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MP Board Class 10th Science Solutions Chapter 14 Sources of Energy

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 14 Intext Questions

Class 10th Science Chapter 14 Intext Questions Page No. 243

Question 1.
What is a good source of energy?
Answer:
We could then say that a good source of energy would be one.

1. Which would do a large amount of work per unit volume or mass.
2. be easily accessible.
3. be easy to store and transport, and
4. perhaps most importantly, be economical.

Question 2.
What is a good fuel?
Answer:
A good fuel is one which

• produces more heat per unit mass. It has high calorific value.
• produces less harmful gases on combustion.
• is cheap and easily available.
• is every to handle safe to transport and convenient to store.

Question 3.
If you could use any source of energy for heating your food, which one would you use and why?
Answer:
We should select which is easily available and it should be cheaper. Bio-gas is an excellent fuel as it contains. It burns without some. Its heating capacity is high. This gas is convenient for consumption and transportation.

Class 10th Science Chapter 14 Intext questions Page No. 248

Question 1.
What are the disadvantages of fossil fuels?
Answer:
Disadvantages of fossil fuels are as following:

1. Fossil fuels are limited source and we can not use them for more than 110-120 years. From not so designing or making machines dependent on them will be a big failure after their loss.
2. Fossil fuel generates big amount of pollution which will destroy our atmosphere and increase temperature of earth which lead to destruction of our ecosystem.

Question 2.
Why are we looking at alternate sources of energy?
Answer:
Fossil fuels are a non-renewable source of energy. So we need to conserve them. If we were to continue consuming these sources at such alarming rates, we would soon run out of energy. In order to avoid this, alternate sources of energy were explored.

Question 3.
How has the traditional use of wind and water energy been modified for our convenience?
Answer:
(1) Wind energy: The kinetic energy of the wind can be used to do work. This energy was harnessed by wind mills in the past to do mechanical work. For example in a water lifting pump, the rotatory motion of windmill is utilized to lift water from a well. Today wind energy is also used to generate electricity. A windmill essentially consists of a structure similar to a large electric fan that is erected at some height on a rigid support.

A number of windmills are erected over a large area, which is known as wind energy farm. The energy output of each windmill in a farm is coupled together to get electricity on a commercial scale wind energy farms can be established only at those places where wind blows for the greater part of a year. The wind speed should also be higher than 15 km/h to maintain the required speed of the turbine, since, the tower and blades are exposed to the vagaries of nature like rain, sun, storm and cyclone, they need a high level of maintenance.

(2) Water energy: In order to produce hydel electricity, high rise dams are constructed on the river to obstruct the flow of water and thereby collect water in larger reservoirs. The water level rises and in this process the kinetic energy of flowing water gets transformed into potential energy. The water from the high level in the dam is carried through pipes, to the turbine, at the bottom of the dam. Sine the water in the reservoir would be refilled each time. It rains (hydropower is a renewable source of energy) we would not have to worry about hydro electricity sources getting used up the way fossil fuels would get finished one day.

Class 10th Science Chapter 14 Intext Questions Page No. 253

Question 1.
Can any source of energy be pollution free? Why or why not?
Answer:
Yes, nature show itself some examples of energy conversion which arg pollution free as photosynthesis, as we know in this process photo energy is converted to chemical energy. Hence, solar energy is best way to produce pollution free energy.

Question 2.
Hydrogen has been used as rocket fuel. Would you consider it a cleaner fuel than CNG? Why or why not?
Answer:
Yes, it is cleaner because it does not create any residual hazardous product or chemicals which pollute environment or disbalance the ecosystem. But, handling such big amount of energy properly is required.

Class 10th Science Chapter 14 Intext Questions Page No. 254

Question 1.
Name two energy sources that you would consider to be renewable. Give reasons for your choices.
Answer:
Energy derived from water, wind, sun and ocean all are renewable. All these energies can be harnessed into usable form as long as the solar system exists.

Question 2.
Give the names of two energy sources that you would consider to be exhaustible. Give reasons for your choices.
Answer:

• fossil fuels
• Nuclear fuels

Fossil fuels are present in a limited. amount in the earth. Once exhausted, they will not be available to us again. It takes millions of years for fossil fuel to be formed. The nuclear materials which can be conveniently extracted from earth 7. are limited and hence they will get exhausted one day.

Class 10th Science Chapter 14 NCERT Textbook Exercises

Question 1.
A solar water heater cannot be used to get hot water on:
(a) A sunny day
(b) A cloudy day
(c) A hot day
(d) A windy day
Answer:
(b) A cloudy day

Question 2.
Which of the following is not an example of a bio-mass energy source?
(a) Wood
(b) Gobar-gas
(c) Nuclear energy
(d) Coal
Answer:
(c) Nuclear energy

Question 3.
Most of the sources of energy we use represent stored solar energy. Which of the following is not ultimately derived from the sun’s energy?
(a) Geothermal energy
(b) Wind energy
(c) Nuclear energy
(d) Bio-mass
Answer:
(c) Nuclear energy

Question 4.
Compare and contrast fossil fuels and the sun as direct sources of energy.
Answer:

Question 5.
Compare and contrast bio-mass and hydro electricity as sources of energy.
Answer:

Question 6.
What are the limitations of extracting energy from—
(a) the wind?
(b) waves?
(c) tides?
Answer:
(a) The wind:

1. Wind energy farms can be established only at those places where wind blows for the greater part of a year.
2. The wind speed should also be higher than 15 km/h to maintain the required speed of the turbine.
3. Establishment of wind energy farms require large are of land.

These are the limitations of extracting energy from the wind.

(b) Limitations of extracting waves energy: The waves are generated by strong winds blowing across the sea. Wave energy would be a viable proposition only where waves are very strong.

(c) Limitations of extracting tidal energy: The locations where such dams can be built are limited.

Question 7.
On what basis would you classify energy sources as
(a) renewable and non-renewable?
(b) exhaustible and inexhaustible?
Are the options given in (a) and (b) the same?
Answer:
The options given in (a) and (b) are the same.

Question 8.
What are the qualities of an ideal source of energy?
Answer:
The qualities of an ideal source of energy are as follows:

1. Which would do a large amount of work per unit volume or mass.
2. Be easily accessible.
3. Be easy to store and transport, and
4. Perhaps most importantly, be economical.

Question 9.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of using a solar cooker? Are there places where solar cookers would have limited utility?
Answer:
Solar cooker is a device used to trap solar energy and utilize it to cook food. It consists of a box painted black from inside to absorb heat of the Sun (black colour is the best absorber of heat). A thick glass lid is placed over the box to trap heat energy of the sun. A plane mirror reflector is also attached to the box so that a strong beam of sunlight falls over the cooker’s top.

The reflector of the solar cooker sends strong beams of sunlight over the top of the cooker. Sunlight consists of about 1/3 rd infra-red rays which have a heating effect. These infra-red rays are of shorter wavelength as these are produced by a very hot source of heat. The glass lid over the cooker allows these infra-red rays of short wavelength into the cooker but does not allow the infra-red rays which are emitted by the black surface of the cooker to escape as these are of longer wavelength. Thus, heat energy of the sun gets trapped in the black box of the solar cooker. This heat cooks the food material kept in the black box.

Fig. 14.1: Solar heating device (solar cooker).

Advantages of solar cooker:

1. It is used to cook food and saves precious fossil fuel.
2. It does not cause any pollution.
3. No smoke is produced during the working of a solar cooker.
4. Nutrients of food material, which is to be cooked in the solar cooker, do not get destroyed.
5. Four food items can be cooked at the same time.

Disadvantages:

1. It cannot be used to cook food during the night.
2. It cannot be used to cook food on a cloudy day.
3. The direction of the reflector has to be changed after a small interval of time with the change of position of the sun.

Question 10.
What are the environmental consequences of the increasing demand for energy? What steps would you suggest to reduce energy consumption?
Answer:
They are:

• Burning of fossil fuels to meet the increasing demand for energy causes air pollution.
• Construction of dams and rivers to generate hydroelectricity destroys large ecosystems which get submerged underwater in the dams further, a large amount of methane [which is a green house gas] is produced when submerged vegetation rots under anaerobic conditions.

In order to reduce energy consumption

• Fossil fuel should be used with care and caution to derive maximum benefit out of them.
• Fuel saving devices such as pressure cookers etc should be used.
• Efficiency of energy sources should be maintained be getting them regularly serviced.
• And last of all, we should be economical in our energy consumption as energy saved is energy produced.

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 14 Additional Important Questions

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 14 Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Can we convert any form of energy to its other form?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) May be Yes
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Yes

Question 2.
Photosynthesis represents what kind of conversion of energy:
(a) Conversion of photo-energy to chemical energy
(b) Conversion of chemical energy to photo-energy
(c) Conversion of physical energy to photo-energy
(d) Conversion of chemical energy to electrical energy
Answer:
(a) Conversion of photo-energy to chemical energy

Question 3.
Which one of the following is good source of energy?
(a) Burning wood
(b) Burning cooking oil
(c) Burning wax
(d) Burning petroleum
Answer:
(d) Burning petroleum

Question 4.
Fuel not used for cooking is:
(a) LPG
(b) Coal
(c) Petrol
(d) PNG
Answer:
(c) Petrol

Question 5.
Renewable source of energy is:
(a) Diesel
(b) Water
(c) Coal
(d) Petrol
Answer:
(b) Water

Question 6.
Physical energy is changed to electrical energy in:
(a) Thermal power plant
(b) Hydro power plant
(c) Photosynthesis
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Thermal power plant

Question 7.
Which one among following is not a property of biomass fuel?
(a) It contains 75% methane
(b) Bum without smoke
(c) Leaves no residue
(d) Easy to install
Answer:
(c) Leaves no residue

Question 8.
What kind of energy is used in wind energy form?
(a) Potential energy
(b) Kinetic energy
(c) Chemical energy
(d) Photo-energy
Answer:
(b) Kinetic energy

Question 9.
Which one is among alternative non-conventional source of energy?
(a) Fossil fuel
(b) Biomass
(c) Solar energy
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Solar energy

Question 10.
What percent of total of solar energy is absorbed on earth:
(a) 10%
(b) 50%
(c) 100%
(d) Can’t calculate
Answer:
(a) 10%

Question 11.
Ultimate source of energy on earth is:
(a) Electricity
(b) Nuclear energy
(c) Fossil fuel
(d) Sun
Answer:
(d) Sun

Question 12.
To maintain a wind energy farm, the wind speed should be:
(a) 1-2 km/h
(b) 180-200 km/h
(c) 15-20 km/h
(d) Can’t be calculated
Answer:
(c) 15-20 km/h

Question 13.
Which of the following element is chosen for generating nuclear energy?
(a) Uranium
(b) Silicon
(c) Germanium
(d) Carbon
Answer:
(c) Germanium

Question 14.
How bio gas is generated in biomass plant?
(a) By distillation
(b) By anaerobic fermenting
(c) By reduction
(d) By simple burning
Answer:
(b) By anaerobic fermenting

Question 15.
Natural gas contains:
(a) CO₂
(b) H₂O
(c) CH₄
(d) NH₃
Answer:
(c) CH₄

Question 16
…………. is used in a solar cell for storing energy.
(a) Gold
(b) Silver
(c) Germanium
(d) Silicon
Answer:
(d) Silicon

Question 17.
The stored heat in the earth is harnessed as:
(a) Fuel
(b) Geothermal energy
(c) Solar energy
(d) Biomass
Answer:
(b) Geothermal energy

Question 18.
Main constituent of LPG is:
(a) Butane
(b) Methane
(c) Propane
(d) Ethane
Answer:
(c) Propane

Question 19.
High calorific value of a material represents:
(a) A good manure
(b) A good fuel
(c) Protein rich material
(d) A good conductor of electricity
Answer:
(b) A good fuel

Question 20.
…………………… is a coal with highest carbon content
(a) Bituminous
(b) Peat
(c) Anthracite
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Anthracite

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 14 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name two things which are considered as good source of energy.
Answer:
Coal and petrol.

Question 2.
Write a main characteristic of a good fuel.
Answer:
It should release a large amount of energy per unit volume.

Question 3.
Which food product can be used to produce light energy?
Answer:
Cooking oil and fodder.

Question 4.
What kind of energy source can be used with the help of concave mirror?
Answer:
Solar energy when being used in solar appliances.

Question 5.
What kind of energy is heat energy of molten rock present inside earth core?
Answer:
Geothermal energy.

Question 6.
Name two energy sources which are conventional and renewable in nature.
Answer:
Biomass and hydroelectricity.

Question 7.
Write one limitation of use of fossil fuels.
Answer:
Pollution.

Question 8.
How much percent of CH₄ is present in Bio gas?
Answer:
75%.

Question 9.
Write two kind of solar energy manifestation to oceans.
Answer:
Wave energy and ocean thermal energy.

Question 10.
What percentage of nuclear energy is contributed in total energy production in India?
Answer:
Approximately 3-4%.

Question 11.
What is main source of solar energy?
Answer:
Sun is the main source of energy.

Question 12.
Give one cause of limitation of solar energy.
Answer:
Solar energy is costly.

Question 13.
What is nuclear energy?
Answer:
Nuclear fission is the process during which two nucleus fuse to form one nucleus. The energy which is produced in this process called nuclear energy.

Question 14.
Give three examples of energy which is produced from sea.
Answer:
Tidal Energy, wave energy and Ocean thermal energy.

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 14 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why it is important to consume energy wisely?
Answer:
When we use energy in its usable form we convert the form of energy and get our work done during the process. Since, we cannot reverse . the change involved in this process so we cannot get back the original usable form of energy. Due to this, it becomes important to think about energy shortage and the related energy crisis.

Question 2.
Write characteristics of a good source of energy.
Answer:
Characteristics of a good source of energy are:

• It should be effective i.e., able to do large amount of work in mass or volume.
• It should be easily accessible.
• It should be easily transported from one place to other.
• It should be economical.

Question 3.
What are conventional sources of energy?
Answer:
The sources of energy which have been in knowledge since a long time are conventional sources of energy. Firewood, coal, petroleum, natural gas, hydel energy, wind energy and nuclear energy are considered to be the conventional sources of energy.

Question 4.
Give two examples of fossil fuels.
Answer:
Two examples of fossil fuels used commercially for producing energy are:

Coal: The plants buried under swamps after death for very long time and due to high pressure and high temperature inside the earth; they are converted into coal. Coal is the highest used energy source in India.

Petroleum: The animals body after death get buried under the ocean surface and due to high pressure and high tempera lure inside the water were converted into petroleum; in due course of time Petroleum is among the major source of energy. Petroleum products are used as automobile fire! and also in the chemical industries.

Question 5.
Differentiate between non-renewable and renewable sources of Energy.
Answer:
Non-renewable sources of Energy: It takes millions of years for the formation of fossils fuels. Since, they cannot be replenished in the foreseeable future, they are known as non-renewable sources of energy.

Renewable sources of Energy: Those sources of energy which can be replenished quickly are called renewable sources of energy. Hydel energy, wind energy and solar energy are examples of renewable sources of energy.

Question 6.
What is hydel energy?
Answer:
Hydel Energy: Hydel energy is produced by utilizing the kinetic energy of flowing water. Huge dams are built over a source of water. Water is collected behind ‘the dam and released. When the water falls on the turbine; the turbine moves; because of kinetic energy of water. Electricity is generated by the turbine. Electricity; thus generated is called hydel energy of hydroelectricity. Water in the reservoir is replenished with rainwater and so, availability of water is, not a problem for hydroelectricity.

Question 7.
How electricity is generated in thermal power plant?
Answer:
In a thermal power plant, coal or petroleum is used for converting water into steam. The steam is used to run the turbine and thus, electricity in generated.

Question 8.
Define biomass.
Answer:
Biomass: The plants and animals constitute the biomass. Farm waste; such as stalks of harvested plants and dung of cattle; can be used to generate methane. The decomposition of biomass produces methane; which can be channelized for useful purposes.

Question 9.
What is bio-gas plant? How it is channelized?
Answer:
Bio-gas plant: Bio-gas plant can be very useful in solving the energy need of rural areas. A bio gas plant is a dome like structure which is usually built from bricks and concrete. In the mixing tank; the slurry is made from cow dung and water. The slurry then goes to the digester; which is a closed chamber. Since oxygen is absent in the digester, the anaerobes carry on their work of decomposition. The process of decomposition produces bio gas. Bio gas has about 70% of methane and the rest is composed of other gases.

The bio gas is channelized through a pipe and can be utilitzed as kitchen fuel and also as fuel for getting light. The slurry; left behind; is removed. It is used as manure, once it dries.

Question 10.
What is wind energy?
Answer:
Wind energy has been in use since ages. The sail boats of the pre-industrialisation era used to run on wind power. Windmills have been in use; especially in Holland; since the medieval period. Nowadays, windmills are being used to generate electricity. The kinetic energy of wind is utilized to run the turbines; which generate electricity.

Question 11.
What is non-conventional sources of energy?
Answer:
Energy sources which are relatively new are called non-conventional sources of energy, e.g., nuclear power and solar energy.

Question 12.
Explain solar energy.
Answer:
The sun is the main source of energy for all living beings on this earth. Even the energy in the fossil fuels has come from the sun. The sun is an endless reservoir of energy which would be available as long as the solar system is in existence. Technologies for harnessing the solar energy have been developed in recent times.

Question 13.
What is solar cooker and how food is cooked in it?
Answer:
Solar cooker is very simple in design and mode of function. It is usually made from mirrors. Plane mirrors are placed inside a rectangular box. The light reflected from the plane mirrors concentrates the solar energy inside the solar cooker which generates enough heat to cook food.

Question 14.
What are solar cells?
Answer:
Solar cells: Solar cells are made from silicon. The solar panel converts solar energy into electrical energy which is stored in a battery; for later use.

Question 15.
What is tidal energy?
Answer:
Due to the gravitational pull of the moon, tides happen near seashores. Water rushes up near the seashore during a high tide and goes down during a low tide. Dams are built near seashores to collect the water which comes during a high tide. When the water runs back to the ocean, the flow of water can be utilized to generate electricity.

Question 16.
How energy is generated from molten rocks?
Answer:
The molten rocks from the inside the earth are pushed in certain regions of the earth. Such regions are called the hot spots of the earth. When groundwater comes in contact with such hot spots, lot of steam is generated. This steam can be harnessed to produce energy which is called Geothermal Energy.

Question 17.
What is nuclear energy?
Answer:
Nuclear fission is the process during which two nucleus fuse to form one . nucleus. The process generates a huge amount of energy. This phenomenon is utilized in nuclear power plants. Nuclear power is safest for the environment but the risk of damage due to accidental leaks of radiation is pretty high. Further, storage of nuclear waste is a big problem because of potential risk of radiation involved. Nonetheless, many countries are using nuclear power in a big way.

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 14 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define biomass. What is Bio gas plant? How it is channelized?
Answer:
Biomass: The plants and animals constitute the biomass. Farm waste; such as stalks of harvested plants and dung of cattle; can be used to generate methane. The decomposition of biomass produces methane; which can be channelized for useful purposes.

Bio gas plant: Bio gas plant can be very useful in solving the energy need of rural areas. A bio gas plant is a dome like structure which is usually built from bricks and concrete. In the mixing tank; the slurry is made from cow dung and water. The slurry then goes to the digester; which is a closed chamber. Since oxygen is absent in the digester, the anaerobes carry on their work of decomposition. The process of decomposition produces bio gas, has about 70% of methane and the rest ‘is composed of other gases. The bio gas is channelized through a pipe and can be utilized as kitchen fuel and also as fuel for getting light. The slurry; left behind; is removed. It is used as manure, once it dries.

Question 2.
What is wind energy? Write limitations of wind energy.
Answer:
Wind energy has been in use since ages. The sail boats of the re-industrialization era used to run on wind power. Windmills have been in use; especially in Holland; since the medieval period.

Nowadays, windmills are being used to generate electricity. The kinetic energy of wind is utilized to run the turbines; which generate electricity.

Limitations of wind Energy: Wind farms can only be established at those places where the wind speed is high enough and is more than 15 km/hr for most parts of the year. Wind farms need to be established on large tracts of land. The fan of the windmill has many moving parts; so cost of maintenance and repair is quite high. The fact, that it has to suffer the vagaries of the nature, further compounds the problem. Initial cost of establishing a wind farm is very high.

Question 3.
Briefly explain energy from sea.
Answer:
Tidal energy: Due to the gravitational pull of the moon, tides happen at seashores. Water rushes up near the seashore during a high tide and goes down during a low tide. Dams are built near seashores to collect the water which comes during a high tide. When the water runs back to the ocean, the flow of water can be utilized to generate electricity.

Wave Energy: Waves can also be a good source of energy. Many devices are being designed and tested to produce wave energy. For example; a hollow tower is built near the seashore. When water gushes in the tube because of wave, it forces the air upwards. The kinetic energy of air in the tube is used to run a turbine. When the wave goes down; air from up goes down the tube which is also used in running the turbine.

Ocean Thermal Energy. The water at sea surface is hot during daytime, while the water at lower level is cold. The temperature differential in water levels can be utilized to generate energy. If the temperature differential is more than 20°C, then ocean thermal energy can be utilized from that place. For this, a volatile liquid; like ammonia; is boiled using the heat from the hot water at the surface. The steam of the volatile liquid is utilized to run the turbine to generate electricity. Colder water from the surface below is utilized to condense ammonia vapour which is then channelized to the surface to repeat the cycle.

Question 4.
Explain Solar Energy. How is food cooked with help of solar energy and also explain its limitations.
Answer:
The sun is the main source of energy for all living beings on this earth. Even the energy in the fossil fuels has come from the sun. The sun has an endless reservoir of energy which would be available as long as the solar system is in existence. Technologies for harnessing the solar energy hav been developed in recent times.

Solar cooker is very simple in design and mode of function. It is usually made from mirrors. Plane mirrors are placed inside a rectangular box. The light reflected from the plane mirrors concentrates the solar energy inside the solar cooker which generates enough heat to cook food.

Limitations of solar Energy: The technologies for harnessing solar energy are at a nascent stage. At present, the cost benefit ratio for using solar energy is not conducive. Using solar energy is exhorbitantly costly.

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 14 NCERT Textbook Activities

Class 10 Science Activity 14.1 Page No. 242

• List four forms of energy that you use from morning, when you wake up, till you reach the school.
• From where do we get these different forms of energy?
• Can we call these ‘sources’ of energy? Why or why not?

Observations:

• Forms of energy that we use are electrical energy, mechanical energy, chemical energy for vehicles, chemical energy from food.
• Energy can neither created nor destroyed. It is just transferred from one form to the other.
• The ‘sources’ of energy are the one which releases energy to be used in such forms.

Class 10 Science Activity 14.2 Page No. 243

• Consider the various options we have when we choose a fuel for cooking our food.
• What are the criteria you would consider when trying to categories something as a good fuel?
• Would your choice be different if you lived:

(a) in a forest?
(b) in a remote mountain village or small island?
(c) in New Delhi?
(d) lived five centuries ago?

• How are the factors different in each case?

Observations:

• The criteria for good fuel inducts amount of energy released upon combustion, smoke produced or not, easily accessible, economical and easy be store and transport.
• In forest or remote village, wood from forests can be used as fuel.
• In new Delhi, electrical energy would be a choice.
• Five centuries ago, may be mechanical energy would have been used.
• Factors includes availability of the sunrises and case in utilizing them.

Class 10 Science Activity 14.3 Pages No. 244-245

• Take a table-tennis ball and make three slits into it.
• put semicircular fins cut out a metal sheet into these slits.
• Pivot the tennis ball on an axle through its centre with a straight metal wire fixed to a rigid support. Ensure that the tennis ball rotates freely about the axle.
• Now connect a cycle dynamo to this,
• Connect a bulb in series.
• Direct a jet of water or steam produced in a pressure cooker at the fins (Fig. 14.2). What do you observe?

Fig. 14.2: A model to demonstrate the process – of thermo – electric production.

Observations:

• We observe that fan starts morning. The rotor blade also moves with speed that turn the shaft of the dynamo and concert the mechanical energy into electrical energy.

Class 10 Science Activity 14.4 Page No. 248

• Find out from your grand-parents or other elders:
  • (a) how did they go to school?
  • (b) how did they get water for their daily needs when they were young?
  • (c) what means of entertainment did they use?
• Compare the above answers with how you do these tasks now.
• Is there a difference? If yes, in which case more energy from external sources is consumed? _

Observations:

• Earlier, people used to go school on-foot.
• The water were drawn from wells from far off places and carried on head in pots to the home.
• Means of entertainment includes folk dances, songs etc.
• The scenario has totally changed, nowadays, people are being separately and generally, not in noses as were done decades ago. More energy from internal sources is consumed these days to fulfill the demands of energy which is inversed a lot.

Class 10 Science Activity 14.5 Page No. 249

• Take two conical flasks and paint one white and the other black. Fill both with water.
• Place the conical flasks in direct sunlight for half an hour to one hour.
• Touch the conical flasks. Which one is hotter? You could also measure the temperature of the water in the two conical flasks with a thermometer.
• Can you think of ways in which this finding could be used in your daily life?

Observations:

• The one with black colour is hotter as black absorbs more heat as compared to white one.
• In daily life, we apply this on the colour we wear. The days which are that, we avoid black colours as they absorb more heat. Sincerity for cooling effect, white colours used.

Class 10 Science Activity 14.6 Pages No. 249-250

• Study the structure and working of a solar cooker and/or a solar water- heater, particularly with regard to how it is insulated and maximum heat absorption is ensured.
• Design and build a solar cooker or water-heater using low-cost material available and check what temperatures are achieved in vour system.
• Discuss what would be the advantages and limitations of using the solar cooker or water-heater.

Observations:

• The minimum heat absorption is ensured by painting it black in colour. The glass used on the lop traps the infrared rays from the sun and do not allow them the escape.
• Advantages includes no wastage of energy as solar energy is a trapped to be used further. It is a renewable some of energy that do not create any pollution.
• Limitations includes plausibility of solar rays at certain times of day only. It will not work on sunny days.

Class 10 Science Activity 14.7 Page No. 252

• Discuss in class the question of what is the ultimate source of energy for bio-mass, wind and ocean thermal energy.
• Is geothermal energy and nuclear energy different in this respect? Why ?
• Where would you place hydro electricity and wave energy?

Observations:

• The cleaner source of energy is the sun. Yes, cleaner energy is obtained from fusion or fission of molecules whereas geothermal energy is the energy present in the earth. The energy from geological changes is harnessed to be used in various ways.
• Hydro electricity and wave energy are also form of renewable energy.

Class 10 Science Activity 14.8 Page No. 253

• Gather information about various energy sources and how each one affects the environment.
• Debate the merits and demerits of each source and select the best source of energy on this basis.

Observations:

• Among the various source of energy, renewable sources of energy are the best as they do not harm the environment and this energy can be reused and when required. Non-renewable resources of’energy are harmful to the environment and causes pollution.
• Best sources of energy arc renewable sources of energy like solar, hydro, tidal, wave energy etc.

Class 10 Science Activity 14.9 Page No. 254

• Debate the following two issues in class.

(a) The estimated coal reserves are said to be enough to last us for another two hundred years. Do you think we need to worry about coal getting depleted in this case? Why or why not?
(b) It is estimated that the Sun will last for another five billion years. Do we have to worry about solar energy getting exhausted? Why or why not?

• One the basis of the debate, decide which energy sources can be considered

1. exhaustible
2. inexhaustible
3. renewable
4. non-renewable.

Give your reasons for each choice.

Observations:

• Yes, we need to worry about availability of coal as resources are limited they are made from fossil fuels which take millions of years to be formed. Also, they cause pollution and harm the environment.
• Sun will least for another five billion years but we should use this to the maximum as there are still so many years in which it can be utilized, harness eat and stored.
• Exhaustible are those energy sources which will get exhausted soon from fossil fuel inexhaustible are the one like solar, tidal etc. Renewable can be used whereas non-renewable are not used again and again.

MP Board Class 10th Science Solutions

MP Board Class 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 10 Intext Questions

Class 10th Science Chapter 10 Intext Questions Page No. 168

Question 1.
Define the principal focus of a concave mirror.
Answer:
The number of rays parallel to the principal axis are falling on a concave mirror which meat at a point is called principal focus of the concave mirror.

(or)

Light rays that are parallel to the principal axis of a concave mirror converge at a specific point on its principal axis after reflecting from the mirror. This point is known as the principal focus of concave mirror.

Question 2.
The radius of curvature of a spherical mirror is 20 cm. What is its focal length?
Answer:
R = 2f Here R = 20 cm
20 = 2f
∴ \(f=\frac { 20 }{ 2 } =10\)
∴ Focal length = 10 cm.

Question 3.
Name a mirror that can give an erect and enlarged image of an object.
Answer:
Concave mirror can give an erect and enlarged image of an object when object is placed between the pole and principal focus.

Question 4.
Why do we prefer a convex mirror as a rear-view mirror in vehicles?
Answer:
A convex mirror when fitted at rear-view position of vehicles, it gives a wider field of view, with which driver can see most of the traffic behind him. Convex mirrors give a virtual, erect and diminished image of the objects in front of it. So, we prefer a convex mirror as a rear-view mirror in vehicles.

Class 10th Science Chapter 10 Intext Questions Page No. 171

Question 1.
Find the focal length of a convex mirror whose radius of curvature is 32 cm.
Answer:
Radius of curvature, R = 32 cm
Radius of curvature = 2f
\(R=2f=\frac { R }{ 2 } =\frac { 32 }{ 2 } =16\)
∴ Convex mirror focal length is = 16cm

Question 2.
A concave mirror produces three times magnified (enlarged) real image of an object placed at 10 cm in front of it. Where is the image located?
Answer:

Let the height of the object = h₀ = h
Then, height of the image, h₁ = -3h (Image formed is real)
= \(\frac { -3h }{ h } \) = \(\frac { -v }{ u } \)
Object-distance, u = – 10 cm
v = 3 × (- 10)
= – 30 cm
Here, the negative sign indicates that an inverted image is formed at a distance of 30 cm in front of the given concave mirror.

Class 10th Science Chapter 10 Intext Questions Page No. 176

Question 1.
A ray of light travelling in air enters obliquely into water. Does the light ray bend towards the normal or away from the normal? Why?
Answer:
Lightray bend towards normal. Because when a ray of light enters from rearer medium to denser medium, it changes its direction in the second medium.

Question 2.
Light enters from air to glass having refractive index 1.50. What is the speed of light in the glass? The speed of light in vacuum is 3 × 108 ms-1.
Answer:
Refractive index of a medium:
µm = Speed of light in vacuum/Speed of light in the medium
Speed of light in vacuum, c = 3 × 10⁸ ms^-1
Refractive index of glass, µ_g = 1.50
Speed of light in the glass,
v = Speed of light in vacuum / Refractive index of glass
= c/µ_g
= 3 × 10⁸/1.50
= 2 × 10⁸ ms^-1.

Question 3.
Find out, from Table the medium having highest optical density. Also find the medium w ith lowest optical density.
Table:

Answer:
Highest optical density = Diamond.
Lowest optical density = Air.

Optical density of a medium is proportional to the refractive index. Hence, medium with highest refractive index will have the highest optical density and vice-versa. It can be observed from table that diamond and air respectively have the highest and lowest refractive index. Therefore, diamond has the highest optical density and air has the lowest optical density.

Question 4.
You are given kerosene, turpentine and water. In which of these does the light travel fastest? Use the information given in table.

Answer:
Light travel faster in water when compared to kerosene and turpentine, since the refractive index of water is lower than kerosene and turpentine. The speed of light is inversely proportional to the refractive index.

Question 5.
The refractive index of diamond is 2.42. What is the meaning of this statement?
Answer:
It means Ratio of velocity of light in air and velocity of air in diamond is 2.42.

Class 10th Science Chapter 10 Intext Questions Page No. 184

Question 1.
Define 1 dioptre of power of a lens.
Answer:
1 dioptre is the power of lens whose focal length is 1 metre 1 D = 1 m^-1

Question 2.
A convex lens forms a real and inverted image of a needle at a distance of 50 cm from it. Where is the needle placed in front of the convex lens if the image is equal to the size of the object? Also, find the power of the lens.
Answer:
Image of Needle is real and inverted means this is real image it is 2f
Image is at a distance of 50 cm
Hence needle is kept 50 cm in front of convex lens.
Distance of object, u = – 50 cm.
Distance of image v = 50 cm
Focal length f = ?
As per lens formula.

f = 25 cm = 0.25 m
Power of the lens

Power of the lens P = + 4D.

Question 3.
Find the power of a concave lens of focal length 2 m.
Answer:
Focal length of concave lens, f = 2 m
Power of lens, P = \(\frac { 1 }{ f } \) = \(\frac { 1 }{ (-2) } \) = -0.5D

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 10 NCERT Textbook Exercises

Question 1.
Which one of the following materials cannot be used to make a lens?
(a) Water
(b) Glass
(c) Plastic
(d) Clay
Answer:
(d) A lens allows light to pass through it, but clay does not have that property.

Question 2.
The image formed by a concave mirror is observed to be virtual, erect and larger than the object. Where should be the position of the object?
(a) Between the principal focus and the centre of curvature
(b) At the centre of curvature
(c) Beyond the centre of curvature
(d) Between the pole of the mirror and its principal focus.
Answer:
(d) Between the pole of the mirror and its principal focus.

Question 3.
Where should an object be placed in front of a convex lens to get a real image of the size of the object?
(a) At the principal focus of the lens
(b) At twice the focal length
(c) At infinity
(d) Between the optical centre of the lens and its principal focus.
Answer:
(b) When an object is placed at the centre of curvature in front of a convex lens, its image is formed at the centre of curvature on the other side of the lens.

Question 4.
A spherical mirror and a thin spherical lens have each a focal length of -15 cm. The mirror and the lens are likely to be:
(а) both concave
(b) both convex
(c) the mirror is concave and the lens is convex
(d) the mirror is convex, but the lens is concave
Answer:
(а) both concave

Question 5.
No matter how far you stand from a mirror, your image appears erpct. The mirror is likely to be
(a) plane
(b) concave
(c) convex
(d) either plane or convex
Answer:
(d) either plane or convex

Question 6.
Which of the following lenses would you prefer to use while reading small letters found in a dictionary?
(a) A convex lens of focal length 50 cm
(b) A concave lens of focal length 50 cm
(c) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm
(d) A concave lens of focal length 5 cm
Answer:
(c)

Question 7.
We wish to obtain an erect image of an object, using a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. What should be the range of distance of the object from the mirror? What is the nature of the image? Is the image larger or smaller than the object? Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.
Answer:
Range of the distance of the object = 0 cm to 15 cm.
Nature of the image = virtual, erect and larger than the object.

Question 8.
Name the type of mirror used in the following situations.
(a) Headlights of a car.
(b) Side/rear-view mirror of a vehicle.
(c) Solar furnace.
Support your answer with reason.
Answer:
(a) Concave mirror: Concave mirrors can produce powerful parallel ’ beam of light when the light source is placed at their principal focus. Hence, we can visualize ways easily in little light.

(b) Convex mirror: A convex mirror when fitted at rear view position of vehicles, it gives a wider field of view, with which driver can see most of the traffic behind him.

(c) Concave mirror: They are converging mirrors. This is because it concentrates the parallel rays of sun at principal focus and increase intensity of light falling on it.

Question 9.
One-half of a convex lens is covered with a black paper. Will this lens produce a complete image of the object? Verify your answer experimentally. Explain your observations.
Answer:
Yes, the convex lens will form complete image of the object, even if its one half is covered with black paper. Following two cases can better explain it:

Case I : When the upper half of the lens is covered.
In this case, a ray of light coming from the object is being refracted by the lower half of the lens. These rays meet at the other side of the lens to form the image of the given object.

Case II : If the lower half of the lens is covered.
In this case, a ray of light coming from the object is being refracted by the upper half of the lens. These rays meet at the other side of the lens to form the image of the given object.

