. Policy
14. At all levels
15. Control.

Question 3.
Write true or false :

1. Planning is a physical process.
2. Planning is a mental process.
3. Planning is the primary function of management.
4. Planning is the process of looking forward.
5. Planning is wastage of time.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. True
5. False

Question 4.
Fill in the blanks :

1. ……….. is such method which completes the work.
2. Planning is ……………. oriented process.
3. ………….. is the primary function of management.
4. Without objectives cannot be achieved.
5. Budget is a plan of expected for future.

Answer:

1. Process
2. Aim
3. Planning
4. Target
5. Expenditure.

Question 5.
Match the columns :

Answers:

1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (b)
4. (f)
5. (a)
6. (c)

Planning Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give any two definitions of planning.
Answer:
According to Billy E. Goels: “Planning is fundamentally choosing and a planning problem arises only when an alternative course of actions is discovered.”According to George RTerry: “Planning is a method to technique of looking ahead . a constructive reviewing of future needs, so that present actions can be adjusted in view of the established goals”.

Question 2.
Is planning a primary function of management ?
Answer:
Yes, the primary function of management is planning other functions take place after planning. First of all plans are prepared and to attain the objectives other functions helps in achieving it.

Question 3.
What is the relation of planning with control ?
Or
Bring out the relation between planning and control.
Ans. Though planning and control are primary functions, they cannot be thought of a distinct operations exclusive of each others. In fact, planning form the basis of control. Control is backward looking whereas planning is forward looking. Without plans, actions cannot be controlled efficiently. Hence, plans are required for efficient control of activities.

Question 4.
“For effective control planning is essential”. Explain.
Answer:
Management control involves keeping activities on the right path by restricting deviations from the plans. Through planning management establishes standards of performance. this serves as yardstick for appraisal of actual performance. If actual performance is not as per plane corrective action is taken. This is how planning helps in effective control.

Question 5.
What do you mean by planning ?
Answer:
Planning is a predetermined cause of action by which the management fixes its goal and to achieve them selects the best alternative from the available alternatives and prepares a blueprint of what is to be done, by whom, when etc.

Question 6.
What will be the effect on organization if the planning is not done ?
Answer:
In the absence of planning workers will do the work in different directions and organizations will not be successful in achieving the objectives.

Question 7.
Selecting the best course from the alternatives is planning”. Explain.
Answer:
After analyzing and evaluating of the best courses, the next step of planning is to select the best alternative. Best alternative should be selected very carefully because it is on the basis of this alternative, all future activity will be carried on.

Question 8.
“Planning is a cage kept to get future”. Explain.
Answer:
Planning is concerned with deciding in advance, what is to be done in future. Thus, it is a predetermined course of action to achieve a specified aim or goal. In today’s world it is very essential to make proper planning to achieve an aim. An effective plan can go a long way in minimizing dangers and risks associated with future.

Question 9.
Through planning future uncertainty is kept away”. Explain.
Answer:
Without proper planning there remains uncertainty in every future work. To escape from this uncertainty, planning is very necessary. To face all the future conditions planning is almost necessary.

Question 10.
“Planning is helpful in utilizing the resources”. Explain.
Answer:
Planning guarantees the best possible use of limited resources available because an organization estimates its requirements while planning. Planning ensures the optimum use of physical and non-physical resources of an enterprise.

On the basis of figures and tendencies inference can be made about the future. It helps achieving  target easily. Thus, misuse of resources can be stopped by planning.

Question ll.
“Planning is having a lot of importance for any nation”. Explain.
Answer:
For any nation Planning is having a lot of importance. Through planning only the various plans related with development of trade, industry, agriculture, etc. are prepared in order to eradicate the evils of nation like poverty, illiteracy, unemployment, etc. Due to a national planning only the employment opportunities are increasing, literacy level is improving and industries are developing. All these things have been made possible only because of planning.

Question 12.
“Without planning, the attainment of goals is impossible.” Explain.
Answer:
Every enterprise has a definite aim or objective. These definite aims can be achieved in time when all the activities are performed in a perfect manner. When all the activities are done according to plans then objectives can be achieved easily.

Question 13.
Budget is a type of planning. How ?
Answer:
Budget is an important part of planning without budget, planning is incomplete, preparation of budget itself is a planning process.

Question 14.
Budget is related to both planning and control.
Answer:
When we prepare budget then its relation is with planning and when we use it as an instrument to measure deviations it is related to control.

Question 15.
“Planning is a continuous process.” Explain.
Answer:
Planning occupies the first place in the list of managerial function, it is continuous process and well known and never ending activity. Planning is aimed at
(a) Exploiting business opportunities
(b) Meeting problem and improving organizational function. Continuity of planning is related with planning cycle. It means that a plan is formed, it is implemented and followed by another plan and so on.

Planning Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
“Planning is mental activity” explain.
Answer:
Planning is an intellectual activity requiring application of the mind, imagination and sound judgement. It is a thinking function rather than doing function as it determines the actions to be taken. Moreover planning requires logical and systematic thinking based on the analysis of facts and figures.

Question 2.
What do you mean by derivative plans/standing plans ? Is support plan standing plan ?
Answer:
Derivative plans are the plans which support the main plans to achieve the set goal. Yes, support plans are derivative plans as they provide assistance and support to main plan.

Question 3.
Why is planning futuristic ?
Answer:
Planning is futuristic because it is related to the future and also for casts of future

Question 4.
What remedies are planned to overcome the limitations of planning ?
Answer:
Following remedies are planned to overcome the limitations of planning:

1. Planning should be focused on current and futures problems.
2. Planning must be done by top level management.
3. For the success of planning all the workers must cooperate.
4. Complete information of planning must be formulated to concern people.
5. Planning should always be based on authentic data.
6. Planning must be flexible.

Question 5.
What does 5 W’s stands for in planning ?
Answer:
What, where, when, why, who are the 5 Ws.

Question 6.
How many types of barricade are there ? Explain.
Answer:
Barricades are of two types :
(a) External barricade : It means the barricade used to handle problems from competitors.
(b) Internal Barricade : It means the barricade used to handle problems generated within the organization.

Question 7.
Is budget related to both planning and control ?
Answer:
Whenever a budget is prepared with a plan therefore it is related to planning whenever it is used to as a device to measure the result then it is related to control. Therefore it is said that it is related to both planning and control.

Question 8.
What will be the impact if planning is not made ?
Answer:
Planning is a predefined way to do the task. If there is no plan then the task may get deviated and need to work in various directions. It will lead to failure in achievement of goal.

Question 8.
“Planning is not an assurance to success”. Explain this statement.
Answer:
Business can only be successful when plans are properly prepared and executed. Business environment is not still its keeps changing. Planning cannot stop the organization. These are only the forcasted problems of the organization which are planned and are to be executed in the situation. Even-after a lot of efforts while planning still plans fail. Therefore it is said planning is not an assurance to success.

Question 10.
Explain the following policies :

1. Personal policy
2. Sales policy
3. Pricing policy

Answer:

1. Personal policy: It means that policy which ascertains the promotion policy of employee either on the basis of capability or experience.
2. Sales policy: This policy states regarding the sale of goods in cash or in credit also.
3. Pricing policy : This policy states the fixing of prices of goods after adding the decided amount of the profit.

Question 11.
Explain two limitations which are beyond the control of a human.
Answer:
The limitations are as follows :

1. Natural calamity : Natural calamities are unpredictable and can happen anytime and anywhere and are always beyond the control.
2. Behavior of market: Trend and change in fashion market keeps changing everyday so as the with new and variety of goods which in turn changes the interest of customer.

Question 12.
Is control possible without planning ?
Answer:
Planning is considered as prerequisite of control. It basically aims at the requisites of the real state implementation and measure of level is made. To know the differences, it is essential to have some predefined strategies and planning which when are unavailable leads to collision of tasks. If there were no predefined plans it would never lead to improvement in the working procedure and enlistment of organization. Therefore it is said that control is impossible without planning.

Question 13.
Distinguish between Budget and Programme.
Answer:

Budget

1. Budget usually has a time span of one year.
2. Budget gives more importance to finance.
3. Budget is a timetable to achieve general objectives of the organization.
4. Budget is considered as the basis for a bigger financial planning.

Programme

1. Programme usually have a time span till the desired goal is achieved.
2. Programme lays emphasis on finance and programme procedure.
3. Programme is a sequential or time based timetable for achieving a specific goal.
4. Usually each programme has its own budget.

Question 14.
Distinguish between Standing plan and Single plan.
Answer:
Difference between Standing plan and Single plan :

Question 15.
“Planning is helpful in utilizing the resources” Explain.
Answer:
Planning guarantees the best possible use of limited resources available because an organization estimates its requirements while planning. Planning ensures the optimum use of physical and non-physical resources of an enterprise

Question 16.
Distinguish between Rule and Procedure.
Answer:
Difference between Rule and Procedure :

Question 17.
State Some differences between Objectives and Policies.
Answer:
Differences between Objectives and Policies :

Objectives

1. Objectives are fundamental.
2. Objectives indicate the destination.
3. Objectives decide what is to be done.
4. Objectives determined by top level management.
5. Business gives birth to objectives.

Policies

1. Policies are guidelines.
2. Policies indicate the route for destination.
3. Policies decide now is to be done.
4. Policies determined by middle level or top level management.
5. Objective gives birth to policies.

Question 18.
Write the characteristics of aims or objectives.
Answer:
Following are the characteristics of aims:

1. Fixation of aims is done generally by top level management of organization
2. It explains about the facts in future which the organization wants to achieve
3. It gives directions to many plans of trade
4. Each department of organization has its own objectives
5. Aims may be long-term or short-term.

Question 19.
What is the importance of objectives ?
Answer:
Importance of objectives:

1. It gives directions to the decisions and activities of the organization
2. Good objectives bring managerial efficiency
3. They make coordination easy
4. They help in best use of resources.

Question 20.
Write the characteristics of procedure. .
Answer:
Following are the characteristics of procedure :

1. Procedure refers to operational guidelines.
2. Procedures are laid down by middle and lower management.
3. Procedures are detailed, specific and rigid.
4. Procedures represents systematic manners of handling routine tasks.
5. Procedures are made for internal people to follow them.
6. Procedures have closed relation with policies.
7. It is a systematic method to operate regular incidences.

Question 21.
Write the characteristics of strategy.
Answer:
Strategies are one time used plans because they are changing according to changing in market conditions. It has three dimensions :

1. Fixation of long-term targets
2. To accept specific procedure
3. Distribute resources to achieve target.

Question 22.
Write the importance of strategy.
Answer:

1. Strategy is an extensive plan which is prepared keeping in mind the competitions.
2. With the help of strategy organization can take advantage of environmental opportunity.
3. Organization can face environmental obstacles with the help of strategy.

Question 23.
Write any three methods to control the limitations of planning.
Answer:

1. More attention should be paid to collect reliable facts.
2. Employees participation should be there in planning.
3. While planning environment should be studied deeply.

Question 24.
Describe the characteristics of an ideal planning.
Answer:

1. Definite goals : Planning has certain definite aims and on the basis of these aims, plans are prepared.
2. Forecasting : Forecasting has much importance in planning, forecasting is done on the basis of information and data.
3. Selection of best alternatives : While preparing planning a comparison is made from all the alternatives and then best alternative is selected.
4. Flexibility : Planning always has the quality of flexibility. It means a changes is made according to circumstances.
5. Continuity : Planning is not such a matter to be prepared at once only. Planning work continues.
6. Unity : Unity is the most important characteristics of planing. Atone time only one planning can be effective.

Question 25.
How is planning helpful in decision making ?
Answer:
In planning aims are determined with the help of these objectives the manager evaluate the various alternatives and selects appropriate alternative. On the basis of decision is taken that what to do

Question 26.
Write distinguish between method and budget.
Answer:
Distinguish between method and budget : Method is that type of planning which determines the order of various activities to fulfill any work. It is related to any one activity. To complete any work there may be various methods. Out of many methods one method is selected in which less fatigueness and more production with less cost of production. Methods work as direction for employees.

Budget: It is a statement of various sources of income and expenditure from specific activities. It is an import part of planning.

Question 27.
Distinguish between goals and programme.
Answer:
Goals or objectives: Goals and objectives are the basis of planning objectives are achieved through policies, procedures etc. These are the endpoints of organization.
Programmes: A comprehensive plan to complete or finish a work is called programmes. Programmes are guided by objectives, policies and strategy.

Planning Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the limitations of planning ?
Or
What are the obstacles of planning ?
Answer:
The followings are the limitations of planning :

1. Planning depends upon forecasting : Planning is based upon the anticipated fiscal and industrial policies. Any change in the anticipated situation may render plans ineffective.
2. Hindrance in the development of initiative : Planning strangulates the initiative
   of works and compels management to work with inelastic methods. .
3. Lack of business flexibility : Planning makes business operations inelastic.
4. Planning is an expensive process : Collection, analysis and evaluation of the different information facts and alternatives involve a lot of expense.
5. Incompetent planners: If those entrusted with the task of planning are incompetent,
   the entire phm will prove to b,e defective.

Question 2.
Describe the importance of planning.
Or
Give five advantages of planning.
Answer:
The importance of planning are as follows :

1. Basis of all managerial activity: Planning precedes all managerial activity. Without proper planning, all other functions like coordination, control, motivation, etc. cannot be carried out in an efficient manner. Hence, it is important.

2. Minimizes uncertainty : Planning is done in anticipation of future uncertainties. It enables the organization to forecast the future and prepare itself for the future challenges. An effective plan can go a long way in minimizing dangers and risks associated with the future.

3. To avoid hasty decision : To avoid hasty decision pre planning is essential with the help of planning, the perfect and accurate decision can be taken easily.

4. Best utilization of resources : Planning guarantees the best possible use of limited resources available, because an organization estimates its requirements while planning.

5. Minimization of cost : When estimates are made taking into consideration the future uncertainties, steps are taken to reduce cost at various levels of operation. Hence, waste ages are avoided and costs are kept to the minimum.

6. Encourages initiative and creativity : Sound planning encourages innovative thought and creative action among executives. It improves motivation and moral of
employees.

7. Facilitates effective communication : Planning makes communication effective. When work proceeds as per plans, communication is made easier and routine matters are, very easily tackled. Hence, it makes communication effective.

8. Helps in coordination : Planning helps to secure unity of purpose. Individual activities are pulled together towards a common goal. Hence, it brings about coordination also.

Question 3.
Write short notes on the following :

1. Goals or objectives
2. Policies
3. Budget
4. Strategy
5. Programmes.

Answer:

1. Goals or objectives: Goals or objectives are the basis of planning. Objectives act as nuclecus to the planning process specific objectives have to be laid down which can be achieved with the help of policies, procedures, rules, budgets, stategies etc. Objectives are the end points of an organization.

2. Policies: The policies formulated by any enterprise guides or directs the management and administration (what and who is to be done). The principles which are followed to achieve the objectives are called policies. Policies guides the activities of management.

3. Budget: In simple words budget means the statement of various sources of income and expenditure from specific activities. According to Koontz and O’Donnell. “A budget, as a plan is statement of expected results expressed in numerical terms.”

Budget is an important part of planning without budget planning is incomplete. Preparation of budget itself is a planning process. Through budget the planning of use of financial resources is prepared,

4. Strategy : Strategy is an extensive plan which is prepared keeping in mind the competitions. Due to present cut throat competition and for the success of different types and forms of product in market, it is essential to make strategies. Nowadays every producer tries to bring his product in a unique way, in a new pack into the market and he wants to keep his plan secret by knowing the secrets of his competitor. This is called as strategy formulation.

5. Programmes : A comprehensive plan to complete or finish a work is called as a programme. Programme is also a type of plan. Programmes are guide.d by objective, policies and strategies. Once the objective of a programme is achieved that same programme cannot be used in the same form again.

Question 4.
Step five characteristics of planning.
Answer:
Characteristics/Nature of Planning An analysis of the above definitions reveals the following features of planning :

1. An Intellectual Process : Planning is a mental exercise involving creative thinking and imagination. A manager can prepare sound plans only when he has sound judgement, foresight and vision. Planning requires a mental predisposition to think before acting.

2. A Primary Function : Planning serves as the basis for all other functions of management. It precedes organizing, staffing, directing and controlling. All these functions are ! performed within the framework of plans, Thus, planning is the most primary function.

3. Goal-oriented : The purpose of formulating plan is that it facilitates that achievement enterprise’s goals. Every member of the enterprise must, therefore, positively contribute towards achievement of these goals.

4. A Continuous Process : Planning is an ongoing process. Plans are prepared for a specific time-period e.g., one year. At the end of that period, new plans have to be prepared. Similarly, as conditions change, existing plans have to be revised. Thus, planning is a never ending exercise.

5. Flexible : Plans are formulated on the basis of forecasts. As future is uncertain, planning must cope with changes in future conditions. When assumptions about the future do not come true, the original plan must be revised in the light of changing conditions.

6. Pervasive : Planning is required in all types of organization at all level of management. Every department prepares plans. However, the scope of planning may differ from one level to another. For example, top management plans for the organization as a whole. Middle management prepares departmental plans. At the lowest level, supervise formulate day to day operational plans.

Question 5.
Write the main objectives of planning,
Answer:
The main objectives of planning are as follows :

1. Setting the objectives : Definite goals and objectives are predetermined and then integrated efforts of human and physical factors are made for accomplishment of those set goals or desired goals.

2. Unity of action : The aim of planning is to create unity among various activities of an organization. Planning builds unity between resources and ability for better coordination.

3. Providing information : Through planning information is provided to the internal and external persons of the enterprise regarding the target and the process to achieve the objectives.

4. Economy in management: Planning leads to economy and efficiency. It involves the selection of most profitable course of action that would lead to the best result at the minimum costs.

5. Forecasting : The summary of planning is forecasting. On the basis of forecasting, present planning can be made.

6. Direction and operation : The object of planning is not only coordination between physical and human resources, but directing the collective efforts of the human force towards the goals.

7. Achievement of targets : The final or ultimate object of planning is to achieve the goals or targets which it has set.

8. Identifying dangers : Under planning, future plans are made and assumptions of result are made. Possibilities and dangers of an organization are dealt.

9. Healthy competition : Through planning one can create an atmosphere of healthy competition.

10. Total coordination : Planning helps in creating coordination among objectives, methods, rule/programmes etc.

Question 6.
What is the difference between Policy and Rule.
Answer:
Differences between Policy and Rule :

Question 7.
Distinguish between Policies and Procedures.
Answer:
Difference between Policies and Procedures :

Policies

1. Policies are made by the top level authority.
2. They are made in a simple form.
3. They are directions for the ideas.
4. Policies play important role.

Procedures

1. Procedures are the implementation of policies.
2. They are fixed by lower level of management.
3. They are made in a specific form.
4. They direct to take action.

Question 8.
Write the criteria of effective planning or principles of planning.
Answer:
Knootz O’ Donell has given importance to basic criteria of effective planning.

1. Principle of justification : Under this principle, whatever planning is done should be judge mental.

2. Principle of contribution to objectives : To achieve aims and goals of an organization is the aim of planning. If any planning fails in achieving the objectives in positive manner, then the results of such planning are not good.

3. Principle of assumption : Every work is based on assumptions, which are kept in mind and then work is carried on. Therefore, a goods planning should assume betted things before commencing work, this helps in coordination of work.

4. Principle of efficiency : According to this principle, at minimum cost, better and maximum quantity of goods should be produced. Thus, planned efficiency should be put in the work for desired goals.

5. Principle of pervasiveness: Planning is a work which is present everywhere, which is needed in every part of management. Therefore, planning should be according to the need of every department.

6. Principle of flexibility: Planning should be flexible, so that if any unexpected loss occurs, factors affecting the cause can be changed.

7. Principle of time .: Time plays an important role planning therefore while planning element of time should be kept in mind to attain desired goals.

8. Principle of changeability : Work should be regularly checked by the manager keeping in mind the changing situations of market and if necessary or need, changes in planning should be done.

9. Principle of policy decision : To give effective shape to the planning of an organization, strong policy and good programmes should be designed so that desired objectives of an organization can be achieved.

10. Principle of alternative route : To commence any work there are various alternative solutions. During planning all the alternative should be studied and such alternative should be choosen which helps the organization in achieving its goals.

11. Principle of competitive campaign : If there are other competitors in the market along with business organization then the organization while planning should keep in mind the techniques and planning or method of work adopted by competitors and such type pf plan should be framed which proves to be more strong and better than competitors.

12. Principle of evaluation : Manager should at regular invervals evaluate their plans so that under certain required situations they could be changed or corrected.

13. Principle of cooperation : For the success of planning, it is very essential that a cooperation is maintained between different levels of officers and workers.

14. Principle of communication: An effective communication is the need of planning. Through better Communication only workers can be informed on time about policies, corrections, work etc.

15. Principle of continuity : Planning is a continuous process therefore planning department should always be alert and attentive.

Question 9.
Discuss the steps of planning.
Answer:
The followings are the steps of planning :

1. Establishment of objectives: Objectives serve as a basis for planning. They act as a nucleus to planning process and they are the end-points of an organization. So, objectives have to be established.

2. Deciding planning premises : It involves forecasting and the possible areas, where planning is required. It provides a logical basis for planning.

3. Fixing limitations: Limitations refer to those factors which restrict the freedom of planning for management. Possible limitations could be a change in technology, industrial unrest, availability of material, etc.

4. Determination of alternate courses : For every plan, there are number of alternatives. Hence, all these alternatives have to be identified.

5. Evaluation and selection of alternatives : After weighing each alternative, on the basis of cost, speed, quality, the best alternative has to be selected.

6. Formulate derivative plans : The next step is to formulate secondary or derived plans. Derived plans help in execution of main plans. These derivatives or derived plans are also called as departmental plans.

7. Follow-up : As a last step, continuous appraisal of plans should be made, so that further could be made, if required.

Question 10.
Explain the elements of planning.
Answer:
Followings are the elements of planing :

1. Goals or objectives : Goals or Objectives are the basis of planning. Objectives act as nuclecus to the planning process specific objectives have to be laid down which can be achieved with the help of policies, procedures, rules, budgets, stategies etc. Objectives are the end points of an organization.

2. Policies: The policies formulated by any enterprise guides or directs the management and administration (what and who is to be done). The principles which are followed to achieve the objectives are called policies. Policies guides the activities of management.

3. Budget: In simple words budget means the statement of various sources of income and expenditure from specific activities. According to Koontz and O’Donnell. “A budget as a plan is statement of expected results expressed in numerical terms.”Budget is an important part of planning without budget planning is incomplete. Preparation of budget itself is a planning process. Through budget the planning of use of financial resources is prepared.

4. Strategy : Strategy is an extensive plan which is prepared keeping in mind the competitions. Due to present cut throat competition and for the success of different types and forms of product in market it is essential to make strategies. Nowadays every producer tries to bring his product in a unique way, in a new pack into the market and he wants to keep his plan secret by knowing the secrets of his competitor. This is called as strategy formulation.

5. Programmes : A comprehensive plan to complete or finish a work is called as a programme. Programme is also a type of plan. Programmes are guided by objective, policies and strategies. Once the objective of a programme is achieved that same programme cannot be used in the same form again.

MP Board Class 12 Business Studies Important Questions

MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Admission of a Partner

Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Admission of a Partner Important Questions

Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Admission of a Partner Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The type of asset, goodwill is:
(a) Tangible
(b) Intangible fixed
(c) Current
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Intangible fixed

Question 2.
Revaluation account is opened when:
(a) On admission of new partner
(b) On dissolution of a firm
(c) On amalgamation of a firm
(d) On sale of a partnership firm.
Answer:
(a) On admission of new partner

Question 3.
The equation of sacrificing ratio is: (MP 2014)
(a) Old ratio – New ratio
(b) New ratio – Old ratio
(c) Old ratio + New ratio
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Old ratio – New ratio

Question 4.
Goodwill account is written off in:
(a) Partner’s old ratio
(b) New ratio
(c) New share of new partner
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) New ratio

Question 5.
Increase in value of assets is written in which side of revaluation account:
(a) Debit side
(b) Credit side
(c) Debit and credit side
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Credit side

Question 6.
In which ratio the profit on revaluation is distributed: (MP 2009 Set B, 13,15)
(a) New profit and loss ratio
(b) Old profit and loss ratio
(c) Sacrificing ratio
(d) Gaining ratio.
Answer:
(b) Old profit and loss ratio

Question 7.
The sacrificing ratio of the partner and gaining ratio of the partner is :
(a) More
(b) Equal
(c) Less
(d) Sacrificing ratio is less and gaining ratio is more.
Answer:
(b) Equal

Question 8.
Goodwill is entered into A/c :
(a) When no amount is being given for that
(b) When payment has been given or any asset is been given for that
(c) When it is mentioned
(d) When calculation of goodwill is not mentioned.
Answer:
(c) When it is mentioned

Question 9.
‘A’ and ‘B’ are partners who share profit & loss in the ratio 3:1. They admit C’ for\(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\)^th share in profit. New profit sharing ratio will be:

(a) (A) \(\frac { 9 }{ 16 }\) (B) \(\frac { 3 }{ 16 }\) (C) \(\frac { 4 }{ 16 }\)
(b) (A) \(\frac { 8 }{ 16 }\) (B) \(\frac { 4 }{ 16 }\) (C) \(\frac { 4 }{ 16 }\)
(c) (A) \(\frac { 10 }{ 16 }\)(B) \(\frac { 2 }{ 16 }\) (C) \(\frac { 4 }{ 16 }\)
(d) (A) \(\frac { 8 }{ 16 }\) (B) \(\frac { 9 }{ 16 }\) (C)  \(\frac { 10 }{ 16 }\)
Answer:
(a) (A) \(\frac { 9 }{ 16 }\) (B)\(\frac { 3 }{ 16 }\) (C)\(\frac { 4 }{ 16 }\)

Question 10.
‘A’ and ‘B’ are partners sharing profit in the ratio 3 : 1. They admit ‘C’ into partnership for \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\)^th Sacrificing ratio of ‘A’ and ‘B’ is:
(a) Equal
(b) 3 : 1
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 3 : 2.
Answer:
(b) 3 : 1

Question 11.
On admission of a partner, the General Reserve shown in the balance sheet of the old firm will be transferred to :
(a) All partner’s Capital A/c
(b) New partner’s Capital A/c
(c) Old partner’s Capital A/c
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Old partner’s Capital A/c

Question 12.
‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ are partner’s in a firm. ‘D’ is admitted as a new partner in the firm:
(a) Dissolution of old firm
(b) Dissolution of firm and partnership
(c) Reconstitution of partnership
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Reconstitution of partnership

Question 13.
On the admission of a new partner, the undistributed profits shown in the balance sheet of old firm will be transferred to capital accounts:
(a) In old capital ratio among old partners
(b) In old profit sharing ratio among old partners
(c) In new profit sharing ratio among all partners
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) In old profit sharing ratio among old partners

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. Increase in value of assets due to revaluation is recorded in ……………. side of revaluation account.
2. Profit on revaluation is transferred in credit side of ………….. account.Undistributed profit given in liabilities side
3. of balance sheet is …………… in partners capital account.
4. When changed figures of assets and liabilities are not to be shown in books than …………… account is opened. (MP 2013)
5. Amount of the goodwill bought by the new partner is credited to old partners capital account in …………… ratio.
6. On goodwill …………. is not calculated.
7. Reduction in reserve for bad and doubtful debts will be to revaluationaccount.
8. Decrease in liability is …………… for a firm. (MP 2012,15,17)
9. ………….. is not charged on goodwill. (MP 2012,15)
10. The right over the amount of goodwill rests with ………….. partners. (MP 2013)
11. Revaluation account is a …………. account. (MP 2014,16)
12. Super profit is that profit which is earned ……………. than normal profit. (MP 2016)
13. ……………. of a partnership is a change in relationship among the partnership. (MP 2017)

Answer:

1. Credit
2. Capital account
3. Credited
4. Memorandum revaluation account
5. Sacrificing
6. Depreciation
7. Credited
8. Profit
9. Depreciation
10. Old partners
11. Nominal
12. Excess
13. Reconstitution

Question 3.
Match the columns:

Answer:

1. (c) In credit side of revaluation account
2. (b) In debit side of revaluation account
3. (e) Credit side of capital account
4. (d) Debit side of capital account
5. (f) Shown in liability side of balance sheet
6. (a) Cat goodwill.
7. (i) Partnership deed.
8. (g) Average profit
9. (h) Reputation

Question 4.
Write true or false:

1. Goodwill is an intangible assets, which should be written off soon.
2. New partner is not entitled to share firm’s future profits.
3. No new partner can be hold responsible for the losses incurred in the firm before his admission.
4. If goodwill account is opened, it is shown in balance sheet.
5. The entry of unrecorded assets is done in debit side of revaluation account.
6. Goodwill is a salable asset. (MP 2009 Set B, 15)
7. Super profit = Normal profit – Actual profit. (MP 2009 Set A)
8. At the time of new partner’s admission, if the value of any asset decreases, it will be debited to revaluation account. (MP 2010)
9. Monopoly decreases the goodwill. (MP 2010)
10. On paying the goodwill premium by new partners, it is transferred to old partners capital A/c in their Sacrificing ratio. (MP 2014)
11. A, B, C are partners in 3 : 2 : 1 respectively B retires. The new ratio of A and C will be 3 :2.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. True
5. False
6. True
7. False
8. True
9. False
10. True
11. False.