Question 10.
An object 5 cm in length.is held 25 cm away from a converging lens of focal length 10 cm. Draw the ray diagram and find the position, size and the nature of the image formed.
Answer:
Converging lens means a convex lens. As the distances given in the question are large, so we choose a scale of 1 : 5, i.e., 1 cm represents 5 cm. Therefore, on this scale 5 cm high object, object distance of 25 cm and focal length of 10 cm can be represented by 1 cm high, 5 cm and 2 cm lines respectively. Now, we draw the ray diagram as follows;

1. Draw a horizontal line to represent ‘die principal axis of the convex lens.
2. Centre line is shown by DE.
3. Mark two foci F and F’ on two sides of the lens, each at a distance of 2 cm from the lens.
4. Draw an arrow AB of height 1 cm on the left side of lens at a distance of 5 cm from the lens.
5. Draw a line AD parallel to principal axis and then allow it to pass straight through the focus (F’) on the right side of the lens.
   
6. Draw a line from A to C (centre of the lens), which goes straight without deviation.
7. Let the two lines starting from A meet at A’.
8. Draw A’B’, perpendicular to the principal axis from A’.
9. Now A’B represents the real, but inverted image of the object AB.
10. Then, measure CB’ and A’B’. It is found that CB’ = 3.3 cm and A’B’ = 0.7 cm.
11. Thus the final position, nature and size of the image A’B’ are
    • (a) Position of image A’B’ = 3.3 cm × 5 = 16.5 cm from the lens on opposite side.
    • (b) Nature of image A’B’: Real and inverted.
    • (c) Height of image A’B’: 0.7 × 5 = 3.5 cm, i.e., image is smaller than the object.

Question 11.
A concave lens of focal length 15 cm forms an image 10 cm from the lens. How far is the object placed from the lens? Draw the ray diagram.

Answer:
Focal length of concave lens f = – 15 cm
Image distance, v = – 10 cm
According to the lens formula,
\(\frac { 1 }{ v } \) – \(\frac { 1 }{ u } \) = \(\frac { 1 }{ f } \)

On solving we get, u = – 30 cm
The negative value of u indicates that the object is placed 30 cm in front of the lens. This is shown in the above ray diagram.

Question 12.
An object is placed at a distance of 10 cm from a convex mirror of focal length 15 cm. Find the position and nature of the image.
Answer:
Focal length of convex mirror,
f = +15 cm
Object distance, u = -10 cm
As per lens formula

Magnification \(=\frac{v}{u}=\frac{-6}{-10}=0.6\)
Virtual image is formed at the distance of 6 cm and it is erect.

Question 13.
The magnification produced by a plane mirror is +1. What does this mean?
Answer:
The positive sign means image formed by a plane mirror is virtual and erect. Since, the magnification is I, it means that the size of the image is equal to the size of the object.

Question 14.
An object 5.0 cm in length is placed at a distance of 20 cm in front of a convex mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm. Find the position of the image, its nature and size.
Answer:
Object distance, u = – 20 cm
Object height, h = 5 cm
Radius of curvature, R = 30 cm
Radius of curvature = 2 × focal length
R = 2f ⇒ f = 15 cm
According to the mirror formula,
\(\frac { 1 }{ v } \) + \(\frac { 1 }{ u } \) = \(\frac { 1 }{ f } \)
The positive value indicates that the image is formed behind the mirror.

The positive value of image height indicates image is virtual, erect and smaller in size.

Question 15
An object of size 7.0 cm is placed at 27 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 18 cm. At what distance from the mirror should a screen be placed, so that a sharp focussed image can be obtained? Find the size and the nature of the image.
Answer:
Object-distance, u = – 27 cm
Object-height, h = 7 cm
Focal length, f = – 18 cm
According to the mirror formula,
\(\frac { 1 }{ v } \) + \(\frac { 1 }{ u } \) = \(\frac { 1 }{ f } \)
Putting values, \(\frac { 1 }{ v } \) + \(\frac { 1 }{ (-27) } \) = \(\frac { 1 }{ (-18) } \)
So, v = – 54 cm
The screen should be placed at a distance of 54 cm in front of the given mirror
and \(\frac{h_{2}}{h_{1}}=\frac{-v}{u}\)
h₂ = -14 cm
The negative value of image indicates that the image is inverted.

Question 16.
Find the focal length of a lens of power – 2.0 D. What type of lens is this?
Answer:
Given, P = -2D
Power of lens. p = \(\frac { 1 }{ f } \)
and, f = – \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \)
\(\frac{h_{2}}{h_{1}}=\frac{-v}{u}\)
= – 0.5 m
A concave lens, because it has a negative value of focal length.

Question 17.
A doctor has prescribed a corrective lens of power + 1.5 D. Find the focal length of the lens. Is the prescribed lens diverging or converging?
Answer:
Given, P = 1.5.D
Power of lens, P = \(\frac { 1 }{ f } \)
and, focal length f = \(\frac { 1 }{ 1.5 } \)
= \(\frac { 10 }{ 15 } \) = 0.66 m
A convex lens, because it has a positive focal length. Lens is converging.

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 10 Additional Important Questions

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 10 Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The image formed by a convex lens is virtual, erect and larger than the object. The position of the object must be:
(a) Between the lens and its focus
(b) At the focus
(c) At twice the focal length
(d) At infinity
Answer:
(a) Between the lens and its focus

Question 2.
A real image formed by a convex lens is always:
(a) On the same side of the lens as the object
(b) Erect
(c) Inverted
(d) Smaller than the object
Answer:
(c) Inverted

Question 3.
If an object is moved towards a convex lens, the size of its image:
(a) Decreases
(b) Increases
(c) First decreases and then increases
(d) Remains the same
Ans.
(b) Increases

Question 4.
An object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. The image will be:
(a) Real and of same size
(b) Real and magnified
(c) Real and diminished
(d) virtual and magnified
Answer:
(a) Real and of same size

Question 5.
A concave mirror always forms real and inverted image except when the object is placed:
(a) At infinity
(b) Between F and C
(c) At F
(d) Between F and pole of the mirror
Answer:
(b) Between F and C

Question 6.
The mirror which has a wide field of view must be:
(a) Concave
(b) Convex
(c) Plane
(d) None of these
Ans.
(b) Convex

Question 7.
The image formed by a concave mirror:
(a) Is always real
(b) Is always virtual
(c) Can be both real and virtual
(d) None of these
Ans.
(c) Can be both real and virtual

Question 8.
An object is placed 20 cm from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm. The image must be:
(a) Real and diminished
(b) Real and of same size
(c) Real and enlarged
(d) Virtual and enlarged
Answer:
(b) Real and of same size

Question 9.
The ratio of the focal length of spherical mirror to its radius of curvature is:
(a) 0.5
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
Answer:
(a) 0.5

Question 10.
A real and inverted image of the same size is formed by a concave mirror when the object is placed:
(a) Between the mirror and its focus.
(b) Between the focus and the centre of curvature.
(c) At the centre of curvature.
(d) Beyond the centre of curvature.
Ans.
(c) At the centre of curvature.

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 10 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is a mirror? Mention the different types of mirrors commonly used.
Answer:
Mirror: A highly polished surface which is smooth enough to reflect a good fraction of light incident on it is called a mirror. The mirror may be a highly polished metal surface or an ordinary glass plate coated with a thin silver layer.

Question 2.
What is the number of images of an object held between two plane parallel mirrors?
Answer:
Infinity.

Question 3.
Does the refractive index for a given pair of media depend on the angle of incidence?
Answer:
No, it is independent of the angle of incidence.

Question 4.
The refractive index of water with respect to air is \(\frac { 4 }{ 3 } \). What is the refractive index of air with respect to water?
Answer:
Refractive index of air with respect to water = \(\frac { 3 }{ 4 } \)

Question 5.
Can absolute refractive index of a medium exceed unity?
Answer:
No, because speed of light is maximum in vacuum.

Question 6.
Why does a ray of light bend when it travels from one medium to another?
Answer:
The bending of light or refraction occurs due to the change in the speed of light as it passes from one medium to another due to change in the density of the medium.

Question 7.
What happens when a ray of light strikes the surface of separation between the two media at right angle?
Ans.
The ray of light passes undeflected from one medium to another.
Here, ∠i = ∠r = 0°

Question 8.
What do you mean by a magnification less than unity?
Answer:
It means that the size of the image is smaller than the size of the object.

Question 9.
Which spherical mirror has

1. a real focus and
2. a virtual focus?

Answer:

1. A concave mirror has a real focus.
2. A convex mirror has a virtual focus.

Question 10.
State the position of the object for which a concave mirror produces virtual magnified image.
Answer:
The object should be placed between F and P of the concave mirror.

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 10 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the type of mirror(s) that should be used to obtain:
(i) a magnified and virtual image.
(ii) a diminished and virtual image of an object.
Draw labelled diagrams to show the formation of the required image in each of the above two cases. Which of these mirrors could also form a magnified and real image of the object? State the position of object for which this could happen.
Answer:
(i) Concave mirror.

Fig. 10.3 : Concave mirror with the object between F and P.

(ii) Convex mirror.

Fig. 10.4: Convex mirror with the object between pole and infinity.

Question 2.
Explain the uses of concave and convex mirrors.
Answer:
Uses of concave mirrors:
1. Shaving mirror : A concave mirror is used as a shaving or make-up mirror because it forms erect and enlarged image of the face when it is held closer to the face.

2. As head mirror : E.N.T. specialists use a concave mirror on their forehead. The light from a lamp after reflection from the mirror is focussed into the throat, ear or nose of the patient making the affected part more visible.

3. In ophthalmoscope : It consists of a concave mirror with a small hole at its centre. The doctor looks through the hole from behind the mirror while a beam of light from a lamp reflected from it, is directed into the pupil of patient’s eye which makes the retina visible.

4. In headlights : Concave mirrors are used as reflectors in headlights of motor vehicles railway engines, torch lights etc. The source is placed at the focus of the concave mirror. The light rays after reflection travel over a. large distance as a parallel beam of high intensity.

5. In astronomical telescopes : A concave mirror of large diameter (5 m or more) is used as objective in an astronomical telescope. It collects light from the sky and makes visible even those faint stars which cannot be seen with naked eye.

6. In solar furnaces : Large concave mirrors are used to concentrate sunlight to produce heat in solar furnace.

Uses of convex mirrors : Drivers use convex mirror as a rear-view mirror in automobiles because of the following two reasons:

1. A convex mirror always forms an erect, virtual and diminished image of an object placed anywhere in front of it.
2. A convex mirror has a wider field of view than a plane mirror of the same size as shown in Fig. 10.5.

Fig. 10.5: Field of view of (a) a plane mirror, (b) a convex mirror.

Thus, convex mirrors enable the driver to view much larger traffic behind him than would be possible with a plane mirror. The main disadvantage of a convex mirror is that it does not give the correct distance and the speed of the vehicle approaching from behind.

Question 3.
State the characteristics of the image formed by a convex mirror. What is the value of angle of incidence and angle of reflection when a ray of light retraces its path after reflection from a convex mirror? Illustrate with the help of a ray diagram.
Answer:
Properties of the image formed by a convex mirror:

(a) The image is always virtual and erect.
(b) The image is highly diminished or point sized.
(c) It is always formed between F and P.
(d) As the object is moved towards the pole of a convex mirror, image also moves towards its pole and gradually increases in size till its size becomes almost equal to that of the object.

When array of light retraces its path, ∠i = ∠r = 0°.

Fig. 10.6: A ray directed towards C is reflected back along same path after reflection from a convex mirror.

Question 4.
State the new Cartesian sign convention followed for reflection of light by spherical mirrors.
Answer:
According to this convention:

1. The object is on the left of the mirror. So all the ray diagrams are drawn with the incident light travelling from left to right.
2. All the distances parallel to the principal axis are measured from the pole of the mirror.
3. All distances measured in the direction of incident light are taken as positive.
4. All distances measured in the opposite direction of incident light are taken as negative.
5. Heights measured upwards and perpendicular to the principal axis are taken positive.
6. Heights measured downwards and perpendicular to the principal axis are taken negative.

Fig. 10.7: New Cartesian sign convention for reflection of light by spherical mirrors.

Question 5.
State the type of mirror preferred as
(i) rear view mirror in vehicles
(ii) shaving mirror. Justify your answer giving two reasons in each case.
Answer:
(i) A convex mirror is preferred as a rear-view mirror because:

(a) It always forms an erect, virtual and diminished image of an object placed anywhere in front of it.
(b) It has wider field of view.

(ii) A concave mirror is preferred as a shaving mirror because when it is held closer to the face, it forms:

(a) an enlarged image of the face.
(b) an erect image of the face.

Question 6.
State the laws of refraction of light.
Answer:
Laws of refraction of light: The refraction of light obeys the following two laws:
1st law: The incident ray, the refracted ray and normal to the interface of two transparent media at the point of incidence, all lie in the same plane.

2nd law: The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence to the sine of the angle of refraction is constant for a given pair of media.
Mathematically,

The ratio µ21 is called refractive index of the second medium with respect to the first medium. The second law of refraction is also called Snell’s law of refraction.

Question 7.
What is the physical significance of refractive index?
Answer:
The refractive index of any medium gives the ratio of the speed of light in vacuum to the speed of light in that medium. For example, the refractive index of water, µ_w = 1.33. This means that the ratio of the speed of light in vacuum or air to the speed of light in water is 1.33.

Question 8.
What do you mean by optically denser and optically rarer media? How is the speed of light related to optical density?
Answer:
The optical density of a medium represents its ability to refract light. A medium having larger refractive index is called optically denser medium than the other. The other medium having lower refractive index is called optically rarer medium.

The speed of light is higher in a rarer medium than a denser medium. Thus, a ray of light travelling from a rarer medium to a denser medium slows down and bends towards the normal.

When it travels from a denser medium to a rarer medium, it speeds up and bends away from the normal.

Table:
Refractive indices of some material media (with respect to vacuum)

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 10 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
With the help of a ray diagram, state and explain the laws of reflection of light at a plane mirror. Mark the angles of incidence and reflection clearly on the diagram.
Answer:
As shown in Fig. 10.8, when a ray of light is incident on a mirror, it gets reflected in accordance with the following laws of reflection.
1st law: The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal at the point of incidence all lie in the same plane.
2nd law: The angle of incidence (i) is equal to the angle of reflection (r) i.e.∠i = ∠r

Fig.10.8: Reflection in a plane mirror.

Question 2.
What is lateral inversion of an image? What is the cause of lateral inversion?
Answer:
Lateral inversion: If we stand before a plane mirror and move our right hand, our image appears to move its left hand. In fact, our entire image is reversed sideways. This sideways reversal of the image is known as lateral inversion.

Cause of lateral inversion: Lateral inversion is due to the fact that in a plane mirror the image is as far behind the mirror as the object is in front of it, and that the front of the image and the front of the object face each other. The laterally inverted image of the word PAPYRUS is as shown in Fig. 10.9. The images of symmetrical letters like A, H, I, M, O, T, U, V, W, X, Y, 8 are not affected by lateral inversion.

Fig.10.9: Lateral inversion before a mirror.

Question 3.
Define the following terms in connection with spherical mirrors:
(i) Angular aperture
(ii) Centre of curvature
(iii) Radius of curvature
(iv) Principal axis
(v) Linear aperture
(vi) Pole
(vii) Principal force
(viii) Focal length
(ix) Principle focus Focal plane.
Answer:
Definition in connection with spherical mirrors: In Fig 10.10, let APB be a principal section of a spherical mirror, i.e., the section cut by a plane passing through pole and centre of curvature of the mirror
(i) Angular aperture : It is the angle ACB subtended by the boundary of the spherical mirror at its centre of curvature.
(ii) Centre of curvature : It is the centre C of the sphere of which the mirror forms a part.
(iii) Radius of curvature : It is the radius R (= AC or BC) of the sphere of which the mirror forms a part.
(iv) Principal axis : The line passing through the pole and the centre of curvature of mirror is called its principal axis.
(v) Linear aperture : It is the diameter AB of the circular boundary of the spherical mirror.
(vi) Pole: It is the middle point P of the spherical mirror.

Fig. 10.10: Characteristics of a concave mirror.

Question 4.
Deduce a relation between focal length (f) and radius of curvature (R) for a concave mirror.
Answer:
Relation between f and R for a concave mirror: As shown in Fig. 10.11, consider a ray AB parallel to the principal axis and incident at the point B of a concave mirror. After reflection from the mirror, this ray passes through its focus F, obeying the laws of reflection. If C is the centre of curvature, then CP = R, is the radius of curvature and CB is normal to the mirror at point B.

Fig. 10.11: Relation betweenTand R for a concave mirror.

According to the law of reflection, ∠i = ∠r
As AB is parallel to CP, so ∠a = ∠i (Alternate angles)
∠a = ∠r
Thus, ∆ BCF is isosceles,
Hence, CF = FB.
If the aperture (or size) of the mirror is small, then B lies close to P, so that,
FB = FP
FP = CF = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \) CP
or f = \(\frac { R }{ 2 } \)
or Focal lenght = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \) × Radius of curvature
Thus, the principal focus of a spherical mirror lies midway between the pole and the centre of curvature.

Question 5.
What happens to the size of the image formed by a convex mirror, when an object is gradually moved towards the mirror?
Answer:
When the object is at position A1B1, its virtual image is at a1b1 When the object is at position A2B2, its virtual image is at a2b2. So, when an object is gradually moved towards the pole of a convex mirror, its image also moves towards its pole and gradually increases in size till it has a size almost equal to that of the object. However, the image is always formed between F and P.

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 10 NCERT Text Book Activities

Class 10 Science Activity 10.1 Page No. 161

• Take a large shining spoon. Try to view your face in its curved surface.
• Do you get the image? Is it smaller or larger?
• Move the spoon slowly away from your face. Observe the image. How docs it change?
• Reverse the spoon and repeat the Activity. How does the image look like now?
• Compare the characteristics of the image on the tw o surfaces.

Observations:

• The image is formed that is smaller in size.
• On moving the spoon away, the size of the image gradually decreases with increasing field of view.
• On reversing the spoon, spoon w hen dose forms elect and magnified image on the inner curved ..urface. As we move away, image gets inverted and gradually decrease in Its size.
• The image on outer surface of spoon is erect and gradually decreases in size on moving away. The image of spoon on inner surface is erect and gets inverted on moving away. The size also decreases when moved away.

Class 10 Science Activity 10.2 Page No. 162

Caution: Do not look at the Sun directly or even into a mirror reflecting sunlight. It may damage your eyes.

• Hold a concave mirror in your hand and direct its reflecting surface towards the Sun.
• Direct the light reflected by the mirror on to a sheet of paper held close to the mirror.
• Move the sheet of paper back and forth gradually until you find on the paper sheet a bright, sharp spot of light.
• Hold the mirror and the paper in the same position for a few minutes. What do you observe? Why?

Observations:

• The paper starts burning when the mirror and paper are held in the same position for a few minutes as light rays from the sun, sharply focuses on this point and due to which heat concentrates at a point resulting in burning because of intense heating.

Class 10 Science Activity 10.3 Pages No. 163,164

You have already learnt a way of determining the focal length of a concave mirror. In activity 10.2, you have seen that the sharp bright spot of light you got on the paper is, in fact, the image of the Sun. It was a tiny, real, inverted image. You got the approximate focal length of the concave mirror by measuring the distance of the image from the mirror:

• Take a concave mirror. Find out its approximate focal length in the w ay described above. Note down the value of focal length. (You can also find it out by obtaining image of a distant object on a sheet of paper.)
• Mark a line on a table with a chalk. Place the concave mirror on a stand. Place the stand over the line such that its pole lies over the line.
• Draw with a chalk two more lines parallel to the previous line such that the distance between any two successive lines it equal to the focal length of the minor. These lines will now correspond to the positions of the points P, F and C, respectively. Remember – For a spherical mirror of small aperture, the principal focus F lies midway between the pole P and the centre of curvature C.
• Keep a bright object, say a burning candle, at a position far beyond C. Place a paper screen and move it in front of the mirror till you obtain a sharp bright image of the candle flame on it.
• Observe the image carefully. Note down its nature, position and relative size with respect to the object size.
• Repeat the activity by placing the candle-(a) just beyond C, (b) at C, (c) between F and C. (d) at F, and (c) between P and F.
• In one of the cases, you may not get the image on the screen. Identify the position of the object in such a case, Then, look for its virtual image in the mirror itself.
• Note down and tabulate your observations.

Observations:

Class 10 Science Activity 10.4 Page No. 166

• Draw neat ray diagrams for each position of the object shown in previous activity 10.3 observations.
• You may take any two of the rays mentioned in the previous section for locating the image.
• Compare your diagram with those given in Fig. 10.1.
• Describe the nature, position and relative size of the image formed in each case.
• Tabulate the results in a convenient format.

Observations:

Fig. 10.1: Ray diagrams for the image formation by a concave mirror.

Class 10 Science Activity 10.5 Page No. 167

• Take a convex mirror. Hold it in one hand.
• I Iold a pencil in the upright position in the other hand.
• Observe the image of the pencil in the mirror. Is the image erect or inverted? Is it diminished or enlarged?
• Move the pencil away from the mirror slowly. Does the image become smaller or larger?
• Repeat this Activity carefully. State whether the image will move closer to or farther away from the focus as the object is moved away from the min or?

Observations:

• The image is erect and diminished. The image becomes smaller or moving pencil away.
• The image moves closer to the focus as the object is moved away from the mirror.

Class 10 Science Activity 10.6 Page No 167

• Observe the image of a distant object, say a distant tree, in a plane mirror.
• Could you see a full-length image?
• Try with plane minors of different sizes. Did you see the entire object in the image?
• Repeat this Activity with a concave mirror. Did the mirror show full length image of the object?
• Now try using a convex mirror. Did you succeed? Explain your observations with reason.

Observations:

• No, full – length image of a distant object is not seen in a plane mirror.
• The entire images of the objects were not seen.
• No, the mirror do not show full length image of the object.
• Yes, with the convex mirror we can see full length image of distant object with under field of view’ this is because the convex mirror are used as rear or side view mirrors in vehicles. The image formed is diminished, erect and virtual.

Class 10 Science Activity 10.7 Page No. 172

• Place a coin at the bottom of a bucket filled with water.
• With your eye to a side above water, try to pick up the coin in one go. Did you succeed in picking up the coin?
• Repeat the Activity. Why did you not succeed in doing it in one go?
• Ask your friends to do this. Compare your experience with theirs.

Observations:

• No, we cannot succeed in picking up the coin.
• This happens due to refraction, the coin appears to he at some other place from where it is actually present. The light rays coming out from water tends to bend creating this problem.

Class 10 Science Activity 10.8 Page No. 172

• Place a large shallow bowl on a Table and put a coin in it.
• Move away slowly from the bowl. Stop when the coin just disappears from your sight.
• Ask a friend to pour water gently into the bowl without disturbing the coin.
• Keep looking for the coin from your position. Does the coin becomes visible again from your position? How could this happen?

Observations:

• Yes, on pouring water, it again becomes visible and little raised due to refraction.

Class 10 Science Activity 10.9 Page No. 172

• Draw a thick straight line in ink, over a sheet of white paper placed on a Table.
• Place a glass slab over the line in such a way that one of its edges make an angle with the line.
• Look at the portion of the line under the slab from the sides. What do you observe? Does the line under the glass slab appear to be bent at the edges ?
• Next, place the glass slab such that it is normal to the line. What do you observe now’ Does the part of the line under the glass slab appear bent?
• Look at the line from the top of the glass slab. Does the part of the line, beneath the slab, appear to be raised? Why does this happen?

Observations:

• The line under the glass slab appear bent at the edges due to refraction.
• No, now it does not appear bend as a ray of light perpendicular to the plane of a refracting medium does not change angle during refraction.
• Yes, this is also due to refraction that apparent position of image of object seems nearer than its actual position.

Class 10 Science Activity 10.10 Page No. 173

• Fix a sheet of white paper on a drawing board using drawing pins.
• Place a rectangular glass slab over the sheet in the middle.
• Draw the outline of the slab with a pencil. Let us name the outline as ABCD.
• Take four identical pins.
• Fix two pins, say E and F, vertically such that the line joining the pins is inclined to the edge AB.
• Look for the images of the pins E and F through the opposite edge. Fix two other pins, say G and H, such that these pins and the images of E and F lie on a straight line.
• Remove the pins and the slab.
• Join the positions of tip of the pins E and F and produce the line up to AB. Let EF meet AB at O. Similarly, join the positions of tip of the pins G and H and produce it up to the edge CD. Let HG meet CD at O’.
• Join O and O’. Also produce EF up to P, as shown by a dotted line in Fig. 10.2.

Observations:

Fig. 10.2: Refraction of light through a rectangular glass slab.

Class 10 Science Activity 10.11 Page No. 177

Caution: Do not look at the Sun directly or through a lens while doing this Activity or otherwise. You may damage your eyes if you do so.

• Hold a convex lens in your hand. Direct it towards the Sun.
• Focus the light from the Sun on a sheet of paper. Obtain a sharp bright image of the Sun.
• Hold the paper and the lens in the same position for a while. Keep observing the paper. What happened? Why? Recall your experience in Activity 10.2.

Observations:

• This is due to sharp focusing of all rays at a single point after passing through the lens. The concentration of light rays increases at a point resulting in burning of paper.

Class 10 Science Activity 10.12 Page No. 178

• Take a convex lens. Find its approximate focal length in a way described in Activity 10.11.
• Draw five parallel straight lines, using chalk, on a long Table such that the distance between the successive lines is equal to the focal length of the lens.
• Place the lens on a lens stand. Place it on the central line such that the optical centre of the lens lies just over the line.
• The two lines on cither side of the lens correspond to F and 2F of the lens respectively. Mark them with appropriate letters such as 2F₁, F₁, F₂ and 2F₂, respectively.
• Place a burning candle, far beyond 2F, to the left. Obtain a clear sharp image on a screen on the opposite side of the lens.
• Note down the nature, position and relative size of the image.
• Repeat this Activity by placing object just behind 2F₁ between F₁ and 2F₁ at F₁, between F₁ and O. Note down and tabulate your observations.

Observations:

Class 10 Science Activity 10.13 Page No. 179

• Take a concave lens. Place it on a lens stand.
• Place a burning candle on one side of the lens.
• Look through the lens from the other side and observe the image. Try to get the image on a screen, if possible. If not, observe the image directly through the lens.
• Note down the nature, relative size and approximate position of the image.
• Move the candle away from the lens. Note the change in the size of the image. What happens to the size of the image when the candle is placed too far away from the lens.

Observations:

MP Board Class 10th Science Solutions

MP Board Class 10th Science Solutions Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce?

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 8 Intext Questions

Class 10th Science Chapter 8 Intext Questions Page No. 128

Question 1.
What is the importance of DNA copying in reproduction?
Answer:
The chromosomes in the nucleus of a cell contain information for inheritance of features from parents to next generation in the form of DNA (Deoxyribo Nucleic Acid) molecules. The DNA in the cell nucleus is the information source for making proteins. Hence DNA copying is important in reproduction.

Question 2.
Why is variation beneficial to the species but not necessarily for the individual?
Answer:

If a population of reproducing organisms were suited to particular niche and if the niche were drastically altered, the population could be wiped out. However, if some variations were to be present in a few individuals in these populations, there would be some chance for them to survive.

Thus, if there were a population of bacteria living in temperature waters and if the water temperature were to be increased by global warming, most of these bacteria would die, but the few variants resistant to heat would survive and grow further. Variation is thus useful for the survival of species over time. Variation is not useful for all organisms.

Class 10th Science Chapter 8 Intext Questions Page No. 133

Question 1.
How does binary fission differ from multiple fission?
Answer:
Binary fission: It is a simple kind of division which formate new individual. In binary fission, a single cell divides into two equal halves but it is possible only with very simple single cell kind. Amoeba and Bacteria divide by binary fission.

Multiple fission: Another type of simple division is multiple fission, in this, a single cell divides into many daughter, cells, e.g., Plasmodium divide by multiple fission.

Question 2.
How will an organism be benefited if it reproduces through spores?
Answer:
The spores are covered by thick walls that protect them until they come into contact with another moist surface and can begin to grow. Thus organism be benefited if it reproduces through spores.

Question 3.
Can you think of reasons why more complex organisms cannot give rise to new individuals through regeneration?
Answer:
Multicellular organisms are not simply a random mass of cells but a carefully organized entity of tissues and organs are placed at definite positions in the body to form organ systems. These systems are well coordinated to perform specific functions. Hence complex organisms cannot reproduce through fragmentation.

Question 4.
Why is vegetative propagation practised for growing some types of plants?
Answer:
Advantages of vegetative propagation:

• Used in methods such as layering or grafting, to grow many plants like sugarcane, roses or grapes for agricultural purposes.
• Plants raised can bear more flowers and fruits in comparison to plants produced from seeds.
• Plants such as banana, orange, rose and jasmine which have lost the capacity to produce seeds can be propagated.
• All plants produced by vegetative propagation are genetically similar enough to the parent plant.

Question 5.
Why is DN Acopying an essential part of the process of reproduction?
Answer:
The consistency of DNA copying during reproduction is important for the maintenance of body design features that allow the organism to use that particular niche. Because of this DNA copying is an essential part of the process of reproduction.

Class 10th Science Chapter 8 Intext Questions Page No. 140

Question 1.
How is the process of pollination different from fertilization?
Answer:
Pollination is movement of pollens from one plant to another plant’s or its own plant’s stigma. It may require certain agents called pollinators such as air, water birds or some insects to perform. Fertilization, is a complex process, it involves the fusion of the male and female gametes. It occurs inside the ovule and leads to the formation of zygote.

Question 2.
What is the role of the seminal vesicles and the prostate gland?
Answer:
Along the path of the vas deferens, gland like the prostrate and the seminal vesicles add their secretions so that the sperms are now in a fluid which makes their transport easier and this fluid also provides nutrition.

Question 3.
What are the changes seen in girls at the time of puberty?
Answer:
The changes seen in girls at the time of puberty are:

1. Development of secondary sexual characteristics.
2. Growth in breast size and darkening of skin of the nipples.
3. Growth of hair in the genital area and other areas of skin like underarms, face, hands and legs.
4. Growth in the size of uterus and ovary hence, start of menstrual cycle periodically.

Question 4.
How does the embryo get nourishment inside the mother’s body?
Answer:
The embryo gets nutrition form the mother’s blood with the help of a special tissue called placenta. This is a disc which is embedded in the uterine wall. It contains villi on the embryo’s side of the tissue on the mother’s side are blood spaces, which surround the villi. This provides a large surface area for glucose and oxygen to pass from the mother to the embryo. The developing embryo will also generate waste substances which can be removed by transferring them into the mother’s blood through the placenta.

Question 5.
If a woman is using a copper-T, will it help in protecting her from sexually transmitted diseases?
Answer:
Copper-T will helps in protecting her from sexually transmitted diseases by helping to prevent infections of diseases.

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 8 NCERT Textbook Exercises

Question 1.
Asexual reproduction takes place through budding in:
(a) amoeba
(b) yeast
(c) plasmodium
(d) leishmania
Answer:
(b) yeast

Question 2.
Which of the following is not system in human beings? a part of the female reproductive
(a) ovary
(b) uterus
(c) vas deferens
(d) fallopian tube
Answer:
(c) vas deferens

Question 3.
The anther contains:
(a) sepal
(b) ovules
(c) carpel
(d) pollen grains
Answer:
(d) pollen grains

Question 4.
What are the advantages of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction?
Answer:
In case of asexual reproduction, new generations are produced by one organism. But in sexual reproduction, new generations are produced by two organisms (male and female). In case of sexual reproduction germ cells are produced in testes and these secrete a hormone testosterone. In human beings also develop special tissues for this purpose.

Question 5.
What are the functions performed by the testis in human beings?
Answer:
They are the glands where sperm and testosterone are generated and present in male body. The testes are contained in the scrotum and are composed of dense connective tissue. Functions of testes are as follows:

• It produces sperms, which contain haploid set of chromosomes of
• It produces testosterone, which initiate secondary sexual characteristics

Question 6.
Why does menstruation occur?
Answer:
Since the ovary releases one egg every month, the uterus also prepares itself every month to receive a fertilised egg. Thus its lining becomes thick and spongy. This would be required for nourishing the embryo if fertilisation had taken place. Now, however, this lining is not needed any longer. So the lining slowly breaks and comes out through the vagina as blood and mucous. This cycle takes place roughly every month and is known a menstruation. It usually lasts for about two to eight days.

Question 7.
Draw a labelled diagram of the longitudinal section of a flower.
Answer:

Longitudinal section flower.

Question 8.
What are the different methods of contraception?
Answer:

Many ways have been devised to avoid pregnancy. These contraceptive methods fall in a number of categories. One category is the creation of a mechanical barrier so that sperm does not reach the egg. Condoms on the penis or similar coverings worn in the vagina can serve this purpose.

Another category of contraceptives acts by changing the hormonal balance of the body so that eggs are not released and fertilisation cannot occur. These drugs commonly need to be taken orally as pills. However, Since they change hormonal balances, they can cause side effects too. Other contraceptive devices such as the loop or the copper-T are placed in the uterus to prevent pregnancy. Again, they can cause side effects due to irritation of the uterus. Surgery can also be used for removed of unwanted pregnancies.

Question 9.
How are the modes for reproduction different in unicellular and multicellular organisms?
Answer:
In unicellular organisms, reproduction occurs by the division of the entire cell. The modes of reproduction in unicellular organisms can be fission, budding etc. whereas in multi cellular organisms, specialised reproductive organs are present. Therefore, they can be reproduced by complex reproductive methods such as vegetative propagation, spore formation etc. In more complex multicellular organisms such as human beings and plants, the mode of reproduction is sexual reproduction.

Question 10.
How does reproduction help in providing stability to populations of species?
Answer:
Reproduction is the process of producing new individuals of the same species by existing organisms of a species. So, it helps in providing stability to population of species by giving birth to new individuals as the rate of birth must be at par with the rate of death to provide stability to population of a species.

Question 11.
What could be the reasons for adopting contraceptive methods?
Answer:
Contraceptive methods are mainly adopted because of the following reasons:

• It prevent unwanted pregnancies.
• It control rise in population and birth rate.
• It prevent sexually transmitted diseases.