Question 5.
Write the answer in one word/sentence:

1. The ratio in which existing partners decide to give up their shares in favor of a new partner is called.
2. What type of asset is goodwill ? (MP 2017)
3. Which type of goodwill fetches the highest value.
4. Increase and decrease in assets and liabilities of a firm are transferred to an account called as. (MP 2010)
5. Which type of goodwill fetches the lowest value ?
6. In case of change in profit – sharing ratio of existing partners where is profit on revaluation of assets and liabilities transferred ?
7. Good will =
   In which method this formula is used for good will valuation ? (MP 2015)
8. A.S.-10 is related to. (MP 2015)
9. When liabilities of the partner are more than his assets, then it is called as (MP 2013)
10. Purchase Consideration – Net Assets = ? (MP 2013)
11. What is normal profit ? (MP 2014)
12. What is the base of valuation of goodwill. (MP 2016)

Answer:

1. Sacrificing ratio
2. Intangible
3. Cat goodwill
4. Revaluation account
5. Rat goodwill
6. Capital account of partners
7. Capitalization of goodwill
8. Goodwill and fixed asset
9. Insolvent
10. Goodwill
11. Super profit – actual profit
12. Profit.

Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Admission of a Partner Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write three reasons to give admission to a new partner.
Answer:
Due to the following reasons a partner may be admitted:

1. To raise capital: When the firm needs more capital, a new partner is admitted to fullfill their need.

2. Need of a skill full partner: If the firm needs an able, skillful and intellectual person for the development and efficient running of the business, the firm can admit a new partner to full fill their need.

3. On death of a partner: On death or retirement of a partner there gets a blank in the firm and in order to fill the space a new partner is admitted in the firm. This helps the firm to receive additional capital from the incoming partner and his experience.

Question 2.
What are the rights of new partner in a firm ?
Answer:
Rights of new partner:

• Right to share in the future profits of the firm.
• Right to share in the assets of the firm.

Question 3.
Define goodwill.
Answer:
According to Lord Macnaughton, “Goodwill is a thing which is easy to describe, but difficult to define. It is the benefit and advantage of good name, reputation in connection of a business. It is the one thing which distinguishes an old established business from a new business as it first starts. Goodwill is composed of variety of elements. It differs in its composition in different trades and in different business in the same trade.”

Question 4.
What do you mean by local goodwill ?
Answer:
When the goodwill always remains with the place of the place is called cat goodwill. The nature of the cat is that, it always lives at its place. The owners of the business may change, but goodwill doesn’t change its place like cat. Therefore, its nature is compared to the nature of the cat.

Question 5.
Write the methods of valuation of goodwill.
Answer:
Following are the important methods :

• Average Profit Method
• Super profit Method
• Capitalization Method
• Annuity Method.

Question 6.
Write entry for writing off the goodwill account when a partner is admitted.
Answer:
The following entry is passed when the goodwill account is written-off in the event of admission of a partner.
All the Partners Capital A/c – Dr.
To Goodwill Account
(Being goodwill account written off).

Question 7.
What is personal goodwill ?
Answer:
It raises due to the individual qualities and efficiency of particular personnel. Values of such goodwill is usually less. It is also called ‘Dog nature of goodwill’.

Question 8.
What is sacrificing ratio ?
Answer:
Due to admission of a new partner in the firm the old partners share in the firm’s profits is bound to reduce. Hence, sacrificing ratio means the ratio in which the old partners abandon the fraction of their in the profits of business, in favor of new partners.

Question 9.
what is Memorandum revaluation account ?
Answer:
When all the partners (including the new partner) decide that despite revaluation, the value of assets and liabilities are to be shown at their original value, as such a memorandum revaluation account is prepared.

Question 10.
Write names of different methods of calculation of goodwill.
Answer:
Following methods are used to calculate goodwill:

• Average profit method
• Super profit method
• Capitalization method
• Annuity method.

Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Admission of a Partner Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the characteristics of goodwill ?
Answer:
‘Goodwill’ is defined as follows:

• According to J. O. Mage: “The capacity of a business to earn profits in the future is basically what is meant by the term Goodwill”.
• According to Lord Elden: “Goodwill simply means that old customers will resort to the old place”.

The following are the characteristics of goodwill:

• Goodwill is treated as an asset of the business
• Goodwill is an intangible asset. It can’t be seen or be touched. It can only be imagined
• Goodwill helps to make more profits
• Goodwill can be calculated
• The value of goodwill always fluctuates.

Question 2.
‘Goodwill is an intangible asset”. Explain.
Or
“Goodwill is an intangible assets which should be written-off soon from the books. Explain.
Answer:
Every businessman tries to earn its name or reputation and popularity in business field. It is called ‘Goodwill’. Like other assets it is also as an asset. But it can’t be seen or be touched. It has no physical shape. That is why it is known as intangible asset.

This goodwill helps to earn more profit to the businessman. Some experts are having the opinion that goodwill is an intangible asset. According to them, it is having no fixed value. Always it varies, so it should not be shown in balance sheet. It should show up to the distribution of it and after that it should be written off.

Question 3.
‘Write those conditions when valuation of goodwill is essential in partner-ship’v(Any five)
Answer:
In the following cases valuation of goodwill is essential in a partnership :

• When a new partner is admitted in a firm
• When a partner is retiring or on the event of death of a partner
• When two partnership firms are amalgamating
• When the partnership is changing into a company
• When the partners desire to change their profit and loss sharing ratio.

Question 4.
(i) What do you mean by revaluation account ?
(ii) Why it is prepared ? How it is prepared ?
Answer:

(i) When a new partner is admitted in a partnership firm it is necessary to re-value the various assets and liabilities. For entering this effect an account is opened. This account is known as revaluation account or profit and loss appropriation account.

(ii) The revaluation account is opened for the following purposes :

• Increase or decrease in the value of assets and liabilities and its social effect.
• When a new partner is admitted, the revaluation account balance should be adjusted to the old partner’s capital account and on retirement it should be transferred to capital accounts of all the partners.

Preparation of revaluation account:
When the cost of assets and liabilities are revalued it is entered in revaluation account. In this account, losses are debited and gaining of profits are credited. The balance of this account will later be transferred to the old partner’s capital account in their ratio.

Question 5.
In what conditions, revaluation account is prepared ?
Answer:
On following conditions, revaluation account is opened in the firm:

• When a new partner is admitted in the firm.
• When an old partner retires from the firm.
• When an old partner had died

Question 6.
Explain the method of valuation of goodwill on average profit basis with example.
Answer:
Valuation of goodwill on ‘Average Profit Method’:
Under this method, good-will is valued on the basis of average profit of the last few years. It is found out by totaling the profit of last few years and then divide it with number of years, later the resulting amount should be multiplied with the number of purchase price. The resulting figure should be the amount of goodwill.

Example:
He mant Traders made the following profits and losses during the last 5 years :
1988: Rs. 15,000
1989 : Rs. 13,000
1990 : loss Rs. 8,000
1991 : Rs. 10,000
1992 : Rs. 15,000.
Calculate the amount of goodwill at 2 years purchase price of the average profit of last 5 years.
Solution:
Goodwill is calculated as under:

= \(\frac { (15,000 + 13,000 + 10,000 + 15,000) – 8,000 }{ 5 }\)
= \(\frac { 53,000 – 8,000 }{5 }\) \(\frac { 45,000}{ 5 }\) = Rs. 9,000
Goodwill = 9,000 x 2 = Rs.18,000

Reconstitution of Partnership Firm: Admission of a Partner Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the causes of creation of ‘Goodwill’.
Answer:
The following are the causes of creation of ‘Goodwill’.
1. Situation of a market: Business should be started in such a place where the buyers can easily come and buy the goods. It will increase the sales and profits of the business.

2. Good business dealings: If the businessmen are keeping good relation with the customers, it will automatically increase the reputation and sales.

3. Good quality of goods at reasonable price: If the businessmen sell their goods of good quality at reasonable price, more customers will be attracted and the sales will normally be increased.

4. Give maximum convenience to the customers: The customers like to go to that shops where there are credit facilities and also there should be arrangement for home delivery of goods.

5. Influence of advertisement: Due to continuous advertisement there should be chances of increasing the sales. e.g., Nirma Powder.

Question 2.
Explain the methods of valuation of goodwill.
Or
What are the different methods of valuation of goodwill ? Explain calculation of goodwill as per average profit method.
Answer:
Valuation of goodwill is a difficult task. Generally, its valuation is done in the following ways :

1. Average profit method:
Under this method, the average profit of last years is found out at first. Then this average is multiplied with the number of years (purchase price). The resulting figure should be the amount of goodwill.

2. Super profit method:
Under this method, super profit is found out at first. Then
this figure is multiplied with the number of years (purchase price). The resulting amount should be the goodwill.

3. Capitalization method:
Under this method, it is assumed that the capital in-vested in the business brings profit. If the invested capital brings super profit or extra profit, it is treated as the goodwill of the firm.

4. Annuity method:
Under this method, it calculates that how many years the firm will earn super profit. Then this super profit (extra profit) is multiplied with annual interest (rate).
i.e., Goodwill = Super profit x Annual rate.

Question 3.
What is hidden goodwill ? How it is calculated ?
Answer:
hidden goodwill:
If is the value of goodwill that is not mentioned at the time of admission of a new partner. If in the question, it is mentioned that the new partner requires to bring his/her share of goodwill, then in between the capitalized value of the firm’s goodwill need to be calculated. It is calculated by taking the difference between the capitalized value of the firm and the net worth of the firm.

1. Calculation of total capital of the new firm:
First of all, on the basis of the new partners’ share of capital, the total capital of the firm is calculated. For example, if the new partner brings Rs. 10,000 as capital for 1/4 share, then the total capital will be Rs. 10,000 x 4 = Rs. 40,000.

2. Calculation of Actual capital (Sum of old and new partners):
Total capital of the old partners + capital brought by new partner is the actual capital of the, firm. Suppose the old partners’ capital is Rs. 25,000 and the new partner bring^s. 10,000 as capital. Then the actual capital of the firm will be Rs. 35,000 (Rs. 25,000 + Rs. 10, 000).

3. Determination of hidden Goodwill:
Excess of the total capital of the new firm over the actual capital i.e., sum of old and new partners’ capital is assumed to be hidden goodwill. Suppose the total capital of the new firm is Rs. 40,000 and the sum of old partners and new partners’ capital is Rs. 35, 000, then the difference Rs. 5,000 (Rs. 40,000 – Rs. 35, 000) will be the hidden goodwill.

MP Board Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions

MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 2 Partnership Accounts: Basic Concepts

Partnership Accounts: Basic Concepts Important Questions

Partnership Accounts: Basic Concepts Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Maximum number of members in a partnership firm performing banking business is:(MP 2010)
(a) 20
(b) 15
(c) 10
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) 10

Question 2.
In the absence of partnership deed interest on loan will be: (MP 2011,15)
(a) 10% p.a.
(b) 6%
(c) 6% p.a.
(d) 10%.
Answer:
(b) 6%

Question 3.
In the absence of partnership deed profit is divided in:
(a) Capital ratio
(b) Equally
(c) Liability ratio
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Equally

Question 4.
Liabilities of partners is:
(a) Limited
(b) Unlimited
(c) Limited up to capital
(d) None of above.
Answer:
(b) Unlimited

Question 5.
Partnership deed means:
(a) Rules of purchase and sale in business
(b) Rules and conditions of partnership business
(c) Rules of dissolution of partnership
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Rules and conditions of partnership business

Question 6.
The balance of current account of the partner will always have:
(a) Debit balance
(b) Credit balance
(c) Either of the two
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Either of the two

Question 7.
Preparation of Partnership deed is: (MP 2009 Set B, 13)(MP 2014)
(a) Compulsory
(b) Voluntary
(c) Partly compulsory
(d) Not necessary.
Answer:
(b) Voluntary

Question 8.
When the new partner brings premium (goodwill) in cash, it is transferred to: (MP 2009 Set B)
(a) New partner’s capital A/c
(b) Premium A/c
(c) New partner’s current A/c
(d) Bank A/c
Answer:
(b) Premium A/c

Question 9.
Interest on drawings is:
(a) Firm’s loss
(b) Partner’s income
(c) Firm’s income
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Firm’s income

Question 10.
On the admission of partnership the profit on revaluation A/c should be en¬ter: (MP2016)
(a) In the capital account of all partners
(b) In the capital account of new partners
(c) In the old partners capital account
(d) In profit sharing account.
Answer:
(c) In the old partners capital account

Question 11.
On dissolution of firm, the balance of partner’s Loan A/c is transferred to:
(a) Realization A/c
(b) Partner’s Capital A/c
(c) Partner’s current A/c
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(d) None of these.

Question 12.
Profit on revaluation is distributed in:
(a) Sacrificing ratio
(b) Equally
(c) Gaining ratio
(d) Old profit sharing ratio.
Answer:
(d) Old profit sharing ratio.

Question 13.
Profit on revaluation is transferred to:
(a) All partner’s Capital A/c
(b) New partner’s Capital A/c
(c) Old partner’s Capital A/c
(d) Profit & Loss A/c.
Answer:
(c) Old partner’s Capital A/c

Question 14.
New Ratio – Old Ratio:
(a) Sacrificing ratio
(b) Equal ratio
(c) Gaining ratio
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Gaining ratio

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. Partnership is the outcome of ………….. between partners.
2. Indian Partnership Act is of ……………. (MP 2013)
3. In fixed capital method ………….. account is also made.(MP 2013)
4. By Product method interest on …………… is calculated. (MP 2010)
5. In ………….. account method partner’s capital is always fixed. (MP 2009 Set A)
6. In partnership the liability of the partners is ………….
7. Preparation of partnership deed is ……………… (MP 2011)
8. Gaining ratio = New ratio …………… (MP 2011)
9. The liability of the partners in a firm is ……………
10. The registration of partnership is …………… (MP 2016)

Answer:

1. Agreement
2. 1932
3. Current account
4. Drawings
5. Fixed capital
6. Unlimited
7. Not compulsory
8. Old ratio
9. Unlimited
10. Compulsory.

Question 3.
Match the columns:

Answer:

1. (b) 10
2. (c) 6%
3. (a) 20
4. (e) 1932
5. (d) 1956
6. (f) Loan from partner
7. (g) Current account.).

Question 4.
Write true or false:

1. Partnership is an agreement between partners to share profit.
2. Partnership, a partner can transfer his interest in favor of any other partner without the consent of all other partners.
3. In absence of partnership deed neither interest is paid on capital nor charged, interest on drawing.
4. The liability of each partner in partnership is limited. (MP 2013)
5. In case of insolvency of a partner the deficiency of his capital is borne by all other partners.
6. Current account is opened in fluctuating capital method. (MP 2009 Set B)
7. To make partnership deed is compulsory. (MP 2012)
8. New Ratio – Old Ratio = Profit Receipt Ratio. (MP 2016)
9. Registration of partnership is not compulsory.
10. If the deed is silent on interest, then interest on partner’s loan will be paid @ 12% p.a.
11. Without any written agreement among the partners, a legal partnership can be formed.
12. Maximum numbers of members in a banking firm may be 20.’
13. If the deed is silent on interest, then interest on partner’s drawings will be charged @ 6% p.a.
14. Every partner in the firm beside taking active part in the firm also work as an agent of the other partners.
15. Disputes among the partners will not be solved as per the provisions of the partnership deed.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. True
6. True
7. False
8. True
9. True
10. False
11. True
12. True
13. False
14. True
15. False.

Question 5.
Write the answer in one word/sentence:

1. Name the agreement which sets out the terms and conditions for running the partnership business among partners ?
2. In which account the balance of profit and loss account is transferred in partnership business ?
3. What is maximum number of members in partnership ?
4. Whether registration of partnership is compulsory or optional ?(MP 2014)
5. The persons who have entered into a partnership with one another are collectively called.(MP 2009 B, 16)
6. In which system the current account is prepared ?(MP 2009 D)
7. The capital withdrawn by partners for personal use is termed by which name ? (MP 2015)

Answer:

1. Partnership deed
2. Profit and loss appropriation account
3. 20 or 10 (Banking business)
4. Optional
5. Partners
6. Fixed capital system
7. Drawings.

Partnership Accounts: Basic Concepts Short Answer type Questions

Question 1.
What is partnership deed ?
Answer:
A partnership deed is a document containing the important terms of partnership as agreed between the partners. A partnership deed may be written or verbal.

Question 2.
What are the rules applicable in the absence of partnership deed ?
Answer:
As per the Indian Partnership Act 1932, the rules applicable in the absence of partnership deed are:

1. Interest on capital: Interest on capital is not allowed to any partner.
2. Profit/loss distribution: Profit/loss of the firm will be distributed equally among all the partners.
3. Remuneration: No partner is entitled to get any remuneration like salary, bonus, commission etc.
4. Interest on partner’s loan: If any partner has given loan to the firm then interest on such loan will be paid @ 6 % p.a.
5. Interest on drawings: No interest will be charged on the drawings of the partners.

Question 3.
What is partnership deed ? Define it.
Answer:
Partnership deed is an agreement among the partners on the basis of which the firm is formed. The terms and conditions for carrying on partnership are recorded here. The object of preparing this agreement is to conduct the business smoothly. It may be oral or written. “Partnership deep or Partnership agreement” is that document which defines and describe the rules and condition for conducting business of the firm.

Question 4.
Why is it desirable to have a written partnership deed ?
Answer:
For the smooth conduct of the business and to have a healthy relation among the partners. The partnership deed is considered as a base. It is not compulsory to have a written deed. An oral deed is also considered as valid. But for avoiding any conflict among the partners in future, a written partnership deed is considered more relevant.

Question 5.
Why profit and loss adjustment account is prepared ? Explain.
Answer:
Is sole trade, the balance of profit and loss account is transferred to the personal account of the sole trader. But is partnership profit and loss adjustment account is prepared to ascertain the net profit or loss. All the factors effecting the profit and loss of the partners like interest on capital, salary, commission, interest on drawings, drawings of goods etc. are entered and the net profit or loss is ascertained. This profit and loss is distributed among the partners in agreed ratio or equally as mentioned in the deed.

Question 6.
Write any two circumstances when the fixed capital of partners get change.
Answer:
Following are the two conditions when there is change in the fixed capital of partners:

• When additional capital is introduced by the partners.
• When drawings are made by the partners.

Question 7.
Explain four characteristics of partnership.
Answer:
Four characteristics of partnership:
1. Two or more person:
For making partnership, the number of persons must not less than two. In the event of death or retirement, if the number of partners become less than two, the firm automatically get dissolved. But the maximum number of members not to exceed more than 20.

2. Agreement between partners:
According to Indian Partnership Act 1932 the partnership must be formed on the basis of an agreement. The agreement among the partners may be oral or written.

3. Legal business:
The existence of a legal business is necessary for the formation of a partnership firm.

4. Unlimited liability:
With reference to the repayment of the firm’s external debts, the liability of each partner of the firm is unlimited.

Question 8.
If a fixed amount is withdrawn on the first day of every quarterly. What period will be considered for calculating the interest on drawings ?
Answer:
If a fixed amount is withdrawn on the first day of every quarterly, then the period for calculating the interest on drawings will be taken as 7\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) months. If the drawings is made in the middle of the quarterly, then the period will be of 6 months. And if the drawings are made on the last day of every quarterly, the period will be of 4\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) months for calculating interest on drawings.

Partnership Accounts: Basic Concepts Long Answer Type Questions

Question I.
Discuss the various methods used for calculating interest on drawings. Ans. Interest on drawings in calculated on the basis of following methods.

1. Product method:
In this method number of months are calculated from the date of drawings up to the date of closing accounts and it is multiplied with the amount of drawings. The following formula interest is calculated.

2. Average due date method:
To calculate interest in this method, first of all the amount of drawings are added together. Each amount of drawings is multiplied with number of drawings months and the product is obtained. After that average month is calculated and interest is calculated from the following formula

3. Simple method:
In this method, at first interest is calculated separately on each drawings for their drawing periods. Afterwords amount of interest so obtained are added together to find out the total interest chargeable on drawings.

Question 2.
Differentiate between fixed capital and fluctuating capital method.
(MP 2000 Set C; 01 R Set C; 02 R Set A, B, C; 03 R Set B; 06 Set C; 08 Set B; 09 Set B; 2010 Model paper 12, IS, 17)
Answer:
Differences between fixed and fluctuating capital accounts:

MP Board Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions

MP Board Class 11th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 18 Preparation of Accounts from Incomplete Records

Preparation of Accounts from Incomplete Records Important Questions

Preparation of Accounts from Incomplete Records Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
A system of accounting which is not based on double entry system is called –
(a) Cash system
(b) Mahajani system of accounting
(c) Incomplete accounting system
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Incomplete accounting system

Question 2.
Accounts which are maintained under single entry system –
(a) Personal accounts
(b) Impersonal accounts
(c) (a) & (b) both
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Personal accounts

Question 3.
Statement of affairs is prepared to –
(a) Know about assets
(b) Know about liabilities
(c) Calculate capital
(d) Know financial position.
Answer:
(c) Calculate capital

Question 4.
Liabilities and assets amount to Rs. 50,000 and Rs. 78,000 respectively. The difference amount will represent –
(a) Creditors
(b) Debentures
(c) Profit
(d) Capital.
Answer:
(d) Capital.

Question 5.
Generally incomplete records are maintained by –
(a) Trader
(b) Society
(c) Company
(d) Government.
Answer:
(a) Trader

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks :

1. Single entry system can be adopted by ………………
2. ……………. Accounts are maintained under single entry system.
3. Single entry system is not a …………….. system of maintaining accounts.
4. While calculating profit. Drawings will be added to …………….

Answer:

1. Sole trader or partnership firm
2. Personal
3. Scientific
4. Closing capital

Question 3.
State True or False:

1. Profit can be determined by preparing statement of affairs in single entry system.
2. Single entry system cannot be converted into double entry system.
3. Excess of assets over liabilities is called capital.
4. Closing capital is deducted from opening capital to calculate profit in single entry system.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. False.

Question 4.
Answer in one word / sentence:

1. Which account is prepared to know the credit purchase?
2. What is found out by preparation of opening statement of affairs?
3. Which amount will be credited on accepting new bills?
4. Which account is debited on dishonouring of a bill?

Answer:

1. Creditors account
2. Opening capital
3. Bills payable
4. Debtor’s A/c.

Question 5.
Match the following:

Answer:

1. (b)
2. (a)

Preparation of Accounts from Incomplete Records Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
“Single entry system is an unscientific and.incomplete system of accounting”. Justify the statement.
Or
Mention the various limitations of single entry system.
Or
What are the disadvantages of single entry system?
Answer:
Limitations of Incomplete Records:

1. No record of impersonal Accounts”
Under single entry system, weightage is given only to personal Accounts while Impersonal Accounts are ignored i.e., Real and Nominal Accounts are not recorded in Books of Accounts.

2. Preparation of Trial Balance is not possible:
As only one aspect of the transaction is recorded, Arithmetical accuracy cannot be checked by preparing Trial Balance.

3. Possibility of Fraud and Defalcation:
There exists a lack of control over this system which increases the possibility of fraud, Defalcation, deception, Misappropriation etc.

4. No possibility of Comparison:
Single Entry System fails to disclose the Actual Financial position of the business due to non-recording of both aspects of the transactions. This restricts a trader to ampare the financial position of business of current year to that of previous year or years. Thus a trader is not in a position to conclude whether his business is progressing or regressing.

5. No knowledge of Financial position:
Due to Incomplete records, Balance Sheet cannot be prepared and hence financial position of the business cannot be determined.

6. Difficulty in Rectification of Errors:
It becomes difficult for a person to detect the Errors in this system due to lack of complete records. Thus rectification of Errors also becomes troublesome.

7. Valuation of Assets not possible:
As we know that Real and Nominal Accounts are ignored under this system, valuation of Assets is not possible. It greater problem at the time of disposing Assets and Assessment of Goodwill at the time of selling business.

8. Difficulty in Assessment of Tax:
The Income tax Department and sales tax department do not admit or recognize the accounts kept under Single Entry System for assessment of tax. It is so because it creates difficulty in determining the true profit of business and assessing tax thereon.

Question 2.
State some merits of Single Entry System.
Answer:
Single Entry System has the following merits:

1. Economical:
Less amount is spent on maintaining the requisite books i.e., cash – book and ledger book. Hence it is Economical and suitable for those businessmen whose number of business transactions are few or the size of the business is small.

2. Suitable for certain transactions:
It is suitable for these businessmen who deal in cash transactions and maintain personal accounts of their customers.

3. Suitable for sole trader:
As it is not Mandatory for sole traders to get registered, they are not legally bound to maintain Accounts under Double Entry system. Thus they opt for Single Entry System as it is easy, simple and economical.

4. Simple method:
This method is simple and easy to understand. No special training is required to maintain accounts under this system.

5. Flexibility:
Being more practical, this system helps a businessman to get rid of rigid rules of Double Entry System. It can be changed or altered according to the need.

6. Tax Evasion:
Single entry system is an Incomplete system of Book-keeping which provides sufficient scape to a businessman to incomplete Accounts and save tax. Hence, sometimes it is purposely adopted by businessmen.

Question 3.
Give a specimen of Total Debtors Account.
Answer:
Total Debtors Account:

Question 4.
What is meant by single entry?
Answer:
In this system all the business transactions are not kept or not recorded in two sides of accounts. In this system transaction are recorded only one side or only are A/c. Hence recording of transaction is incomplete so this system is called incomplete system of accounting. In this, system only cash A/c and some personal account are kept. Nominal and real accounts are ignored so this system is hardly used.

Question 5.
Write some characteristics of single entry system.
Answer:
some characteristics of single entry system are as follows :

1. Suitable for sole traders – The system is suitable for only single ownership business or sole tradership only.
2. Related to personal accounts only – In this system only accounts related to personal A/c are opened real and nominal A/c are ignored.
3. Mixed cash – book – In this system personal transactions are recorded in single cash book. Hence it can be said that in this system Mixed cash – book is maintained.
4. Lack of uniformity – In this system all the activities are not like double entry system. In this system some accounts are opened and some are ignored. So we can say in this system Lack of uniformity.
5. Profit only a Gues – The profit calculate under this system is based on estimation and not an a actual Financial transaction. So we can say profit is only a gues in this system.

Preparation of Accounts from Incomplete Records Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Mention the difference between Double Entry System and Single Entry System.
Answer:
The various differences between Double Entry System and Single Entry System are mentioned ahead:
Answer:

Question 2.
Differentiate between Statement of Affairs and Balance Sheet.
Answer:
Difference between Statement of Affairs and Balance sheet:

Question 3.
Explain the method of converting Single Entry System into Double Entry System.
Answer:
Conversion to Double Entry System Method: True Financial position and Actual profit or loss of the business cannot be determined from the Accounts kept under Single Entry System. Hence, in order to make them complete and more reliable, it is required to convert it into Double Entry System.