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 8 Additional Important Questions

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 8 Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
All individuals produced by an organism are:
(a) Genetically similar
(b) Non-identical
(c) Fission
(d) Moneociuos
Answer:
(a) Genetically similar

Question 2.
Sexual reproduction is completed by _______ division:
(a) Mitotic
(b) Meiotic and mitotic both
(c) Meiosis
(d) Mitotic at some stages .
Answer:
(c) Meiosis

Question 3.
In yeast cell, division results in:
(a) Offspring
(b) Bud
(c) Clone
(d) Branch
Answer:
(b) Bud

Question 4.
Which of the following organisms undergo multiple fission?
(a) Paramecium
(b) Plasmodium
(c) Amoeba
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Plasmodium

Question 5.
Hydra reproduces asexually through:
(a) Budding
(b) Binary fission
(c) Multiple fission
(d) Vegetative propagation
Answer:
(a) Budding

Question 6.
In which plant, the site of origin of new plants is node?
(a) Potato tuber
(b) Onion bulb
(c) Rhizome ginger
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 7.
In which of the following, asexual reproduction takes place through binary fission?
(a) Amoeba
(b) Yeast
(c) Plasmodium
(d) Leishmania
Answer:
(b) Yeast

Question 8.
Which of the following is in human beings?
(a) Ovary
(b) Uterus
(c) (a) and (b)
(d) Fallopian tube
(e) (a), (b) and (d)
Answer:
(e) (a), (b) and (d)

Question 9.
The anther, a part of male flower have:
(a) Sepals
(b) Ovules
(c) Carpel
(d) Pollen grains
Answer:
(d) Pollen grains

Question 10.
The information for making proteins is provided by:
(a) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
(b) DNA
(c) Hormones
(d) Enzymes
Answer:
(b) DNA

Question 11.
Nature of gametes are usually:
(a) Haploid
(b) Diploid
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Haploid

Question 12.
With the help of which tissues embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s blood?
(a) Zygote
(b) Uterus only
(c) Placenta
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Placenta

Question 13.
Which of the following is not a part of the male reproductive system in human beings?
(a) Testes
(b) Uterus
(c) Vas deferens
(d) Urethra
Answer:
(b) Uterus

Question 14.
Binary fission in some organisms occurs in definite orientation in relation to the cell structures. One such organisms is:
(a) Leishmania
(b) Plasmodium
(c) Amoeba
(d) Bacteria
Answer:
(c) Amoeba

Question 15.
Plants that have lost their capacity to produce seeds, reproduce by:
(a) Spores
(b) Vegetative propagation
(c) Fission
(d) Regeneration
Answer:
(a) Spores

Question 16.
A stamen consists of two parts namely:
(a) Anther and style
(b) Anther and filament
(c) Stigma and style
(d) Filament and style
Answer:
(b) Anther and filament

Question 17.
A bisexual flower contains:
(a) Stamens only
(b) Carpels only
(c) Either stamens or carpels
(d) Both stamens and carpels
Answer:
(d) Both stamens and carpels

Question 18.
Germinated seeds do not contains:
(a) Sepals
(b) Cotyledon
(c) Plumule
(d) Radicle
Answer:
(a) Sepals

Question 19.
A feature of reproduction that is common to amoeba, spirogyra and yeast is that:
(a) they reproduce asexually
(b) they are all unicellular
(c) they reproduce only sexually
(d) they are all multicellular
Answer:
(a) they reproduce asexually

Question 20.
Which of the part of flower ripens to form a fruit?
(a) Ovule
(b) Ovary
(c) Carpel
(d) Egg cell
Answer:
(b) Ovary

Question 21.
The testes perforin the following function/functions:
(a) Produce testosterone
(b) Produce sperms
(c) Produce male gametes and hormone
(d) Produce sperms and urine
Answer:
(b) Produce sperms

Question 22.
Where does fertilisation take place in human beings?
(a) Uterus
(b) Vagina
(c) Cervix
(d) Fallopian Tube
Answer:
(d) Fallopian Tube

Question 23.
Condom is a method of control that falls under the following category:
(a) Surgical method
(b) Hormonal method
(c) Mechanical method
(d) Chemical method
Answer:
(c) Mechanical method

Question 24.
The common passage for sperms and urine in the male reproductive system is:
(a) Ureter
(b) Seminal vesicle
(c) Urethra
(d) Vas deferens
Answer:
(c) Urethra

Question 25.
In sperm, which part dissociates after fertilization?
(a) Acrosome
(b) Tail
(c) Head
(d) Middle piece
Answer:
(b) Tail

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 8 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which life process is not essential to maintain the life of an individual organism but important for the survival of species?
Answer:
Reproduction.

Question 2.
How a species can get a danger of being extinct?
Answer:
If individuals of any species stops reproducing, then that species can get a danger of being extinct.

Question 3.
How an individual is able to make a copy of itself?
Answer:
DNA copying is a process at cellular level which enables an individual to make copy of it self.

Question 4.
Write the name of process by which Hydra reproduces.
Answer:
Budding only.

Question 5.
Generally, how many individuals are involved in asexual reproduction?
Answer:
One.

Question 6.
Write the name of some common method of asexual reproduction.
Answer:
Vegetative propagation, budding, fragmentation and spore formation.

Question 7.
Which type of flower is called unisexual flowers?
Answer:
A flower which have either male or female reproductive parts is called unisexual flowers.

Question 8.
What is pollination?
Answer:
The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same or of another flower of the same kind is known as pollination.

Question 9.
What do you understand by term fertilisation?
Answer:
The fusion of male and female gametes is termed as fertilisation.

Question 10.
How seed is dispersed?
Answer:
Seed dispersal takes place by means of wind, water and animals.

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 8 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How does plasmodium undergo fission?
Ans.
Plasmodium divides into many daughter cells through multiple fission.

Question 2.
How spirogyra reproduces by fragmentation?
Answer:
An individual spirogyra breaks up into many smaller pieces, each fragment grows into new individual.

Question 3.
Which cells are responsible for budding in hydra?
Answer:
Regenerative cells.

Question 4.
Name the structure into which following develops: the plumule and radicle?
Answer:
Plumule develops to shoot while radicle form root of a plant.

Question 5.
On which plant can you find buds on its leaves?
Answer:
Bryophyllum.

Question 6.
Write the scientific name of the bread mould.
Answer:
Rhizopus.

Question 7.
Where are the testes located in human beings?
Answer:
In abdominal cavity, in scrotum.

Question 8.
For what specific reason have the testes specific location?
Answer:
As testes, requires lesser temperature, to produce sperm than of abdominal cavity.

Question 9.
Correlate the rate of general body growth and maturation of reproductive tissue during puberty.
Answer:
When reproductive tissues (organs) begin to mature, body growth rate slows down.

Question 10.
Where does the zygote get implanted in human beings?
Answer:
In the wall of uterus.

Question 11.
Which two important substances are delivered to developing embryo through placenta?
Answer:
Glucose and oxygen.

Question 12.
How change in hormonal balance prevents pregnancy?
Answer:
It prevents the release of eggs.

Question 13.
Name the tissue in mother’s body that provides nutrition to developing embryo?
Answer:
Placenta provides nutrition to developing embryo.

Question 14.
Write one side effect of loop placed in uterus.
Answer:
It may cause permanent irritation and excessive and prolong bleeding in uterus.

Question 15.
Which structures need to be blocked in males and females respectively to prevent pregnancy?
Answer:
Vas deferens in male (vasectomy), fallopian tube in female (tubectomy).

Question 16.
Why is children sex ratio alarmingly declining in our country.
Answer:
Abortions based on sex selections.

Question 17.
Name the chemical methods of preventing pregnancy.
Answer:
Morning over oral pills.

Question 18.
Name some of the devices used as mechanical method for preventing pregnancy.
Answer:
Loop, copper T, condoms.

Question 19.
Name the only mammal(s) which lays eggs.
Answer:
Echidna and duck-billed platypus.

Question 20.
What is parthenogenesis?
Answer:
Parthenogenesis is a type of asexual reproduction. In this case, embryo development takes places without fertilisation. A few species of insects, bees, wasps, birds and lizards (e.gKomodo dragon lizard) reproduce this way.

Question 21.
Give an example of an organism which reproduces by:
(a) Fragmentation
(b) Spore formation
(c) Stems
Answer:
(i) Spirogyra.
(ii) Bacteria, fungi (rhizopus), moss, algae.
(iii) Plants like potato (tuber), onion (bulb) reproduce by vegetative propagation of stems.

Question 22.
Discuss various artificial vegetative propagation techniques.
Answer:
Various artificial vegetative propagation techniques are:

1. Cutting
2. Layering
3. Grafting
4. Tissue culture

Question 23.
What is grafting? What are different types of grafting techniques?
Answer:
In grafting, one part of a plant is inserted into another plant in a way that both of them will unite and grow together as a single plant. Different methods of grafting are:

• Approach grafting
• Cleft grafting
• Bud grafting
• Tongue grafting

Question 24.
Name some:

1. Plants which are reproduced by vegetative propagation.
2. Plants which have unisexual flowers.
3. Plants which have bisexual flowers.
4. Plants with self-pollination.
5. Plants that do cross-pollination.

Answer:

1. Rose, sweet potatoes, bryophyllum.
2. Coconut, papaya, watermelon.
3. Lily, rose, sunflower.
4. Beans, peas, tomatoes.
5. Grasses, catkins, maple trees.

Question 25.
What is germination?
Answer:
The seed contains the future plant or embryo which develops into a seedling under appropriate conditions. This process is known as germination.

Question 26.
What is cross-pollination?
Answer:
Cross-pollination is the process of transfer of pollen from the anther of a flower to stigma of a flower of another plant of the same species or closely related species.

Question 27.
Explain hormonal pills of contraception.
Answer:
Oral contraceptives: In this method, tablets or drugs are taken orally by females to check pregnancy These contain small doses of hormones in forms of pills that prevent the release of eggs and thus, fortilisation cannot occur.

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 8 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why simply copying of DNA in a dividing cells not enough to maintain continuity of life?
Answer:
Copying of DNA preserve and pass specific characters of a generation to next generation offsprings. In reproduction, it is very important to create DNA copy. It determines the body design of an individual. But variation in genotype is also important,, because sometimes existing genotype don’t find its potential to survive in changing surroundings. So, genotype must have some alterations which are caused by variations only. Hence, simply copying of DNA in a dividing cells is not enough to maintain continuity of life.

Question 2.
Describe in brief the fragmentation mode of asexual reproduction.
Answer:
Fragmentation: Many lower organisms, use fragmentation mode of asexual reproduction for its growth e.g., algae. When water and nutrients are available in sufficient amount algae grow and multiply rapidly by fragmentation. An algae breaks up to multiple fragments. These fragments or pieces grow into new individuals.

Question 3.
Explain budding in yeast.
Answer:
The yeast is a single-celled organism. The small bulb-like projection come out from the yeast cell in favourable time and is called a bud. The bud gradually grows and gets dettached from the parent cell and forms a new yeast cell. The new yeast cell grows, matures and produces more yeast cells.

Question 4.
Describe the process of implantation.
Answer:
A week after the sperm fertilizes the egg, the fertilized egg (zygote) undergo development and become a multicelled blastocyst. The blastocyst fix itself into the lining of the uterus, called the endometrium. The hormone estrogen causes the endometrium to become thick and rich with blood. Progesterone and other hormone released by the ovaries, keeps the endometrium thick with blood so that the blastocyst can absorb nutrients from uterus. This process is called implantation.

Question 5.
Explain the following.

1. Hermaphrodites
2. Unisexual
3. Syngamy

Answer:

1. Hermaphrodites are bisexual organisms which possess both male and female reproductive organs. Examples: earthworm, leech, starfish.
2. Animals which have different male and female individuals as birds, mammals etc.
3. The process of fusion of male gamete with female gamete is called syngamy.

Question 6.
What is contraception? Discuss natural and barrier method of contraception.
Answer:
Contraception or birth control methods include: condoms, the diaphragm, the contraceptive pill, implants, IUDs (intrauterine devices), sterilization and the morning after pill and many more some of best methods are given below:

• Natural method: It involves avoiding the chances of meeting of sperms and ovum. In this method, the sexual intercourse is avoided by the couple from day 10th to 17th of the menstrual cycle of female as in this period, ovulation is expected and therefore, the chances of fertilisation are very high.
• Barrier method: In this method, the fertilisation of ovum and sperm is checked out with the help of artificially developed barriers. Barriers are developed for both males and females. Most common barrier available in market are condoms.

Question 7.
Describe implants and surgical methods of contraception
Answer:
Contraceptive devices are also developed as the loop or copper-T to prevent pregnancy. Surgical methods are also used to block the gamete transfer. It includes the blocking of vas deferens to prevent the transfer of Sperms known as vasectomy. Similarly, tubectomy in the fallopian tubes of the female can be blocked so that the egg will not reach the uterus.

Question 8.
Discuss fertilization in flowering plants.
Answer:
There are two main procedures of completing fertilization in flowering plants, which are:
(i) Pollination
(ii) Fertilisation

(i) Pollination: Pollination is a very important part of the life cycle of a flowering plant which results in seeds that grow into new plants. It is part of the sexual reproduction process of flowering plants. Flowers are the structures of flowering plants that contain all the specialized parts needed for sexual reproduction. Plants have gametes, which contain half the normal number of chromosomes for that plant species. Male gametes are found inside tiny pollen grains on the anthers of flowers. Female gametes are found in the ovules of a flower. Pollination is the process that brings these male and female gametes together. The wind or animals, especially insects and birds, pick up pollen from the male anthers and carry it to the female stigma. Flowers have to encourage animals to pollinate them.

(ii) Fertilisation: After pollination, when pollen has landed on the stigma of a suitable flower of the same species, various process occurs in the making of seeds. A pollen grain on the stigma grows a tiny tube, all the way down the style to the ovary. This pollen tube carries a male gamete to meet a female gamete in an ovule. In a process called fertilization, the two gametes join. The fertilised ovule form a seed, which contains a food store and an embryo that grow into a new plant. The ovary develops into a fruit to protect the seed.

Question 9.
Inside womb, how does a child receive food, oxygen and water? Discuss.
Answer:
As a mother eats something the nutrient like glucose, proteins, fats, vitamins, etc. are absorbed into the mother’s blood by the small intestine. The nutrients flow to the placenta, and then transferred to the baby’s bloodstream through the umbilical cord. The baby’s waste products (like CO2) are disposed of in the mother’s blood stream as well. In the placenta, the mothers blood flows into a network of blood Vessels and capillaries. Molecules in the mother’s blood like glucose, proteins, fats, oxygen etc. flow out of the mother’s blood supply and are absorbed into another network of blood vessels and capillaries containing the baby’s blood supply. The baby’s blood then flows through the umbilical cord back to the baby. It is the complete process of baby’s nutrition inside womb.

Question 10.
Discuss the advantages and disadvantage of autogamy or self¬pollination.
Answer:
Advantages of autogamy:

It is a sure method of seed formation. Scent and Nectar are not needed by the flower to attract insects. Parent characteristics are preserved in off spring’s. Small quantity of pollen is required for pollination. Flowers need not be large or attractive. Disadvantages of autogamy plants lose their vigor in their future generations due to repeated self-pollination. Since, there is no variation, no genetic improvement occurs in offsprings. Weak characteristics of the plant are inherited by the next generations.

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 8 Textbook Activities

Class 10 Science Activity 8.1 Page No. 129

• Dissolve about 10 gin of sugar in 100 mL of water.
• lake 20 mL of this solution in a test tube and add a pinch of yeasl granules to it.
• Put a cotton plug on the mouth of the test tube and keep it in a warm place.
• Alter 1 or 2 hours, put a small drop of yeast culture from the test tube on a slide and cover it with a coverslip.
• Observe the slide under a microscope.

Observations:

• Formation of yeast cells can be seen. Some of them, shows chain budding.

Class 10 Science Activity 8.2 Page No. 129

• Wet a slice of bread, and keep it in a cool, moist and dark place.
• Observe the surface of the slice with a magnifying glass.
• Record your observation for a week.

Observations:

• A layer of while cottony mass is seen over the surface of slice. These inercase in size and number and after a week, the layer turns black show ing formation of spores or sporangia.

Class 10 Science Activity 8.3 Page No. 129

• Observ e a permanent slide of Amoeba under a microscope.
• Similarly observe another permanent slide of Amoeba show-ing binary fission.
• Now, compare the observation of both the slides.

Observations:

• The permanent slide of amoeba shows normal cytoplasm and nucleus. Nucleus can be seen dividing and construction in cytoplasm can also be seen. The binary fission with two daughter cells is observed in the other slide.

Class 10 Science Activity 8.4 Page No. 129

• Collect water from a lake or pond that appears dark green and contains filamentous structures.
• Put one or two filaments on a slide.
• Put a drop of glycerin on these filaments and cover it with a coverslip
• Observe the slide under a microscope.
• Can you identify different tissues in the Spimgyra filaments.

Observations:

• Spirogyra filament consists of many cells which are attached linearly to form a filament.

Class 10 Science Activity 8.5 Page No. 132

• Take a potato and observe its surface. Can notches be seen?
• Cut the potato into small pieces such that some pieces contain a notch or bud and some do not.
• Spread some cotton on a tray and wet it. Place the potato pieces on this cotton. Note where the pieces with the buds are placed.
• Observe changes taking place in these potato pieces over the next few days. Make sure that the cotton is, kept moistened.
• Which arc the potato pieces that give rise to fresh green shoots and roots.

Observations:

• The,potato undergoes various changes in few days. The buds in notches show growth of young shoots and roots. The pieces which do not have eye buds do not show any growth.

Class 10 Science Activity 8.6 Page No. 132

• Select a money-plant.
• Cut some pieces such that they contain at least one leaf.
• Cut out some other portions between two leaves.
• Dip one end of all the pieces in water and observe over the next few days.
• Which ones grow’ and give rise to fresh leaves?
• What can you conclude from your observations ?

Observations:

• The leaves at the nodes show formation of fresh leaves. The formation of branch from axillary buds axil of leaf is also observ ed.
• The leaves that undergo photosynthesis show tendency to grow into a new plant through vegetative propagation.

Class 10 Science Activity 8.7 Page No. 135

• Soak a few seeds of Bengal gram (chana) and keep them overnight.
• Drain the excess water and cover the seeds with a wet cloth and leave them for a day. Make sure that the seeds do not become dry.
• Cut open the seeds carefully and observe the different parts.
• Compare your observations with the Fig. 8.2 and sec if you can identify all the parts.

Observations:

• The parts identified includes- cotyledon which stores food, plumule which is a future shoot radicle that is a future root.

Germination.

MP Board Class 10th Science Solutions

MP Board Class 10th Science Solutions Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 13 Intext Questions

Class 10th Science Chapter 13 Intext Question Page No. 224

Question 1.
Why does a compass needle get deflected when brought near a bar magnet?
Answer:
A compass needle get deflected when brought near a bar magnet because a compass needle is in fact, a small bar magnet. The ends of the compass needle point approximately towards north and south directions.

Class 10th Science Chapter 13 Intext Questions Page No. 228

Question 1.
Draw magnetic field lines around a bar magnet.
Answer:
Magnetic field lines of a bar magnet emerge from the north pole and terminate at the south pole. Inside the magnet, the field lines emerge from the south pole and terminate at the north pole.

Question 2.
List the properties of magnetic field lines.
Answer:
The properties are:

• They travel from north pole to south pole outside the magnet and south pole to north pole inside the magnet.
• They are closed and continuous curves.
• Two magnetic field lines never intersect each other. If the lines intersect, then at the point of intersection there would be two directions [the needle would point towards two directions] for the same magnetic fields which is not possible.
• The number of field lines per unit area is the measure of the strength of magnetic field, which is maximum at poles. The magnetic field is strong, where the field lines are close together and weak where the lines are far apart.

Question 3.
Why don’t two magnetic field lines intersect each other?
Answer:
Two magnetic fields lines of force never intersect each other. If the lines intersect, then at [the point of intersection there would be two directions [the needle would point towards two directions] for the same magnetic field, which is not possible.

Class 10th Science Chapter 13 Intext Questions Pages No. 229. 230

Question 1.
Consider a circular loop of wire lying in the plane of the table. Let the current pass through the loop clockwise. Apply the right-hand rule to find out the direction of the magnetic field inside and outside the loop.
Answer:
Inside the loop = Pierce inside the table.

Outside the loop = Appear to emerge out from the table.

For downward direction of current flowing in the circular loop, the direction of magnetic field lines will be as if they are emerging from the table outside the loop and merging in the table inside the loop. Similarly, for upward direction of current flowing in the circular loop, the direction of magnetic field lines will be as if they are emerging from the table outside the loop and merging in the table inside the loop, as shown in the given figure.

Question 2.
The magnetic field in a given region is uniform. Draw a diagram to represent it.
Answer:
The magnetic field lines are parallel and equidistant.

Question 3.
Choose the correct option.
The magnetic field inside a long, straight, solenoid-carrying current
(a) is zero
(b) decreases as we move towards its end
(c) increases as we move towards its end
(d) is the same at all points
Answer:
(d) The magnetic field inside a long, straight, current-carrying solenoid is uniform. It is the same at all points inside the solenoid.

Class 10th Science Chapter 13 Intext Questions Pages No. 231,232

Question 1.
Which of the following property of a proton can change while it moves freely in a magnetic field? (There may be more than one correct answer.)
(a) mass
(b) speed
(c) velocity
(d) momentum
Answer:
(c) velocity
(d) momentum.

Question 2.
In Activity 13.7, how do we think the displacement of rod AB will be affected if

1. current in rod AB is increased;
2. a stronger horse-shoe magnet is used; and
3. length of the rod AB is increased?

Answer:

1. displacement of A is increased.
2. If a stronger horse-shoe magnet is used magnetic field is increasing.
3. current flows is more.

Question 3.
A positively-charged particle (alpha-particle) projected towards west is deflected towards north by a magnetic field. The direction of magnetic field is
(a) towards south
(b) towards east
(c) downward
(d) upward
Answer:
(d) upward.
Since the positively charged particle alpha particle projected towards west, so the direction of current is towards west. Now the deflection is towards north, so the force is towards north. Now hold the forefinger, centre finger and thumb of our left – hand at right angles to one another. Let us adjust the hand in such a way that our centre finger points towards west and thumb points towards north. If we look at our forefinger, it will be pointing, upward. Thus, the magnetic field is in the upward direction. So, the correct answer is (d).

Class 10th Science Chapter 13 Intext Questions Page No. 233

Question 1.
State Fleming’s left-hand rule.
Answer:
According to this rule, stretch the thumb, forefinger, and middle finger of your left hand such that they are mutually perpendicular. If the first finger points in the direction of the Magnetic field and the second finger in the direction of current, then the thumb will point in the direction of motion or the force acting on the conductor.

Question 2.
What is the principle of an electric motor?
Answer:
A current-carrying conductor when placed in a magnetic field experiences a force. This is the principle of an electric motor.

Question 3.
What is the role of the split ring in an electric motor?
Answer:
The split ring reverse the direction of current in the armature coil after every half rotation i.e., it acts as a commutator. The reversal of current reverses, the direction of the forces acting on the two arms of the armature after every half rotation. This allows the armature coil to rotate continuously in the same direction.

Class 10th Science Chapter 13 Intext Question Page No. 236

Question 1.
Explain different ways to induce current in a coil.
Answer:
The different ways to induce current in a coil are as follows:

(a) If a coil is moved rapidly between the two poles of a horse-shoe magnet, then an electric current is induced in the coil.
(b) If a magnet is moved relative to coil, then an electric current is induced in the coil.

Class 10th Science Chapter 13 Intext Questions Page No. 237

Question 1.
State the principle of an electric generator.
Answer:
An electric generator works on the principle of electromagnetic induction. It generates electricity by rotating a coil in a magnetic field.

Question 2.
Name some sources of direct current.
Answer:
Some sources of direct current are cell, Dc generator, etc.

Question 3.
Which sources produce alternating current?
Answer:
AC generators, power plants etc., produce alternating current.

Question 4.
Choose the correct option:
A rectangular coil of copper wires is rotated in a magnetic field. The direction of the induced current changes once in each
(a) two revolutions
(b) one revolution
(c) half revolution
(d) one-fourth revolution
Answer:
(c) When a rectangular coil of copper is rotated in a magnetic field, the direction of the induced current in the coil changes once in each half revolution. As a result, the direction of current in the coil remains the same.

Class 10th Science Chapter 13 Intext Questions Pages No. 238

Question 1.
Name two safety measures commonly used in electric circuits and appliances.
Answer:

1. Electric fuse
2. Earthing wire.

Question 2.
An electric oven of 2 kW power rating is operated in a domestic electric circuit (220 V) that has a current rating of 5 A. What result do you expect? Explain.
Answer:
P = VI
Here P = 2 KW = 2000 W
V = 220

The current drawn by this electric oven is 9 A whereas the fuse in the circuit is ( only 5 A capacity. When a high current of 9 A flows through the 5 A fuse, the fuse wire will get heated too much, melt and break, the circuit. Therefore, when a 2 kW power rating electric oven is operated in a circuit having a 5 A fuse will blow off cutting off the power supply in this circuit.

Question 3.
What precaution should be taken to avoid the overloading of domestic electric circuits?
Answer:

1. Each appliance has a separate switch to ON/OFF the flow of current through it.
2. The use of an electric fuse prevents the electric circuit and the appliance from possible damage by stopping the flow of unduly high electric current.
3. We should not connect too many appliances to a single socket to prevent overloading.

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 13 NCERT Textbook Exercises

Question 1.
Which of the following correctly describes the magnetic field near a long straight wire?
(a) The field consists of straight lines perpendicular to the wire
(b) The field consists of straight lines parallel to the wire
(c) The field consists of radial lines originating from the wire
(d) The field consists of concentric circles centered on the wire.
Answer:
(d) The magnetic field lines, produced around a straight current-carrying conductor are concentric circles. Their centres lie on the wire.

Question 2.
The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction is
(a) the process of charging a body
(b) the process of generating magnetic field due to a current passing through a coil
(c) producing induced current in a coil due to relative motion between a magnet and the coil
(d) the process of rotating a coil of an electric motor.
Answer:
(c) When a straight coil and a magnet are moved relative to each other, a current is induced in the coil. This phenomenon is known as electromagnetic induction.

Question 3.
The device used for producing electric current is called a
(a) generator
(b) galvanometer
(c) ammeter
(d) motor.
Answer:
(a) generator.

Question 4.
The essential difference between an AC generator and a DC generator is that
(a) AC generator has an electro-magnet while a DC generator has permanent magnet.
(b) DC generator will generate a higher voltage.
(c) AC generator will generate a higher voltage.
(d) AC generator has slip rings while the DC generator has a commutator.
Answer:
(c) AC generator will generate a higher voltage.

Question 5.
At the time of short circuit, the current in the circuit
(a) reduces substantially.
(b) does not change.
(c) increases heavily.
(d) vary continuously.
Answer:
(c) increases heavily.

Question 6.
State whether the following statements are true or false.
(a) An electric motor converts mechanical energy into electrical energy.
(b) An electric generator works on the principle of electromagnetic induction.
(c) The field at the centre of a long circular coil carrying current will be parallel straight lines.
(d) A wire with a green insulation is usually the live wire of an electric supply.
Answer:
(a) False
(b) true
(c) true
(d) False.

Question 7.
List two methods of producing magnetic fields.
Answer:

1. Permanent magnet
2. Electromagnet.

Question 8.
How does a solenoid behave like a magnet? Can you determine the north and south poles of a current-carrying solenoid with the help of a bar magnet? Explain.
Answer:
A solenoid is a long coil of circular loops of insulated copper wire. Magnetic field lines are produced around the solenoid when a current is allowed to flow through it. The magnetic field produced by it is similar to the magnetic field of a bar magnet. The field lines produced in a current¬carrying solenoid is shown in the following figure.

Fig. 13.4: Field lines of the magnetic field through and around a current carrying solenoid.

In the above figure, when the north pole of a bar magnet is brought near the end connected to the negative terminal of the battery, the solenoid repels the bar magnet. Since like poles repel each other, the end connected to the negative terminal of the battery behaves as the north pole of the solenoid and the other end behaves as a south pole. Hence, one end of the solenoid behaves as a north pole and the other end behaves as a south pole.

Question 9.
When is the force experienced by a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field largest?
Answer:
The force experienced by a current -carrying conductor is the maximum when the direction of current is perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field.

Question 10.
Imagine that you are sitting in a chamber with your back to one wall. An electron beam, moving horizontally from back wall towards the front wall, is deflected by a strong magnetic field to your right side. What is the direction of magnetic field?
Answer:
According to Fleming’s left-hand rule, the magnetic field acts in the vertically downward direction.
Note that the direction of current will be opposite to that of the electron beam.

Question 11.
Draw a labelled diagram of an electric motor. Explain its principle and working. What is the function of a split ring in an electric motor?
Answer:
An electric motor converts electrical energy into mechanical energy. It works on the principle of the magnetic effect of current. A current-carrying coil rotates in a magnetic field. The following figure shows a simple electric motor. When a current is allowed to flow through the coil MNST by closing the switch, the coil starts rotating anti-clockwise. This happens because a downward force

acts on length MN and at the same time, an upward force acts on length ST. As a result, the coil rotates anti-clockwise.

Current in the length MN flows from M to N and the magnetic field acts from left to right, normal to length MN. Therefore, according to Fleming’s left hand rule, a downward force acts on the length MN. Similarly, current is the length ST. flows from S to T and the magnetic fields acts from left to light, normal to the flow of current. Therefore, an upward force acts on the length ST. These two forces cause the coil to rotate anti-clockwise.

After half a rotation, the position of MN and ST interchange. The half¬ring D comes in contact with brush A and half-ring C comes in contact with brush B. Hence, the direction of current in the coil MNST gets reversed.

The current flow’s through the coil in the direction TSNM. The reversal of current through the coil MNST repeats after each half rotation. As a result, the coil rotate unidirectional ly. The split rings help to reverse the direction of current in the circuit. These are called the commutator.

Question 12.
Name some devices in which electric motors are used.
Answer:
Electric motor is used as an important component in electric fans, refrigerators, mixers, washing machines, computers, MP3 players etc.

Question 13.
A coil of insulated copper wire is connected to a galvanometer. What will happen if a bar magnet is

1. pushed into the coil
2. withdrawn from inside the coil
3. held stationary inside the coil?

Answer:

1. There is a momentary deflection in the needle of the galvanometer.
2. Now the galvanometer is deflected towards the left showing that the current is now set up in the direction opposite to the first.
3. When the coil is kept stationary with respect to the magnet, the deflection of the galvanometer drops to zero.

Question 14.
Two circular coils A and B are placed closed to each other. If the current in the coil A is changed, will some current be induced in coil B? Give reason.
Answer:
If the current in the coil A is changed there is a change in its magnetic field. By this electricity is induced in B. This is called Electromagnetic induction.

Question 15.
State the rule to determine the direction of a

1. magnetic field produced around a straight conductor carrying current,
2. force experienced by a current-carrying straight conductor placed in a magnetic field which is perpendicular to it, and
3. current induced in a coil due to its rotation in a magnetic field.

Answer:
(i) Right-hand thumb rule: If the current-carrying conductor is held in the right hand such that the thumb points in the direction of the current, then the direction of the curl of the fingers will be given the direction of the magnetic field.

(ii) Fleming’slefthandrule: Stretch the forefinger, the central finger of the right hand mutually perpendicular to each other. If the forefinger points in the direction of the magnetic field, the central finger in the direction of the current, then the thumb points in the direction of a force in the conductor.

(iii) Fleming’s right-hand rule: Stretch the thumb/ forefinger and the central finger of the right hand mutually perpendicular to each other. If the forefinger points in the direction of the magnetic field, thumb in the direction conductor, then the central finger points in the direction of current induced in the conductor.

Question 16.
Explain the underlying principle and working of an electric generator by drawing a labelled diagram. What is the function of brushes?
Answer:
An electric generator converts mechanical energy into electrical energy. The principle of working of an electric generator is that when a loop is moved in a magnetic field, an electric current is induced in the coil, ft generates electricity by rotating a coil in a magnetic field. The following figure shows a simple AC generator.

• MNST → Rectangular coil
• C and D → Two slip rings
• A and B → Brushes
• X → Axle, G → Galvanometer

If axle X is rotated clockwise, then the length MN moves upwards while length ST moves downwards. Since the lengths MN and ST are moving in a magnetic field, a current will be induced in both of them due to electromagnetic induction. Length MN is moving upwards and the magnetic field acts from left to right. Hence, according to Fleming’s right hand rule, the direction of induced current will be from M to N. Similarly, the direction of induced current in the length ST will be from S to T.

The direction of current in the coil is MNST. Hence, the galvanometer shows a deflection in a particular direction. After half a rotation, length MN starts moving down whereas length ST starts moving upward. The direction of the induced current in the coil gets reversed as TSNM. As the direction of current gets reversed after each half rotation the produced current is called an alternating current (AC).

To get a unidirectional current, instead of two slip rings, two split rings are used, as shown in the following figure.

In this arrangement, brush ‘A’ always remains in contact with the length of the coil that is moving up whereas brush B always remains in contact with the length that is moving down. The split rings C and D act as a commutator.

The direction of current induced in the coil will be MNST for the first rotation and TSNM in the second half of the rotation. Hence, unidirectional current is produced from the generator called DC generator. The current is called AC current.

Question 17.
When does an electric short circuit occur?
Answer:
If the resistance of an electric circuit becomes very low. Then the current flowing through the circuit becomes very high. This is caused by connecting too many appliances to a single socket or connecting – high power rating appliances to the light circuits. This results in a short circuit when the insulation of live and neutral wires undergoes wear and tear and then touches each other, the current flowing in the circuit increase abruptly. Hence, a short circuit occurs.

Question 18.
What is the function of an earth wire? Why is it necessary to earth metallic appliances?
Answer:
The metallic body of electric appliances is connected to the earth by means of earth wire so that any leakage of electric current is transferred to the ground. This prevents any electric shock to the user. That is why earthing of the electrical appliances is necessary.

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 13 Additional Important Questions

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 13 Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Two magnet when come closer:
(a) Attract each other
(b) Repei each other
(c) Sometimes attract and sometimes repel
(d) No reaction
Answer:
(c) Sometimes attract and sometimes repel

Question 2.
Permanent magnet can be made by:
(a) Gold
(b) Carbon
(c) Alnico
(d) Wood
Answer:
(c) Alnico

Question 3.
When we draw magnetic field lines of any magnet it:
(a) Begin from N pole and end at S pole
(b) Begin from S pole and end at N pole
(c) Form circles around a magnet
(d) Form box around a magnet
Answer:
(a) Begin from N pole and end at S pole

Question 4.
Strongest magnetic pole around a magnet is
(a) Near North pole
(b) Near south pole
(c) In center of magnet
(d) At both poles
Answer:
(d) At both poles

Question 5.
Electro magnetism was discovered by
(a) Newton
(b) Oersted
(c) Ohm
(d) Joule
Answer:
(b) Oersted

Question 6.
Electro magnets are used in
(a) AC
(b) Fridge
(c) Radio
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 7.
Magnetic field are lines forming
(a) Straight lines
(b) Closed curves
(c) Dotted lines
(d) Dotted triangles
Answer:
(b) Closed curves

Question 8.
Magnetic field of a straight conductor form:
(a) Straight lines
(b) Concentric lines
(c) Points
(d) None of above
Answer:
(b) Concentric lines

Question 9.
According to right hand thumb rule, current is generated in a system:
(a) Parallel to magnetic field
(b) Perpendicular to magnetic field
(c) Just above the magnetic field
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(b) Perpendicular to magnetic field

Question 10.
If a circular loop conductor has 5 turn, magnetic field produced by it will be to than single loop conductor.
(a) 5 times bigger
(b) 5 times lesser
(c) Similar
(d) 10 times lesser
Answer:
(a) 5 times bigger

Question 11.
Magnetic field generated due to a passing current in a solenoid forms pattern:
(a) Similar to circular loops
(b) Similar to straight conductor
(c) Similar to Bar magnet
(d) Which is unique
Answer:
(c) Similar to Bar magnet

Question 12.
According to Fleming’s left hand rule
(a) Field is perpendicular to current
(b) Field is perpendicular to force generated
(c) Current is perpendicular to force generated .
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 13 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What we call the end, where north end of freely hanged magnet stops?
Answer:
North pole.

Question 2.
Where force of a magnet can be detected?
Answer:
Near a magnet, in its magnetic field.

Question 3.
How we mark a magnetic force?
Answer:
With the help of magnetic field lines.

Question 4.
What do closer field lines of a magnet presents?
Answer:
Closer lines present stronger magnetic strength.

Question 5.
What is reason for different kinds of pattern of a magnetic pattern around a conductor generated magnetic field?
Answer:
Shape of conductor.

Question 6.
Give some examples of daily use where electro magnet is being used.
Answer:
Radio and Television.

Question 7.
How an electromagnet is formed?
Answer:
Electro magnet is formed by wrapping coil of insulated copper wire over core of soft iron.

Question 8.
What is experienced by a current carrying conductor when placed in a magnetic field?
Answer:
Force.

Question 9.
Who gave the theory of induced electromagnetic induction?
Answer:
Michael Faraday.

Question 10.
What is a galvanometer?
Answer:
An instrument which detects current in a circuit.

Question 11.
Give examples of appliances using electric motor.
Answer:
Electric pan, mixer, washing machines.

Question 12.
Which rule of electromagnetism suits best to express working of an electric motor?
Answer:
Fleming’s left hand rule.

Question 13.
What is the basic principle used in electric generator?
Answer:
It is based on electromagnetic induction.

Question 14.
What is the permissible value of electricity use in India?
Answer:
220 V, 50Hz.

Question 15.
How short-circuit can be prevented?
Answer:
By using fuse.

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 13 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write two properties of magnet.
Answer:

1. A magnet always points north or south when suspended freely.
2. Like pole repel each other while opposite pole attract each other.

Question 2.
Define magnetism.
Answer:
A magnet influence its near by object and attracts towards itself, if magnetic in nature. This phenomenon is called magnetism.

Question 3.
Define magnetic field.
Answer:
Area under which a magnet can influence other magnetic objects is called its magnetic field.

Question 4.
Where we find closer line and what does it indicate?
Answer:
Closer lines show high strength of magnetic field while wide lines represents weak strength of magnet.