The system of conversion of single entry into Double Entry depends on the data available as the former includes lot of Incomplete information. Hence there is no fixed or certain method but generally the following procedure is adopted:

1. Opening statement of Affairs : First of all, opening statement of Affairs is prepared from the initial balances so as to determine the initial capital.

2. Preparation of cash – book : After, preparing opening statement of Affairs, cashbook is prepared. Accounts of all the items appearing in the Dr. and Cr. side of cash – book is opened and posting is done as per the rule.

(a) Items of Dr. side:

• Cash received from Debtors (cash/cheque).
• Cash sales
• Income from investment
• Receipts from sale of Assets etc.

(b) Items of Cr. side:

• Payment to Creditors
• Payment of wages, salaries and other expenses
• Purchase of Assets.
• Drawings by the proprietor etc.

The purpose of preparing cash – book is to ascertain the opening or closing balance of cash and bank of opening balance of cash and bank balance is mentioned in the question then closing balances can be ascertained by preparing cash – book. Similarly, if the closing balances are given, opening balances can be found out by preparing cash – book.

3. Preparation of subsidiary book:
After preparing cash – book, subsidiary books are prepared and the sum total of these books are transferred to the relevant accounts in the ledger book. Apart from this, posting must also be done in the personal Accounts appearing in the various subsidiary books. Accounts are prepared under it as ahead.

(A) Total Debtors A/c:
By preparing total Debtors A/c, generally the amount of ‘Credit sales’ or ‘Closing Debtors’ is found out. Similarly, if both the mentioned, items are given then ‘Opening Debtors” or ‘Cash received from Debtor’ can be known by preparing Total Debtors A/c sometimes it happens that any one item from the above mentioned four items is missing which can be easily ascertained by preparing Total Debtors A/c.

(B) Total Creditors A/c:
By preparing total Creditors A/c, Amount of credit purchases or closing ‘Creditors’ is ascertained. If these amounts are already given then the amount of ‘Opening creditors’ or ‘Amount paid to Creditors’ can be found out. In case any three items are given, fourth can be determined, Easily from the balancing figure by preparing Total Creditors A/c.

MP Board Class 11 Accountancy Important Questions

MP Board Class 11th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 17 Accounting in Non-trading Organizations

Accounting in Non-trading Organizations Important Questions

Accounting in Non-trading Organizations Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Such persons who earn remuneration against their services are called –
(a) Seller
(b) Purchaser
(c) Professional
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Professional

Question 2.
Which of the following is not an item of income of Non – trading concern –
(a) Entrance fees
(b) Interest
(c) Govt. Aid
(d) Salary.
Answer:
(d) Salary.

Question 3.
Receipt and payment account is a summary of –
(a) Income & Expenditure account
(b) Profit & Loss A/c
(c) Cash – book
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Cash – book

Question 4.
Which of the following is recorded in income & expenditure account –
(a) Revenue items
(b) Capital items
(c) Revenue and capital items
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Revenue items

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. The main object of non – trading concerns is ……………….
2. The debit side of income & expenditure A/c is called ………………. side.
3. Non – trading concerns maintain their books according to ………………. system.
4. ……………… account is prepared with the help of cash-book.
5. Only …………… item are shown in income & expenditure A/c.
6. …………….. represents the excess of assets over liabilities.

Answer:

1. Social service
2. Expenditure
3. Cash
4. Receipts & payment A/c
5. Revenue
6. Capital.

Question 3.
Match the following:

Answer:

1. (a)
2. (b)
3.(d)
4. (c)
5.(e).

Question 4.
Answer in one word / sentence:

1. Which statement/Account reveals the financial position of the non – trading concerns?
2. “The receipts and payments account is nothing as more than the summary of the cash book” who said this?
3. When a donor provides a continuous source of income to the concerns by endowment of property or money, such a donation is called.
4. What is the nature of interest on investments?
5. The major source of non – trading concern is.

Answer:

1. Balance sheet
2. Pickles
3. Endowment fund
4. Revenue
5. Subscription.

Question 5.
State True or False:

1. Doctor employed with government is an example of non – trading professional.
2. Professional people maintain their accounts according to cash system.
3. Income & expenditure account reveals cash balance.
4. Capital items are written in Receipts & payments account.
5. No adjustment is made in Receipt & payment A/c.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. False
4. True
5. True.

Accounting in Non-trading Organizations Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the characteristics of receipts and payments Account?
Answer:
Characteristics of receipts and payments Accounts are:

1. In this account all receipts and.payments are recorded related to different years.
2. All items of capital and revenue nature are recorded in it.
3. Only cash receipts and payments.are recorded in it.
4. In this account, enter first of all the opening balance of cash and calculates the closing balance at the end.
5. No adjustments are done in this account.
6.  It is a real account.

Question 2.
Write some characteristics of income and expenditure account.
Answer:

1. It is Nominal Account.
2. Only revenue receipts and payments are entered in it.
3. It is prepared with the help of receipts and payments account.
4. Opeing and closing cash balance is excluded from this account.
5. All sorts of adjustments takes place in this account pertaining to income & expenses.
6. Items of current year only are recorded in this account.
7. The balance of this account reveals surplus or deficit.

Question 3.
“Receipts and payments account is a summary of cash – book.” Explain.
Answer:
Receipts and payments account does not show the economic status of non – trading concern because:

1. In this account all the receipts are entered whether it is related to the past, current or coming year.
2. No distinction is made for capital or revenue nature.
3. From this account, it is not possible to find out details about the last year’s assets, liabilities and capital fund of the firm.

As per above given points we can say that receipts and payments accounts does not show the financial position of any concern. It is a summary of cash – book.

Question 4.
Explain the following:

1. Capital fund
2. Endowment fund
3. Life membership fees
4. Subscription
5. Legacy
6. Entrance fees.

Answer:

1. Capitaml fund:
For calculating capital fund, an opening balance sheet is prepared with the help of last year’s assets and liabilities. The total of liabilities side is deducted from the total of assets side and the difference thus gained is called capital fund.
Capital fund = Total assets – Total liabilities on opening date.

2. Endowment fund:
When endowment of a property or amount is made by a member or a non – member to the non-trading concern for specific purposes, it is called as an endowment fund. By endowment of property or money, the donor provides a continuous source of income to the concerns.

3. Life membership fee:
Some members may like to pay their membership fee in a lump sum single instalment for whole of the life. This lump sum payments on account of membership fee is called Life Membership Fee. The members who pay such lump sum fee are not required to pay annual fee for whole of the life. Such receipts is shown in the liability side of the balance sheet in a special fund and a proper portion equal to the normal annual subscription is transferred to the income and expenditure account every year till the fund amount is fully exhausted.

In some non – trading concerns the entire life membership fee is transferred to the capital fund in the year of its receipts. In the absence of any specific instructions whole of such fees be capitalized.

4. Subscription:
It is the main source of regular income of the non – trading concerns. The members pay subscription amount, monthly or annually to keep their membership continued. This item is shown in the income side of the account as a revenue receipts.

5. Legacies:
Legacies are the gifts received by the non – trading concerns as per the will of deceased members or non – members through their legal heirs. This is not a regular source of income.

6. Entrance fee:
At the time of giving membership, the non – trading concerns charge a specific amount as an entrance fee from the new members. This receipts is a non-recurring receipts since it is charged only once, i.e., at the time of admission of a member. Hence, entrance fee is shown in the balance sheet by increasing the capital fund.

However, in some non – trading concerns the entrance fee is regarded as revenue receipts and taken in the income side on the plea that such receipts is recurring in nature since new members are enrolled by every year. In the absence of any specific instructions the students may follow either practice by appending a note to this effect in their solution.

Question 5.
What is meant by “Non-trading concern”?
Answer:
There are many institutions in India whose object is not to earn profit but to render service to the society. For example libraries, literary clubs, School, Colleges, Medical and Engineering institutions recreation Clubs and Cultural Forum etc. The aim of these institutions is not to earn profit, hence these institutions are called non-trading concern.

Question 6.
What do you mean by receipts and payments A/c?
Answer:
The non – trading institutions and professionals prepare an account to know the financial position and cash balance of specific period. The receipts are recorded in its debit side and payments are recorded in credit side of this account. This account is known as receipt and payment A/c.

Question 7.
Describe any two books are kept in under cash system.
Answer:
The books which are kept under cash system are as follows:

1. Cash – book : All the non – trading concern kept their cash transaction is chronological order.
2. Income and Expenditure A/c : At the end of current financial year for knowing their financial position they are this book which called Income and Expenditure A/c.

Question 8.
What is specific donation fund?
Answer:
Donations:
There are two types of donation:

1. General donation.
2. Specific donation.

The general donations are not received for any specific purpose. Such donations are received as recurring income and are shown in the income side of the account. Certain donations may be received for some specific purposes such as for the construction of building, award of prizes, etc. Specific donations are treated as capital receipts and hence shown in the liability side of the balance sheet till the specific purpose of donation is served. Thus, in any case such donations should not be treated as income.

Question 9.
What do you mean by Income and Expenditure A/c?
Answer:
For calculating the actual profit & loss for current financial accounting year, it is calculated by excess of income over expenditure or excess of expenditure over income. So the non – trading concern are prepared income & expenditure A/c in place of profit & loss A/c because they are not involve in selling and purchasing of goods.

Question 10.
What do you mean by professional person?
Answer:
In our society there are some people or group of some people are not involve in any kind of sale or purchase of goods but they are providing services to society like Doctor, Teacher, Lawyer. They are called professional person.

Question 11.
Write some income and expenditure heads of non – trading concerns.
Answer:

1. Income heads – Entrance fees, subscription, Donation, life membership fees, Interest, rent and entertainment.
2. Expenditure heads – Wages and Salary, Rent & Tax, Electricity exp. Depreciation, Repairs, Renewals and Printing and Tax etc.

Question 12.
What do you mean by opening balance sheet?
Answer:
As we all know the aims of non – trading concern is to provide services to the society so they do not have any capital. They collect the savings of every year. So we can say the information of assets and liabilities in the beginning is called opening balance sheet.

Question 13.
Receipt and payment is not the indication of actual financial position. Explain.
Answer:
These are following reason for that:

1. In this accounts all the receipt and payment are recorded wether they are related for current year or not.
2. When we are recording transaction we do not think about capital and revenue items.
3. It is only a summary of cash – book so we can say it is unable to show actual financial position.

Question 14.
Explain some limitation of receipt and payment A/c.
Answer:
Limitation of receipt and payment A/c are as follows:

1. It will not record in current year income and expenditure.
2. It is ignored outstanding and prepaid expenditure and income.
3. It does not shows surplus or deficit.
4. On receipt and payment nobody can able to make balance sheet.

Accounting in Non-trading Organizations Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Differentiate between Receipts and payment A/c and income and expenditure A/c.
Answer:
Difference between receipts and payments and income and expenditure A/c:

Question 2.
Differentiate the receipts and payments account and cash account.
Answer:
The difference between receipts and payments account and cash account are as follows:

Question 3.
Differentiate between income and expenditure A/c and profit and loss account
Answer:
Difference between income and expenditure account and profit and loss account:

Question 4.
What are the rules of preparing income and expenditure account from receipt and payment account?
Or
What precautions should be taken while preparing income and expenditure account? (Five points)
Answer:
While preparing income and expenditure account the following points should be kept in mind:

1. Opening and closing balance of cash are not to enter into income and expenditure account.
2. Not to enter capital receipts and capital payments in income and expenditure account.
3. Revenue receipts and payments relating to the relevant period is only entered into income and expenditure account whether they are paid or not and received or not.
4. While preparing income and expenditure account adjustments regarding outstanding, prepaid, unearned, accrued, etc. should be adjusted.
5. Depreciation on assets and provisions for bad and doubtful debts should be maintained.

MP Board Class 11 Accountancy Important Questions

MP Board Class 11th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 16 Preparation of Final Accounts of Sole Trade

Preparation of Final Accounts of Sole Trade Important Questions

Preparation of Final Accounts of Sole Trade Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What adjustment are done in trading A/c? Prepare a format of trading A/c and show.
Answer:

Question 2.
Show the format of a Balance Sheet with adjustments.
Answer:
Pro forma of Balance Sheet as on ……………………

MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers

Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers NCERT Intext Exercises

Question 1.
Classify the following as primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols :

Answer:
(i) 1°, (ii) 1°, (iii) 1°, (iv) 2°, (v) 2°, (vi) 3°.

Question 2.
Identify allylic alcohols in the above examples.
Answer:
Allylic alcohols are (ii) and (vi).

Question 3.
Name the following compounds according to IUPAC system :

Answer:
(i) 3-chloromethyl-2-isopropyl pentan-1-ol.
(ii) 2,5-Dimethyl hexane-1,3-diol.
(iii) 3-Bromocyclohexan-l-ol.
(iv) Hex-l-en-3-ol.
(v) 2-Bromo-3 -methyl but-2-en- l-ol.

Question 4.
Show how are the following alcohols prepared by the reaction of a suitable Grignard reagent on methanal ?

Answer:

Question 5.
Write structures of the products of the following reactions:

Answer:

(ii) NaBH₄ is weak reducing agent, it reduces aldehyde/ketones and not the esters.
Thus,

Question 6.
Give structures of the products you would expect when each of the following alcohol reacts with (a) HCl -ZnCl₂, (b) HBr and (c) SOCl₂ : (i) Butan-l-ol , (ii) 2-Methylbutan-2-ol.
Answer:
(a) With ZnCl₂-HCl (Lucas reagent) : Butan-l-ol (1° alcohol) does not react with Lucas reagent at room temperature. However, turbidity appears only after heating but- 2-methyl butan-2-ol (3° alcohol) reacts with Lucas reagent at room temperature immediately gives turbidity

(b) With HBr : Both the alcohols react with HBr to give corresponding alkyl bromides.

(c) With SOCl₂ : Both the alcohols react with SOCl₂ to give corresponding alkyl chlorides.

Question 7.
Predict the major product of acid catalysed dehydration of:
(i) 1-methylcyclohexanol and (ii) butan-l-ol.
Answer:

According to Saytzeff rule, the highly substituted product is the major product.

Question 8.
ortho and para nitrophenols are more acidic than phenol. Draw the resonance structures of the corresponding phenoxide ions.
Answer:
(i) Phenoxide ion:


Resonating structures of p-nitro phenoxide ion. In substituted phenols, the presence of electron withdrawing group (-R effect) such as -NO₂ group, increases the acidic strength of phenol, ortho and para nitrophenoxide ions are more stable (because of additional resonance structures show in boxes) than phenoxide ion due to effective delocalisation of negative charge in phenoxide ion. As a result o-and p- nitrophenols are more acidic than phenols.

Question 9.
Write the equations involved in the following reactions :
(i) Reimer – Tiemann reaction
(ii) Kolbe’s reaction.
Answer:
(i) Reimer-Tiemann reaction : When phenol is treated with chloroform in presence of aqueous sodium hydroxide at 60°C, o-Hydroxy benzaldehyde (Salicylaldehyde) and p-Hydroxy benzaldehyde are formed. The ortho-isomer is the major product. This reaction is called Reimer-Tiemann reaction.

If carbon tetrachloride is used in place of chloroform, salicylic acid is obtained as the main product.

(ii) Kolbe- Schmidt reaction : When sodium salt of a phenol is heated with CO₂ at 130°C. (403K) and 4-7 atm pressure, sodium salicylate is formed. This on acidification gives salicylic acid.

Salicylic acid is the starting material for the manufacture of aspirin which is an important analgesic.

Question 10.
Write the reactions of Williamson synthesis of 2-ethoxy-3-methylpentane starting from ethanol and 3-methylpentan-2-oI.
Answer:
Williamson’s synthesis is reaction of alkyl halide (1°) with sodium alkoxide to give ether by S_N2 mechanism. Thus, alkyl halide should be derivde from ethanol and alkoxide ion from 3-methyl pentan-2-ol. The complete reaction is as follows :

Question 11.
Which of the following is an appropriate set of reactants for the preparation of l-methoxy-4-nitrobenzene and why ?

Answer:
Chemically both sets are equally probable. In set (A) the Br group is activated by the electron withdrawing effect of —NO₂ group. Therefore, nucleophilic attack of CH₃ONa followed by elimination of NaBr gives the desired ether.

In set (B) nucleophilic attack of 4-nitrophenoxide ion on methylbromide gives the desired product.

Question 12.
Predict the products of the following reactions:

Answer:

When one of the groups in unsymmetrical ether is tertiary, then the halide formed is tertiary halide.

Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers NCERT Textbook Exercises

Question 1.
Write IUPAC names of the following compounds :


Answer:
(i) 2,2,4-Trimethyl pentan-3-ol
(ii) 5-Ethylheptane-2,4-diol
(iii) Butan-2,3-diol
(iv) Propane-1,2,3-triol
(v) 2-Methylphenol
(vi) 4-Methylphenol
(vii) 2,5-Dimethylphenol
(viii) 2,6-Dimethylphenol
(ix) l-Methoxy-2-methylpropane
(x) Ethoxybenzene
(xi) 1-Phenoxyheptane
(xii) 2-Ethoxybutane.

Question 2.
Write structures of the compounds whose IUPAC names are as follows :
(i) 2-Methylbutan-2-ol
(ii) l-Phenylpropan-2-ol
(iii) 3,5-Dimethylhexane -1, 3, 5-triol
(iv) 2,3 – Diethylphenol
(v) 1 – Ethoxypropane
(vi) 2-Ethoxy-3-methylpentane
(vii) Cyclohexylmethanol
(viii) 3-CycIohexylpentan-3-ol
(ix) Cyclopent-3-en-l-
(x) 4-Chloro-3-ethylbutan-l-ol.
Answer:

Question 3.
(i) Draw the structures of all isomeric alcohols of molecular formula C5H12O and give their IUPAC names.
(ii) Classify the isomers of alcohols in question (i) as primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols.
Answer:

Isomers (ii), (vii) and (viii) contain chiral centres can exhibit enantiomerism.

Question 4.
Explain, why propanol has higher boiling point than that of the hydrocarbon, butane ?
Answer:
The molecules of butane are held together by weak van der Waals’ force of attraction while those of propanol are held together by stronger intermolecular hydrogen bonding.

Therefore, the b.p. of propanol is much higher than that of butane.

Question 5.
Alcohols are comparatively more soluble in water than hydrocarbons of comparable molecular masses. Explain this fact.
Answer:
Alcohols can form hydrogen bonds with water and break the H—bond exist between water molecules. Hence, they are soluble in water.
On the other hand, hydrocarbons cannot form hydrogen bonds with water molecules and hence are insoluble in water.

Question 6.
What is meant by hydroboration-oxidation reaction ? Illustrate it with an example.
Answer:
The addition of diborane to alkene to form trialkyl boranes followed by their oxidation with alkaline hydrogen peroxide to form alcohol is called hydroboration-oxidation. For example:

The alcohols obtained by this process appear to have been formed by direct addition of water to the alkene against MarkownikofFs rule.

Question 7.
Give the structures and IUPAC names of monohydric phenols of molecular formula, C₇H₈O.
Answer:
Three isomers are :

Question 8.
While separating a mixture of ortho and para nitrophenois by steam distillation, name the isomer which will be steam volatile. Give reason.
Answer:
Orthonitrophenol is steam volatile while para-nitrophenol is not. This is on ac¬count of chelation (intramolecular H—bonding) in the molecule of o-nitrophenol. As a result its boiling point is less than that of p-nitrophenol, which is not steam volatile and its molecules are linked by intermolecular H—bonding.

Question 9.
Give the equations of reactions for the preparation of phenol from cumene.
Answer:

Question 10.
Write chemical reaction for the preparation of phenol from chloroben zene.
Answer:

Question 11.
Write the mechanism of hydration of ethene to yield ethanol.
Answer:
Direct addition of water to ethene in presence of an acid does not occur. Indirectly, ethene is first passed through cone. H₂SO₄ at room temperature to form ethylhydrogen- sulphate, which is decomposed by water on heating to form alcohol.

Mechanism : H₂SO₄ → H⁺ + O^Θ SO₂OH

Step-I: Protonation of alkene to form carbo-cation by electrophilic attack of hydronium ion (H₃O⁺).

Step-II: Nucleophilic attack by water on carbo-cation to yield protonated alcohol.

Step-III: Deprotonation (loss of proton) to form an alcohol:

Question 12.
You are given benzene, cone. H₂SO₄ and NaOH. Write the equations for the preparation of phenol using these reagents.
Answer:

Question 13.
Show how will you synthesis :
(i) 1-Phenylethanol from a suitable alkene ?
(ii) Cyclohexylmethanol using an alkyl halide by an S_N2 reaction ?
(iii) Pentan-l-ol using a suitable alkyl halide ?
Answer:

Question 14.
Give two reactions that show the acidic nature of phenol. Compare acidity of phenol with that of ethanol.
Answer:
The reactions showing acidic character of phenols are :
(i) Reaction with sodium : Phenol reacts with Na to give H₂ gas.

(ii) Reaction with NaOH : Phenol dissolves in NaOH to give sodium phenoxide and OH

Phenol is more acidic than ethanol. This is due to the reason that phenoxide ion left after the loss of a proton from phenol is stabilized by resonance (for structure refer text acidic nature of phenol) while ethoxide ion (left after loss of a proton from ethanol) is not.

Question 15.
Explain, why ortho nitrophenol is more acidic than ortho methoxyphenol ?
Answer:
Due to strong -R and -I effect of -NO₂ group, electron density in O-H bond decreases and hence the loss of proton becomes easy.

-R effect results in +ve charge on O-atom and hence facilitates the release of proton. Moreover, o-nitrophenoxide formed after the loss of a proton is stabilized by resonance.

o-nitrophenoxide ion is stabilized by resonance and hence o-nitrophenol is a stronger acid. On the other hand, due to +R effect of the —OCH₃ group,the electron density in the O—H bond increases and this makes the loss of proton difficult.

Further more after the loss of proton o-methoxy- phenoxide ion left is destabilized by resonance.

The two -ve charge repel each other and therefore destabilize the o-methoxyphenoxide ion. Thus, it is less acidic than o-nitrophenol.

Question 16.
Explain, how does the -OH group attached to a carbon of benzene ring activate it towards electrophilic substitution ?
Answer:
The -OH group exerts +R effect on the benzene ring under the effect of attacking electrophile. As a result, there is an increase in the electron density in the ring particularly at ortho and para positions, therefore electorphilic substitution occurs mainly at o-and p-positions. (For resonance hybrid structures of phenol refer to NCERT text-book.)

Question 17.
Give equations of the following reactions:
(i) Oxidation of propan-l-ol with alkaline KMnO₄ solution.
(ii) Bromine in CS₂ with phenol.
(iii) Dilute HNO₃ with phenol.
(iv) Treating phenol with chloroform in presence of aqueous NaOH.
Answer:

Question 18.
Explain the following with an example :
(i) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(ii) Kolbe’s reaction
(iii) Williamson-ether synthesis
(iv) Unsymmetrical ether.
Answer:
(i) Reimer-Tiemann reaction : When phenol is treated with chloroform in presence of aqueous sodium hydroxide at 60°C, o-Hydroxy benzaldehyde (Salicylaldehyde) and p-Hydroxy benzaldehyde are formed. The ortho-isomer is the major product. This reaction is called Reimer-Tiemann reaction.

If carbon tetrachloride is used in place of chloroform, salicylic acid is obtained as the main product.

(ii) Kolbe- Schmidt reaction : When sodium salt of a phenol is heated with CO₂ at 130°C. (403K) and 4-7 atm pressure, sodium salicylate is formed. This on acidification gives salicylic acid.

Salicylic acid is the starting material for the manufacture of aspirin which is an important analgesic.

(iii) Williamson-1 ether synthesis : This is the best method for preparation of ethers because both symmetrical and unsymmetrical (Aliphatic as well as aromatic) ethers can be prepared. When haloalkane is treated with sodium alkoxide then ether is formed. It is an example of nucleophilic substitution reaction in which halide ion (X-^–) of haloalkane is replaced by alkoxy or aroxy group.

Example : Reaction of ethyl bromide with sodium ethoxide gives diethyl ether
C₂H₅Br + C₂H₅ONa → C₂H₅OC₂H₅ + NaBr
(iv) Unsymmetrical ether : An unsymmetrical ether is an ether where two groups on the two sides of an oxygen atom differ (i.e., have and unequal number of carbon atoms.
For example; ethyl methyl ether (CH₃—O—CH₂CH₃)

Question 19.
Write the mechanism of acid dehydration of ethanol to yield ethene.
Answer:
The mechanism of acid dehydration of ethanol to yeild ethene involes the following three steps:

Step 1 : Protonation of ethanol to form ethyl oxonium ion :

Step 2 : Formation of carbocation (rate determinning step):

Step 3 : Elimination of a proton to form ethene:

The acid consumed in step I is released in Step 3. After the formation of ethene, it is removed to shift the equilibrium in a forward direction.

Question 20.
How are the following conversions carried out:
(i) Propene → Propan-2-ol.
(ii) Benzyl chloride → Benzyl alcohol.
(iii) Ethyl magnesium chloride → Propan-1-ol.
(iv) Methyl magnesium bromide → 2-Methylpropan-2-ol.
Answer:

Question 21.
Name the reagents used in the following reactions:

1. Oxidation of a primary alcohol to carboxylic acid.
2. Oxidation of a primary alcohol to aldehyde.
3. Bromination of phenol to 2,4,6-tribromo-phenol.
4. Benzyl alcohol to benzoic acid.
5. Dehydration of propan-2-ol to propene.
6. Butan-2-one to butan-2-ol.

Answer:

1. Acidified K₂Cr₂O₇ or neutral acidic or alkaline KMnO₄.
2. Pyridinium chlorochromate (pec) in CH₂Cl₂ or Cu at 573 K.
3. Bromine water (Br₂/H₂O)
4. Acidified or alkaline KMnO₄
5. Cone. H₂SO₄ at 443K or 85% phosphoric acid at 443K.
6. Ni/H₂ or NaBH₄ or LiAlH₄.

Question 22.
Give reason for the higher boiling point of ethanol in comparison to methoxymethane.
Answer:
The boiling point of ethanol is higher than methoxymethane because of the presence of strong intermolecular hydrogen bonding between ethanol molecule. As a result ethanol exist as associates molecules.

However no such H-bonding is present in methoxy methane.

Question 23.
Give IUPAC names of the following ethers:

Answer:
(i) 1-Ethoxy-2-methylpropane
(ii) 2-Chloro-1-methoxyethane
(iii) 4-Nitro anisole
(iv) 1-Methoxypropane
(v) 1 -Ethoxy-4,4-dimethylcyclohexane
(vi) Ethoxybenzene.

Question 24.
Write the names of reagents and equations for the preparation of the following ethers by Williamson’s synthesis:
(i) 1-Propoxypropane
(ii) Ethoxybenzene
(iii) 2-Methoxy-2-methylpropane
(iv) 1-Methoxyethane
Answer:

Question 25.
Illustrate with examples the limitations of Williamson synthesis for the preparation of certain types of ethers.
Answer:
Limitations of Williamson synthesis : (i) Better results are obtained, if the alkyl halide is primary. In case of secondary and tertiary alkyl halides, elimination completes over substitution. If a tertiary alkyl halide is used, an alkene is the only reaction product and no ether is formed. For example, the reaction of CH₃ONa with (CH₃)₃C—Br gives exclusively 2-methylpropene.

It is because alkoxides are not only nucleophile but strong bases as well. They react with alkyl halide leading to elimination reaction. Thus, in order to prepare methyl tertiary butyl ether, we must use methyl halide (primary) and sodium tertiary butoxide.

(ii) Aryl halides and vinyl halides cannot be used as substrate for the preparation of aromatic aliphatic ether because aryl halide and vinyl halides are less reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction.