Question 5.
State Right hand thumb rule.
Answer:
Right hand thumb rule is represented by a down thumb fist in which fist represents a magnetic field while thumb represents current movement.

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 13 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
An electric heater rated 800 W operates 6h/day. Find the cost of energy to operate it for 30 days at ₹ 3.00 per unit.
Solution:
Power of the heater, P = 800 W Time, t = 6 hour /day
No; of days, n = 30 Cost per unit = ₹ 3.00
Total cost of its usage = ? Energy, E = P × t
Consumed in 1 day = 800 × 6 = 4800 Wh
Energy consumed in 30 days = 4800 × 30 = 144000 Wh

∴ Cost of 144 units = 3 × 144 = ₹ 432.

Question 2.
(a) Draw magnetic field lines produced around a current carrying straight conductor passing through cardboard. How will the strength of the magnetic field change, when the point where magnetic field is to be determined, is moved away from the straight wire carrying constant current ? Justify your answer.
(b) Two circular coils A and B are placed close to each other. If the current in the coil A is changed, will some current be induced in the coil B? Give reason.
Answer:
(a) (i) The magnetic field lines around a straight conductor carrying current are concentric circles whose center lies on the wire.
(ii) When a point where magnetic field is to be determined is moved away from the straight wire, the strength of the magnetic field decreases because as we move away from a current carrying straight conductor, the concentric circles around it representing magnetic field lines become larger and larger indicating the decreasing strength of magnetic field.

Fig. 13.18: A pattern of concentric circles indicating the field lines of a magnetic field a straight conducting wire.

(b) Yes, current is induced in the coil B. Because as the current in the coil A changes, the magnetic field lines around the coil B also change. Therefore, the change in magnetic field lines associated with the coil B is the cause of induced electric current in it.

Question 3.
(a) Draw magnetic field lines of a bar magnet. “Two magnetic field lines never intersect each other.” Why?
(b) An electric oven of 1.5 kW is operated in a domestic circuit (220 V) that has a current rating of 5 A. What result do you expect in this case? Explain.
Answer:
(a)

Two magnetic field lines do not intersect one another. The direction of magnetic field lines is always from north pole to south pole. If the two magnetic field line do intersect, it means at the point of intersection the compass needle is showing two different directions which is not possible.

(b) Power, P = 1.5 kW = 1.5 × 1,000 = 1,500 W
Voltage, V = 220 V, I = ?
P = V × I I = \(\frac { P }{ V } \) = \(\frac { 1,500 }{ 220 } \) = 6.8 A
Now, the current drawn by the oven is 6.8 A which is very high but the fuse in this circuit is only 5 A capacity. When a very high current of 6.8. A flows through 5 A fuse, the fuse wire will get heated too much, melt and break the circuit, cutting off the power supply.

Question 4.
A circuit has a line of 5 A. How many lamps of rating 40W; 220V can simultaneously run on this line safely?
Answer:

Question 5.
A bulb is rated at 200 V, 100 W. Calculate its resistance. Five such bulbs burn for 4 hours daily. Calculate the units of electrical energy consumed per day. What would be the cost of using these bulbs per day at the rate of ₹ 4.00 per unit?
Solution:

Electrical energy consumed, E = P × t
Energy consumed by 1 bulb = 0.1 × 4 = 0.4 kWh
∴ Energy consumed by 5 bulb = 5 × 0.4 = 2 kWh = 2 units
Cost of electrical energy:
Cost of 1 unit of electricity = ₹ 4
∴ Cost of 2 units of electricity = 4 × 2 = ₹ 8

Question 6.
(a) Describe an activity to show with the help of a compass that magnetic field is strongest near poles of a magnet.
(b) Mention the direction of magnetic field lines (i) inside a bar magnet and (ii) outside a bar magnet.
Answer:
(a) A bar magnet is placed on a sheet of paper and its boundary is marked with a pencil. A magnetic compass is brought near the N-pole of the bar magnet. It is observed that N-pole of magnet repels the N-pole of compass needle due to which the tip of the compass needle moves away from the N-pole. Thus, a magnetic field pattern is obtained around a bar magnet.

(b) Each magnetic field line is directed from the north pole of a magnet to its south pole. The field lines are closest together at the two poles of the bar magnet.

1. Inside a bar magnet, the lines of forces start from south pole and end on north pole.
2. Outside a bar magnet, magnetic lines of forces start from north pole and end on south pole.

Question 7.
(a) With the help of a labelled diagram, describe an activity to show that a current carrying conductor experiences a force when placed in a magnetic field. Mention the position when this force is maximum.
(b) Name and state the rule which gives the direction of force acting on the conductor.
Answer:
(a) Activity:

• A small aluminium rod (AB) about 5 cm is suspended with two connecting wires horizontally from a stand.
• A strong horse-shoe magnet is placed in such a way that the rod lies between the two poles with the magnetic field directed upwards, the north pole of the magnet vertically below and south pole vertically above the aluminium rod.
  
  Fig. 13.20: A current-carrying conductor experiences force in magnetic field.

• The aluminium rod is connected in series with a battery, a key and a rheostat.
• When a current is allowed to pass through aluminium rod. Form end B to end A, it is observed that the rod is displaced towards the left.
• When the direction of the current is reversed from A to B, it is observed that the direction of displacement- of the rod is towards the right.

This activity shows that when a current carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field, a mechanical force is exerted on conductor which makes it move.

The maximum force is exerted on a current carrying conductor only when it is perpendicular to the-direction of magnetic field.

(b) The direction of force acting on the current carrying conductor can be found out by using Fleming’s left-land rule.

According to Fleming’s left-hand rule, hold the fore finger, the center finger and the thumb of your left hand at right angles to one another. If the first finger of your left hand points in the direction of magnetic field and sound in the direction of current, then the thumb will point in the direction of motion or the force acting on conductor.

Question 8.
Study the following current-time graphs from two different sources:

1. Use above graphs to list two differences between the current in the two cases.
2. Name the type of current in the two cases.
3. Identify one source each for these currents.
4. What is meant by the statement that “ the frequency of current in India is 50 Hz”?

Answer:

1. D.C. – Direct Current.
2. A.C.- Alternating Current.
3. Source of D.C. → a cell, battery, solar cell, D.C. generator.
   Source of A.C. → A.C. Generator.
4. The frequency of current in India is 50 Hz means the direction of current in India changes 50 times in 1 second.

Question 9.
Explain two disadvantages of series arrangement for household circuit.
Answer:
Disadvantages of series circuits for domestic wiring:

1. In series circuit, if one electrical appliance stops working due to some defect then all other appliances also stop working because the whole circuit is broken.
2. In series circuit, all the electrical appliances have only one switch , due to which they cannot be turned off or turned on separately.

Question 10.
(i) State Maxwell’s right-hand thumb rule.
(ii) PQ is a current carrying conductor in the plane of the paper as shown in the figure. Mention the direction of magnetic fields produced by it at points A and B.
Given r₁ < r₂ where will the strength of the magnetic field be larger?
Answer:
(i) Maxwell’s right hand thumb rule: The direction of the current is given by Maxwell’s right hand thdmb rule, “If the current carrying conductor is gripped with the right hand in such a way that the thumb gives the direction of the current, then the direction of the fingers gives the direction of the magnetic field produced around the conductor”.

(ii) Since the direction of current in the straight conductor is from Q to P, then according to Maxwell’s right hand thumb rule, magnetic field at point A is inside the paper and at point B is outside the paper. Since r₁ < r₂ the strength of the magnetic field at A is more than at B because greater the
distance of a point from the current carrying wire, weaker will be the magnetic field produced at that point.

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 13 NCERT textbook activities

Class 10 Science Activity 13.1 Page No. 223

• Take a straight thick copper wire and place it between the points X and Y in an electric circuit, as shown in Fig. 13.8. The wire XY is kept perpendicular to the plane of paper.
  
  Compass needle is deflected on passing an electric current through a metallic conductor.
• Horizontally place a small compass near to this copper wire. See the position of its needle.
• Pass the current through the circuit by inserting the key into the plug.
• Observe the change in the position of the compass needle.

Observations:

• The needle is deflected showing that electric current through the copper wire has produced a magnetic effect.

Class 10 Science Activity 13.2 Page No. 224

• Fix a sheet of white paper on a drawing board using some adhesive material.
• Place a bar magnet in the centre of it.
• Sprinkle some iron filings uniformly around the bar magnet (Fig. 13.9). A salt – sprinkler may be used for this purpose.
• Now tap the board gently.
• What do you observe?
  
  Fig. 13.9: Iron filings near the bar magnet align themselves along the field lines

Observations:

• It is observed that iron filings arrange themselves in a pattern of concentric circles. This shows that iron filings experience a force due to magnetic effect of a magnetic. The lines along which the iron filings align themselves are magnetic field lines.

Class 10 Science Activity 13.3 Pages No. 224,225

• Take a small compass and a bar magnet
• Place the magnet on a sheet of white paper fixed on a drawing board, using some adhesive material.
• Mark the boundary of the magnet.
  
  Fig. 13.10: Drawing a magnetic field line with the help of a compass needle.
• Place the compass near the north pole of the magnet. How does it behave? The south pole Fig 13 10: Drawing a magnetic field line of the needle points with the help of a compass needle, towards the north pole of the magnet. The north pole of the compass is directed away from the north pole of the magnet.
• Mark the position of two ends of the needle.
• Now move the needle to a new position such that its south pole occupies the position previously occupied by its north pole.
• In this way, proceed step by step till you reach the south pole of the magnet as shown in Fig. 13.10.
  
  Fig. 13.11: Field lines around a bar magnet.
• Join the points marked on the paper by a smooth curve. This curve represents a field line.
• Repeat the above procedure and draw as many lines as you can. You will get a pattern shown in Fig. 13.11. These lines represent the magnetic field around the magnet. These are known as magnetic field lines.
• Observe the deflection in the compass needle as you move it along a field line. The deflection increases as the needle is moved towards the poles.

Observations:

• The magnetic field is strong at the poles due to which deflection increases at the poles as the needle move towards it.

Class 10 Science Activity 13.4 Page No. 226

• Take a long straight copper wire, two or three cells ofl .5 V each, and a plug key. Connect all of them in scries as shown in Fig. 13.12 (a)
• Place the straight wire parallel to and over a compass needle.
• Plug the key in the circuit.
• Observe the direction of deflection of the north pole of the needle. If the current flows from north to south, as shown in Fig. 13.12 (a), the north pole of the compass needle would move towards the east.
• Replace the cell connections in the circuit as shown in Fig. 13.12 (b). This would result in the change of the direction of current through the copper wire, that is, from south to north.
• Observe the change in the direction of deflection of the needle You will see that now the needle moves in opposite direction, that is, towards the west (Fig. 13.12 (b)). It means that the direction of magnetic field produced by the electric current is also reversed.
  Fig. 13.12: A simple electric circuit in which a straight copper wire is placed parallel to and over a compass needle. The deflection in the needle becomes opposite when the direction of the current is reversed.

Observations:

• As current flow changes its direction from south to north, the needle in the compass moves in a opposite direction that is towards the west. This shows the direction of magnetic filed produced by the electric current is also reversed.

Class 10 Science Activity 13.5 Pages No. 226, 227

• Take a battery (12 V), a variable resistance (or a rheostat), an ammeter (0 5 A), a plug key, connecting wires and a long straight thick copper wire.
• Insert the thick wire through the centre, normal to the plane of a rectangular cardboard. Take care that the cardboard is fixed and does not slide up or down.
  Fig. 13.13: (a) A pattern of concentric circles indicating the field lines of a magnetic field around a straight conducting wire. The arrows in the circles show the direction of the field lines. (b) A close up of the pattern obtained.

• Connect the copper wire vertically between the points X and Y, as shown in Fig. 13.13 (a), in series with the battery, a plug and key.
• Sprinkle some iron filings uniformly on the cardboard. (You may use a salt sprinkler for this purpose).
• Keep the variable of the rheostat at a fixed position and note the . current through the ammeter.
• Close the key so that a current flows through the wire. Ensure that the copper wire placed between the points X and Y remains vertically straight.
• Gently tap the cardboard a few times. Observe the pattern of the iron filings. You would find that the iron filings align themselves showing a pattern of concentric circles around the copper wire (Fig. 13.13).
• What do these concentric circles represent? They represent the magnetic field lines.
• How can the direction of the magnetic field be found? Place a compass at a point (say P) over a circle. Observe the direction of the needle. The direction of the north pole of the compass needle would give the direction of the field lines produced by the electric current through the straight wire at point P. Show the direction by an arrow.
• Does the direction of magnetic field lines get reversed if the direction of current through the straight copper wire is reversed? Check it.

Observations:

• The deflection is the needle changes. If the current is increased, the deflection also increases. It indicates the magnitude of the magnetic field produced at a given point increases as the current through the wire increases.

Class 10 Science Activity 13.6 Page No. 229

• Take a rectangular cardboard having two holes. Insert a circular coil having large number of turns through them, normal to the plane of the cardboard.
• Connect the ends of the coil in series with a battery, a key and a rheostat, as shown in Fig. 13.14.
• Sprinkle iron filings uniformly on the cardboard.
• Plug the key.
• Tap the cardboard gently a few times. Note the pattern of the iron filings that emerges on the cardboard.

Observations:

Fig. 13.14: Magnetic field produced by a current carrying circular coil.

Class 10 Science Activity 13.7 Page No. 230

• Take a small aluminium rod AB (of about 5 cm). Using two connecting wires suspend it horizontally from a stand, as shown in Fig. 13.15.
• Place a strong horse-shoe magnet in such a way that the rod lies between the two poles with the magnetic field directed upwards. For this put the north pole of the magnet vertically below and south pole vertically above the aluminium rod (Fig. 13.15).
  
  Fig. 13.15: A current carrying rod, AB, experiences a force perpendicular to its length and the magnetic field.
• Connect the aluminium rod in series with a battery, a key and a rheostat.
• Now pass a current through the aluminium rod from end B to end A.
• What do you observe? It is observed that the rod is displaced towards the left. Yr- will notice that the rod gets displaced.
• Reverse the direction of current flowing through the rod and observe the direction of its displacement. It is now towards the right.
  Why does the rod get displaced?

Observations:

• The rod is displaced due to force exerted on the current – carrying aluminium rod when placed in a magnetic field.
• The direction of force is recedes as the direction of anent through the induction is reversed.

Class 10 Science Activity 13.8 Pages No. 233,234

• Take a coil of wire AB having a large number of turns.
• Connect the ends of the coil to a galvanometer as shown in Fig. 13.16.
• Take a strong bar magnet and move its north pole towards the end B of the coil. Do you find any change in the galvanometer needle?
• There is a momentary deflection in the needle of the galvanometer, say to the right. This indicates the presence of a current in the coil AB. The deflection becomes zero the moment the motion of the magnet stops.
• Now withdraw the north pole of the magnet away from the coil. Now the galvanometer is deflected toward the left, showing that the current is now set up in the direction opposite to the first.
• Place the magnet stationary at a point near to the coil, keeping its north pole towards the end B of the coil. Wc sec that the galvanometer needle deflects toward the right when the coil is moved towards the north pole of the magnet. Similarly the needle moves toward left when the coil is moved aways.
  
  Fig. 13.16: Moving a magnet towards a coil sets up a current in the coil circuit, as indicated by deflection in the galvanometer needle.

• When the coil is kept stationary with respect to the magnet, the deflection of the galvanometer drops to zero. What do you conclude from this activity?

Observations:

• From this activity, it can be concluded that the motion of a magnet with respect to the coil produces an induced potential difference, which sets up an induced electric current in the circuit.

Class 10 Science Activity 13.9 Page No. 235

• Take two different coils of copper wire having large number of turns (say 50 and 100 turns respectively). Insert them over a non-conducting cylindrical roll, as shown in Fig. 13.17. (You may use a thick paper roll for this purpose.)
• Connect the coil-1, having larger number of turns, in series with a battery and a plug key. Also connect the other coil-2 with a galvanometer as shown.
• Plug in the key. Observe the galvanometer. Is there a deflection in its needle? You will observe that the needle of the galvanometer instantly jumps to one side and just as quickly returns to zero, indicating a momentary current in coil-2.
• Disconnect coil-1 from the battery. You will observe that the needle momentarily moves, but to the opposite side. It means that now the current flows in the opposite direction in coil-2
  Fig. 13.17: Current is induced in coil-2 when current in coil-1 is changed.

Observations:

• We will observe that the needle of th e galvanometer instantly jumps to one side and just quickly returns to its initial position.

MP Board Class 10th Science Solutions

MP Board Class 10th Science Solutions Chapter 7 Control and Coordination

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 7 Intext Questions

Class 10th Science Chapter 7 Intext Questions Page No. 119

Question 1.
What is the difference between a reflex action and walking?
Answer:
A reflex action is an automatic reaction for each stimulation in our body initiated by our sense responses e.g., we move our hand immediately after a contact with hot object. It is a direct controlled action. Walking is completely controlled by our brain. On the other hand, is a voluntary action. It requires complete coordination of muscles, bones, eyes etc.

Question 2.
What happens at the synapse between two neurons?
Answer:
The electrical impulse travels through axon and sets off the release of some chemicals (neurotransmitters) at the axon endings. These chemicals cross the gap or synapse, and start a similar electrical impulse in a dendrite of the next neuron.

Question 3.
Which part of the brain maintains posture and equilibrium of the body?
Answer:
Cerebellum is the part of the brain which maintains posture and equilibrium of the body.

Question 4.
How do we detect the smell of an agarbatti (incense stick)?
Answer:
Forebrain is responsible for thinking work. It has separate areas that are specialized for hearing, smelling, sight, taste, touch etc. The _ forebrain also has regions that collect information or impulses from various receptors. When the smell of an incense stick reaches us, out forebrain detects it. Then, the forebrain interprets it by putting it together with the information received from other receptors and also with the information already stored in the brain.

Question 5.
What is the role of the brain in reflex action?
Answer:
Reflex actions are sudden responses, which do not involve any thinking. A connection of detecting the signal from the nerves (input) and responding to it quickly (output) is called\a reflex arc. The reflex arcs can be considered as connections present between the input and output nerves which meets in a bundle in the spinal cord. The brain is only responsible of the signal and the response.

Class 10th Science Chapter 7 Intext Questions Page No. 122

Question 1.
What are plant hormones?
Answer:
The chemicals present in plants which help coordinate growth, development and responses to the environment are called plant hormones.

Question 2.
How is the movement of leaves of the sensitive plant different from the movement of a shoot towards light?
Answer:

Question 3.
Give an example of a plant hormone that promotes growth.
Answer:
Auxin is a growth-promoting plant hormone.

Question 4.
How do auxins promote the growth of a tendril around a support?
Answer:
A hormone called Auxin, synthesised at the shoot tip helps the cells to grow longer. When light is coming from one side of the plant, auxin diffuses towards the shady side of the shoot. The concentration of auxin stimulates the cells to grow longer on the side of the shoot which is away from light. Thus the plant appears to bend towards light.

Question 5.
Design an experiment to demonstrate hydrotropism.
Answer:
Take two small beakers and label them as A and B. Fill beaker A with water. Now, make a cylindrical-shaped roll from a filter paper and keep it as a bridge between beaker A and beaker B, as shown in the figure. Attach few germinating seeds in the middle of the filter paper bridge. Now, cover the entire set-up with a transparent plastic container so that the moisture is retained.

Phenomenon of Hydrotropism Observations:

• The roots of the germinating seeds will grow towards beaker A.
• This experiment demonstrates the phenomenon of hydrotropism.

Class 10th Science Chapter 7 Intext Questions Page No. 125

Question 1.
How does chemical coordination take place in animals?
Answer:
Chemical co-ordination take place by hormones Adrenal gland secrete adrenaline directly into the blood and carried to different parts of the body. Such animal hormones are part of the endocrine system which constitutes a second way of control and coordination in our body.

Question 2.
Why is the use of iodised salt advisable? .
Answer:
Iodine is main stimulator of thyroxine. It stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroxine hormone. It regulates carbohydrate, fat and protein metabolism in our body. Deficiency of this hormone results in the enlargement of the thyroid gland. This can lead to goitre, a disease characterized by swollen neck. Therefore, iodised salt is advised for normal functioning of the thyroid gland.

Question 3.
How does our body respond when adrenaline is secreted into the blood?
Answer:
Adrealine is secreted directly into the blood and carried to different parts of the body. The target organs or the specific tissues on which is acts include the heart. As a result, the heart beats faster, resulting in supply of more oxygen to our muscles. The blood to the digestive system and skin is reduced due to contraction of muscles around small arteries in these organs. This diverts the blood to our skeletal muscles. The breathing rate also increases because of the contractions of the diaphragm and the rib muscles.

Question 4.
Why are some patients of diabetes treated by giving injections of insulin?
Answer:
In diabetes, the level of sugar in the blood is too high and hence cause discomfort. Insulin, a naturally occuring chemical inside our pancreas act, as hormones andihelps in regulating the blood sugar levels. When due to very high suga- intake or improper secretion of insulin, balance of insulin decreasesin the body then insulin is injected to body. This is the reason why diabetic patients are treated by giving injections of insulin.

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 7 NCERT Textbook Exercises

Question 1.
Which of the following is a plant hormone?
(a) Insulin
(b) Thyroxin
(c) Oestrogen
(d) Cytokinin
Answer:
(d) Cytokinin is a plant hormone.

Question 2.
The gap between two neurons is called a
(a) Dendrite
(b) Synapse
(c) Axon
(d) Impulse
Answer:
(b) The gap between two neurons is called a synapse.

Question 3.
The brain is responsible for:
(a) Thinking
(b) Regulating the heart beat
(c) Balancing the body
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) The brain is responsible for thinking, regulating the heart beat and balancing the body.

Question 4.
What is the function of receptors in our body? Think of situations where receptors do not work properly. What problems are likely to arise?
Answer:
Receptors are sensory structures (organs/tissues or cells) present all over the body. The receptors are either grouped in case of eye Or ear, or scattered in case of skin. Functions of receptors:
(i) They sense the external stimuli such as heat or pain.
(ii) They also trigger an impulse in the sensory neuron which sends message to the spinal cord. When the receptors are damaged, the external stimuli transferring signals to the brain are not felt. For example, in the case of damaged receptors, if we accidentally touch any hot object, then our hands might get burnt as damaged , receptors cannot perceive the external stimuli of heat and pain.

Question 5.
Draw the structure of a neuron and explain its function.
Answer:
Neurons are the functional units of the nervous system.
Structure of a Neuron:

The three main parts of a neuron are axon, dendrite and cell body.

Functions of the three parts of a neuron:

1. Axon: It conducts messages away from the cell body. It is the part by which information travels as an electrical impulse.
2. Dendrite: It is the part where information is acquired, it receives information from axon of other cell or initiation point and conducts the messages towards the cell body.
3. Cell body: It is the part where impulse get converted into a chemical signal forwarding transmission. It is mainly concerned with the maintenance and growth.

Question 6.
How does phototropism occur in plants?
Answer:
When growing plants detect light, a hormone called auxin, synthesised at ‘ the shoot tip, helps the cells to grow longer towards light. When light is coming from one side of the plant, Ans: auxin diffuses towards the shady side of the shoot. This concentration of auxin stimulates the cells to grow longer on the side of the shoot which is away from the light. Thus the plant appears to bend towards light, i,e, phototropism.

Question 7.
Which signals will get disrupted in case of a spinal cord injury?
Answer:
Spinal cord is made up of nerves which supply information to think about Nerves from all over the body meet in a bundle in the spinal cord on their way to the brain. Reflex arcs are formed in this spinal cord it self, although the information input also goes on to reach the brain. So if it is injured there is obstruction for carrying impulses to other parts.

Question 8.
How does chemical coordination occur in plants?
Answer:
Different plant hormones help to coordinate growth, development and response to the environment. When growing plants detect light, a hormone called auxin, synthesised at the shoot tip, helps the cells to grow longer. Gibberellins helps in the growth of the stem. Cytokinins promote cell division.

Question 9.
What is the need for a system of control and coordination in an organism?
Answer:
The maintenance of the body functions in response to changes in the body by working together of various integrated body systems is known as coordination. All the movements that occur in response to stimuli are carefully coordinated and controlled. In animals, the control and coordination movements are provided by nervous and muscular systems. The nervous system sends messages to and away from the brain. The spinal cord plays an important role in the relay of messages. In the absence of this system of control and coordination, our body will not be able to function properly. For example, when we accidentally touch a hot utensil, we immediately withdraw our hand. In the absence of nerve transmission, we will not withdraw our hand and may get burnt.

Question 10.
How are involuntary actions and reflex actions different from each other?
Answer:
Involuntary actions cannot be consciously controlled. For example, we cannot consciously control the movement of food in the alimentary canal. These actions are however, directly under the control of the brain. On the other hand, the reflex actions such as closing of eyes immediately when bright light is focussed show sudden response and do not involve any thinking. This means that unlike involuntary actions, the reflex actions are not under the control of brain.

Question 11.
Compare and contrast nervous and hormonal mechanisms for control and coordination in animals.
Answer:
Nervous system mechanism

1. The information is conveyed in the form of electric impulse.
2. The axons and dendrites transmit the information through a coordinated effort.
3. The flow of information is rapid and the response is quick.
4. Its effects are short lived.

Hormonal system mechanism

1. The information is conveyed in the form of chemical messengers.
2. The information is transmitted or transported through blood.
3. The information travels slowly and the response is slow.
4. It has prolonged effects.

Question 12.
What is the difference between the manner in which movement takes place in a sensitive plant and the movement in our legs?
Answer:
In a sensitive plant the cells change shape by changing the amount of water in them, resulting in swelling or shrinking and there fore leading to limited movements. Movement in our legs is voluntary action done by muscle tissue regulated by central nervous system.

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 7 Additional Important Questions

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 7 Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The brain box which protect internal part of brain is called:
(a) Skull
(b) Peripheral Nervous System
(c) Autonomic Nervous System
(d) Ribs
Answer:
(a) Skull

Question 2.
Secondary sexual characteristics are controlled by:
(a) Central Nervous System
(b) Peripheral Nervous System
(c) Autonomic Nervous System
(d) Endocrine gland
Answer:
(d) Endocrine gland

Question 3.
The activities of the internal organs are controlled by the:
(a) Central Nervous System
(b) Peripheral Nervous System
(c) Autonomic Nervous System
(d) Endocrine glands
Answer:
(a) Central Nervous System

Question 4.
Which pari of brain is the seat of intelligence and voluntary actions?
(a) Diencephalon
(b) Cerebrum
(c) Cerebellum
(d) Medulla oblongata
Answer:
(b) Cerebrum

Question 5.
Cell division in plant is affected by:
(a) Ethylene
(b) Auxin
(c) Gibberellin
(d) Cytokinin
Answer:
(d) Cytokinin

Question 6.
The gap between two neurons is known as……
(a) Synapse
(b) Synopsis
(c) Impulse
(d) Synaptic node
Answer:
(a) Synapse

Question 7.
Which of the follow ing is a plant hormone?
(a) Thyroxin
(b) Cytokinin
(c) Insulin
(d) Oestrogen
Answer:
(b) Cytokinin

Question 8.
Tropic movements are:
(a) In response to light
(b) In response to gravity
(c) Uni-directional
(d) Non – directional
Answer:
(c) Uni-directional

Question 9.
Artifical ripening of fruit is carried out by:
(a) Auxins
(b) Ethylene
(c) Abscisic acid (ABA)
(d) Gibberellins
Answer:
(b) Ethylene

Question 10.
The part of brain that controls respiration, heartbeat and peristalsisis:
(a) Cerebrum
(b) Cerebellum
(c) Pons
(d) Medulla
Answer:
(d) Medulla

Question 11.
The brain is responsible for:
(a) Thinking
(b) Regulating the heart beat
(c) Balancing the body
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 12.
Which of the following hormone is released by thyroid?
(a) Insulin
(b) Thyroxine
(c) Trypsin
(d) Pepsin
Answer:
(b) Thyroxine

Question 13.
Which body organ is surrounded by meninges?
(a) Heart and Lungs
(b) Brain and Heart
(c) Brain and Spinal Cord
(d) Spinal Cord and Lungs
Answer:
(c) Brain and Spinal Cord

Question 14.
The part of brain that controls muscular co-ordination is
(a) Cerebrum
(b) Cerebellum
(c) Pons
(d) Medulla
Answer:
(b) Cerebellum

Question 15.
Growth of the stem is controlled by:
(a) Gibberellin
(b) Auxin
(c) Abscisic acid
(d) Cytokinin
Answer:
(a) Gibberellin

Question 16.
Cause wilting of leaves? Which hormone
(a) Gibberellin
(b) Auxin
(c) Abscisic acid
(d) Cytokinin
Answer:
(c) Abscisic acid

Question 17.
Which of the following hormones contains iodine?
(a) Adrenaline
(b) Testosterone
(c) Thyroxine
(d) Insulin
Answer:
(c) Thyroxine

Question 18.
Which part of brain controls the posture and balance of the body?
(b) Cerebellum
(d) Medulla
Ans.
(b)

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 7 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is considered as the structural and functional unit of the nervous system?
Answer:
Neuron or Nerve cell.

Question 2.
What is called an automatic response to a stimulus which is not controlled by the brain?
Answer:
Reflex action.

Question 3.
How do plants respond to stimuli without any kind of nervous systems?
Answer:
Plants respond to stimuli without any kind of nervous systems with the help of plant hormones.

Question 4.
What are the other factors which control and coordinate in plants and animals other than CNS and reflex actions?
Answer:
Hormones.

Question 5.
What is phototropism?
Answer:
The movement of a plant’s part towards light is called phototropism.

Question 6.
What we call to:

1. the movement of plant to the availability of water?
2. the movement of plant to the earth’s gravity?

Answer:

1. Hydrotropism.
2. Geotropism.

Question 7.
Which system of our body is related to hormones which constitutes a second way of control and coordination in our body?
Answer:
Endocrine system.

Question 8.
How many Endocrine glands are situated in our brain? Name them.
Answer:
Three: Hypothalamus, pituitary and pineal glands.

Question 9.
What is considered as the reflex centre of the brain?
Answer:
Medulla oblongata.

Question 10.
Which structure is related to both nervous system and endocrine system in our body?
Answer:
Hypothalamus.

Question 11.
Which part of the brain maintains posture and equilibrium of the body?
Answer:
Cerebellum.

Question 12.
Name the substance important for synthesis of thyroxine.
Answer:
Iodine is essential for the synthesis of thyroxine.

Question 13.
How thyroxine initiate growth in our body?
Answer:
Thyroxine regulates carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism in our body and provide proper energy which causes the best balance for growth.

Qusestion 14.
Who gave the term phytohormones?
Answer:
Thimann.

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 7 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write importance of control and coordination in living organisms.
Answer:

• Control and coordination increase the chances of survival by responding to stimuli.
• Different body parts function in coordination to each other as a single unit.

Question 2.
What is hyperglycemia?
Answer:
Hyperglycemia refers to high sugar level in blood. In general, diabetic patients has hyperglycemia due to insufficient release of insulin hormone. .

Question 3.
What are reasons for many drastic changes in appearance at 10-12 years of age?
Answer:
These changes are associated with puberty and are because of the secretion of testosterone in males and oestrogen in females.

Question 4.
Write down the functions performed by cerebrum.
Answer:
The cerebrum performs the following functions:

• It controls our mental abilities like thinking, reasoning, learning, memorising etc.
• It controls our feelings, emotions and speech.
• It controls all involuntary functions.

Question 5.
What are the functions of cerebellum?
Answer:
Functions of cerebellum:

• Maintains equilibrium or balance of the body.
• Coordinates muscular movement.
• Maintains posture of the body.

Question 6.
How soft and delicate brain is safe inside a human body?
Answer:
Brain is placed safely inside a bony box called cranium by the nature, within which there are 3 layers of fluid-filled (called cerebrospinal fluid) membranes (called meninges) which absorb external shock.

Question 7.
What is the role of the brain in reflex action?
Answer:
Brain has no role in reflex action response. Instead, spinal cord is the control center of a reflex action. In fact, brain becomes aware after the reflex arc has been formed.

Question 8.
What do you mean by reflex action? Give examples of reflex actions.
Answer:
It is defined as fast, unconscious, immediate, automatic and involuntary response of the body in parts or total (through effectors) to c «dmulus. It is monitored through spinal cord.

Examples of reflex actions:

• Closing of eyes with bright light.
• Knee-Jerk.
• Withdrawal of body parts when pricked by a pin.

Question 9.
What are the different types of reflexes?
Answer:
There are two types of reflexes:

• Unconditioned reflexes.
• Conditioned reflexes.

Question 10.
What is reflex arc?
Answer:
The structural and functional unit that carries our reflex action is called a reflex arc. It consists of:

• A receptor.
• Sensory nerve (afferent)
• Motor nerve (efferent)
• Spinal cord.
• Inter-neuron and effector

Question 11.
Write important functions of different plant hormones?
Answer:
The five major types of phytohormones and their functions are:

• Auxins: Promote cell division, bending of shoot towards the source of light.
• Cytokinins: Promote cell division.
• Gibberellins: Stimulate stem elongation.
• Abscisic acid: Inhibit growth, closing of stomata and dormancy.
• Ethylene( gas hormone): Promotes fruit ripening and growth.

Question 12.
How is the movement of leaves of the sensitive plant different from the movement of a shoot towards light?
Answer:
The movement of leaves of the sensitive plant, (e.g. Mimosa pudica or touch-me-not) occurs in response to touch or contact stimuli. It is a growth independent movement (nastic movement).

The movement of shoot towards light is called photo-tropism. This type of movement is directional and is growth dependent.

Question 13.
Write some points about the character of nastic movement.
Answer:
Characters of Nastic Movements in plants:

1. Growth independent movements.
2. Time of action – immediate.
3. Response to stimulus – Non-directional.
4. Motive – Change in turgor.

Examples – Folding of leaves of touch-me-not (mimosa).

Question 14.
What is chemotropism?
Answer:
Directional movement of a plant or its part in response to chemicals is called chemotropism, e.g. outward growth of the shoot from origin.

Question 15.
Define geotropism.
Answer:
Roots move in the direction of gravity (positive + ve geotropism).
Shoots move (up) against direction of gravity (negative -ve geotropism).

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 7 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the limitations of nervous system in human body? How it is overcomed?
Answer:
A chemical signal in the form of hormones would reach all cells of the body and provide the wide range of changes needed while nervous system in human body works or communicates using nerve impulses which are form of electrical impulses in limited nerve network. Electrical impulses are an excellent means of communication in human body but they have limitations like:

• They reach only those cells that are connected by nervous tissue, not each and every cell in the animal body.
• Cells cannot continually create and transmit electrical impulses.
• Hormone or endocrine system is slower than nerve cells but potentially reach all cells of the body.

Question 2.
Why is the use of iodised salt advised? Why are some patients of diabetes treated by giving injections of insulin?
Answer:
It is advised to use iodised salt to prevent goiter (enlargement of the thyroid gland). Iodine is required for the proper functioning of thyroid. Iodine stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroxine hormone. This hormone regulates carbohydrate, fat and protein metabolism in our body. Diabetes is a condition in which sugar level in blood is very high. Insulin hormone is released by pancreas glands which regulates the blood sugar level.

In diabetic patients, pancreas stop releasing insulin hormone. If it is not secreted in proper amounts, the sugar level in the blood rises causing many harmful effects. Due to this reason, diabetic patients are treated by giving injections of insulin. The timing and amount of hormone released are regulated by feedback mechanisms. When the sugar levels in blood rise, they are detected by the cells of the pancreas which respond by producing more insulin. As the blood sugar level falls, insulin secretion is reduced.

Question 3.
How does adrenaline act during emergency?
Answer:
During emergency situations, adrenaline hormone is released into blood stream in large quantities. It increases the heartbeat and hence supplies more oxygen to the muscles. The increase in breathing rate also increases due to contractions of diaphragm and rib muscles. It raises the blood pressure and thus, enable the body to cope up with any stress or emergency. Adrenaline hormone is secreted by the adrenal glands. It helps to regulate heart beat, blood pressure and metabolism in the times of stress or emergency to cope up with the situation.

Question 4.
What happens at the synapse between two neurons?
Answer:
Synapse is a very small gap between the last portion of axon of one neuron and the dendron of the other neuron. It acts as a one way valve to transmit impulses. This is one directional flow of impulses because the chemicals are produced only on one side of the neuron i.e., the axon’s side. Via axon, the impulses travel across the synapse to the dendron of the other neuron.

In total, synapse performs the following tasks:

1. It allows the information to pass from one neuron to another.
2. It ensures the passage of nerve impulse in one direction only.
3. It helps in information processing by combining the effects of all impulses received.

Question 5.
How do we detect the smell of any food?
Answer:
The fore-brain is the main thinking part of the brain. It has regions which receive sensory impulses from various receptors. Separate areas of the fore-brain are specialised for hearing, smell, sight and so on. Olfactoreceptors (present in nose) send the information about the smell of incense stick to fore-brain. The fore-brain interprets it along with information received from other receptors as well as with information that is already stored in the brain.

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 7 Textbook Activities

Class 10 Science Activity 7.1 Page No. 115

• Put some sugar in your mouth. How does it taste
• Block your nose by pressing it between your thumb and index finger. Now eat sugar again. Is there any difference in its taste.
• While eating lunch, block your nose in the same way and notice if you can fully appreciate the taste of the food you are eating.

Observations:

• The sugar tastes sweet. The taste is combined perception of tongue and nose.
• When we block our nose, the sugar taste different as now aroma through nose is hindering in proxiding the taste fell earlier. The olfactory receptors of nose are now blocked and we perceixe taste only due to gustatory receptors piesent on tongue.
• Similarly, taste of the food also can not be fully appreciated with blocked nose.

Class 10 Science Activity 7.2 Page No. 121

• Fill a conical flask with water.
• Cover the neck of the flask w’ith a wire mesh.
• Keep two or three freshly germinated bean seeds on the wire mesh.
• Take a cardboard box which is open from one side.
• Keep the flask in the box in such a manner that the open side of the box faces light coming from a window.

• After two or three days, you will notice that the shoots bend towards light and roots away from light.
• Now turn the flask so that the shoots arc away from light and the roots towards light. Leave it undisturbed in this condition for a few days.
• Have the old parts of the shoot and root changed direction?
• Are there differences in the direction of the new growth?
• What can we conclude from this activity?

Observations:

• The old parts of shoot and root does not show’ noticeable changes in the direction.,
• The new’ growth of parts of shoot and root show noticeable changes in the direction of the growth. Shoots bend towards light and roots bend away from it.
• From this activity, we can conclude that shoot shows phototropism and the roots show geotropism.

Class 10 Science Activity 7.3 Page No. 123

• Look at Figure.
• Identify the endocrine glands mentioned in the figure.
• Some of these glands have been listed in Table and discussed in the text. Consult books in the library and discuss with your teachers to find out about other glands.

Endocrine glands in human beings (a) male, (b) female.

Observations:

• The endocrine glands mentioned in the figure are: Hypothalamus, pituitary, pineal, thymus. Thyroid gland, parathyroid, adrenal, pancreas, testes and ovaries.

Class 10 Science Activity 7.4 Page No. 125

• Hormones are secreted by endocrine glands and have specific fifhctions. Complete Table 7.1 based on the hormone, the endocrine gland or the functions provided.

Some important hormones and their functions.

MP Board Class 10th Science Solutions

MP Board Class 10th Science Solutions Chapter 12 Electricity

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 12 Intext Questions

Class 10th Science Chapter 12 Intext Questions Page No. 200

Question 1.
What does an electric circuit mean?
Answer:
A continuous and closed path of an electric current is called an electric circuit.

Question 2.
Define the unit of current.
Answer:
The SI unit of electric current is ampere (A).
When I coulomb of electric charge flows through any cross. Section of a conductor in I second, the electric current flowing through it is said to be 1 ampere.
∵ 1 ampere = 1C/1s

Question 3.
Calculate the number of electrons constituting one coulomb of charge.
Answer:
The SI unit of electric charge is column, which is equivalent to the charge contained in nearly 6 × 10¹⁸ electrons.

Class 10th Science Chapter 12 Intext Questions Page No. 202

Question 1.
Name a device that helps to maintain a potential difference across a conductor.
Answer:
A source of electricity such as battery, cell, power supply etc. can maintain a potential difference.

Question 2.
What is meant by saying that the potential difference between two points is 1 V?
Answer:
One Volt is the potential difference between two points in a current-carrying conductor when 1 joule of work is done to move a charge of 1 coulomb from one point to the other.

1 V = 1 Jc^-1

Question 3.
How much energy is given to each coulomb of charge passing through a 6 V battery?
Answer:
W = VQ
= 6 × 1 = 6 joules
Hence 6 joules of energy is given to each coulomb of charge passing through a 6 V battery.

Class 10th Science Chapter 12 Intext Questions page No. 209

Question 1.
On what factors does the resistance of a conductor depend?
Answer:
The resistance of a conductor depends upon main four factors which are given below:

1. Length of the conductor.
2. Cross-sectional area of the conductor.
3. Natural of material of the conductor.
4. Temperature of the conductor.

Question 2.
Will current flow more easily through a thick wire or a thin wire of the same material, when connected to the same source? Why?
Answer:
Thicker the wire, lower is the resistance of the wire. Hence, current flows more easily through a thick wire. It is because the resistance of a conductor is inversely proportional to its area of cross-section.

Question 3.
Let the resistance of an electrical component remains constant while the potential difference across the two ends of the component decreases to half of its former value. What change will occur in the current through it?
Answer:
As per ohm’s law, V = IR
\(\mathrm{I}=\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{R}}\) —— (i)
Potential difference is half

∴ Current flowing is also half of ts former value.

Question 4.
Why are coils of electric toasters and electric irons made of an alloy rather than a pure metal?
Answer:
a) Resistivity of iron = 10.0 × 10^-8
Resistivity of Mercury = 94.0 × 10^-8
Resistivity of an alloy is greater than iron. By this we conclude that, Iron is good conductor of heat comparing to Mercury.
b) Resistivity of silver is less, hence it is a good conductor of heat.

Question 5.
Use the data in Table 12.1 to answer the following:
Electrical resistivity of some substances at 20°C

(a) Which among iron and mercury is a better conductor?
(b) Which material is the best conductor?
Answer:
(a) Resistivity of iron = 10.0 × 10^-8 Ωm
Resistivity of mercury = 94.0 × 10^-8 Ωm
Hence, resistivity of mercury is more than that of iron. This implies that iron is a better conductor than mercury.
(b) It can be observed from table that the resistivity of silver is the lowest among the listed materials. Hence, it is the best conductor.

Class 10th Science Chapter 12 Intext Questions page No. 213

Question 1.
Draw a schematic diagram of a circuit consisting of a battery of ‘three cells of 2 V each, a 5 Ω resistor, an 8 Ω resistor, and a 12 Ω resistor, and a plug key, all connected in series.
Answer:
Schematic diagram of a circuit:

Question 2.
Redraw the circuit of question 1, putting in an ammeter to measure the current through the resistors and a voltmeter to measure the potential difference across the 12 Ω resistor. What would be the readings in the ammeter and the voltmeter?
Answer:

Hence, reading in the ammeter would be 0.24 A and reading in voltmeter would be 2.88 V.

Class 10th Science Chapter 12 Intext Questions Page No. 216

Question 1.
Judge the equivalent resistance when the following are connected in parallel:
(a) 1Ω, and 106 Ω
(b) 1 Ω, and 103 Ω and 106 Ω
Answer:
(a) 1 ohm and 10⁶ times ohm
R₁ = 1 ohm
R₂ = 10⁶ times = 1000000 ohm
Total resistance (parallel)
1/R = 1/R₁ + 1/R₂
= 1/1 + 1/1000000
= 1000000 + 1 /1000000
= 1000000/ 1000000
1/R = 1/1 ohm (approx.)
∴ Resistance = 1 ohm (approx.)

(b) Given R₁ = 1 ohm
R₂ = 10³ ohm
R₃ = 10⁶ ohm

Question 2.
An electric lamp of 100Ω, a toaster of resistance 50Ω and a water filter of resistance 500Ω are connected in parallel to a 220 V source. What is the resistance of an electric iron connected to the same source that takes as much current as all three appliances, and what is the current through it?
Answer:
Resistance of Electric 1 amp R₁ = 100Ω
Resistance of Tosser, R₂ = 50Ω
Resistance of water filter, R₃ = 50Ω
Potential difference, V = 220V
When these are connected in parallel,


7.04A of electricity is obtained by three appliances
Resistance of an electric iron connected to the same source that takes as much current as all three appliances

∴ Resistance of iron box = 31.25Ω
Electricity flowing through this = 7.04A.

Question 3.
What are the advantages of connecting electrical devices in parallel with the battery instead of connecting them in series?
Answer:
(i) In parallel circuit, if one electrical appliance stops working due to some defect, then all other appliances keep working normally. In series circuit, if one electrical appliance stops working due to some defect, then all other appliances also stop working.

(ii) In parallel circuits, each electrical appliance gets the same voltage as that of the power supply line. In series circuit, appliances do not get the same voltage, as that of the power supply line.

(iii) In the parallel connection of electrical appliances, the overall resistance of the household circuit is reduced due to which the current from the power supply is high. In the series connection, the overall resistance of the circuit increases too much due to which the current from the power supply is low.

Question 4.
How can three resistors of resistances 2 Ω, 3 Ω, and 6 Ω be connected to give a total resistance of (a) 4Ω, (b) 1Ω?
Answer:
Given,
R₁ = 2 Ω
R₂ = 3 Ω
R₃ = 6 Ω
(a) When R₂ and R₃ are connected in parallel with R₁ in series we receive

(b) When R₁, R₂, R₃ are connected in parallel we receive

Question 5.
What is (a) the highest, (b) the lowest total resistance that can be secured by combinations of four coils of resistance 4 Ω, 8 Ω, 12 Ω, 24 Ω?
Answer:
(a) For highest resistance according to question resistances must be connected in series:

4 Ω, 8 Ω, 12 Ω, 24 Ω
R₁ = 4 Ω
R₂ = 8 Ω
R₃ = 12 Ω
R₄ = 24 Ω
Total resistance in series = R₁ + R₂ + R₃ + R₄
= 4 + 8 + 12 + 24
= 48 Ω
Now, resistance is maximum when connected in series.

(b) For lowest resistance, resistances must be connected in parallel.

Resistance is lowest when connected in parallel.

Class 10th Science Chapter 12 Intext Questions Page No. 218

Question 1.
Why does the cord of an electric heater not glow while the heating element does?
Answer:
In cord of an electric heater, as current flows these become hot arid glows but in case of electric heater this will not happen.

Question 2.
Compute the heat generated while transferring 96000 coulomb of charge in one hour through a potential difference of 50 V.
Answer:
Given, Charge = 96000 coulomb
Time = 1 hour = 3600 seconds
Potential difference = 50 V Ω
As we know, I = Q/T
I = 96000/36000 = 80/3 amp.
V = I × R
50 = 80/3 × R
So, R = 15/8 Ω
Now, Heat = I²RT
= (80/3)² × 15/8 × 3600
800 × 6000
= 4800000 joules or 4.8 × 10⁶ J

Question 3.
An electric iron of resistance 20Ω takes a current of 5 A. Calculate the heat developed in 30 s.
Answer:
As per Joule’s law
H = VIt
H = IR = 5A × 20Ω = 100V
I = 5A, t = 30 sec.
∴ H = 100 × 5 × 30 J
= 15000 J = 1.5 × 10⁴ J.

Class 10th Science Chapter 12 Intext Questions Page No. 220

Question 1.
What determines the rate at which energy is delivered by a current?
Answer:
The rate at which electric energy is dissipated or consumed in an electric circuit is termed as electric power.
P = VI.

Question 2.
An electric motor takes 5 A from a 220 V line. Determine the power of the motor and the energy consumed in 2 h.
Answer:
P = VI
V = 220V, and I = 5A.
Power P = 220 × 5 = 1100 W
Power of the motor = P × t
P = 1100 W.
t = 2 Hr 2 × 60 × 60 W
= 7200 S
∴ Energy consumed, E = 1100 × 7200 J
= 7920000
= 7.92 × 10⁶J.

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 12 NCERT Textbook Exercises

Question 1.
A piece of wire of resistance R is cut into five equal parts. These parts are then connected in parallel. If the equivalent resistance of this combination is R’, then the ratio \(\frac { R }{ R` } \) is –
(a) \(\frac { 1 }{ 25 }\)
(b) \(\frac { 1 }{ 5 }\)
(c) 5
(d) 25
Answer:
(d) 25

Question 2.
Which of the following terms does not represent electrical power in a circuit?
(a) I²R
(b) IR²
(c) VI
(d) \(\frac { { V }^{ 2 } }{ R } \)
Answer:
(b) IR²

Question 3.
An electric bulb is rated 220 V and 100 W. When it is operated on 110 V, the power consumed will be –
(a) 100 W
(b) 75 W
(c) 50 W
(d) 25 W
Answer:
(d) 25 W

Question 4.
Two conducting wires of the same material and of equal lengths and equal diameters are first connected in series and then parallel in a circuit across the same potential difference. The ratio of heat produced in series and parallel combinations would be-
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 1 : 4
(d) 4 : 1
Answer:
(c) 1 : 4

Question 5.
How is a voltmeter connected in the circuit to measure the potential difference between two points?
Answer:
Voltmeter is connected in parallel in the circuit to measure the potential difference between two points.

Question 6.
A copper wire has diameter 0.5 mm and resistivity of 1.6 × 10-8 Ω m. What will be the length of this wire to make its resistance 10 Ω? How much does the resistance change if the diameter is doubled?
Answer:
Given, Diameter = 0.5 mm = 0.0005 m

So, the resistance is one-fourth if the diameter is doubled.

Question 7.
The values of current I flowing in a given resistor for the corresponding values of potential difference V across the resistors are given below:

Plot a graph between V and I and calculate the resistance of that resistor are given below:
Answer:

Question 8.
When a 12 V battery is connected across an unknown resistor, there is a current of 2.5 mA in the circuit. Find the value of the resistance of the resistor.
Answer:
Given, V = 12v
I = 2.5 mA = 2.5 × 10^-3 A
As we know, R = \(\frac { V }{ 1 } \)
R = \(\frac{12 \mathrm{V}}{2.5 \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{A}}\) = 48000 Ω
So, R = 4.8 kΩ

Question 9.
A battery of 9 V is connected in series with resistors of 0.2 Ω, 0.3 Ω, 0.4 Ω, 0.5 Ω, and 12 Ω respectively. How much current would flow through the 12 Ω resistor.
Answer:
R₁ = 0.2 Ω R₂ = 0.3 Ω R₃ = 0.4 Ω R₄ = 0.5 Ω R₅ = 12 Ω

Given, V = 9 V
R5 = 0.2 Ω + 0.3 Ω + 0.4 Ω + 0.5 Ω + 12 Ω
= 13.4 Ω
According to formula I = \(\frac { V }{ R } \)
= \(\frac{9 \mathrm{V}}{13.4 \Omega}\)
= 0.67 A
0.67 A current would flow through the 12 Ω resistor.

Question 10.
How many 176 Ω resistors (in parallel) are required to carry 5 A on a 220 V line?
Answer:
Given
I = 5 A V = 220 V
Now, Let the number of 176 Ω resistors be n.

So, four resistors of 176 Ω are required to carry 5 A on a 220 V line.

Question 11.
Show how you would connect three resistors, each of resistance 6Ω, so that the combination has a resistance of (i) 9Ω, (ii) 4Ω.
Answer:
If resistors are connected in series 6Ω + 6Ω + 6Ω =18Ω This ia not correct
When they are connected in parallel
\(\frac{1}{6}+\frac{1}{6}+\frac{1}{6}=3\) This is also wrong,
i) When they are connected in parallel

Two 6Ω resistors are connected in parallel

If 3rd resistor of 6Ω and 3Ω are connected in series, it becomes 6Ω + 3Ω = 9Ω.
ii) When they are connected in series

Resistance = 6Ω + 6Ω
= 12Ω
If 3rd resistor 6Ω is connected to 12Ω in parallel

Total resistance = 4Ω.

Question 12.
Several electric bulbs designed to be used on a 220 V electric supply line, are rated 10 W. How many lamps can be connected in parallel with each other across the two wires of 220 V line if the maximum allowable current is 5 A?
Answer:
Here V = 220V
I – 5A

∴ 110 lamps can be connected in parallel with each other across the two wires.

Question 13.
A hot plate of an electric oven connected to a 220 V line has two resistance coils A and B, each of 24Ω resistance, which may be used separately, in series, or in parallel. What are the currents in the three cases?
Answer:
(i) If coils are connected separately V = 220 V
Resistance R₁ = 240
As per ohm’s law, V = IR

∴ If coils are connected separately 9.16A electricity flows in the coil.
(ii) If coils are connected in series
Resistance R₂ = 24Ω + 24Ω = 48Ω
As per ohm’s law V = IR

∴ If coils are connected in series 4.58A electricity flows.

Question 14.
Compare the power used in the 20 resistors in each of the following circuits:
(i) a 6 V battery in series with 1Ω and 2Ω resistors, and
(ii) a 4 V battery in parallel with 12Ω and 2Ω resistors.
Answer:
(i) Potential Difference V = 6V
If 1Ω and 2Ω resistors are connected in series, then Resistance
R = 1 + 2 = 3W.
As per ohm’s law
\(\mathrm{I}=\frac{6}{3}=2 \mathrm{A}\)
P(I²)R = (2)² × 2 = 8W.
(ii) Potential difference V = 4V
If 12Ω and 2Ω resistors are connected in parallel, voltage is equal
Voltage of resistance 2 W is 4 volts

∴ Power of 2Ω is 8 W.

Question 15.
Two lamps, one rated 100 W at 220 V, and the other 60 W at 220 V, are connected in parallel to electric mains supply. What current is drawn from the line if the supply voltage is 220 V?
Answer:
Both lamps are connected in parallel potential difference = 220 V
Power = V × I.

Question 16.
Which uses more energy, a 250 W TV set in 1 hr, or a 1200 W toaster in 10 minutes?
Answer:
250W TV set in used in 1 Hr, then its energy
= 250 × 3600 = 9 × 10⁵
energy of Toaster = 1200 × 600
If it is used in 10 minutes, then its power = 1200 × 600 × 7.2 × 10⁵ J
∴ Energy of 250 W TV set is used in 1 Hr is greater than 1200 W toaster used in 10 minutes.

Question 17.
An electric heater of resistance 8Ω draws 15 A from the service mains 2 hours.
Calculate the rate at which heat is developed in the heater.
Answer:
P = I²R
R = 8Ω, I = 15A
P= (15)² × 8 = 1800 J/s.
∴ Rate at which heat is developed in the heater
= 1800 J/s.

Question 18.
Explain the following:
(a) Why is the tungsten used almost exclusively for filament of electric lamps?
(b) Why arc the conductors of electric heating devices, such as bread-toasters and electric irons, majle of an alloy rather than a pure metal?
(c) Why is the series arrangement not used for domestic circuits?
(d) How does the resistance of a wire vary with its area of cross-section?
(e) Why are copper and aluminium wires usually employed for electricity transmission?
Answer:
(a) Tungsten used almost exclusively for filament of electric lamps because its melting point is very high and resistivity of tungsten is low, it has special property of glowing on heating, it does not oxidized.

(b) The conductors of electric heating devices such as bread toasters and electric irons are made of alloy because resistivity of an alloy is higher than metal so alloy produces large amount of heat. They do not get oxidized. Melting point is also high.

(c) As in series, circuit voltage is divided. Components of a series circuit receives only small voltage so the amount of current decreases and the device turn hot and do not work properly. Hence, series arrangement is avoided being used in domestic circuits.

(d) Resistance (R) of a wire is inversely proportional to its area of cross-section (A) i.e., when area of cross section decreases the resistance increases or vice versa.

(e) Copper and aluminium are usually used for electricity transmission because they are good conductors of electricity and also have low resistivity and do not get heated.

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 12 Additional Important Questions

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 12 Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
SI unit of an electric current is equal to
(a) 6 × 10⁸ C
(b) 9.8 × 10¹⁰ C
(c) 1.6 × 10^-19 C
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) None of these

Question 2.
Which materials have changing resistivity?
(a) Conductors
(b) Semiconductors
(c) Non-metals
(d) Super metals
Answer:
(b) Semiconductors

Question 3.
If wire in a circuit is doubled its resistivity will be?
(a) Two times
(b) Ten times
(c) Zero
(d) half
Answer:
(d) half

Question 4.
A wire used in circuit must be
(a) Highly resistant
(b) Non resistance
(c) Have high melting point
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Non resistance

Question 5.
A heating w ire must have
(a) High melting point
(b) High conductivity to heat
(c) Both
(d) None
Answer:
(b) High conductivity to heat

Question 6.
SI unit of resistance is:
(a) Coulomb
(b) Ampere
(c) Ohm
(d) Ohm – meter
Answer:
(c) Ohm

Question 7.
Symbol for use of voltmeter in circuit is:

Answer:

Question 8.
Symbol for use of battery in circuit is:

Answer:

Question 9.
Relation of potential difference and current is represented by:
(a) Joule’s law
(b) Ohm’s law
(c) Dalton’s law
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Ohm’s law

Question 10.
Formula which represents the relation among potential difference and current following in a circuit is:
(a) V = IR
(b) V = I/R
(c) l = Q/t
(d) R = p \(\frac { l }{ A } \)
Answer:
(a) V = IR

Question 11.
Kilo watt is a unit for:
(a) Power
(b) Electrical energy commercial
(c) Resistance
(d) Current flow in circuit
Answer:
(a) Power

Question 12.
Which one has less resistance?
(a) 10 watt bulb
(b) 15 watt LED
(c) 60 watt bulb
(d) 60 watt LED.
Answer:
(a) 10 watt bulb

Question 13.
In which type of combinations resistance is more?
(a) Series Combination
(b) Parallel combination
(c) both
(d) Single resistance unit.
Answer:
(a) Series Combination

Question 14.
Joule’s law formulation is
(a) H = IRT
(b) H = I2RT
(c) P = VI
(d) RT = PV
Answer:
(d) RT = PV

Question 15.
Hardest metal which can resist maximum heat is:
(a) Lead
(b) Tungsten
(c) Silver
(d) Carbon
Answer:
(b) Tungsten

Question 16.
If current passing a circuit is 10 A and wire is connected to 100 volt line resistant in the wire will be:
(a) 10 A
(b) 10 Ω
(c) 100 Ω
(d) O Ω
Answer:
(b) 10 Ω

Question 17.
An insulator has a resistivity equals to:
(a) 10^-8 Ω m
(b) 10 Ω m
(c) 5 Ω m
(d) 10^-18 Ω
Answer:
(a) 10^-8 Ω m

Question 18.
Calculate current-(I) in circuit given below:
(a) 0.6 A
(b) 20 A
(c) 50 A
(d) 10 A

Answer:
(a) 0.6 A

Question 19.
If resistors are arranged in parallel with value 1 Ω, 2 Ω and 3 Ω Total resistant will be:
(a) more than 3 Ω
(b) less than 3 Ω
(c) less than 1 Ω
(d) equal to 1 Ω
Answer:
(b) less than 3 Ω

Question 20.
The changing 1 kWh to joule will be equal to
(a) 3.6 × 10⁶ J
(b) 3.6 × 10^-6 J
(c) 1.6 × 10⁶ J
(d) 1 × 10⁶ J
Answer:
(a) 3.6 × 106 J

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 12 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What kind of circuit is required for flow of current ?
Answer:
Closed.

Question 2.
Draw a schematic diagram of a simple electric with battery, bulb, ammeter and key.
Answer:

Question 3.
Express in formula form:

1. net charge of a circuit
2. time taken for production of a unit amount of current.

Answer:

1. Q = It.
2. t = Q/I.

Question 4.
What is the value of an electric charge for an electron?
Answer:
-1.6 × 10^-19 C.

Question 5.
Formulate relationship between potential difference and current.
Answer:
V = IR.

Question 6.
Draw the graph verifying ohm’s law.
Answer:

Question 7
Draw circuit with three resistor in series combination.
Answer:

Question 8.
Represent with diagram:
(i) A cell
(ii) A bulb.
Answer:

Question 9.
Which material has highest conductivity and least resistance?
Answer:
Super conductors.

Question 10.
Which quality of electrical energy is inversely proportional to electrical power?
Answer:
Resistance.

Question 11.
Calculate resistance between terminal P & Q of following diagram.
Answer:

First R₁ and R₂ are in series.
So, R’ = R₁ + R₂ = 1 Ω + 1 Ω = 2 Ω.
then, R₃ and R₄ are in series
R” = R₃ + R₄ = 1 Ω + 1 Ω = 2 Ω
Now both R’ and R” are in parallel.
\(\frac { 1 }{ R } \) = \(\frac{1}{R^{\prime}}+\frac{1}{R^{\prime \prime}}+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{2}=1\)
So, R = 1 Ω

Question 12.
If a circuit has open key will current flow from it?
Answer:
No.

Question 13.
If ammeter is not placed in circuit will current flow?
Answer:
Yes.

Question 14.
Which gas is filled in electric bulb?
Answer:
Argon.

Question 15.
Write the formula representing relationship between heat produced and current flowing in a circuit.
Answer:
H = I²RT.

Question 16.
Write the formula to calculate power generated by a circuit a with current M.
Answer:
Since, P = VI
Putting value of I, P = VM (I = m, Given)

Question 17.
Convert 5 kWh in joule.
Answer:
1 kWh = 3.6 × 10⁶ Joule
5 kWh = 5 × 3.6 × 10⁶ J.
= 16 × 10⁶ J
or 1.6 × 10⁷ J

Question 18
One volt ampere is equal to how many watt power?
Answer:
1 Watt Power.

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 12 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is electric current?
Answer:
Total charge which pass through a particular area in unit time is called electric current of that particular conductor.

Question 2.
What is potential difference?
Answer:
Movement of electron need a pressure difference among conductors. Hence, battery or current flow suppliers are added to circuit. This difference in potential is called potential difference.

Question 3.
Define Ohm’s law.
Answer:
Ohm’s law states that current flowing in a circuit is directly proportional to its potential difference. It is represented by formula,
V α I
or V = RI
or V = IR
Here, R is a constant known as resistance.

Question 4.
Why resistance is applied to a circuit?
Answer:
To control the current flow in desired way resistance is applied. Example- Regulator of fan give desired speed of wind flow by controlling flow of current which is being converted to physical energy by fan.

Question 5.
Write down the factors at which the resistance of the conductor depends.
Answer:

1. Length of wire: Resistance is directly proportional to length R ∝ L.
2. Area cross section: Resistance is inversely proportional to area cross section of a wire R ∝ 1/A.
3. Nature of material.
4. Temperature of the conductor.

Question 6.
Arrange the resistivity in decreasing order of following material,
Iron, Silver, Tungsten, Manganin and Glass
Answer:
Glass > Manganin > Iron > Tungsten > Silver.

Question 7.
Give reason for the following:

1. Electric bulbs are usually filled with chemically inactive gases like nitrogen and argon.
2. Copper and aluminium wires are usually employed for electricity transmission.
3. Fuse wire is placed in series with the device.

Answer:

1. Electric bulbs are usually filled with chemically inactive gases like nitrogen and argon because these gases do not react with the hot tungsten filament and hence, prolong the life of filament of the electric bulb.
2. Copper and aluminium wires are usually employed for electricity transmission because copper and aluminium have low resistivity and thus, they are very good conductors of electricity.
3. Fuse wire is placed in series with the device because when large current passes through the circuit the fuse wire gets heated up and melts and whole circuit breaks and the device is protected from the damage.

Question 8.
If R₁ = 10 Ω, R₂ = 20 Ω and R₃ = 30 Ω, calculate the effective resistance when they are connected in series to a battery of 6 V. Also find the current flowing in the circuit.
(a) Current flows through different resistances, when these are joined in series, as shown in the below figure:

(b) R₁ = 10 Ω, R₂ = 20 Ω, R₃ = 30 Ω
Effective resistance, R = R₁ + R₂ + R₃
R 10 + 20 + 30 = 60 Ω
Potential difference, V = 6V,
Current, I = ?
According to Ohm’s law
V = IR

Question 9.
Find the resistance between points A and B in the circuit diagram given below

Answer:
R₂, R₃, R₄ are in series and have resultant resistance R
R’ = R₂ + R₃ + R₄
= 2 + 2 + 2 = 6 Ω
R’ is in parallel combination with R₁
∴ Resultant resistance of the circuit (R’)
⇒ \(\frac { 1 }{ R } \) = \(\frac{1}{R_{1}}+\frac{1}{R_{1}}\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 6 } \) + \(\frac { 1 }{ 6 } \) = \(\frac { 2 }{ 6 } \) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 } \)
∴ Resistance, R = 3 Ω.

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 12 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
An electric iron consumes energy at a rate of 840 W when heating is at the maximum and 360 W when the heating is at the minimum. The voltage at which it is running is 220 V. What are the current and resistance in each case?
Solution:
At maximum heating:
The consumption of energy (electric) is given at the rate of 840 W at voltage 220 V.
P = 840 Ω, V = 220 V
Then current, I₁ = ?
∴ P = V × I₁

Question 2.
Three resistors of 5 Ω,10 Ω and 15 Ω are connected in series and the combination is connected to battery of 30 V. Ammeter and Voltmeter are connected in the circuit. Draw a circuit diagram to connect devices all the in correct order. What is the current flowing and potential difference across 10 Ω resistance?
Answer:
Current flowing I = ?
V₂ = ?
Total resistance, R = R₁ + R₂ + R₃
= 5 + 10 + 15 = 30 Ω
Total potential difference, V = 30 volts
According to Ohm’s law V = IR

Potential difference across 10 Ω is 10 volts.

Question 3.
Nichrome wire of length ‘l’ and radius ‘r’ has resistance of 10 Ω. How would the resistance of the wire change when:
(a) (i) Only length of the wire is doubled?
(ii) Only diameter of the wire is doubled? Justify your answer.
(b) Why element of electrical heating devices are made up of alloys?
Solution:
(a) Resistance, R ∝ 1

(i) Resistance is directly proportional to the length of the conductor. If length of nichrome wire (I) is doubled its resistance also gets doubled.
∴ R’ new resistance = 20 Ω

(ii) The resistance of the wire is inversely proportional to the square of its diameter. If the diameter of the wire is doubled, its resistance becomes one-fourth.
∴ R’, new resistance = \(\frac { 10 }{ 4 } \) Ω = 2.5 Ω.

(b) The heating elements of electrical heating appliances are made up of nichrome alloy because,

• Nichrome has very high resistivity due to which it produces a lot of heat on passing current.
• Nichrome does not undergo oxidation easily even at high temperature, it can be kept red hot without burning.

Question 4.
The resistance of a wire of 0.01 cm radius is 10 Ω. If the resistivity of the material of the wire is 50 × 10-8 ohm meter, find the length of the wire.
Answer:
Resistance of a wire, R = 10 Ω Radius, r = 0.01 × 10^-2 m
Resistivity, p = 50 × 10^-8 ohm meter Length of the wire, l = ?
Area of cross section, A = πr² = 3.14 × (0.01 × 1o-2)² m²
= 3.14 × 0.01 × 0.01 × 10^-4 m²
= 3.14 × 10^-8 m²

Question 5.
(a) Calculate the resistance of the wire using the graph.
(b) How many 176 Ω resistors in parallel are required to carry 5 A on a 220 V line?
(c) Define electric power. Derive relation between power, potential difference and resistance.

Answer:
(a) Resistance of wire = Slope of the graph
According to Ohm’s law,
V = IR or R = \(\frac { V }{ I } \)

(b) Resistance, R¹ = 176 Ω, No. of resistors = n,
Current, I = 5A
Potential difference, V = 220 volts, Resultant resistance = R According to Ohm s law,
V = IR, R = \(\frac { V }{ 1 } \) = \(\frac { 220 }{ 5 } \) = 44 Ω

Thus, 4 resistors of 176 Ω in parallel combination are required to carry 5 A on a 220 V line.

(c) Electric power is defined as the electrical work done per unit-time.

The work done, W by current, I when it flows for time t under potential difference V is given by

MP Board Class 10th Science Chapter 12 NCERT Textbook Activities

Class 10 Science Activity 12.1 Pages No. 203.204

• Set up circuit as shown in figure, consisting of a mchrome wire XY of length, say 0.5 m, an ammeter, a voltmeter and four cells of 1.5 V each (Nichrome is an alloy of nickel, chromium, manganese, and iron metals.)
• First use only cell as the source in the circuit. Note the reading of the voltmeter V for the potential difference across the nichrome wire XY in the circuit. Tabulate them in table given.
• Next connect two cells in the circuit and note the respective readings of the ammeter and voltmeter for the values of current through the nichrome wire and potential difference across the nichrome wire.
• Repeat the above steps using three cells and then four cells in the circuit separately.
• Calculate the ratio of V to 1 for each pair of potential difference V and current I.
  
• Plot a graph between V and 1, and observe the nature of the graph.

Observations:

Approximately same value for \(\frac { V }{ I } \) will be obtained in each case. The straight line is obtained in the V – I graph. Thus, \(\frac { V }{ I } \) is a constant ratio.

Class 10 Science Activity 12.2 Page No. 205

• Take a nichrome wire, a torch bulb, a 10 W bulb and an ammeter (0-5 A range), a plug key and some connecting wires.
• Set up the circuit by connecting four dry cells of 1.5 V each in series with the ammeter leaving a gap XY in the circuit as shown in Fig. 12.1.
  

• Complete the circuit by connecting the nichrome wire in the gap XY. Plug the key. Note down the ammeter reading. Take out the key from the plug. [Note: Always take out the key from the plug after measuring the current the circuit.
• Replace the nichrome wire with the torch bulb in the circuit and find the current through it by measuring the reading of the ammeter.
• Now repeat the above step with the 10 W bulb in the gap XY.
• Are the ammeter readings differ for different components in the gap XY? What do the above observations indicate?
• You may repeat this Activity by keeping any material component in the gap. Observe the ammeter readings in each case. Analyse the observations.

Observations:

• The current is different for different components as certain components offer an easy path for the flow of electric current while the others resist the flow.

Class 10 Science Activity 12.3 Page No. 206

• Complete an electric circuit consisting of cell, an ammeter, a nichrome wire of length l [say, marked (1)] ana a plug key, as shown in Fig. 12.2.
  
  Electric circuit to study the factors on which the resistance of conducting wires depends.

• Figure 12.2. Electric circuit ti study the factors on which the resistance of conducting wires depends
• Now, plug the key. Note the current in the ammeter.
• Replace the nichrome wire by another nichrome wire of same thickness but twice the length, that is 2l [marked (2) in the Fig. 12.2],
• Note the ammeter reading.
• Now replace the wire by a thicker nichrome wire of the same length / [marked (3)]. A thicker wire has a larger cross-sectional area. Again note down the current through the circuit.
• Instead of taking a nichrome wire, connect a copper wire [marked (4) in Fig. 12.2] in the circuit. Let the w ire be of the same length and same area of cross-section as that of the first nichrome wire [marked (1)]. Note the value of the current.
• Notice the difference in the current in all cases.
• Does the current depend in the length of the conductor?
• Does the current depend on the area of cross-section of the wire used?

Observations:

• The length of the conductor affects the current flow. Ammeter reading decreases to one-half when the length of the wire is doubled.
• The cross-section of the wire also affects the current flow. The length and cross-section changes affect the resistance also.

Class 10 Science Activity 12.4 Page No. 210

• Join three resistors of different values in series. Connect them with a battery, an ammeter and a plug key. as shown in Fig. 12.3. You may use the resistors of values like 1Ω, 2Ω, 3Ω etc, and a battery of 6 V for performing this Activity.
• Plug the key. Note the ammeter reading.
• Change the position if ammeter to anywhere in between the resistors. Note the ammeter reading each time.
• Do you find any change in the value of current through the ammeter?

Observations:

• The value of the current in the ammeter remains unchanged. This shows that it is independent of its position in the electric current. This shows that the current is the same in every part of a series combination.

Class 10 Science Activity 12.5 Page No. 211

• In Activity 12.4, insert a voltmeter across the ands X and Y of the series combination of three resistors, as shown in Fig. 12.4.
• Plug the key in the circuit and note series combination of resistors. Let it be V. Now measure the potential difference across the two terminals of the battery. Compare the two values.
• Take out the plug key and disconnect the voltmeter. Now insert the voltmeter across the ands X and P the first resistor, as shown in Fig. 12.4.
  
• Plug the key and measure the potential difference across the first resistor. Lei it be V₁.
• Similarly, measure the potential difference across the first resistor, separately. Let these values be V₃, and V₂, respectively.
• Deduce a relationship between V, V₁, V₂ and V₃.

Observations:

• The potential difference (V) is equal to the sum of potential differences V₁, V₂, and V₃.
• Total potential difference across a combination of resistors in series is equal to the sum of potential difference across the individual resistors,
V = V₁ + V₂ + V₃

Class 10 Science Activity 12.6 Page No. 211

• Make a parallel combination. X Y of three resistors having resistances R₁, R₂, and R₃, respectively Connect it with a battery, a plug key and an ammeter, as shown in Fig. 12.5. Also connect a voltmeter in parallel with the combination of resistors
  

• Plug the key and note the ammeter reading. Let the current be I. Also take the voltmeter reading. It gives the potential difference V, across the combination. The potential difference across each resistor is also V. This can be checked by connecting the voltmeter across each individual resistor (see Fig. 12.6).
• Take out the plug from the key. Remove the ammeter and voltmeter from the circuit. Insert the ammeter in series with the resistor Rl, as shown in Fig. 12.6. Note the ammeter reading, 11.
  

Similarly, measure the currents through R₂ and R₃ Let these be I₂, and I₃, respectively. What is the relationship between I, I₁, I₂ and I₃?

Observations:

• The total current I, is equal to the sum of the separate currents through each branch of the combination,
  I = I₁ + I₂ + I₃

MP Board Class 10th Science Solutions

In this article, we will share MP Board Class 10th Social Science Book Solutions Chapter 21 Globalisation Pdf, These solutions are solved subject experts from the latest edition books.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Solutions Chapter 21 Globalisation

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 21 Text book Exercises

Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Multiple Choice Questions
(Choose the correct answer from the following)

Question (i)
Globalisation has improved the standard of living of –
(a) Poor class
(b) Higher class
(c) Rural areas
(d) All classes of the society
Answer:
(c) Rural areas

Question (ii)
Which industries are closed due to globalisation –
(a) Large – scale industries
(b) Multinational companies
(c) Small – scale industries
(d) Industries of all type
Answer:
(d) Industries of all type

Question (iii)
The process of globalisation began in India from the year –
(a) 1947
(b) 1951
(c) 1991
(d) 2001.
Answer:
(c) 1991

Question (iv)
The World Trade Organisation was established in –
(a) 1985
(b) 1995
(c) 2001
(d) 2005.
Answer:
(b) 1995

Question (v)
The main basis of globalisation is –
(a) foreign trade
(b) internal trade
(c) agricultural trade
(d) small scale industry.
Answer:
(a) foreign trade

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks: (MP Board 2009)

1. At present the number of reserved industries is …………….
2. Under globalisation the transportation of goods and services is ……………. between various countries.
3. The companies who produce goods in different countries are called ……………. (MP Board 2009)

Answer:

1. Eight
2. Liberalised
3. Mulitnational Companies.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 21 Very Short  Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What was the foreign policy of India prior to the year 1991?
Answer:
Liberalisation and Globalisation.

Question 2.
What are those companies called who produce in more than one country?
Answer:
Multinational Company.

Question 3.
Which consumer class is benefited more by globalisation?
Answer:
Higher Class.

Question 4.
What do you understand by multinational companies?
Answer:
A company whose work is related to production and sale spread all over the world is known as multinational companies.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 21  Short  Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
State the meaning of globalisation. Who have been benefited by globalisation?
Answer:
Globalisation is meant the working of whole world together with co – operation and co-ordination in the form of a market. Under the process of globalisation the restrictions on the inflow and outflow of goods and services from one country to another are withdrawn. Thereby the market prices start working freely in whole of the world. As a result the prices in all the countries becomes near about equal. In this way as a result of globalisation all the markets of the world are unified. The upper strata of our society is the most beneficiary of this system.

Question 2.
What is foreign trade?
Answer:
The foreign trade has linked all the countries of the world together. There are several big companies of the world, which are called multinational companies. These companies sell their products in several countries of the world. This is noticeable here that a multinational company is that who produces goods in more than one country. These companies produce goods on large scale and sell these produced goods in several countries.

Question 3.
What is the unification of market?
Answer:
India has adopted the New Economics Policy since 1991. The main objective of this policy is to take advantage of the progress of the world and technical knowledge and thus accelerate the economic development of the country. This policy has opened the way of liberalisation by avoiding the existing administrative restriction. Along with this the efforts has been made to motivate private investment and to attract the foreign capital. It can be said in brief that through the new policy a new chapter has began by linking the India market economy with the economy of the world.

Question 4.
How are the small producers affected by globalisation?
Or
Write the effect of Globalization on the small producers? (MP Board 2009)
Answer:
All people have not been benefited by the globalisation, thus now it is clear that globalisation has affected the Indian economy in both the ways inversely and positively. The reality is this, that globalisation has benefited the industries and business and we have approached in the world market. Several Indian producers have got the form of multinational company.

The development rate of Indian economy has also become more than 9 per cent. Consumers are now getting world – level standardised goods. But in reality the people of all classes have not got the benefit of globalisation equally. Several small and tiny industries have been closed due to competition. The problems like poverty and unemployment prevailing in the developing countries like India have become more complicated.

Along with this due to the influence of developed countries upon. The World Trade Organisation, developing and backward countries are not getting the benefits of globalisation. The new labour – laws are not affecting the labour class favourably. Therefore the efforts are needed.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 21 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you understand by globalisation? Explain the causes that motivate the process of globalisation.
Or
What is globalisation? Explain the causes that motivate this process. (MP Board 2009)
Answer:
Globalisation means opening ftp the economy to facilitate its integration with the world economy. In this situation economics are integrated with each other. In case of globalisation it becomes easy to sell goods and services abroad.

Factors Inspiring Globalisation:

1. Expansion of Technical Knowledge:
During last 50 years the technical knowledge has developed rapidly. The transport technology has made it possible to send goods upto distant places in a lower cost. Telecommunication facilities such as internet, mobile phone, fax etc. has made the task of connecting people with °ach other throughout the world very easy. Communication satellite has brought a revolutionary change by expanding these facilities. As a result globalisation has expanded rapidly.

2. Process of Liberalisation:
Till the middle of twentieth century the production was limited mainly within the boundaries of the countries. So many countries imposed strict restrictions to protect the goods produced by them from competition. India also during the decades of 1950 and 1960 had permitted only to import the necessary goods as machineries, fertilizers and petroleum etc. Several industries developed due to this policy and India became self – reliant in several sectors.

3. Expansion of Competition and Market:
Competition has a special importance in capitalist economic system. In this system different producing compaines in order to seek the hold on market take support of competition. For this purpose these companies along with cutting down the prices use advertisements and various medium of convincing and canvassing the buyers.

4. Expansion of Multinational Companies:
Multinational companies play a significant role in linking the distant countries with each other. These companies set up their factories for production purpose in those countries where they get cheaper labour and other means of production and due to this the capacity of these companies increasesto compete.

Question 2.
How do foreign trade helps in unifying the markets of various countries?
Answer:
During the decades of 1970 and 1990 some such changes took place due to which began the process of liberalising foreign trade. For example, dissolution of Union of Socialist Soviet of Russia, economic unification of Europe, emergence of Japan as a major power of the world and economic development of Korea, Singapore and Hongkong. As a result several countries agreed to liberalise the world trade.

This strengthen, the process of liberalization. After the establishment of The World Trade Organisation1 in 1955, almost all the countries of the world have reduced their taxes on imports and have opened the markets of their countries for other countries. So, the process of globalisation has gained speed.

Question 3.
Explain the economic condition of India after the globalisation, and discuss the problems created by gloabaissation?
Or
Explain the main problems which are created by globalisation? (MP Board 2009, 2010)
Answer:
The following aspects are there undertaking The system of globalisation in India:
1. Industrialisation:
The industrialisation in the country has been accelerated due to the industrial policy declared in the year 1991 and the reforms done afterwards. Now number of industries reserved exclusively for public sector is reduced only to three. It means that the private sector has got sufficient opportunities for expansion.

2. Increase in Foreign Investment:
After the globalisation the multinational companies have increased their investment in India. These companies have shown their interest in such investment as cell phones, motorcars, electronic equipments, cold drinks, junk food materials and banking services. New opportunities of employment have been created by these industries and services.

3. Advantage to Indian Companies:
Globalisation has set up several Indian companies as multinational companies. These companies have expanded their activities at world level. For example, Tata Motars, Infosys, Ranbaxy, Asian Paints, Sunderm Fastners can be taken as examples which have now become multinational companies.

The Indian companies, in order to compete with foreign companies, have adopted the latest technology and have raised the standards of their production. There are some companies who have improved their condition by collaborating with multinational companies.

Problems Created by Globalisation:
This is not true to say that India has only benefited by globalisation. The reality is this, the globalisation has also created several problems. Following are these problems.

1. Impact on Small Producers:
Globalisation has adversely affected the several small industries of India. Small industries are not capable to compete with goods produced in foreign. As a result several small industries have closed.

2. Uncertainty of Employment:
Lives of labourers have been greatly affected by globalisation. These days due to growing competition, maximum employers like flexibility in providing employment to labourers. It means that the jobs of labourers are not secure. The factory owners, to minimize the cost, provide temporary employment to the labourers; so that they may not have to pay them salary round the year.

1. Benefit not to all
2. Regional disparities.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 21 Additional Important Questions

Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Multiple Choice Questions:
(Choose the correct answer from the following)

Question (i)
The New Industrial Policy was adopted since –
(a) 1989
(b) 1990
(c) 1991
(d) 1992.
Answer:
(c) 1991

Question (ii)
The main base of globalisation is –
(a) Multinational Companies
(b) Foreign Trade
(c) America
(d) European Union.
Answer:
(b) Foreign Trade

Question (iii)
New economic policy liberated the –
(a) Private sector
(b) Public sector
(c) Industrial sector
(d) Tertiary sector.
Answer:
(a) Private sector

Question (iv)
W.T.O. means –
(a) World Terrorist Organisation
(b) World Transport Organisation
(c) World Trade Organisation.
(d) World Temperate Organisation
Answer:
(c) World Trade Organisation.

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. World bank is an International ……………… institution that extends financial assistance to member nation for development purposes.
2. Financial Crunch is a situation in which the government ……………… falls drastically short of government expenditure.
3. Privatisation is defined as transfer of ownership and control from the public sector to the ……………… sector.
4. The private sector allowed to establish industries and
   business but subject to ……………… and ………………

Answer:

1. Financial
2. Revenue
3. Private
4. Control regulation

Question 3.
True and False type questions:

1. New Economic Policy or N.E.P. was adopted in 1995.
2. Globalization means decreasing integration between different economics of the world.
3. Privatisation means to bring most of the enterprises of the country under the ownership, control and management of the private sector.
4. Liberalisation means to rid industry and trade of unnecessary restrictions and make them more competitive.

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. True
4. True.

Question 4.
Match the following:

Answer:

1. (c)
2. (a)
3. (d)
4. (b).

Answer in One – Two Words or One Sentence:

Question 1.
Define World Trade Organisation (WTO)?
Answer:
WTO is the global international organisation dealing with the rules of trade between nations.

Question 2.
When was WTO established?
Answer:
WTO was established on January 1, 1995.

Question 3.
Where is WTO located?
Answer:
WTO is located at Geneva, Switzerland.

Question 4.
What is GATT?
Answer:
GATT (General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs) was the forum for negotiating trade agreement between nations between 1947 – 1994.

Question 5.
When did India become the member of WTO?
Answer:
India became the member of the WTO on January 1, 1995.

Question 6.
Mention two functions of WTO?
Answer:

1. Administering WTO trade agreements.
2. Forum for trade negotiations between countries.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 21 Very Short  Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define sustainable development.
Answer:
Sustainable development is an economic development where necessities of generations are not compromised by the pleasure of present generation.

Question 2.
Explain the concept of sustainable economic development. Give two points?
Answer:

1. Development should take place without polluting and damaging the environment.
2. Development should be continuous and it should fulfil the needs and aspiration of the present and future generations.

Question 3.
What is the role of WTO? What two benefits will India get by being a member of WTO?
Answer:
WTO is the global trade organisation dealing with the rules of trade between nations. India, as a member of WTO will be benefited in the following ways:

1. Promotion and expansion of trade among countries.
2. (a) Less restrictions on Indian exports.
   (b) Getting technology from developed countries.

Question 4.
Define Liberalisation?
Answer:
Liberalisation means freedom to the private sector to run those activities which were earlier confined to only public sector. Secondly, Private sectors have given many relaxations from the rules and regulations.

Question 5.
What is NRI?
Answer:
NRI (Non-Resident Indian) is an Indian who does not normally live and work in India, but in some other country. He holds Indian citizenship and Indian passport.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 21 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Mention three freedoms given to the private sector industry by liberalisation?
Answer:

1. Industrial licensing has been abolished except for five industries.
2. Number of public sector industries has been reduced from 17 to 3.
3. Freed from regulation like permission for importing materials.

Question 2.
Enlist main objectives of New Economic Policy?
Answer:
Following were the objectives of new economic policy:

1. Liberalisation of the economy.
2. Expansion of private sector.
3. Encouragement of private foreign investment.
4. Modernisation of agriculture.
5. Controlling fiscal deficit.

Question 3.
What do you mean by disinvestment? How far did we succeed in this programme?
Answer:
Disinvestment means selling shares of its performing enterprise by the government. It is one method of privatization. Our programme of privatization through investments has succeeded to some extent only.

Question 4.
Mention the functions of WTO?
Answer:
Functions of World Trade Organisation (WTO):

1. Administering trade agreements between nations.
2. Forum for trade negotiations.
3. Handling trade disputes between nations.
4. Monitoring national trade policy.
5. Technical assistance and training for developing countries and.
6. Cooperation with other international organisation.

Question 5.
How can you justify the presence and impact of globalisation?
Answer:
The presence and impact of globalisation can be justified by the following facts:

1. Development of social consciousness.
2. Fast and quick technological changes.
3. Global form of modern business.
4. Formation of International Monatory Fund (IMF).
5. Foreign collaboration and joint ventures, financial and assistance.
6. Globalisation of marketing through Cable TV network and satellite links and
7. Introduction of internet facilities like e-mail and e- commerce services.

Question 6.
Explain in short meaning of the term ‘Globalization’. Write its main characteristics (features on related points) also?
Answer:
Meaning:
Globalization means integration, unification or integration of domestic economy with the world economy. Characteristics (Features or Related Points):

1. Due to globalisation producers from outside can sell their goods and services in India. We can do the same with our goods and services.
2. Entrepreneurs from other countries can invest in India and the Indian entrepreneur can also do the same in other countries.

Question 7.
Discuss some positive aspects of Globalisation and Liberalisation?
Answer:
Globalisation and Liberalisation have helped in rapid economic development.

1. A large industrial base created; increase in industrial production.
2. Proportion of people living below the poverty line less.
3. Self – sufficient in food.
4. Mobilised its savings.
5. Generated its own resources for development.
6. Large pool of scientists and technically skilled working person.
7. Export – oriented industries.

Question 8
Differentiate between policy of restriction and policy of liberalization?
Answer:
Liberalization:
It means removing unnecessary trade restrictions and making the economy more competitive. New Economic policy liberated the private sector from strict control and licensing.

Restriction:
If restrictions are imposed on economic activities by government policies, it is called the policy of restriction or restrictive policy. No real economy is completely free of restrictions. When these restrictions are removed, it is called the policy of liberalization.

Question 9.
What measures have been taken for globalisation of the economy of India?
Answer:
Free interaction among economies of the world in the field of trade finance, production techlnologies and investment is termed as globalisation of the economy. It encourages foreign trade and institutional investment. Following measures are adopted for it:

1. Devaluation of rupee by 20% in July 1990 – 91.
2. Full convertibility was offered in 1993-94 to encourage exports earnings.
3. Long period trade policy of remove restrictions.
4. Encouragement to open competition.
5. Modification of custom and tariff.

Question 10.
What is sustainable development? What are its important features?
Answer:
The development, which takes care of the needs of present generation without compromising with the needs of future generation is termed as sustainable development.

Important features of sustainable development:

1. Economic growth
2. No or the least compromise with the necessities of the future generation
3. Pollution free economic development
4. No or the least depletion of non – renewable resources and
5. Preservation of environmental and exhaustible resources.

Question 11.
Explain the meaning of World Trade Organisation?
Answer:
World Trade Organisation (WTO):
The global international organisation, working on multilateral trading system, where trade agreemeftts are negotiated and signed by a large majority of world’s trading nations and ratified in their parliaments are known as W.T.O. Its objective is to assist trade flowing smoothly, freely, fairly and predictable among nations. WTO was established on Jan 1, 1995 in Geneva, Switzerland. India also became its member on January 1,1995.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 21 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Review the status of Indian economy before the new economic policy – 1991?
Answer:
1. Self – reliance:
The five – year plans imed at obtaining self – reliance. The dependency upon foreign aid was reduced in fulfilment of this aim. During this period self – reliance in agriculture sector was achieved and vast industrial sector was developed.

2. Foreign Trade:
In the year 1991 imports were kept under control. During this period only necessary goods like machineries, fertilizer and petroleum were mainly imported. To protect the domestic producers from foreign competition the policy of protection was adopted. Therefore, the trade during this period increase slowly. The contribution of India in total world trade in 1951 was near about. 1 per cent which reduced upto 0.6 percent in 1991.

3. National and Per Capita Income:
During the period of 1951 to 1991 the national income increased at the average rate of 4.0 per cent. But due to the rapid growth in population during this period the per capita income increased at a very slow speed.

4. Increase in the Opportunities of Employment:
During this period though the efforts were made to increase the job opportunities even then the problem increased day – by – day. The problem of unemployment became very complicated till 1991.

5. Crisis of Foreign Currency:
India adopted the policy of reducing imports between the years 1951 to 1991. But India needed foreign currency for the import of petroleum products machinery and other necessary goods. India had to take international loan to import these goods. Therefore, India was trapped in the crisis of foreign exchange.

6. Price rise:
During the period of planning India had to face the problem of continuous price rise. After the First Five-Year Plan during the years 1956 to 1991 the rate of inflation in India was between 5 to 6 per cent.

Question 2.
Explain briefly the key features of Indian economy after adoption of the New Economic Policy?
Answer:
Key Features of Indian Economy after adoption of New Economic Policy:
1. Industrial activities which were restricted for public sector were also opened up to private sector except for industries having national importance tike defence, space research etc.

2. Relaxation in regulations tike quota system, industrial licensing, concentration of economic power etc. This was meant to give freedom to the businesses to undertake activities having growth potential.

3. Permission to import raw material was eased to make/it more competitive for businesses to reduce cost and undertake better technology.

4. Pricing and distribution was made free to give businesses free hand to deal with pricing and distribution strategies.

5. Restriction on investement and increase in production capacity was eased to pave the way for industrial growth.

6. The economy was opened to integrate it with world economy in terms of flow of goods and services investment etc.

Question 3.
Explain the process of globalisation?
Or
Give the meaning of globalisation and describe the steps taken in this direction?
Or
Write the main five factors which promote globalization? (MP Board 2009)
Answer:
Process of Globalisation or Steps taken for Globalisation:
1. Raising Foreign Equity Participation:
Prior to July 1999 f foreign equity participation was subjected to lot of approvals, sanctions and constraints. It was restricted to 40%. Now it has been increased to 51% and the approvals have been made routine work.

2. Devaluation of Rupee:
Rupee was devalued by 20% in July 1990 – 91. The devaluation was made to encourage exports and discourage imports. It also aimed at inflow of more foreign capital.

3. Convertibility of Rupee:
The government offered partial convertibility of rupee through the budget of 1992 – 93. Full convertibility was offered in 1993 – 94. Convertibility of rupee was aimed at encouraging export earnings.

4. Long Period Trade Policy:
The government announced foreign trade policy for a period of five years i.e. 1992 – 97. The sole purpose of this policy was liberalisation. It also removed restrictions on external trade.

5. Encouragement to Open Competition:
Exports and imports were left to market forces, government control was minimised.

6. Modification of Customs and Tariff:
In order to build up our competitive strength, customs and tariff policies were modified to promote international trade.

7. Modernisation of the Economy:
The new economic policy accords top priority to modern techniques and technology. It also promotes computers and electronics industries. It has made the Indian industries dynamic. All foreign collaborations concerning higher technology have been (created by the government.

8. Privatisation of the Company:
It means removing strict control over private sector and making them free to take necessary decisions. Now, the new policy tries to expand private sectors.

In this article, we will share MP Board Class 10th Social Science Book Solutions Chapter 21 वैश्वीकरण Pdf, These solutions are solved subject experts from the latest edition books.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Solutions Chapter 21 वैश्वीकरण

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 21 पाठान्त अभ्यास

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 21 वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न

सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए

प्रश्न 1.
वैश्वीकरण ने जीवन-स्तर में सुधार किया है
(i) गरीब वर्ग का
(ii) उच्च वर्ग का
(iii) ग्रामीण क्षेत्रों का
(iv) समाज के सभी वर्गों का।
उत्तर:
(ii) उच्च वर्ग का

प्रश्न  2.
वैश्वीकरण से कौन-से उद्योग बन्द हो गए हैं ?
(i) बड़े पैमाने के उद्योग
(ii) बहुराष्ट्रीय कम्पनियाँ
(iii) लघु उद्योग
(iv) सभी प्रकार के उद्योग।
उत्तर:
(iii) लघु उद्योग

प्रश्न  3.
भारत में वैश्वीकरण की प्रक्रिया प्रारम्भ हुई है –
(i) सन् 1947 में
(ii) सन् 1951 में
(iii) सन् 1991 में
(iv) सन् 2001 में
उत्तर:
(iii) सन् 1991 में

प्रश्न  4.
विश्व व्यापार संगठन की स्थापना हुई है –
(i) सन् 1985
(ii) सन् 1995
(iii) सन् 2001
(iv) सन् 2005
उत्तर:
(ii) सन् 1995

प्रश्न  5.
वैश्वीकरण का मुख्य आधार है
(i) विदेशी व्यापार
(ii) आन्तरिक व्यापार
(iii) उन्नत कृषि व्यापार
(iv) लघु उद्योग।
उत्तर:
(i) विदेशी व्यापार

रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिए

1. वर्तमान में आरक्षित उद्योगों की संख्या ……………. है। (2009)
2. वैश्वीकरण के अन्तर्गत विभिन्न अर्थव्यवस्थाओं के मध्य वस्तुओं एवं सेवाओं का ……………. आवागमन होता है।
3. विभिन्न देशों में उत्पादन करने वाली कम्पनियों को ……………. कहा जाता है। (2009)

उत्तर:

1. तीन
2. एक देश से दूसरे देश में
3. बहुराष्ट्रीय कम्पनी।

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 21 अति लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
वर्ष 1991 से पूर्व भारत के विदेशी व्यापार की नीति क्या थी?
उत्तर:
वर्ष 1991 तक आयातों पर नियन्त्रण रखा गया। इस अवधि में केवल अनिवार्य वस्तुओं; जैसे-मशीनरी, उर्वरक और पेट्रोलियम का ही मुख्य रूप से आयात किया गया। देश के उत्पादकों को विदेशी प्रतियोगिता से बचाए रखने के लिए संरक्षण की नीति को अपनाया गया। परिणामस्वरूप इस अवधि में व्यापार धीमी गति से बढ़ा।

प्रश्न 2.
एक से अधिक देशों में उत्पादन करने वाली कम्पनियों को क्या कहा जाता है ? उत्तर-एक से अधिक देशों में उत्पादन करने वाली कम्पनियों को बहुराष्ट्रीय कम्पनी कहा जाता है। प्रश्न 3. वैश्वीकरण से किस उपभोक्ता वर्ग को अधिक लाभ हुआ है ?
उत्तर:
वैश्वीकरण का लाभ समाज के सभी उपभोक्ता वर्गों को नहीं मिला है। समाज के शिक्षित. कशल और सम्पन्न उपभोक्ता वर्ग के लोगों ने वैश्वीकरण से मिले नये अवसरों का सर्वाधिक एवं सर्वोत्तम उपयोग किया है। इसके विपरीत अशिक्षित एवं निर्धन उपभोक्ता वर्ग को लाभ में हिस्सा नहीं मिला है। इस प्रकार यह कहा जा सकता है कि समाज का कमजोर एवं निर्धन उपभोक्ता वर्ग वैश्वीकरण के लाभों से प्रायः वंचित ही रहा है।

प्रश्न 4.
बहुराष्ट्रीय कम्पनियों से आप क्या समझते हैं ?
उत्तर:
एक बहुराष्ट्रीय कम्पनी वह है जो एक से अधिक राष्ट्रों में उत्पादन करती हैं। ये कम्पनियाँ बड़े पैमाने पर उत्पादन करती हैं और उत्पादित वस्तुओं को अनेक राष्ट्रों में बेचती हैं।

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 21 लघु उत्तराय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
विदेशी व्यापार क्या है ?
उत्तर:
विदेशी व्यापार से आशय-“विदेशी व्यापार से आशय दो या दो से अधिक पृथक् सत्ताधारी राष्ट्रों के बीच वस्तुओं और सेवाओं के विनिमय से है।” यदि क्रेता और विक्रेता अलग-अलग सत्ताधारी देशों में रहते हों तो उनके बीच हुआ क्रय-विक्रय विदेशी व्यापार कहलाता है। इस प्रकार विदेशी व्यापार में वस्तुएँ एक देश की सीमाओं को पार करके दूसरे देश की सीमाओं में प्रवेश करती हैं। उदाहरण के लिए, बांग्लादेश तथा भारत के बीच होने वाला व्यापार विदेशी व्यापार कहलायेगा। विदेशी व्यापार तीन प्रकार का होता है –

1. आयात व्यापार – आयात व्यापार से आशय दूसरे राष्ट्रों में माल अपने देश में मँगवाने से है।
2. निर्यात व्यापार – निर्यात व्यापार से आशय अपने देश से विदेशों को माल भेजे जाने से है।
3. निर्यात हेतु आयात – जब वस्तुएँ किसी एक देश में दूसरे देश से स्थानीय उपयोग के लिए आयात नहीं की गई हों वरन् वहाँ से किसी अन्य देश को निर्यात करने के उद्देश्य से आयात की गई हों, तो ऐसे व्यापार को “निर्यात हेतु आयात” कहते हैं।

प्रश्न 2.
बाजारों का एकीकरण क्या है ?
उत्तर:
बढ़ते हुए विदेशी व्यापार के कारण विभिन्न राष्ट्रों के बाजारों एवं उनमें बेची जाने वाली वस्तुओं में एकीकरण हुआ है। विदेशी व्यापार की बढ़ती हुई प्रवृत्ति ने अब विभिन्न राष्ट्रों के बाजारों को बहुत निकट ला दिया है। उन्नत प्रौद्योगिकी ने इस निकटता में महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका अदा की है और सम्पूर्ण विश्व को एक बड़े गाँव में बदल दिया है। यही वैश्वीकरण है, जहाँ विभिन्न राष्ट्रों के बाजार परस्पर जुड़कर एक इकाई के रूप में कार्य करते हैं। इससे सम्पूर्ण विश्व में बाजार शक्तियाँ स्वतन्त्र रूप से कार्य करने लगती हैं और परिणामस्वरूप वस्तुओं की कीमत सभी राष्ट्रों में लगभग समान हो जाती है। इस प्रकार वैश्वीकरण के परिणामस्वरूप सम्पूर्ण विश्व के बाजारों का एकीकरण हो जाता है।

प्रश्न 3.
वैश्वीकरण का छोटे उत्पादकों पर क्या प्रभाव पड़ा है ? (2009, 14)
उत्तर:
वैश्वीकरण का छोटे उत्पादकों पर प्रभाव-छोटे उत्पादकों पर वैश्वीकरण का बुरा प्रभाव पड़ा है। विदेशी उत्पादित माल से प्रतियोगिता करने में छोटे उद्योग सक्षम नहीं हैं। परिणामस्वरूप अनेक छोटे उद्योग बन्द हो गए हैं। बैटरी, संधारित्र, प्लास्टिक, खिलौने, टायर, डेयरी उत्पादों एवं खाद्य तेल के उद्योगों की स्थिति अत्यधिक खराब है। यहाँ यह उल्लेखनीय है कि भारत में लघु उद्योगों में कृषि के बाद सबसे अधिक लोगों को रोजगार प्राप्त है।

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 21 दीर्घ उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
वैश्वीकरण से आप क्या समझते हैं ? वैश्वीकरण की प्रक्रिया को प्रोत्साहित करने वाले कारणों की विवेचना कीजिए। (2009, 13)
अथवा
वैश्वीकरण को प्रोत्साहित करने वाले प्रमुख चार कारक लिखिए। (2009, 17)
उत्तर:
वैश्वीकरण का आशय – वैश्वीकरण का शाब्दिक अर्थ अर्थव्यवस्था को विश्व की अर्थव्यवस्था के साथ एकीकृत करने से लगाया जाता है। इसमें प्रत्येक राष्ट्र का अन्य राष्ट्रों के साथ वस्तु, सेवा, पूँजी एवं बौद्धिक सम्पदा का अप्रतिबन्धित आदान-प्रदान होता है। यह वस्तुतः खुली अर्थव्यवस्था की विचारधारा पर आधारित है जिसमें विश्व के विभिन्न राष्ट्रों के मध्य व्यापारिक दृष्टिकोण से सार्वजनिक सीमाओं को अधिक महत्व नहीं दिया जाता है, बल्कि व्यापारिक लेन-देन या तो स्वतन्त्र रूप से या सीमित नियन्त्रण के अधीन चलते रहते हैं। अत: यह कहा जा सकता है कि वैश्वीकरण एक ऐसी प्रक्रिया है जिसके अन्तर्गत सभी व्यापारिक क्रियाओं का अन्तर्राष्ट्रीयकरण हो जाता है और वे एक इकाई के रूप में कार्य करने लगती हैं।

वैश्वीकरण की प्रक्रिया को प्रोत्साहित करने वाले कारक

वैश्वीकरण की प्रक्रिया को प्रोत्साहित करने वाले कारक निम्नलिखित हैं –

(1) तकनीक – पिछले पाँच दशकों में तकनीक ज्ञान का तेजी से विकास हुआ है। परिवहन प्रौद्योगिकी ने अब लम्बी दूरियों तक वस्तुओं को कम लागत पर भेजना सम्भव बनाया है दूरसंचार सुविधाओं; जैसे-इन्टरनेट, मोबाइल फोन, फैक्स आदि ने विश्व भर में एक-दूसरे से सम्पर्क करने के कार्य को आसान बना दिया है। संचार उपग्रहों ने इन सुविधाओं का विस्तार कर क्रान्तिकारी परिवर्तन कर दिया है जिससे वैश्वीकरण का तेजी से विस्तार हुआ है।

(2) प्रतियोगिता – पूँजीवादी आर्थिक प्रणाली में प्रतियोगिता का विशेष महत्त्व होता है। इस प्रणाली में विभिन्न उत्पादक कम्पनियाँ बाजारों पर कब्जा करने का उद्देश्य से प्रतियोगिता का सहारा लेती हैं। इसके लिए ये कम्पनियाँ कीमत कम करने के साथ-साथ विज्ञापनों एवं प्रचार-प्रसार के विभिन्न माध्यमों का उपयोग करती हैं।

(3) बाजार का विस्तार – पिछले कुछ वर्षों में उपभोक्ताओं की आय में वृद्धि, उपभोक्ता प्रवृति, रुचि एवं आदतों में परिवर्तन आदि से वस्तुओं एवं सेवाओं की माँग में वृद्धि हुई है। प्रौद्योगिकी के विकास से उत्पादनों की किस्म एवं गुणवत्ता में सुधार हुआ है। फलतः नई-नई वस्तुओं का उत्पादन सम्भव हुआ है जिससे बाजारों का विस्तार हुआ है।

(4) बहुराष्ट्रीय कम्पनियों का विस्तार – बहुराष्ट्रीय कम्पनियों की पहली विशेषता यह है कि इनकी क्रियाएँ किसी राष्ट्र में सीमित न होकर अनेक राष्ट्रों में चलती हैं। ये कम्पनियाँ उन राष्ट्रों में उत्पादन के लिए कारखाने स्थापित करती हैं, जहाँ उन्हें सस्ता श्रम एवं अन्य साधन मिलते हैं। इससे उत्पादन लागत में कमी आती है तथा कम्पनियों की प्रतियोगिता करने की क्षमता बढ़ जाती है। बहुराष्ट्रीय कम्पनियाँ केवल वैश्वीकरण स्तर पर ही अपने उत्पादन नहीं बेचीं वरन अधिक महत्त्वपूर्ण यह है कि वे वस्तुओं और सेवाओं का उत्पादन विश्व स्तर पर करती हैं।

(5) उदारीकरण की प्रक्रिया – बीसवीं शताब्दी के मध्य तक उत्पादन मुख्यतः राष्ट्रों की सीमाओं के अन्दर ही सीमित था। अनेक राष्ट्रों ने अपने द्वारा उत्पादित वस्तुओं को विदेशी प्रतियोगिता से बचाने के लिए अनेक प्रकार के कठोर प्रतिबन्ध लगा दिये थे। किन्तु 1970 एवं 1990 के दशकों में अनेक ऐसे परिवर्तन हुए जिनसे ‘विदेशी व्यापार को उदार बनाने की प्रक्रिया प्रारम्भ हुई। सन् 1995 में विश्व व्यापार संगठन की स्थापना के बाद प्रायः विश्व के सभी राष्ट्रों ने अपने आयात करों में कमी की है और अपने राष्ट्रों के बाजार को अन्य राष्ट्रों के लिए खोल दिया है। परिणामस्वरूप वैश्वीकरण की प्रक्रिया को प्रोत्साहन मिला है।

प्रश्न 2.
विदेशी व्यापार विभिन्न देशों के बाजारों के एकीकरण में किस प्रकार मदद करता है ? लिखिए।
उत्तर:
विदेशी व्यापार ने आज विश्व के देशों को परस्पर जोड़ दिया है। विश्व की अनेक बड़ी कम्पनियाँ । जिन्हें बहुराष्ट्रीय कम्पनियाँ कहा जाता है, अपने उत्पादों की बिक्री अनेक राष्ट्रों में करती हैं। ये कम्पनियाँ बड़े पैमाने पर उत्पादन करती हैं और उत्पादित वस्तुओं को सभी देशों में बेचती हैं।

बढ़ते हुए विदेशी व्यापार के कारण विभिन्न राष्ट्रों के बाजार एवं उनमें बेची जाने वाली वस्तुओं में एकीकरण हुआ है। विदेशी व्यापार की बढ़ती हुई प्रवृत्ति ने अब विभिन्न राष्ट्रों के बाजारों को बहुत निकट ला दिया है।

बाजारों का एकीकरण – बढ़ते हुए विदेशी व्यापार के कारण विभिन्न राष्ट्रों के बाजारों एवं उनमें बेची जाने वाली वस्तुओं में एकीकरण हुआ है। विदेशी व्यापार की बढ़ती हुई प्रवृत्ति ने अब विभिन्न राष्ट्रों के बाजारों को बहुत निकट ला दिया है। उन्नत प्रौद्योगिकी ने इस निकटता में महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका अदा की है और सम्पूर्ण विश्व को एक बड़े गाँव में बदल दिया है। यही वैश्वीकरण है, जहाँ विभिन्न राष्ट्रों के बाजार परस्पर जुड़कर एक इकाई के रूप में कार्य करते हैं। इससे सम्पूर्ण विश्व में बाजार शक्तियाँ स्वतन्त्र रूप से कार्य करने लगती हैं और परिणामस्वरूप वस्तुओं की कीमत सभी राष्ट्रों में लगभग समान हो जाती है। इस प्रकार वैश्वीकरण के परिणामस्वरूप सम्पूर्ण विश्व के बाजारों का एकीकरण हो जाता है।

प्रश्न 3.
वैश्वीकरण के बाद भारत की आर्थिक स्थिति की व्याख्या कीजिए व वैश्वीकरण से उत्पन्न समस्याओं की विवेचना कीजिए।
अथवा
वैश्वीकरण से उत्पन्न प्रमुख समस्याओं का वर्णन कीजिए। (2009, 10, 15)
उत्तर:
वैश्वीकरण के बाद भारत की आर्थिक स्थिति

वर्ष 1991 के बाद देश की अर्थव्यवस्था में हुए सुधार एवं वैश्वीकरण के प्रभाव निम्नलिखित हैं –

(1) आयात-निर्यात – वर्ष 1991 में घोषित आयात-निर्यात नीति में निर्यात के विकास पर जोर दिया गया। इस उद्देश्य की प्राप्ति हेतु आयात एवं निर्यात पर लगे प्रतिबन्धों को कम किया गया। व्यापार नीति (2004-09) में आयातों एवं निर्यातों को और अधिक सुविधाजनक बनाया गया है। यहाँ यह उल्लेखनीय है कि भारत विश्व व्यापार संगठन का प्रारम्भ से ही सदस्य है। पिछले वर्षों में आयात शुल्क कम करने का भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था पर अनुकूल प्रभाव पड़ा है। कुल विश्व व्यापार में भारत के विदेशी व्यापार का योगदान वर्ष 1990 में 0.6 प्रतिशत से बढ़कर वर्ष 2013 में 2.1 प्रतिशत हो गया।

(2) औद्योगीकरण – भारत सरकार ने विश्व अर्थव्यवस्था के साथ अन्त:सम्बन्ध स्थापित करने तथा वैश्वीकरण की प्रक्रिया में एक महत्त्वपूर्ण शक्ति के रूप में उभरने से सन् 1991 के मध्य से व्यापक आर्थिक सुधार का कार्यक्रम शुरू किया। वर्तमान में सार्वजनिक क्षेत्र के अन्तर्गत आरक्षित उद्योगों की संख्या केवल 2 रह गई है। इसका आशय यह है कि निजी क्षेत्र को अपने विस्तार के पर्याप्त अवसर प्राप्त हो गए हैं। अर्थव्यवस्था के अनेक क्षेत्र अब विदेशी निवेश के लिए खोल दिए गए हैं और वे नई औद्योगिक नीति के परिणामस्वरूप विकास की ओर अग्रसर हो रहे हैं।

(3) विदेशी निवेश में वृद्धि – वैश्वीकरण के बाद अनेक बहुराष्ट्रीय कम्पनियों ने भारत में अपने निवेश में वृद्धि की है। इससे देश में उत्पादन एवं प्रौद्योगिकी का विकास हुआ और रोजगार के अवसर उत्पन्न हुए। इस प्रकार कहा जा सकता है कि 1991 के बाद देश में विदेशी निवेश में वृद्धि हुई है और फलस्वरूप अर्थव्यवस्था को लाभ हुआ है।

(4) उपभोक्ता की प्रभुता – वैश्वीकरण के बाद विदेशी एवं स्थानीय उत्पादकों के मध्य परस्पर प्रतियोगिता में वृद्धि हुई है और परिणामस्वरूप अनेक वस्तुओं एवं सेवाओं की कीमतें कम हुई हैं। इससे उपभोक्ताओं को श्रेष्ठ वस्तुएँ प्राप्त हो रही हैं। फलस्वरूप उपभोक्ता वर्ग पहले की तुलना में उच्चतर जीवन स्तर का लाभ प्राप्त कर रहे हैं।

(5) भारतीय कम्पनियों को लाभ – वैश्वीकरण ने अनेक भारतीय कम्पनियों को बहुराष्ट्रीय कम्पनियों के रूप में स्थापित किया है। उदाहरण के लिए टिस्को, टाटा मोटर्स, रैनबैक्सी, हिन्डाल्को, इन्फोसिस आदि। इन कम्पनियों ने अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय स्तर पर अपने क्रियाकलापों का विस्तार किया है।

वैश्वीकरण से उत्पन्न समस्याएँ

वैश्वीकरण से उत्पन्न प्रमुख समस्याएँ निम्नलिखित हैं –

(1) श्रमिकों के जीवन पर प्रभाव – वैश्वीकरण के कारण श्रमिकों के जीवन पर व्यापक प्रभाव पड़ा है। बढ़ती प्रतिस्पर्धा के कारण अधिकांश नियोक्ता इन दिनों श्रमिकों को रोजगार देने में लचीलापन पसन्द करते हैं। इसका आशय है कि श्रमिकों का रोजगार अब सुनिश्चित नहीं है।

(2) छोटे उत्पादकों पर प्रभाव – छोटे उत्पादकों पर वैश्वीकरण का बुरा प्रभाव पड़ा है। विदेशी उत्पादित माल से प्रतियोगिता करने में छोटे उद्योग सक्षम नहीं हैं। परिणामस्वरूप अनेक छोटे उद्योग बन्द हो गए हैं। बैटरी, संधारित्र, प्लास्टिक, खिलौने, टायर, डेयरी उत्पादों एवं खाद्य तेल के उद्योगों की स्थिति अत्यधिक खराब है। यहाँ यह उल्लेखनीय है कि भारत में लघु उद्योगों में कृषि के बाद सबसे अधिक लोगों को रोजगार प्राप्त है।

(3) सभी लोगों को लाभ नहीं-वैश्वीकरण का लाभ समाज के सभी वर्गों को नहीं मिला है। शिक्षित, कुशल और सम्पन्न लोगों ने वैश्वीकरण से मिले नये अवसरों का सर्वोत्तम उपयोग किया है। इसके विपरीत, अनेक लोगों को लाभ में हिस्सा नहीं मिला है। इस प्रकार यह कहा जा सकता है कि समाज का कमजोर एवं गरीब वर्ग वैश्वीकरण के लाभों से दूर है।

(4) विकसित राष्ट्रों का आधिपत्य-वैश्वीकरण की प्रक्रिया विश्व व्यापार संगठन के निर्देशानुसार क्रियान्वित की जा रही है, किन्तु संगठन में विकसित राष्ट्रों का वर्चस्व अधिक है। ये राष्ट्र उन्हीं नीतियों एवं कार्यक्रमों का समर्थन करते हैं जिनसे उन्हें लाभ प्राप्त होता है। श्रमिकों के लिए इन राष्ट्रों ने अपने बाजार नहीं खोले हैं। इसी प्रकार कृषि को दी जाने वाली सब्सिडी पर भी कोई निर्णय नहीं हुआ है। अत: यह आवश्यक है कि विकसित राष्ट्रों के वर्चस्व को समाप्त किया जाए और वैश्वीकरण को विकसित किया जाए जिसमें सभी राष्ट्रों को लाभ हो।

(5) क्षेत्रीय असमानताएँ-वैश्वीकरण से क्षेत्रीय विषमताएँ बढ़ी हैं जिस प्रकार वैश्वीकरण से विकासशील राष्ट्रों की तुलना में विकसित राष्ट्रों को अधिक लाभ मिला है, ठीक उसी प्रकार राष्ट्र के अन्दर भी विकसित क्षेत्रों को पिछड़े क्षेत्रों की तुलना में अधिक लाभ प्राप्त हुआ है। इस प्रकार वैश्वीकरण के लाभ सभी क्षेत्रों के लोगों को प्राप्त नहीं हुए हैं।

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 21 अन्य परीक्षोपयोगी प्रश्न

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 21 वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न

बहु-विकल्पीय

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित में कौन-सी क्रिया आर्थिक सुधारों के अन्तर्गत आती है ?
(i) वैश्वीकरण
(ii) उदारीकरण
(iii) निजीकरण
(iv) उक्त सभी।
उत्तर:
(iv)

प्रश्न 2.
नवीन आर्थिक नीति को अपनाया गया –
(i) 1984
(ii) 1988
(iii) 1990
(iv) 1991
उत्तर:
(iv)

रिक्त स्थानों की पर्ति कीजिए

1. प्रशासकीय नियन्त्रणों को कम करके स्वतन्त्र व्यापार की नीतियों को अपनाना ……………………… कहलाता है।
2. वस्तुओं एवं सेवाओं की कीमतों में हुई वृद्धि को ……………………… कहा जाता है। (2014)

उत्तर:

1. उदारीकरण
2. मुद्रा-स्फीति

सत्य/असत्य

प्रश्न 1.
वैश्वीकरण से भारत में गरीबों को अधिक लाभ नहीं मिला है।
उत्तर:
सत्य

प्रश्न 2.
एक बहुराष्ट्रीय कम्पनी वह है जो केवल अपने राष्ट्र के लिए उत्पादन करती है।
उत्तर:
असत्य

प्रश्न 3.
विश्व व्यापार संगठन की स्थापना सन् 1995 में हुई थी।
उत्तर:
सत्य

प्रश्न 4.
वैश्वीकरण ने संचार प्रौद्योगिकी का विस्तार किया है।
उत्तर:
सत्य

प्रश्न 5.
वैश्वीकरण से क्षेत्रीय विषमताएँ कम हुईं।
उत्तर:
असत्य।

जोड़ी मिलाइए

उत्तर:

1. → (ग)
2. → (घ)
3. → (क)
4. → (ङ)
5. → (ख)

एक शब्द/वाक्य में उत्तर

प्रश्न 1.
विश्व व्यापार संगठन के वर्ष 2006 में कितने सदस्य राष्ट्र थे ?
उत्तर:
149

प्रश्न 2.
किस वर्ष में भारत को विदेशी मुद्रा संकट का सामना करना पड़ा था ?
उत्तर:
1990 में

प्रश्न 3.
निर्यात व्यापार में वृद्धि के उद्देश्य से निजी उद्यमियों को उद्योग लगाने हेतु प्रेरित करने की योजना का नाम बताइए।
उत्तर:
विशेष आर्थिक क्षेत्र

प्रश्न 4.
आर्थिक सुधार कब प्रारम्भ हुए ? (2009)
उत्तर:
वर्ष 1991 में

प्रश्न 5.
वर्ष 1951 से 1991 की अवधि में राष्ट्रीय आय में औसत वृद्धि दर कितनी रही ?
उत्तर:
5.4.0%

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 21 अति लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
वैश्वीकरण से किस उपभोक्ता वर्ग को अधिक लाभ हुआ है ?
उत्तर:
शिक्षित, कुशल और सम्पन्न लोगों ने वैश्वीकरण से मिले नये अवसरों का सर्वोत्तम उपयोग किया है।

प्रश्न 2.
श्रम विभाजन क्या है ?
उत्तर:
किसी वस्तु की उत्पाद प्रक्रिया को विभिन्न उप-क्रियाओं में बाँटना और प्रत्येक उपक्रिया को अलग-अलग श्रमिकों से कराना श्रम विभाजन कहलाता है।

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 21 लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
वैश्वीकरण का सेवा क्षेत्र पर क्या प्रभाव पड़ा है ?
उत्तर:
वैश्वीकरण ने संचार प्रौद्योगिकी के क्षेत्र में नवीन लाभप्रद सेवाओं का विस्तार किया है। एक भारतीय कम्पनी द्वारा लन्दन स्थित कम्पनी के लिए पत्रिका का प्रकाशन और कॉल सेन्टर्स इसके उदाहरण हैं। इसके अतिरिक्त डाटा एन्ट्री, लेखाकरण, प्रशासनिक कार्य, इन्जीनियरिंग जैसी कई सेवाएँ भारत में उपलब्ध हैं। ये सेवाएँ विकसित राष्ट्रों को निर्यात की जाती हैं। भारत को ‘सॉफ्टवेयर की सेवाओं के निर्यात के द्वारा बड़ी मात्रा में विदेशी मुद्रा का अर्जन हो रहा है।

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 21 दीर्घ उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
वैश्वीकरण का अर्थ बताइए। वैश्वीकरण से किन लोगों को लाभ हुआ है ?
अथवा
वैश्वीकरण क्या है ? इससे उत्पन्न समस्याओं का वर्णन कीजिए। (2018)
उत्तर:
वैश्वीकरण – वैश्वीकरण का शाब्दिक अर्थ अर्थव्यवस्था को विश्व की अर्थव्यवस्था के साथ एकीकृत करने से लगाया जाता है। इसमें प्रत्येक राष्ट्र का अन्य राष्ट्रों के साथ वस्तु, सेवा, पूँजी एवं बौद्धिक सम्पदा का अप्रतिबन्धित आदान-प्रदान होता है। यह वस्तुतः खुली अर्थव्यवस्था की विचारधारा पर आधारित है जिसमें विश्व के विभिन्न राष्ट्रों के मध्य व्यापारिक दृष्टिकोण से सार्वजनिक सीमाओं को अधिक महत्व नहीं दिया जाता है, बल्कि व्यापारिक लेन-देन या तो स्वतन्त्र रूप से या सीमित नियन्त्रण के अधीन चलते रहते हैं। अत: यह कहा जा सकता है कि वैश्वीकरण एक ऐसी प्रक्रिया है जिसके अन्तर्गत सभी व्यापारिक क्रियाओं का अन्तर्राष्ट्रीयकरण हो जाता है और वे एक इकाई के रूप में कार्य करने लगती हैं।

वैश्वीकरण के लाभ –

वैश्वीकरण से उत्पन्न प्रमुख समस्याएँ निम्नलिखित हैं –

(1) श्रमिकों के जीवन पर प्रभाव – वैश्वीकरण के कारण श्रमिकों के जीवन पर व्यापक प्रभाव पड़ा है। बढ़ती प्रतिस्पर्धा के कारण अधिकांश नियोक्ता इन दिनों श्रमिकों को रोजगार देने में लचीलापन पसन्द करते हैं। इसका आशय है कि श्रमिकों का रोजगार अब सुनिश्चित नहीं है।

(2) छोटे उत्पादकों पर प्रभाव – छोटे उत्पादकों पर वैश्वीकरण का बुरा प्रभाव पड़ा है। विदेशी उत्पादित माल से प्रतियोगिता करने में छोटे उद्योग सक्षम नहीं हैं। परिणामस्वरूप अनेक छोटे उद्योग बन्द हो गए हैं। बैटरी, संधारित्र, प्लास्टिक, खिलौने, टायर, डेयरी उत्पादों एवं खाद्य तेल के उद्योगों की स्थिति अत्यधिक खराब है। यहाँ यह उल्लेखनीय है कि भारत में लघु उद्योगों में कृषि के बाद सबसे अधिक लोगों को रोजगार प्राप्त है।

(3) सभी लोगों को लाभ नहीं-वैश्वीकरण का लाभ समाज के सभी वर्गों को नहीं मिला है। शिक्षित, कुशल और सम्पन्न लोगों ने वैश्वीकरण से मिले नये अवसरों का सर्वोत्तम उपयोग किया है। इसके विपरीत, अनेक लोगों को लाभ में हिस्सा नहीं मिला है। इस प्रकार यह कहा जा सकता है कि समाज का कमजोर एवं गरीब वर्ग वैश्वीकरण के लाभों से दूर है।

(4) विकसित राष्ट्रों का आधिपत्य-वैश्वीकरण की प्रक्रिया विश्व व्यापार संगठन के निर्देशानुसार क्रियान्वित की जा रही है, किन्तु संगठन में विकसित राष्ट्रों का वर्चस्व अधिक है। ये राष्ट्र उन्हीं नीतियों एवं कार्यक्रमों का समर्थन करते हैं जिनसे उन्हें लाभ प्राप्त होता है। श्रमिकों के लिए इन राष्ट्रों ने अपने बाजार नहीं खोले हैं। इसी प्रकार कृषि को दी जाने वाली सब्सिडी पर भी कोई निर्णय नहीं हुआ है। अत: यह आवश्यक है कि विकसित राष्ट्रों के वर्चस्व को समाप्त किया जाए और वैश्वीकरण को विकसित किया जाए जिसमें सभी राष्ट्रों को लाभ हो।

(5) क्षेत्रीय असमानताएँ-वैश्वीकरण से क्षेत्रीय विषमताएँ बढ़ी हैं जिस प्रकार वैश्वीकरण से विकासशील राष्ट्रों की तुलना में विकसित राष्ट्रों को अधिक लाभ मिला है, ठीक उसी प्रकार राष्ट्र के अन्दर भी विकसित क्षेत्रों को पिछड़े क्षेत्रों की तुलना में अधिक लाभ प्राप्त हुआ है। इस प्रकार वैश्वीकरण के लाभ सभी क्षेत्रों के लोगों को प्राप्त नहीं हुए हैं।

In this article, we will share MP Board Class 10th Social Science Book Solutions Chapter 14 प्रजातन्त्र के समक्ष प्रमुख चुनौतियाँ Pdf, These solutions are solved subject experts from the latest edition books.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Solutions Chapter 14 प्रजातन्त्र के समक्ष प्रमुख चुनौतियाँ

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 14 पाठान्त अभ्यास

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 14 वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न

सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए

प्रश्न 1.
जनसंख्या की दृष्टि से भारत का विश्व में कौन-सा स्थान है? (2009,13)
(i) तीसरा
(ii) दूसरा
(iii) सातवाँ
(iv) पाँचवाँ।
उत्तर:
(ii) दूसरा

प्रश्न 2.
आतंकवादी किन माध्यमों से अपनी गतिविधियाँ संचालित करते हैं ?
(i) शान्ति वार्ता
(ii) शिक्षा
(iii) राजनीति
(iv) हत्या, अपहरण
उत्तर:
(iv) हत्या, अपहरण

प्रश्न 3.
नशामुक्ति के लिए मद्यनिषेध अभियान किसने चलाया था ? (2009)
(i) जवाहरलाल नेहरू
(ii) महात्मा गांधी
(iii) स्वामी विवेकानन्द
(iv) लाल बहादुर शास्त्री।
उत्तर:
(ii) महात्मा गांधी

प्रश्न 4.
हाईस्कूल पास करने के बाद छात्रों की शिक्षा में बेरोजगारी दूर करने की दृष्टि से किस बात पर जोर देना चाहिए?
(i) व्यवसायिक शिक्षा
(ii) आध्यात्मिक शिक्षा
(iii) राजनैतिक शिक्षा
(iv) नैतिक शिक्षा।
उत्तर:
(i) व्यवसायिक शिक्षा

सही जोड़ी बनाइए

उत्तर:

1. → (ग)
2. → (क)
3. → (ख)
4. → (ङ)
5. → (घ)

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 14 अति लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
प्रजातन्त्र के समक्ष कौन-कौनसी चुनौतियाँ हैं ?
उत्तर:
साम्प्रदायिकता, जातीयता, क्षेत्रवाद, आतंकवाद, निर्धनता तथा बेरोजगारी आदि प्रजातन्त्र के समक्ष प्रमुख चुनौतियाँ हैं।

प्रश्न 2.
साम्प्रदायिकता से क्या आशय है ?
उत्तर:
अपने पंथ के प्रति निष्ठा रखकर दूसरे पथों एवं सम्प्रदायों को घृणा की दृष्टि से देखना तथा व्यापक राष्ट्रहित की उपेक्षा कर स्वयं के पंथ या सम्प्रदाय के हितों की पूर्ति में कार्य करना साम्प्रदायिकता कहलाती है।

प्रश्न 3.
मादक या नशीला पदार्थ किसे कहा जाता है ? (2018)
उत्तर:
वे पदार्थ जिनके सेवन से मस्तिष्क शिथिल हो जाए, रक्त का संचार तेज हो और उत्तेजना से क्षणिक आनन्द की अनुभूति हो, उन्हें मादक पदार्थ कहते हैं।

प्रश्न 4.
बेरोजगारी से क्या आशय है ? (2016, 18)
उत्तर:
बेरोजगारी का अर्थ-बेरोजगारी से आशय ऐसी स्थिति से है जिसमें व्यक्ति वर्तमान मजदूरी की दर पर काम करने को तैयार होता है परन्तु उसे कार्य नहीं मिलता। बेरोजगारी की स्थिति में श्रम शक्ति और रोजगार के अवसरों की असमानता बढ़ती जाती है। इससे श्रमिकों की माँग की अपेक्षा पूर्ति अधिक होती है। ऐसी स्थिति में बहुत से व्यक्ति कार्य करने योग्य तो हैं परन्तु उन्हें कार्य नहीं मिल पाता है। इसे ही बेरोजगारी कहते हैं।

प्रश्न 5.
अशिक्षा स्वस्थ जनमत में किस प्रकार बाधक है ? लिखिए।
अथवा
“निरक्षरता प्रजातन्त्र के लिए अभिशाप है।” समझाइए।
उत्तर:
अशिक्षा के कारण नागरिकों में राजनीतिक सक्रियता और सहभागिता की कमी रहती है। राजनैतिक जागरूकता की कमी लोकतन्त्र के मार्ग में सबसे बड़ी बाधा है। साथ ही निरक्षरता के कारण लोगों में न केवल निर्धनता अपितु साम्प्रदायिकता, जातिवाद आदि की बुरी भावनाएँ पनपती हैं। इससे उनका मानसिक एवं भौतिक विकास नहीं हो पाता। इसलिए निरक्षरता प्रजातन्त्र के लिए अभिशाप है।

प्रश्न 6.
शहरी बेरोजगारी से आशय लिखिए।
उत्तर:
शहरी बेरोजगारी – शहरों में बड़ी संख्या में शिक्षा प्राप्त कर लोग बेकार बैठे रहते हैं या उन्हें अपनी योग्यता के अनुरूप रोजगार नहीं मिल पाता है। ग्रामीण क्षेत्रों से शहरों की ओर पलायन भी इसका एक बहुत बड़ा कारण है। मशीनीकरण व आधुनिकीकरण के कारण अवसरों की संख्या कम हो गयी है। संक्षेप में, शहरी बेरोजगारी में औद्योगिक बेरोजगारी तथा शिक्षित बेरोजगारी को सम्मिलित किया जाता है।

प्रश्न 7.
सामाजिक असमानता किसे कहते हैं?
उत्तर:
सामाजिक असमानता – सामाजिक असमानता से तात्पर्य वास्तविक रूप में देश में प्रचलित जातिवाद और क्षेत्रवाद से है जो स्वतन्त्रता और समानता के अधिकार को वास्तविक नहीं बनने दे रहे हैं।

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 14 लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
जनसंख्या विस्फोट से क्या आशय है? समझाइए।
उत्तर:
जनसंख्या विस्फोट – जब जनसंख्या वृद्धि दर इतनी तेज हो जाती है कि देश में उपलब्ध संसाधन आवश्यकताओं की पूर्ति नहीं कर पाते तब इस स्थिति को ‘जनसंख्या विस्फोट’ कहा जाता है। जनसंख्या की तीव्र गति से वृद्धि हमारे आर्थिक विकास के सारे प्रयासों को विफल कर देती है।

हर देश में जब विकास होगा तो जन्म दर की तुलना में मृत्यु दर तीव्र गति से घटेगी और उसका परिणाम जनसंख्या में वृद्धि होगा। आज पैदा होने वाले बच्चे, जिन्हें अकाल शिशु-मृत्यु से बचा लिया जायेगा, 20-22 वर्ष बाद स्वयं बच्चे पैदा करेंगे।

प्रश्न 2.
साम्प्रदायिकता के चार कारण लिखिए। (2013)
अथवा
साम्प्रदायिकता क्या है? इसके प्रमुख कारण लिखिए। (2009)
उत्तर:
साम्प्रदायिकता मानवता और राष्ट्रीय एकता के लिये गम्भीर अभिशाप है।

साम्प्रदायिकता के कारण – साम्प्रदायिकता के मुख्य कारण निम्नलिखित हैं –

1. फूट डालो और शासन करो की नीति – ब्रिटिश सरकार की देश को विभाजित करने की नीति ने साम्प्रदायिकता को बढ़ावा दिया है। परिणामतः देश में वर्षों से साथ रह रहे विभिन्न सम्प्रदायों के लोगों में अविश्वास की भावना बढ़ गई जो कि साम्प्रदायिकता के रूप में आज भी विद्यमान है।
2. राजनीतिक स्वार्थ – राजनीतिज्ञों, नेताओं और सरकारों द्वारा राजनीतिक स्वार्थ के तहत चुनाव जीतने के लिये धर्मों एवं सम्प्रदायों की माँगों को स्वीकार कर लिया जाता है और उन्हें खुश करने के प्रयास किये जाते हैं।
3. अशिक्षा – साम्प्रदायिकता का एक कारण लोगों का अशिक्षित होना है। अशिक्षित व्यक्तियों का दृष्टिकोण संकुचित होता है। वे अपना निर्णय स्वयं नहीं ले पाते। वे कथित गुरुओं के बहकावे में आ जाते हैं। तथाकथित गुरु अपने स्वार्थ के लिए उन्हें गुमराह करते हैं।
4. भ्रामक प्रचार – देश में होने वाली हर छोटी घटना को कुछ देश तूल देकर प्रसारित करते हैं। इससे देश में साम्प्रदायिकता की भावना को प्रोत्साहन मिलता है।

प्रश्न 3.
नशे पर प्रतिबन्ध क्यों होना चाहिए? समझाइए। (2009)
उत्तर:
नशे पर प्रतिबन्ध – मादक पदार्थों के सेवन पर नियन्त्रण से व्यक्ति का शारीरिक और मानसिक सन्तुलन बना रहेगा। आर्थिक सम्पन्नता बढ़ेगी। परिवार में सुख शान्ति होगी। अपराध कम होंगे। कार्यकुशलता बढ़ने से देश के उत्पादन पर अनुकूल प्रभाव पड़ेगा और उसमें वृद्धि होगी। स्वास्थ्य में सुधार होगा। देश के विकास के लिये स्वस्थ नागरिक आवश्यक होते हैं हमारी भावी पीढ़ी स्वस्थ और सम्पन्न होगी। प्रत्येक राष्ट्र ने मादक पदार्थों के सेवन पर रोक लगाने के लिये नीति और नियम बनाये हैं और उन्हें लागू किया है। समाज में चेतना जगाने के लिये सामाजिक संस्थाएँ निरन्तर कार्य कर रही हैं।

प्रश्न 4.
जनसंख्या वृद्धि के चार कारण लिखिए। (2009, 13)
उत्तर:
जनसंख्या वृद्धि के कारण-भारत में जनसंख्या की तीव्र वृद्धि के कारण निम्नलिखित हैं –
(1) मृत्यु-दर में कमी – मृत्यु-दर से आशय एक वर्ष में प्रति हजार जनसंख्या के पीछे मृतकों की संख्या से है। इस दर में भारत में काफी कमी हुई है। भारत में मृत्यु-दर में कमी के अनेक कारण हैं। इनमें प्रमुख अकालों एवं महामारियों में कमी, चिकित्सा एवं स्वास्थ्य-सुधार कार्यक्रमों का विस्तार, स्त्रियों में शिक्षा-प्रसार, विवाह-आयु में वृद्धि, अन्धविश्वासों में कमी, जीवन-स्तर में वृद्धि आदि हैं।

(2) ऊँची जन्म-दर-जन्म-दर से आशय एक वर्ष में प्रति हजार जनसंख्या के पीछे बच्चों के जन्म से है। भारत में जनसंख्या वृद्धि का एक महत्वपूर्ण कारण यह है कि तुलनात्मक रूप से यहाँ जन्म-दर पर्याप्त ऊँची है। भारत में ऊँची जन्म-दर के अनेक कारण हैं; जैसे-बाल-विवाह, अनिवार्य विवाह, भाग्यवादिता, पारिवारिक मान्यता, धर्मान्धता, निम्न जीवन-स्तर तथा स्वास्थ्य सेवाओं का प्रसार।

(3) अशिक्षा तथा निम्न जीवन-स्तर-भारत में जनसंख्या वृद्धि का प्रमुख कारण यहाँ के निवासियों का निम्न जीवन-स्तर है। निर्धन व्यक्तियों के यहाँ धनी व्यक्तियों की अपेक्षा अधिक सन्तानें होती हैं। अशिक्षित होने के कारण ये लोग परिवार नियोजन का महत्त्व नहीं समझते। अत: जनसंख्या में तीव्र गति से वृद्धि होती है।

(4) जलवायु-भारत में जलवायु गर्म होने के कारण युवक-युवतियाँ शीघ्रता से सन्तान उत्पन्न करने योग्य हो जाते हैं। उनके विवाह जल्दी कर दिये जाते हैं। अतः अधिक सन्तानें उत्पन्न होती हैं जिसके कारण जनसंख्या तेजी से बढ़ती है।

प्रश्न 5.
जनसंख्या वृद्धि को रोकने के उपाय लिखिए। (2010, 11, 14)
उत्तर:
जनसंख्या वृद्धि रोकने के उपाय

जनसंख्या वृद्धि को रोकने के निम्नलिखित उपाय हैं –

1. परिवार कल्याण – परिवार कल्याण द्वारा छोटे परिवारों के लाभों का प्रचार करना चाहिए जिससे प्रभावित होकर प्रत्येक व्यक्ति विभिन्न प्रकार के कृत्रिम साधनों को प्रयोग में लाने लगे।
2. शिक्षा तथा सामाजिक सुधार – जब तक देश में शिक्षा की उचित व्यवस्था नहीं होगी, परिवार नियोजन कभी भी सफलतापूर्वक कार्य नहीं कर सकता। एक अविकसित देश का अज्ञानी व्यक्ति जो सामाजिक व धार्मिक अन्धविश्वासों में जकड़ा हुआ है, परिवार नियोजन के लाभों को समझ नहीं सकेगा। अतः शिक्षा का प्रसार होना चाहिए। शिक्षा द्वारा बाल-विवाह, जातिवाद आदि सामाजिक कुरीतियाँ स्वयं समाप्त हो जाएँगी जो जनसंख्या वृद्धि में सहायक होती हैं।
3. आर्थिक विकास – जनसंख्या वृद्धि को रोकने के लिए समाज का समुचित आर्थिक विकास होना चाहिए। साथ ही कृषि, उद्योग, व्यापार, यातायात एवं संवाद-वाहन आदि सभी क्षेत्रों का सामूहिक विकास भी आवश्यक है इससे रोजगार के स्तर में वृद्धि होगी, आय और जीवन-स्तर में वृद्धि होगी, फलस्वरूप जनसंख्या वृद्धि पर रोक लग जायेगी।
4. सामाजिक सुरक्षा कार्यक्रमों में वृद्धि – देश में सामाजिक सुरक्षा कार्यक्रमों में वृद्धि की जानी चाहिए, जिससे संकटकाल या वृद्धावस्था में सहारा पाने की दृष्टि से सन्तानोत्पत्ति की प्रवृत्ति को नियन्त्रित किया जा सके।
5. विवाह की आयु सम्बन्धी नियमों का पालन – सरकार के विवाह की आयु सम्बन्धी नियमों का कठोरता से पालन करना चाहिए। जनसंख्या नीति के अनुसार, देश में लड़के व लड़कियों के लिए विवाह योग्य आयु क्रमश: 21 व 18 वर्ष है। इस सम्बन्ध में आवश्यक दण्ड व पुरस्कार की व्यवस्था भी होनी चाहिए।
6. प्रेरणाएँ – सीमित परिवार के सन्देश को व्यापक स्तर पर फैलाने के लिए कुछ प्रेरणाओं को अपनाना आवश्यक होता है; जैसे-सीमित परिवार वालों को वेतन वृद्धि, मकान आवण्टन, कॉलेजों में प्रवेश, रोजगार आदि की अतिरिक्त सुरक्षा प्रदान की जाए।
7. मनोरंजन के साधनों में वृद्धि – सन्तति निग्रह के लिए मनोरंजन के साधनों में वृद्धि की जानी चाहिए। मनोरंजन के साधनों के अभाव में सन्तान वृद्धि को प्रोत्साहन मिलता है।

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 14 दीर्घ उत्तराय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
मादक पदार्थों का शरीर पर क्या प्रभाव होता है ? लिखिए। (2009, 11, 14)
उत्तर:
आधुनिक समय में मादक पदार्थों का सेवन अधिक मात्रा में किया जाने लगा है। यह चिन्ता का विषय है। मादक पदार्थों का उत्पादन विश्व के कुछ ही राष्ट्रों में होता है पर उपयोग पूरे विश्व में होता है। ऊँची कीमत पर इनकी तस्करी होती है। शराब, सिगरेट, गांजा, भाँग, अफीम, चरस, कोकीन, मारफीन तथा हेरोइन आदि मादक पदार्थ हैं।

मादक पदार्थों के प्रभाव

1. स्वास्थ्य पर प्रतिकूल प्रभाव – मादक पदार्थों के सेवन से व्यक्ति के स्वास्थ्य पर प्रतिकूल प्रभाव पड़ता है। धीरे-धीरे शरीर शिथिल होने लगता है और रोग उसे घेर लेते हैं।
2. मानसिक कार्यक्षमता पर प्रभाव – व्यक्ति की शारीरिक और मानसिक कार्यक्षमता घट जाती है। ज्यादा कार्य करने की शक्ति नहीं रहती है।
3. आर्थिक स्थिति पर प्रभाव – आर्थिक स्थिति खराब हो जाती है। परिवार पर होने वाला व्यय नशे की भेंट चढ़ जाता है। घरेलू झगड़े बढ़ जाते हैं। पारिवारिक कलह बढ़ने से बच्चों का विकास प्रभावित होता है।
4. सामाजिक प्रतिष्ठा पर प्रभाव – सामाजिक प्रतिष्ठा पर विपरीत प्रभाव पड़ता है। नशा करने वाले व्यक्ति को समाज में अच्छी दृष्टि से नहीं देखा जाता। पूरे परिवार को इसे सहना पड़ता है। समाज पर इसका बुरा प्रभाव पड़ता है। परिवार अपमानित होता है।
5. दुर्घटनाएँ – मादक पदार्थों के सेवन से दुर्घटनाएँ, झगड़े, व्यभिचार, चोरी आदि की घटनाएँ बढ़ने लगती हैं। समाज और देश में अशान्ति की स्थिति उत्पन्न हो जाती है व कानून व्यवस्था बिगड़ती है।
6. अनैतिक व्यापार को बढ़ावा – मादक पदार्थों की तस्करी से अनैतिक व्यापार को बढ़ावा मिलता है। इससे शासन को मुश्किल होती है। इससे वर्ग संघर्ष की स्थिति उत्पन्न हो जाती है।

प्रश्न 2.
भारत में बेरोजगारी दूर करने के उपायों का वर्णन कीजिए। (2009, 15, 17)
अथवा
बेरोजगारी को दूर करने के पाँच उपाय लिखिए। (2012)
उत्तर:
भारत में बेरोजगारी दूर करने के उपाय

भारत में बेरोजगारी की समस्या के निवारण हेतु कुछ प्रमुख सुझाव निम्नलिखित हैं –

1. जनसंख्या वृद्धि पर नियन्त्रण – बेरोजगारी की समस्या के समाधान हेतु जनसंख्या वृद्धि पर नियन्त्रण किया जाना आवश्यक है। इसके लिए परिवार कल्याण कार्यक्रम का व्यापक रूप से प्रचार व इसे क्रियान्वित किया जाना चाहिए, अन्यथा बेरोजगारी की समस्या कभी समाप्त न होने वाली समस्या बनकर रह जाएगी।
2. कटीर एवं लघु उद्योगों का विकास – देश में अधिक-से-अधिक व्यक्तियों को रोजगार के अवसर उपलब्ध कराने के लिए कुटीर तथा लघु उद्योगों का विकास किया जाना चाहिए।
3. जन-शक्ति नियोजन – आर्थिक विकास की आवश्यकता के अनुरूप शिक्षित और प्रशिक्षित एवं कार्य-कुशल, जन-शक्ति की आपूर्ति के लिए जन-शक्ति नियोजन आवश्यक है। इससे श्रमिकों को उनकी योग्यता एवं इच्छानुसार रोजगार उपलब्ध होगा तथा सेवायोजकों को आवश्यकतानुसार कुशल श्रमिकों की उपलब्धि हो सकेगी।
4. शहरों की ओर ग्रामीण जनता के प्रवाह पर रोक – ग्रामीण क्षेत्र से आकर शहरों में बसने की प्रवृत्ति पर रोक लगानी चाहिए। इसके लिए गाँवों में रोजगार के अवसर उत्पन्न करने होंगे व अन्य आकर्षक पारिश्रमिक देना होगा।
5. प्राकृतिक संसाधनों का समुचित उपयोग – भारत में प्राकृतिक संसाधनों के विपुल भण्डार हैं जिनका यथोचित उपयोग किया जाना चाहिए। इससे अधिकाधिक रोजगार के अवसर उपलब्ध होंगे और बेरोजगारी की समस्या को हल किया जा सकेगा।
6. शिक्षा प्रणाली में परिवर्तन-बेरोजगारी की समस्या के समाधान हेतु वर्तमान शिक्षा प्रणाली में परिवर्तन करके उसे व्यवसायोन्मुख तथा विकास की आवश्यकताओं के अनुरूप बनाया जाना चाहिए, ताकि शिक्षित युवक अपना व्यवसाय प्रारम्भ कर सकें।
7. रोजगार कार्यालयों का विस्तार-देश में रोजगार कार्यालयों की संख्या में वृद्धि की जानी चाहिए ताकि बेरोजगारी व्यक्ति इनके माध्यम से रोजगार प्राप्त कर सकें। इनके ऊपर कठोर नियन्त्रण भी होना चाहिए ताकि इनका कार्य निष्पक्ष एवं कुशलतापूर्वक हो सके।
8. ग्रामीण निर्माण कार्यक्रमों का विस्तार- भारत के ग्रामों में सहायक धन्धों के अभाव में बड़ी मात्रा में मौसमी बेरोजगारी पाई जाती है। यदि ग्रामों में अन्य सहायक निर्माण कार्य चालू किये जायें तो मौसमी बेरोजगारी और अल्प-रोजगार कम हो सकते हैं।
9. स्वयं रोजगार धन्धे-वर्तमान स्थिति में बेरोजगारी दूर करने के लिए हमें ऐसे कार्यों के विकास पर बल देना चाहिए जो बेरोजगार व्यक्तियों द्वारा चलाये जाएँ। भारत में ग्रामीण और शहरी क्षेत्र में अनेक ऐसे छोटे-छोटे कार्य हैं जो सुगमतापूर्वक बेरोजगारों द्वारा चलाये जा सकते हैं।

प्रश्न 3.
क्षेत्रवाद का राष्ट्रीय एकता पर क्या प्रभाव पड़ता है ? लिखिए।
उत्तर:
भारत एक विशाल राष्ट्र है। विशालता के कारण भौगोलिक, भाषायी, जातीय, साम्प्रदायिक तथा धार्मिक विभिन्नताओं का होना स्वाभाविक है। देश का कोई भाग उपजाऊ तथा कोई रेतीला तथा पथरीला है। भाषा की दृष्टि से अनेक भाषाएँ बोली जाती हैं। धर्म की दृष्टि से अनेक धर्मों के अनुयायी रहते हैं। इस प्रकार भारत में अनेक भाषाएँ, धर्म और रहन-सहन की विधियाँ पायी जाती हैं। परन्तु जब इन विभिन्नताओं के कारण विभिन्न वर्गों द्वारा अपनी भाषा, क्षेत्र, धर्म और अपने राज्यों के हितों को अधिक प्रधानता दी जाती है तो क्षेत्रीय आकांक्षाएँ जन्म लेती हैं।

क्षेत्रवाद का प्रभाव – क्षेत्रवाद राष्ट्र की एकता में बहुत बड़ी बाधा है। क्षेत्रवाद से प्रभावित होकर अनेक राजनीतिक दलों का निर्माण हुआ है। इनमें डी. एम. के., तेलुगूदेशम, अकाली दल तथा झारखण्ड दल आदि विशेष रूप से उल्लेखनीय हैं। ये दल क्षेत्रवाद की भावना से प्रेरित होकर कार्य करते हैं और राष्ट्रीय हितों की परवाह नहीं करते। इसी कारण मतदाता क्षेत्रवाद के आधार पर वोट डालते हैं और राष्ट्रीय हितों को अनदेखा कर देते हैं। क्षेत्रवाद आन्दोलनों को जन्म देता है। गोरखालैण्ड आन्दोलन, पंजाब के उग्रवादियों द्वारा खालिस्तान की माँग तथा कुछ वर्ष पूर्व दक्षिण के राज्यों द्वारा भारत से अलग होने की माँग इसके स्पष्ट उदाहरण हैं। अतः क्षेत्रवाद ने पृथक्वाद को जन्म दिया है। इनके कारण देश में समय-समय पर दंगे-फसाद आदि होते रहते हैं। इस प्रकार क्षेत्रवाद राष्ट्र की एकता में बाधक है।

प्रश्न 4.
आतंकवाद का समाज पर क्या प्रभाव पड़ता है ? इसे दूर करने के उपाय लिखिए। (2009, 15, 17)
अथवा
आतंकवाद का समाज पर क्या प्रभाव पड़ता है ? वर्णन कीजिए। (2010)
उत्तर:
मानव जाति के विरुद्ध कुछ व्यक्तियों या गिरोहों की हिंसा को आतंकवाद कहते हैं। यह लोकतन्त्र के विरुद्ध अपराध है। आतंकवाद पूरे विश्व की समस्या बन गया है। आतंकवादी विश्व भर में आतंकी गतिविधियाँ अपनाकर सबको भयभीत और असुरक्षित करना चाहते हैं। ये अनैतिक साधनों को भी न्यायसंगत ठहराते हैं। हिंसक गतिविधियों द्वारा राष्ट्र की अखण्डता और एकता को नष्ट करना चाहते हैं। कुछ विदेशी ताकतें, कट्टरपंथी ताकतें और अलगाववादी प्रवृत्तियाँ आतंकवाद को प्रोत्साहन दे रही हैं। ये विश्व शान्ति को भंग कर सबको भयभीत करना चाहते हैं। आतंकवादियों द्वारा अतिविकसित राष्ट्र अमेरिका की वर्ल्ड ट्रेड सेण्टर जैसी इमारत को ध्वस्त कर दिया गया। सारा विश्व इससे स्तब्ध रह गया। हजारों जानें गईं। अपार धन की हानि हुई और असुरक्षा की भावना बढ़ गई। आतंकवाद राज्य और समाज को बाँटने का कार्य करते हैं।

आतंकवाद के प्रभाव

1. नागरिकों में असुरक्षा की भावना जागृत हो जाती है।
2. आर्थिक विकास के मार्ग में बाधा आती है। जिस गति से विकास कार्य करने हैं उन्हें छोड़कर बचाव कार्य करने होते हैं। इससे शासकीय योजनाएँ प्रभावित होती हैं।
3. जन-धन की बहुत हानि होती है। निरपराध लोग मारे जाते हैं। सरकारी और निजी सम्पत्ति को नुकसान पहुँचता है।
4. आतंकवाद से अघोषित युद्ध जैसी स्थिति बन जाती है। कुछ राष्ट्र आतंकवाद को कूटनीतिक साधन के रूप में उपयोग करते हैं।

आतंकवाद को नियन्त्रित करने के उपाय

आज आतंकवाद एक विश्वव्यापी समस्या के रूप में खड़ा है। यह राष्ट्रों की भौगोलिक सीमाओं को लाँघ चुका है। इसके लिए सभी राष्ट्रों को मिलकर समाधान खोजना चाहिए। सरकार को कश्मीरी आतंकवाद से निपटने के लिए कड़ा रुख अपनाना चाहिए। सुरक्षा व्यवस्था की तैनाती में कमजोर बिन्दुओं की पहचान और उन्हें दूर करने की दिशा में कार्यवाही करना हमारी पहली प्राथमिकता होनी चाहिए एवं सम्पूर्ण देशवासियों को एकजुट होकर आतंकवाद का सामना करना चाहिए।

प्रश्न 5.
भारत में प्रजातन्त्र की सफलता में बाधक तत्वों को बताते हुए उन्हें करने के उपायों का वर्णन कीजिए।
अथवा
भारतीय प्रजातन्त्र की सफलता में बाधक किन्हीं पाँच तत्वों को लिखिए। (2012, 16, 18)
उत्तर:
प्रजातन्त्र की सफलता में बाधक तत्व

भारतीय प्रजातन्त्र का ढाँचा संविधान पर आधारित है और राजनीतिक दलों के सहयोग से यह व्यवस्था क्रियाशील है। समय के साथ-साथ व्यवस्थाओं में कुछ कमियों आ जाती हैं जो वर्तमान व्यवस्था को चुनौती देती हैं। भारतीय प्रजातन्त्र को भी अनेक चुनौतियों का सामना करना पड़ रहा है। इनमें प्रमुख निम्नलिखित हैं –

(1) निर्धनता और बेरोजगारी – देश की जनसंख्या का लगभग 26 प्रतिशत भाग निर्धनता रेखा के नीचे जीवन-निर्वाह कर रहा है। देश में शिक्षित और अशिक्षित करोड़ों नागरिकों को नियमित रोजगार का कोई साधन नहीं है। नागरिकों के उसी बड़े वर्ग के कारण लोकतन्त्र के संचालन में कठिनाई आती है।

(2) जातीयता, क्षेत्रीयता और भाषायी समस्याएँ – हमारे देश में बिना किसी भेद-भाव के सभी नागरिकों को स्वतन्त्रता और समानता के अधिकार प्रदान किए गए हैं किन्तु यथार्थ में देश में प्रचलित जातिवाद और क्षेत्रवाद स्वतन्त्रता और समानता के अधिकार को वास्तविक नहीं बनने दे रहे हैं। भारतीय प्रजातन्त्र में विश्वास करने वाले यह मानते थे कि भारत में धीरे-धीरे जातिवाद स्वतः समाप्त हो जाएगा। लेकिन व्यक्ति जब जाति को प्राथमिकता देकर राजनीतिक कार्य और व्यवहार निर्धारित करता है तब लोकतन्त्र के संचालन में अवरोध आना स्वाभाविक है।

(3) निरक्षरता – किसी भी देश में लोकतन्त्र की सफलता के लिए वहाँ के नागरिकों का साक्षर होना आवश्यक है। अशिक्षित लोग न तो अपने अधिकारों व कर्तव्यों को जानते हैं और न ही अपने मत का ठीक प्रयोग ही कर पाते हैं। इसलिए निरक्षरता प्रजातन्त्र के लिए अभिशाप है।

(4) सामाजिक कुरीतियाँ – भारतीय समाज परम्परागत समाज है। यहाँ प्रजातन्त्र की भावना के अनुकूल लोकमत की कम अभिव्यक्ति होती है। अभी भी हमारे समाज में अस्पृश्यता की भावना, महिलाओं के प्रति भेदभाव, जातीय श्रेष्ठता के भाव, सामन्तवादी मानसिकता, सामाजिक कुरीतियाँ व अन्धविश्वास आदि की भावना व्याप्त है। इस प्रकार के विचार लोकतन्त्र के मार्ग में बाधा हैं।

(5) संचार साधनों की नकारात्मक भूमिका – संचार साधनों के माध्यम से सरकार और नागरिकों के मध्य एक घनिष्ठ नाता बनता है। प्रजातन्त्र में सरकार द्वारा जनकल्याण की अनेक योजनाएँ और कार्यक्रम संचालित किए जाते हैं। जनसंचार के साधनों द्वारा इनका प्रसार केवल व्यावसायिक आधार पर किया जाता है। शासन और प्रशासन की सकारात्मक भूमिका के प्रति इनमें आकर्षण कम है जबकि जनमत बनाना और जनमत को दिशा देने में यह साधन प्रमुख भूमिका निभा सकते हैं। भारत में इनकी भूमिका इतनी सकारात्मक नहीं है जितनी होनी चाहिए।

प्रजातन्त्र की बाधाओं को दूर करने के उपाय

(1) निर्धनता और बेरोजगारी की समस्या के समाधान के लिए शासन के साथ-साथ सामाजिक जागरूकता की भी आवश्यकता है। व्यक्ति और समाज को मिलकर शासन की योजनाओं का लाभ उठाना होगा। व्यावसायिक शिक्षा और स्वरोजगार के प्रयासों में और तेजी की आवश्यकता है।

(2) शिक्षा के प्रति लोकचेतना को और अधिक विस्तार देने की आवश्यकता है। जातिवाद के विचार, क्षेत्रीयता की भावना और भाषायी अवरोधों का सम्बन्ध नागरिकों की मानसिकता से है। इन विचारों में परिवर्तन के लिए कार्य किया जा सकता है। हमें देश में निरक्षरता को दूर करने के लिए सामूहिक प्रयास करने की आवश्यकता है।

(3) देश में सामाजिक कुरीतियों के विरुद्ध कानून हैं किन्तु अनेक लोगों को इन कानूनों से भय नहीं है, सामाजिक कानूनों का पालन सुनिश्चित करने के प्रयास आवश्यक हैं।

(4) प्रजातन्त्र में भ्रष्टाचार को कम करने, समाप्त करने तथा अपराधों को नियन्त्रित करने की अत्यन्त आवश्यकता है। अपराधियों को जल्दी सजा दी जाए। इसके लिए न्याय प्रणाली में सुधार करने चाहिए। राजनीतिक दलों की संख्या को कानून बनाकर कम करना चाहिए। राजनेताओं के लिए नैतिकता और नैतिक सिद्धान्तों का प्रशिक्षण आयोजित होते रहना चाहिए राजनीतिक दलों में सुधार के लिए नये कानूनों की आवश्यकता है। संचार साधनों की बढ़ती भूमिका के कारण उनके लिए दिशा-निर्देश और कानूनों की आवश्यकता है।

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 14 अन्य परीक्षोपयोगी प्रश्न

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 14 वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न

बहु-विकल्पीय

प्रश्न 1.
भारत का क्षेत्रफल विश्व के कुल क्षेत्रफल का है – (2009)
(i) 1.8 प्रतिशत
(ii) 2.0 प्रतिशत
(iii) 2.4 प्रतिशत
(iv) 2.9 प्रतिशत
उत्तर:
(iii) 2.4 प्रतिशत

प्रश्न 2.
2001 की जनगणना के अनुसार भारत की साक्षरता है – (2009)
(i) 53.7 प्रतिशत
(ii) 64.8 प्रतिशत
(iii) 67.5 प्रतिशत
(iv) 70.5 प्रतिशत।
उत्तर:
(ii) 64.8 प्रतिशत

प्रश्न 3.
भारत में बेरोजगारी का कारण है – (2009)
(i) जनसंख्या वृद्धि की तेज गति
(ii) दोषपूर्ण शिक्षा प्रणाली
(iii) उद्योगों में मशीनीकरण
(iv) उक्त सभी।
उत्तर:
(iv) उक्त सभी।

प्रश्न 4.
हथियारों की दौड़ का सम्बन्ध है – (2009)
(i) गरीबों से
(ii) बेरोजगारी से
(iii) आतंकवाद से
(iv) अशिक्षा से।
उत्तर:
(iii) आतंकवाद से

रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिए

1. साम्प्रदायिकता ……………….. के मार्ग में एक बड़ी बाधा है।
2. नशामुक्ति के लिए मद्यनिषेध अभियान ……………….. ने चलाया था। (2014)
3. ‘फूट डालो और राज्य करो’ की नीति ……………….. सरकार की थी।
4. ……………….. के प्रसार से हमारे देश में मृत्यु दर तेजी से कम हो रही है।
5. जनसंख्या की दृष्टि से विश्व में भारत का स्थान ……………….. है। (2012)

उत्तर:

1. लोकतन्त्र एवं राष्ट्रीय एकता
2. महात्मा गांधी
3. अंग्रेज
4. स्वास्थ्य सेवाओं के विस्तार व शिक्षा
5. दूसरा।

सत्य/असत्य

प्रश्न 1.
मादक पदार्थों के सेवन से व्यक्ति के स्वास्थ्य पर प्रतिकूल प्रभाव होता है। (2013)
उत्तर:
सत्य

प्रश्न 2.
जनसंख्या की दृष्टि से भारत का विश्व में प्रथम स्थान है। (2014)
उत्तर:
असत्य

प्रश्न 3.
क्षेत्रवाद राष्ट्रीय एकता का मूलाधार है। (2016)
उत्तर:
असत्य

प्रश्न 4.
जनसंख्या विस्फोट से संसाधनों की कमी हो जाती है। (2010, 12, 15)
उत्तर:
सत्य

प्रश्न 5.
बेरोजगारी से लोकतन्त्र को कोई खतरा नहीं है। (2015)
उत्तर:
असत्य

जोड़ी मिलाइए

उत्तर:

1. → (ख)
2. → (ग)
3. → (क)
4. → (ङ)
5. → (घ)

एक शब्द/वाक्य में उत्तर

प्रश्न 1.
2001 की जनगणना के अनुसार भारत की जनसंख्या बताइए। (2009)
उत्तर:
102.7 करोड़

प्रश्न 2.
चीन में कितने बच्चों के परिवार को आदर्श माना गया है ?
उत्तर:
एक बच्चा

प्रश्न 3.
किसी व्यवसाय में आय प्राप्त करने के लिए धन लगाने को क्या कहते हैं ?
उत्तर:
विनियोग

प्रश्न 4.
नशीले पदार्थों का प्रयोग, उसके व्यापार और लाने-ले जाने पर रोक को क्या कहते हैं ?
उत्तर:
मद्य निषेध

प्रश्न 5.
विश्व की कुल जनसंख्या का कितने प्रतिशत भाग भारत में निवास करता है ? (2007)
उत्तर:
16.87 प्रतिशत

प्रश्न 6.
जनसंख्या की दृष्टि से भारत का स्थान विश्व में कौन-सा है ? (2011)
उत्तर:
दूसरा।

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 14 अति लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
ग्रामीण बेरोजगारी किसे कहते हैं ?
उत्तर:
कृषि क्षेत्र में वर्ष भर कार्य नहीं रहता। छ: माह किसान बेकार रहते हैं। पूँजी का अभाव होने के कारण कुटीर उद्योगों का विकास नहीं हो पाया है। उन्हें वर्ष भर कार्य नहीं मिल पाता और उनकी कमाई में बढ़ोत्तरी नहीं हो पाती। यही ग्रामीण बेरोजगारी है।

प्रश्न 2.
विनियोग से क्या आशय है ?
उत्तर:
किसी व्यवसाय में आय प्राप्त करने के लिए धन लगाना विनियोग कहलाता है।

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 14 लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
आतंकवाद के चार कारणों का वर्णन कीजिए।
उत्तर:
आतंकवाद के कारण–आतंकवाद के प्रमुख कारण निम्नलिखित हैं –

1. उपनिवेशवाद – शासकों द्वारा वर्षों तक अपनाई गई दमनकारी नीतियाँ उपनिवेश में नागरिकों के विद्रोह का कारण होती हैं। वे शासकों से छुटकारा पाने के लिए आतंकी गतिविधियाँ अपनाते हैं।
2. सूचना प्रौद्योगिकी – पिछले दो दशकों में संचार साधनों में बहुत क्रान्ति आई है-टेलीविजन, इण्टरनेट, मोबाइल, फैक्स आदि के माध्यम से आतंकवादी संगठन इसका प्रयोग कर अपनी आतंकी गतिविधियाँ संचालित करने में सफल रहे.हैं।
3. राष्ट्रों में द्वेष की भावना – एक देश द्वारा जब दूसरे देश में आतंकवादी गतिविधियों के संचालन के लिए आतंकवादी संगठनों को संरक्षण, प्रशिक्षण एवं आर्थिक सहायता दी जाती है तो ऐसी स्थिति में संचालित आतंकवाद सीमा पार संचालित आतंकवाद कहलाता है। भारत इससे प्रभावित है। भारत के पड़ोसी राष्ट्रों में अनेक आतंकवादी शिविर संचालित हो रहे हैं जो प्रशिक्षण देने का कार्य करते हैं और विश्व में आतंकवाद के प्रसार में मदद करते हैं।
4. अपहरण व हथियारों का प्रयोग – आतंवादियों द्वारा हत्या, अपहरण, रायफल, हथगोले, मानव बम, जैविक हथियार, रासायनिक हथियारों का उपयोग आतंकवादी गतिविधियों के लिए किया जाता है।

प्रश्न 2.
साम्प्रदायिकता को दूर करने के उपाय बताइए। (2016)
उत्तर:
साम्प्रदायिकता को दूर करने के उपाय – साम्प्रदायिकता को दूर करने के लिए निम्न उपाय अपनाने चाहिए –

1. शिक्षा द्वारा – शिक्षा के पाठ्यक्रम द्वारा सभी धर्मों की अच्छाइयाँ बतायी जाएँ और छात्रों को सहिष्णुता एवं सभी धर्मों के प्रति आदर भाव सिखाया जाए।
2. सर्वधर्म कार्यक्रमों का आयोजन – सभी सम्प्रदाय के लोगों को मिल-जुलकर सामूहिक सम्मेलन व कार्यक्रम आयोजित करने चाहिए, जिससे आपसी मेलजोल से लोगों की पारस्परिक घृणा कम हो, साम्प्रदायिक वैमनस्य की भावना धीरे-धीरे समाप्त हो जाए।
3. समान कानून – सरकार को कानून बनाते समय इस बात का ध्यान रखना चाहिए कि वे समान रूप से सभी नागरिकों पर लागू हों। इन्हें लागू करने में किसी भी प्रकार का भेद-भाव जाति, धर्म, भाषा और लिंग के आधार पर नहीं करना चाहिए।
4. राजनीति में धर्म के प्रभाव पर नियन्त्रण – चुनाव के समय धर्म के आधार पर उम्मीदवार का चुनाव नहीं करना चाहिए। राजनीति में धर्म का प्रभाव बढ़ने से धर्मनिरपेक्षता की भावना में बाधा होती है। नेताओं को राष्ट्रहित का ध्यान रखना चाहिए न कि समुदाय के हितों का।

प्रश्न 3.
मादक पदार्थों के सेवन के कारण बताइए।
उत्तर:
मादक पदार्थों के सेवन के कारण – मादक पदार्थों के सेवन के निम्न कारण हैं –

1. मानसिक परेशानी दूर करने के लिए भी व्यक्ति मादक पदार्थों का सेवन करता है। आज जीवन में इतनी उलझनें हैं कि व्यक्ति उनसे छुटकारा पाना चाहता है। दोस्तों के आग्रह पर भी व्यक्ति मादक पदार्थों का सेवन करने लगता है।
2. शराब पार्टियों के बढ़ते चलन और मीडिया द्वारा इनका प्रदर्शन, मयखानों में डांस, बार रूम का बढ़ता चलन, पाश्चात्य संस्कृति का प्रभाव मादक पदार्थों के सेवन को बढ़ावा दे रहा है।
3. उच्च वर्ग के समकक्ष दिखने, उनके सम्पर्क में आने और व्यावसायिक पार्टियों के आयोजन में अब मादक पदार्थों का उपयोग अधिक हो रहा है।
4. नशे के बाद की पीड़ादायक स्थिति से छुटकारा पाने के लिए व्यक्ति बार-बार नशा करता है। ड्रग्स लेते रहने पर यह स्थिति अधिक विषम होती जाती है, इस कारण मादक पदार्थों का सेवन बढ़ता ही जाता है।

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 14 दीर्घ उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
जनसंख्या विस्फोट क्या है ? समाज पर पड़ने वाले प्रतिकूल प्रभावों को लिखिए। (2018)
अथवा
जनसंख्या वृद्धि के कारण उत्पन्न समस्याओं का वर्णन कीजिए।
उत्तर:
भारत में जनसंख्या वृद्धि के कारण उत्पन्न प्रमुख समस्याएँ निम्न प्रकार हैं –

1. हमारे देश में जनसंख्या वृद्धि के परिणामस्वरूप भूमि पर दबाव निरन्तर बढ़ता जा रहा है। इससे भू-जोतों का आर्थिक विभाजन हुआ है तथा कृषि उत्पादकता में कमी आयी है।
2. जनसंख्या में तेजी से वृद्धि होने पर प्रति व्यक्ति आय में वृद्धि धीमी हो जाती है। ऐसे में निवेश का बड़ा भाग जनसंख्या के भरण-पोषण में लग जाता है तथा आर्थिक विकास के लिए निवेश का एक छोटा-सा भाग ही बचता है।
3. जनसंख्या में तीव्र गति से वृद्धि होने पर देश में बच्चों तथा वृद्ध व्यक्तियों की संख्या बढ़ रही है। ये लोग कार्यशील जनसंख्या (15 वर्ष 60 वर्ष तक की आयु) पर आश्रित हैं। इसका कारण यह है कि यह केवल खाने वाले होते हैं, उत्पादन करने वाले नहीं। आश्रितों की जनसंख्या बढ़ने पर देश पर भार बढ़ रहा है।
4. जनसंख्या वृद्धि के कारण बेरोजगारी की समस्या निरन्तर बढ़ती जा रही है। सरकार जितने लोगों को रोजगार उपलब्ध कराती है उससे अधिक नये लोग बेरोजगारी की लाइन में आ जाते हैं!
5. जनसंख्या वृद्धि के कारण सरकार को आवास, शिक्षा, स्वास्थ्य, जनकल्याण, कानून व्यवस्था एवं सुरक्षा पर अधिक व्यय करना पड़ता है। अतः विकास कार्यों के लिए धन का अभाव हो जाता है।
6. जनसंख्या वृद्धि के परिणामस्वरूप वस्तुओं की माँग उनकी पूर्ति की अपेक्षा बहुत अधिक बढ़ जाती है जिससे वस्तुओं की कीमतें बढ़ जाती हैं। इसका आर्थिक विकास पर प्रतिकूल प्रभाव पड़ता है।

प्रश्न 2.
बेरोजगारी के दुष्परिणाम समझाइए।
उत्तर:
बेरोजगारी के दुष्परिणाम

बेरोजगारी के निम्नांकित दुष्परिणाम होते हैं –

1. मानव शक्ति का आशय – कार्य करने योग्य व्यक्ति जब बेकार रहते हैं तो उनका श्रम व्यर्थ जाता है। इस तरह से बहुत से बेरोजगारों की श्रमशक्ति का उपयोग नहीं हो पाता है।
2. आर्थिक विकास अवरुद्ध – बेरोजगारी की दशा में माँग घटती है, माँग के घटने से उत्पादन गिर जाता है। उत्पादन के कम होने से नये कल-कारखाने व उत्पादन-तकनीक में सुधार नहीं हो पाता है क्योंकि आय कम हो जाती है। पूँजी का निर्माण और विनियोग नहीं हो पाता। इससे देश के आर्थिक विकास में रुकावट आती है।
3. संसाधनों की बर्बादी – देश में सरकार स्वास्थ्य और शिक्षा के लिए बहुत बड़ी धनराशि खर्च करती है। प्रशिक्षण पर भी व्यय होता है परन्तु बेरोजगारी के कारण यह सब व्यर्थ हो जाता है।
4. सामाजिक समस्याएँ – बेरोजगारी मानसिक और सामाजिक असन्तोष को जन्म देती है। बेरोजगार असन्तुष्ट और परेशान व अभावग्रस्त रहते हैं। इससे चोरी, डकैती, बेईमानी, नशा आदि बुराइयाँ समाज में बढ़ जाती हैं। इस प्रकार बेरोजगार व्यक्ति का नैतिक स्तर भी गिर जाता है या दूसरे शब्दों में बेरोजगारी व्यक्ति का नैतिक स्तर गिरा देती है।
5. राजनीतिक उथल-पुथल – बेरोजगारी के कारण एक बड़ा जनसमूह सरकार के विरुद्ध हो जाता है। उनमें असन्तोष और आक्रोश उत्पन्न हो जाता है। यह स्थिति राजनैतिक अस्थिरता को जन्म देती है। सरकार पर सदा संकट बना रहता है।

In this article, we will share MP Board Class 10th Social Science Book Solutions Chapter 17 मुद्रा एवं वित्तीय प्रणाली Pdf, These solutions are solved subject experts from the latest edition books.

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Solutions Chapter 17 मुद्रा एवं वित्तीय प्रणाली

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 17 पाठान्त अभ्यास

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 17 वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न

सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए

प्रश्न 1.
मुद्रा का प्रमुख कार्य है –
(i) विनिमय का माध्यम
(ii) मूल्य संचय
(iii) स्थगित भुगतानों का मान
(iv) ये सभी।
उत्तर:
(iv) ये सभी।

प्रश्न 2.
साहूकारों की महत्त्वपूर्ण भूमिका रही है –
(i) औद्योगिक वित्त में
(ii) विकास वित्त में
(iii) कृषि वित्त में
(iv) इनमें से कोई नहीं
उत्तर:
(iii) कृषि वित्त में

प्रश्न 3.
विदेशी विनिमय बैंक का प्रमुख कार्य है –
(i) जमाएँ स्वीकार करना
(ii) ऋण देना
(iii) मुद्रा का विनिमय करना
(iv) ये सभी
उत्तर:
(iii) मुद्रा का विनिमय करना

रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिए

प्रश्न 1.
एक वस्तु से दूसरी वस्तु की अदला-बदली करके आवश्यकताओं की पूर्ति करना ……………. प्रणाली कहा जाता है।
उत्तर:
वस्तु-विनिमय

प्रश्न 2.
वित्तीय प्रणाली में वित्तीय संस्थायें धन उधार लेकर उसे अन्य जरूरतमन्दों को ……………. देता है।
उत्तर:
ऋण के रूप के उधार

प्रश्न 3.
स्व-सहायता समूह में सदस्यों की अधिकतम संख्या ……………. होती है।
उत्तर:
20

प्रश्न 4.
औद्योगिक बैंक उद्योगों को अल्पकालीन एवं दीर्घकालीन ……………. प्रदान करती हैं।
उत्तर:
ऋण

प्रश्न 5.
बचत बैंक लोगों की ……………. को एकत्रित करती हैं।
उत्तर:
बचत।

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 17 अति लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
वस्तु-विनिमय प्रणाली की मुख्य समस्या क्या थी ?
उत्तर:
वस्तु-विनिमय प्रणाली की सबसे बड़ी कठिनाई यह थी कि कोई ऐसा व्यक्ति मिले जो एक व्यक्ति द्वारा उत्पादित वस्तु को स्वीकार करे एवं बदले में उसकी आवश्यकता की वस्तु को उपलब्ध कराए।

प्रश्न 2.
‘चिट फण्ड’ भारत के किस हिस्से में सर्वाधिक प्रचलित है ?
उत्तर:
चिट फण्ड योजनाओं का दक्षिण भारत के राज्यों में लम्बा इतिहास रहा है। दक्षिण भारत के गाँव में यह बहुत लोकप्रिय रहा है।

प्रश्न 3.
बैंक तथा गैर-बैंकिंग वित्तीय कम्पनियों में मुख्य अन्तर क्या है ?
उत्तर:
बैंक मध्यस्थ साख निर्माण करते हैं। वे जनता से जमाएँ लेकर निश्चित दर पर रिजर्व अनुपात रखते हुए बाकी धन उधार देते हैं जबकि गैर-बैंकिंग वित्तीय कम्पनियाँ साख का निर्माण नहीं करतीं। ये तो केवल तरलता निर्माण करती हैं।

प्रश्न 4.
भूमि विकास बैंक किसान को किस अवधि के ऋण देता है ?
उत्तर:
भूमि विकास बैंक किसानों को दीर्घकालीन ऋण देते हैं। यह बैंक भूमि में सुधार करने, कुआँ खोदने, नलकूप लगाने, कृषि यन्त्र खरीदने, ट्रैक्टर खरीदने आदि के लिए कम ब्याज पर 15 से 20 वर्ष की अवधि तक के लिए ऋण देते हैं। चूँकि इन बैंकों द्वारा भूमि की जमानत पर ऋण दिया जाता है, अतः इनका लाभ बड़े किसानों द्वारा अधिक उठाया जा रहा है।

प्रश्न 5.
राष्ट्रीय कृषि एवं ग्रामीण विकास बैंक का संक्षिप्त नाम क्या है ?
उत्तर:
इसे संक्षेप में ‘नाबार्ड’ कहते हैं।

प्रश्न 6.
देश में नोट छापने का कार्य किस बैंक द्वारा किया जाता है ?
उत्तर:
देश में नोट छापने का कार्य ‘रिजर्व बैंक ऑफ इण्डिया’ द्वारा किया जाता है।

प्रश्न 7.
देश का पहला मोबाइल बैंक किस प्रदेश में स्थापित किया गया है ?
उत्तर:
मध्य प्रदेश के खरगोन जिले में मोबाइल बैंक की स्थापना की गई है।

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 17 लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
प्राचीन काल में किन-किन वस्तुओं का मुद्रा के रूप में प्रयोग किया जाता था ? लिखिए।
उत्तर:
प्राचीन युग का मनुष्य अपनी आवश्यकता की सभी वस्तुओं का उत्पादन स्वयं नहीं कर सकता था। फलतः उसने अपने द्वारा उत्पादित वस्तु का दूसरे व्यक्तियों द्वारा उत्पादित वस्तुओं से बदलना प्रारम्भ किया।

समय के साथ – साथ वस्तु-विनिमय प्रणाली की अनेक कठिनाइयाँ सामने आईं। फलतः ऐसी वस्तुओं की खोज की गई जो सभी व्यक्तियों को स्वीकार हो। प्रारम्भ में गाय, बकरी, सीप, मछली के काँटों, जानवरों की खाल, हाथी दाँत आदि को मुद्रा की इकाई के रूप में अपनाया गया।

प्रश्न 2.
साहूकारी व्यवस्था के दोषों को बताइए।
उत्तर:
साहूकारी व्यवस्था के दोष-साहूकारी व्यवस्था के निम्नलिखित दोष हैं –

1. ब्याज की ऊँची दर-साहूकार बहुत ऊँची ब्याज की दर पर रुपया उधार देता है।
2. ब्याज पर ब्याज लगाना-साहूकार ब्याज पर ब्याज लगाते हैं जिसके कारण ऋण का भार और भी बढ़ जाता है जो ऋणी को असहनीय हो जाता है।
3. हिसाब में गड़बड़ी-साहूकार के पास केवल बहियाँ होती हैं जिन पर गलत लेखे किये जाते हैं। इन लेखों का न तो निरीक्षण होता है और न प्रकाशन। दूसरे, वे रुपया प्राप्त करके ऋणी का रसीद नहीं देते जिससे ऋणियों का शोषण होता है।
4. बेगार कराना-कोई-कोई साहूकार बहुत प्रभावशाली होता है। वह विशेष अवसरों पर ऋणी की सेवाएँ आदि बेगार के रूप में निःशुल्क लेता है।

प्रश्न 3.
मुद्रा की परिभाषा दीजिए।
उत्तर:
मार्शल के अनुसार, “वे समस्त वस्तुएँ जो कि (किसी समय अथवा स्थान पर) बिना किसी सन्देह अथवा विशेष जाँच के बाद वस्तुओं और सेवाओं के खरीदने तथा व्यय के भुगतान के साधन के रूप में सामान्य रूप से स्वीकृत की जाती हैं।” इसी प्रकार प्रो. ऐली के अनुसार, “जो कोई वस्तु विनिमय के रूप में एक व्यक्ति से दूसरे व्यक्ति को स्वतन्त्रतापूर्वक हस्तान्तरित होती रहती है और जिसे ऋणों के अन्तिम भुगतान में साधारणतः ग्रहण कर लिया जाता है, मुद्रा कहलाती है।”

इस परिभाषा के आधार पर यह आवश्यक नहीं है कि मुद्रा केवल धातु निर्मित होनी चाहिए वरन् ऐसी मुद्रा हो सकती है जिसे विनिमय माध्यम एवं ऋणों के अन्तिम भुगतान के रूप में सामान्य स्वीकृति प्राप्त हो। इस आधार पर हम चैकों, हुण्डियों, विनिमय-पत्र को मुद्रा रूप में स्वीकार नहीं कर सकते, क्योंकि न तो इनका स्वतन्त्रतापूर्वक हस्तान्तरण होता है और न ये बिना विशेष जाँच के स्वीकार किये जाते हैं।

प्रश्न 4.
व्यापारिक बैंक किसे कहते हैं ?
उत्तर:
व्यापारिक बैंकों