Question 26.
How is 1-propoxypropane synthesized from propan-l-ol ? Write mechanism of this reaction.
Answer:
(a) It can be prepared by Williamson’s synthesis.

(b) It can also be prepared by dehydration of propan-l-ol

Question 27.
Preparation of ethers by acid dehydration of secondary or tertiary alcohol is not a suitable method. Give reason.
Answer:
The 1° alcohol gets protonated. Now it is attacked by another alcohol molecule. The mechanism is S_N2 (Nucleophilic attack)

The 2° and 3° alcohols also get protonated. But another molecule of alcohol cannot attack it due to steric hindrance. The protonated alcohol loses a molecule of H₂O to form a stable 2° or 3° carbo-cation. The carbocation prefers to lose a proton to form alkene.

Similarly, the 3° alcohol (CH₃)₃COH forms isobutane.

Question 28.
Write the equation of the reaction with hydrogen iodide :
(i) 1-Propoxypropane
(ii) Methoxybenzene and
(iii) Benzyiethylether.
Answer:

Question 29.
Explain the fact that in aryl alkyl ethers :
(i) The aikoxy group activates the benzene ring towards electrophilic substitution and
(ii) It directs the incoming substituents to ortho and para positions in benzene ring.
Answer:

In aryl alkyl ethers, due to the +R effect of the aikoxy group, the electron density in the benzene ring increases as shown in the following resonance structure.

Thus, benzene is activated towards electrophilic substitution by the aikoxy group.

(ii) It can also be observed from the resonance structure that the electron density increases more at the ortho para positions than at the meta position. As a result, the incoming substituents are directed to the ortho and para positions in the benzene ring.

Question 30.
Write the mechanism of the reaction of HI with methoxymethane.
Answer:

Protonated ether undergoes S_N2 attack by 1- ion and gives a mixture of methyl iodide and methyl alcohol. However, if HI is taken in excess, the methyl’alcohol formed in (ii) is also converted into methyliodide by the following mechanism.

Question 31.
Write equations of the following reactions:
(i) Friedel-Craft’s reaction – alkylation of anisole.
(ii) Nitration of anisole.
(iii) Bromination of anisole in ethanoic acid medium.
(iv) Friedel-Craft’s acetylation of anisole.
Answer:
(i) Friedel-Crafts reaction – alkylation of anisole : Anisole undergoes Friedel- Crafts reaction i.e., the alkyl and aryl group is introduced at ortho and para-positions by reaction with alkyl halide and aryl halide in the presence of anhydrous aluminium chloride (Lewis acid) as catalyst.

(ii) Nitration of anisole : Anisole reacts a mixture of concentrated sulphuric and nitric acids to yield a mixture of ortho and para nitroanisole.

(iii) Bromination of anisole in ethanoic acid medium : Phenetole or anisole undergoes bromination with bromine in ethanoic acid even in absence of iron (III) bromide catalyst. It is due to the activation of benzene ring by the ethoxy group, para-isomer is obtained in 90% yield.

(iv) Friedel-Craft’s acetylation of anisole :

Question 32.
Show how would you synthesize the following alcohols from appropriate alkenes ?

Answer:
(i) Alcohols on dehydration give alkene. Dehydrate the given alcohol. The alkene formed will give the desired alcohol on adding a molecule of H₂O. The addition of H₂O molecule takes place according to MarkownikofFs rule. In case dehydration of the given alcohol gives two alkenes, then see which alkene will give the desired alcohol.

Both the alkene give the desired alcohol on adding a molecule of H₂O.

(ii) Two alkenes are formed. They will give the desired alcohol on adding a H₂O molecule.

Addition of H₂O molecule to pent-1-ene gives the desired alcohol. Remember that -OH group comes to that carbon atom of the double bond which contains less number of H-atoms. In case of pent-2-one, both the carbon atoms of double bond have one H-atom. Therefore, -OH group may come to either of the carbon atom. This alkene will give pentan-2-ol as well as pentan-3-ol.

Addition of H₂O molecule to 2-methylcy-clohexyl but-2-ene will give the desired alcohol -OH group comes to that carbon atom of double bond which contains less number of H- atom.

Question 33.
When 3-methylbutan-2-ol is treated with HBr, the following reaction takes place:

Give a mechanism for this reaction.
(Hint : The secondary carbocation formed in step-II rearranges to a more stable tertiary carbocation by a hydride ion shift from 3rd carbon atom.)
Answer:
Alcohol gets protonated and then a H2O molecule is given out to give a carbocation.

Now, the 2° carbocation rearrange to form more stable 3° carbocation, one H—atom migrates from the adjacent carbon atom to C+. It is called 1,2-shift. Then addition of Br^– takes place.

Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers Other Important Questions and Answers

Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
Sodium dissolves easily in alcohol because :
(a) Alcohol has higher density than water
(b) Alcohol is lighter than water
(c) Alcohol is neutral
(d) Alcohol is amphoteric.
Answer:
(d) Alcohol is amphoteric.

Question 2.
Most acidic among the four compound is :
(a) Phenol
(b) o-nitrophenol
(c) m – nitrophenol
(d) p – nitrophenol.
Answer:
(c) m – nitrophenol

Question 3.
Reaction for the formation of salicylaldehyde from phenol is :
(a) Rosenmund reaction
(b) Friedel Crafts reaction
(c) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(d) Wurtz’s reaction.
Answer:
(c) Reimer-Tiemann reaction

Question 4.
Most effective reagent which converts propanol-2 to propanone :
(a) LiAlH₄
(b) Cu/300°C
(c) CO₂
(d) K₂Cr₂O₇.
Answer:
(b) Cu/300°C

Question 5.
Carbolic acid is :
(a) Phenol
(b) Phenyl benzoate
(c) Phenyl acetate
(d) Methyl salicylate.
Answer:
(a) Phenol

Question 6.
Which compound is known as oil of winter green :
(a) Phenyl benzoate
(b) Phenyl salicylate
(c) Phenyl acetate
(d) Salol.
Answer:
(d) Salol.

Question 7.
Reaction of Lucas reagent is fastest with :
(a) (CH₃)₃ C-OH
(b) (CH₃)₂ CHOH
(c) CH₃-(CH₂)₂ OH
(d) CH₃CH₂OH.
Answer:
(a) (CH₃)₃ C-OH

Question 8.
At low temperature phenol reacts with Br₂ in CS₂ to give

Answer:

Question 9.
Which compound is obtained on passing vapours of ethanol on hot Al₂O₃:
(a) Ethyl ether
(b) Acetone
(c) Acetaldehyde
(d) Ethane.
Answer:
(a) Ethyl ether

Question 10.
Which of the compound is Aspirin :
(a) Acetyl salicylic acid
(b) Salicylic acid
(c) Acetamide
(d) Salicyl amide.
Answer:
(a) Acetyl salicylic acid

Question 11.
The following compound reacts with phthalic acid to give acid-base indicator :
(a) Chlorobenzene
(b) Phenol
(c) Alcohol
(d) Ether.
Answer:
(b) Phenol

Question 12.
Bakelite is formed when phenol is condensed with :
(a) HCHO
(b) CH₃CHO
(c) C₆H₅CHO
(d) CH₃COCH₃.
Answer:
(a) HCHO

Question 13.
Used as an anaesthetic :
(a) CH₃OH
(b) C₂H₅OH
(c) CH₃—CHO
(d) (C₂H₅)₂ O.
Answer:
(d) (C₂H₅)₂ O.

Question 14.
Lucas reagent is :
(a) Cone. HCl
(b) Cone. H₂SO₄
(c) Anhydrous ZnCl₂
(d) Cone. HCl and anhydrous ZnCl₂.
Answer:
(d) Cone. HCl and anhydrous ZnCl₂.

Question 15.
Ether and alcohol can be distinguished by the following :
(a) Reaction with Na
(b) Reaction with PCl₅
(c) Reaction with 2,4 dinitrophenyl hydrazine
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Reaction with Na

Question 16.
Which is used for poisoning the alcohol:
(a) Methyl alcohol
(b) Ethyl alcohol
(c) Glycerine
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(a) Methyl alcohol

Question 17.
Gives Libermann’s nitroso test:
(a) C₆H₅OH
(b) CH₃-OH
(c) C₂H₅—OH
(d) CH₃-O-CH₃
Answer:
(a) C₆H₅OH

Question 18.
Which is identified by Lucas reagent:
(a) Phenol
(b) Ether
(c) Aldehyde
(d) Alcohol.
Answer:
(d) Alcohol.

Question 19.
Alcohols are soluble in water. Its main reason is :
(a) O—H bond
(b) Hydrogen bond
(c) Covalent bond
(d) Electrovalent bond.
Answer:
(b) Hydrogen bond

Question 20.
Which is formed on heating ethyl alcohol with bleaching powder :
(a) Diethyl ether
(b) Phenol
(c) Chlorobenzene
(d) Chloroform.
Answer:
(d) Chloroform.

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks :

1. General formula of ether is ……………….
2. Main product of Kolbe-Schmidt reaction of phenol is ……………….
3. By the hydrogenation of phenol ………………. is formed.
4. Alcohol reacts with I₂ and a base to give a yellow precipitate of ……………….
5. Phenol on being heated with Zn powder forms ……………….
6. On heating formaldehyde with ………………. bakelite is formed.
7. Diethyl ether is used as an ……………….
8. On heating RX with NaOR, ROR is formed. Name of this reaction is ……………….
9. Alcohol is ………………. whereas phenol is of ………………. nature.
10. On heating alcohol with cone. H₂SO₄ for 160 – 170°C ………………. is formed.
11. By the dehydration of ethyl alcohol ………………. and ………………. are obtained.
12. Rectified spirit is a mixture of ………………. % alcohol and ………………. water.

Answer:

1. C_nH_2n+1OC_nH_2n+1
2. Salicylic acid
3. Cyclohexanol
4. Iodoform (CHI₃),
5. Benzene
6. Phenol
7. Anaesthetic
8. Williamson synthesis
9. Neutral, acidic
10. Alkene
11. Ethylene, diethyl ether
12. 95-5%, 4-5%.

Question 3.
Match the following :

Answer:

1. (f)
2. (d)
3. (e)
4. (g)
5. (b)
6. (a)
7. (j)
8. (c)
9. (h)
10. (i).

Question 4.
Answer in one word/sentence :

1. Diethyl ether does not reacts with Na. Why ?
2. Fire caused due to ether cannot be extinguished by water. Why ?
3. Which is formed on burning ether ?
4. Write name of the enzyme which converts maltose to glucose.
5. Sulphuric ether is known as.
6. Reaction of ether with HI is used for the detection of what ?
7. Phenol reacts with Br₂ in presence of CS₂ to form.
8. In Victor Meyer method, 1° alcohol gives which colour with base.
9. Phenol reacts with phthalic anhydride in presence of H₂SO₄ to form.
10. Which gas is obtained during fermentation ?
11. Name the primary alcohol which gives iodoform test.
12. Name the reaction in which phenol reacts with chloroform and sodium hydroxide to form salicylaldehyde.

Answer:

1. Absence of acidic H-atom
2. Lighter than water and insoluble
3. CO₂ and H₂O
4. Maltase
5. Diethyl ether
6. Alkoxy (Ziesel)
7. o-and p-bromophenol,
8. Red
9. Phenolphthalein
10. CO₂
11. C₂H₅—OH
12. Reimer-Tiemann reaction.

Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why ether is less soluble in saturated solution of NaCl ? Explained.
Answer:
Ether is a weak polar compound and saturated solution of NaCl decrease the polarity ofthe ether. Na⁺ and Cl^– ions attract H₂O molecules more strongly than ether molecules, thus the solubility of ether decreases in saturated solution of NaCl.

Question 2.
What is absolute alcohol ? How is it prepared ?
Answer:
100% ethanol is known as Absolute alcohol. Benzene is mixed in absolute spirit and fractionally distilled. Azeotropic mixture of 74% water, 18 5% alcohol and 74% ben¬zene is distilled on 64-8% alcohol. After the removal of water at 68-2°C binary mixture of alcohol (32-4%) and benzene (67-6%) is distilled. When entire benzene is removed then at 78-l°C impure alcohol is distilled. It contains 100% alcohol.

Question 3.
Give equations for the preparation of ethyl alcohol by starch and write name of enzymes.
Answer:

Enzymes : (1) Diastase, (2) Maltase, (3) Zymase.

Question 4.
What is Lucas reagent ? How are primary, secondary and tertiary alcohol identified by it ? Explain.
Answer:
Mixture of anhydrous ZnCl₂ and cone. HCl is known as Lucas reagent.

1. Tertiary Alcohol : On adding Lucas reagent in alcohol at normal temperature, immediately white oily precipitate of Alkyl chlorides is formed, then it is tertiary alcohol.
2. Secondary Alcohol: If on adding Lucas reagent in alcohol, at normal temperature, a white oily precipitate of alkyl chloride is obtained after 5 minutes, then it is secondary alcohol.
3. Primary Alcohol: Primary alcohol does not show any reaction with Lucas reagent at normal temperature.

Question 5.
Why the b.p. of alcohol are higher than ethers and alkene ?
Or,
C₂H₅OH and CH₃OCH₃ both have same molecular formula (C₂H₆O) but the b.p. of alcohol is 78.4°C and b.p. of ether is -240°C. Explain the reason.
Answer:
In case of C₂H₅OH there is strong intermolecular hydrogen bonding between the molecules of alcohol. So alcohols (C₂H₅OH) required much energy to evaporate than ether molecules. In other words, we can say that the C₂H₅OH molecules are in associated form due to H-bonding so the b.p. of C₂H₅OH is very higher than ether and alkene.

Question 6.
What do you understand by Methylated spirit or denaturing alcohol ?
Answer:
Methylated Spirit : Ordinary rectified spirit is known as industrial alcohol.

Methylated spirit is 90% ethanol to which nauseating materials like methyl alcohol, pyridine or mineral naphtha have been added. These materials are added so that the ethanol will not be used for beverage purposes. This process is called denaturing. It is of two types :

It is used for the preparation of spirit, varnish etc. By it misuse of ethanol as a beverage is controlled.

Question 7.
Explain the manufacture of CH₃OH by water gas.
Answer:
From water gas : Steam is passed over red hot coke when water gas is formed.

Water gas is mixed with half its volume of hydrogen, compressed to about 200 atm and passed over a catalyst which is a mixture of oxides of copper, zinc and chromium at 300°C.

Question 8.
Give chemical equation of the following conversion :
(i) Diethyl ether from ethanol
(ii) Ethanol from diethyl ether
(iii) Ethyl acetate from ethanol
(iv) Ethanol from glucose.
Answer:
(i) Diethyl ether from Ethanol:

(ii) Ethanol from Diethyl ether :

(iii) Ethyl acetate from Ethanol :

(iv) Ethanol from Glucose :

Question 9.
Differentiate between Phenol and Alcohol and write Libermann’s reaction related to phenol.
Answer:
Differences between Phenol and Alcohol:

Phenol:

1. Physical properties : Characteristic phenolic odour, sparingly soluble in water.
2. It is acidic and dissolve in bases to form salt.
3. On oxidation, hybrid coloured product is formed.
4. Produce characteristic colour with Ferric chloride.
5. It does not react with halogen acid.
6. With PCl₅, mainly form triaryl phosphate.

Alcohol:

1. Pleasant odour, fairly soluble in water.
2. It is neutral and do not reacts with bases.
3. It can easily oxidize to Aldehydes and ketones.
4. It does not reacts with ferric chloride.
5. Forms Alkyl halide.
6. Alkyl chloride are formed.

Libermann’s Reaction : On adding few drops of concentrated sulphuric acid and little sodium nitrite in phenol first dark blue colour is produced on adding water colour becomes red and on adding an alkali red colour again changes to blue colour.

Question 10.
Pure phenol is a colourless solid but why it is converted into pink after some time ?
Or,
What change in colour is observed in phenol in presence of oxygen ? Explain with reaction.
Answer:
In the presence of air pure phenol oxidises into quinone.

This quinone again combines with two molecules of phenol by H-bond and gives pink phenoquinone.

Question 11.
Write reaction of phenol with ferric chloride.
Answer:
Phenol reacts with FeCl₃ to form water soluble coloured complex. The colour varies from violet to red including green and blue.
6C₆H₅OH + FeCl₃ → (C₆H₅O)₆ Fe + 3HCl + 3H⁺

Question 12.
Boiling point of higher than corresponding alkane. Why ?
Answer:
Boiling point of alcohols is much higher than hydrocarbons of nearly similar molecular mass due to inter molecular hydrogen bond. Alcohols molecules associate kilo calories mole^-1. Thus, extra energy is required for the separation of these molecules, which lead to increase in boiling point. Hydrocarbons do not form hydrogen bond, thus their boiling point is comparatively less.

Question 13.
Ethyl alcohol and phenol both contain — OH group. What is the reason that phenol is acidic and alcohol has alkaline effect ?
Or,
Ethyl alcohol and phenol both contain — OH group. What is the reason that phenol is acidic and alcohol is neutral in nature ?
Answer:
Explanation of acidic nature of phenol: One possible explanation why phenols are stronger acids as compared to alcohols is that phenols exist as a resonance hybrid.

Due to resonance, the oxygen atom gets a positive charge and attracts the electron pair of the O—H bond and thus facilitates the release of a proton. The phenoxide ion formed after the release of a proton is also stabilized by resonance.

In alcohols, no resonance is possible hence the hydrogen atom is more firmly linked to the oxygen.

Question 14.
Write Victor Meyer method to distinguish primary, secondary and tertiary alcohol.
Answer:
Victor Meyer’s method : (i) The given alcohol is converted into an iodide by concentrated HI or red phosphorus and iodine.
(ii) The iodide is treated with silver nitrite to form nitroalkane.
(iii) Nitroalkane is finally treated with nitrous acid (NaNO₂ + H₂SO₄) and made alkaline with KOH.
If a blood red colour is obtained, the original alcohol is primary.
If a blue colour is obtained, the alcohol is secondary.
If no colour is produced, the alcohol is tertiary.

Question 15.
What is Williamson continuous etherification process ? Is it a continuous process ? Explain. Give labelled diagram.
Or,
Describe the laboratory method of preparation of diethyl ether. How ether thus obtained is purified ?
Answer:
Laboratory Method for the Preparation of Diethyl Ether (Sulphuric Ether):
Diethyl ether is prepared in the laboratory and industry by the Williamson continuous etherification process, i.e., by heating ethanol (in excess) with concentrated sulphuric acid.

Sulphuric acid is regenerated in the reaction hence, it appears as if only a small amount of acid may convert an excess of alcohol into ether. So, this method is called Williamson continuous etherification process but actually we cannot get ether continuously.

This is due to the following two reasons :

1. Water formed in the reaction dilutes the acid and its reactivity decreases.
2. A part of sulphuric acid is reduced by alcohol into sulphur dioxide.

Method : Ethanol and H₂SO₄ (2:1) are taken in a flask and heated on sand bath at ‘ 140°C. Ethanol is added at the same rate at which ether distilled over and is collected in a receiver cooled in ice-cold water.

Purification: Ether contain ethanol, water and sulphuric acid as impurities. It is washed with NaOH to remove sulphuric acid and then agitated with 50% solution of calcium chloride to remove alcohol. It is then washed with water, dried over anhydrous calcium chloride and redistilled.

Question 16.
Write a notes on fermentation.
Answer:
Fermentation : In this method, molasses or starch are used as raw materials. This is the old method and is used at present also. Fermentation (Latin-fermentare means to boil) proceeds with fast evolution of CO₂ producing much foam giving appearance as if the solution is boiling. “It is a process of decomposition of complex large molecules into simple and small molecules slowly and by enzyme.” Enzymes are of many kinds and are present in yeast which is a living and complex substance containing several types of bacteria which are called enzymes. It is a good ferment. The enzymes present in yeast are zymase, mal- tase, invertase, etc.

When yeast is mixed in glucose solution and kept at proper conditions, ethyl alcohol is formed as a result of fermentation.

Favourable conditions for Fermentation:

1. Favourable temperature: It is between 25-35°C.
2. Other substances : Some inorganic salts like ammonium sulphate or ammonium nitrate function as food for fermentation.
3. Concentration : Solution should be dilute (Concentration 8-10%).
4. Air : The process occur in presence of air.

Question 17.
(i) How can we obtain phenol from benzene diazonium chloride ?
(ii) What is the reaction of diethyl ether with HI acid ?
Answer:
(i) Phenols are prepared by hydrolysis of diazonium salts by water, dil. acids etc.

(ii) The reaction of diethyl ether with cone. HI acid, on heating gives one molecule of ethyl iodide and one molecule of ethyl alcohol.

Question 18.
Give two reactions that show the acidic nature of phenol.
Answer:
(a) The reactions showing acidic character of phenol are:
(i) Reaction with sodium : Phenol reacts with sodium to give H₂ gas.

(ii) Reaction with NaOH: Phenol dissolve in NaOH to give sodium phenoxide.

(b) Comparison of Acidity of Phenol with alcohol.
C₂H₅OH + NaOH → No reaction
But phenol reacts with NaOH and exhibits its strong acidic nature.
Ionization of Ethanol and Phenol is as follows :
On the other hand ethoxide ion and ethanol do not represent resonance thus negative charge is on oxygen of ethoxide ion whereas charge displacement occur in phenoxide ion.
pK_a value of ethanol is 15.9 where of phenol is 10.0. Thus, phenol is many more times’ more acidic than ethanol.

Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the mechanism of dehydration of alcohol.
Answer:
Dehydration of alcohol:
(i) When ethyl alcohol is heated in excess of cone. H₂SO₄ molecule of water is eliminated and alkene is formed.

Mechanism : (i) Protonation of alcohol by H₂SO₄

(ii) Removal of water

(iii) Elimination of β-hydrogen in the form of proton by base (bisulphate ion)

Stability of the carbocation (I) determines the case of dehydration and order of stability of carbocation is :
CH₃ < C₂H₅ < Isopropyl < Tertiary butyl

Question 2.
How is ethyl alcohol obtained by molasses ? Explain in brief.
Or,
What are molasses ? How is alcohol obtained by fermentation ? Explain. Tell favourable conditions of fermentation. Draw labelled diagram of coffee still.
Answer:
From molasses : Molasses is the syrupy solution of sugar left after the separa¬tion of cane sugar or beet sugar crystals from the concentrated juice.

The different steps of the manufacture processes are :

(a) Dilution : The molasses is diluted with water so that a concentration of 8-10 percent sugar is obtained in solution. This is acidified with dilute sulphuric acid to retard other bacterial growth. A solution of ammonium salts is also added which acts as food for the ferment.

(b) Alcoholic fermentation : The dilute solution obtained above [From step (a)] is taken in big fermentation tanks and some yeast is added. The mixture is kept for a few days and the temperature is maintained at about 30°C. The fermentation reaction starts and the enzyme Invertase (From Yeast) converts sucrose into glucose and fructose which are then converted into ethanol by Zymase (From Yeast).

The fermentation is completed in about 3 days. The carbon dioxide is collected as a by product.

(c) Distillation : The fermented liquor is technically called wash or wort which contains about 9-10 percent ethanol. It is then distilled in a continuous still called Coffey’s still. It consists of two tall fractionating columns which are called analyser and the rectifier. It works on the counter current principle and the steam and wash travel in opposite directions through the still.

The steam goes upwards in the analyser and takes away the alcohol vapours from the down coming dilute alcohol. The mixture leaves the analyser from the top and enters the rectifier at the base. Here it heats the wash flowing through the pipes on its way to the analyser. Most of the steam condenses and the alcohol vapours condenses in the condenser. The distillate contain 90% alcohol.

(d) Rectification : Wash is rectified by fractional distillation.

Question 3.
How can you change the following : (i) Methanol to ethanol, (ii) Ethanol to methanol.
Answer:
(i) Methanol to ethanol:

(ii) Ethanol to methanol:

Question 4.
Differentiate primary, secondary and tertiary alcohol by oxidation and dehydrogenations method.
Answer:
1. Oxidation : The oxidizing agents generally used for oxidation of alcohols are acid dichromate, acid or alkaline KMnO₄ and dilute HNO₃.

(i) A primary alcohol is easily oxidized to an aldehyde and then to an acid both containing the same number of carbon atoms as the original alcohol.

(ii) A secondary alcohol on oxidation gives a ketone with the same number of carbon atoms as the original alcohol, ketones are oxidized with difficulty but prolonged action of oxidizing agents produce carboxylic acids containing fewer number of carbon atoms than the original alcohol.

(iii) A tertiary alcohol is resistant to oxidation in neutral or alkaline solutions but is readily oxidized by an acid oxidizing agent giving a mixture of ketone and acid each having lesser number of carbon atoms than the original alcohol.

2. Dehydrogenation (Action of hot reduced copper at 300°C): Different types of alcohols give different products when their vapours are passed over Cu gauze at 300°C.
Primary alcohols lose hydrogen and yield an aldehyde.

Secondary alcohols lose hydrogen and yield a ketone.

Tertiary alcohols are not dehydrogenated but lose a water molecule to give alkenes.

Question 5.
How can you obtained following compounds from phenol :
(i) 2, 4, 6-Tribromophenol
(ii) Picric acid
(iii) Aniline
(iv) Benzene
(v) Phenolp- hthalene
(vi) p-cresol, o-cresol.
Answer:
(i) Phenol to Tribromophenol : Phenols readily react with halogens to give polyhalogen substituted compounds. Phenol gives white precipitate of 2, 4, 6-tribromo- phenol with bromine water.

(ii) Phenol to Picric acid : Nitration : On nitration, phenols give a variety of products depending upon the conditions.

Nitration of phenol with conc. HNO₃ in presence of conc. H₂SO₄ gives, 2,4,6-Trinitro-phenol (Picric acid).

(iii) Phenol to Aniline:

(iv) Phenol to Benzene:

(v) Phenol to Phenolphthalene : Phenol condenses with phthalic anhydride in pres¬ence of cone. H2SO4 to give phenolphthalein which is an indicator for acid-base titrations and is used as a laxative in medicine.

(vi) Phenol to ortho and para cresol:

Question 6.
Give chemical equation of the following conversion:
(i) Diethyl ether from ethanol
(ii) Ethanol from diethyl ether
(iii) Ethyl acetate from ethanol
(iv) Ethanol from glucose.
Answer:
(i) Diethyl ether from Ethanol:

(ii) Ethanol from Diethyl ether:

(iii) Ethyl acetate from Ethanol:

(iv) Ethanol from Glucose :

Question 7.
Describe the manufacture method of methanol by the destructive distillation of wood.
Answer:
Manufacture of methanol: By the destructive distillation of wood: Dried wood is heated (350°C) in closed retorts for about 3 hours. Different products obtained are given ahead:

Recovery of methyl alcohol from pyroligneous acid : Pyroligneous acid contains methyl alcohol (2-4%), acetone (0-5 to 1%), acetic acid (about 10%) and water.

The pyroligneous acid is taken in a copper vessel and distilled. The vapours are passed through hot milk of lime which retains acetic acid as non-volatile calcium acetate. Methyl alcohol and acetone vapours pass over and are condensed. This mixture is subjected to fractional distillation to separate methyl alcohol (b.p. 65°C) and acetone (b.p. 56°C). Methyl alcohol obtained by fractional distillation is about 95% pure. To purify further methyl alcohol is treated with anhydrous calcium chloride when it forms solid derivative CaCl₂.4CH₃OH. This solid derivative is separated and methyl alcohol is recovered by distillation.

Question 8.
Give equations for three methods of preparation of phenol.
Answer:
Methods of preparation of phenol:
(i) By the hydrolysis of Benzene diazonium salts: Benzene diazonium salt is formed by aromatic primary amine (aniline) with nitrous acid at 0-5°C. On boiling aqueous solution of this salt phenol is formed.

(ii) By alkaline fusion of sodium benzene sulphonate : On fusing sodium benzene sulphonate with NaOH, sodium phenoxide is formed which on acidification forms phenol.

(iii) Rasching method : On heating benzene with mixture of HCl and air to 230°C in the presence of Cu catalyst chlorobenzene is formed which on hydrolysis form phenol.

MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions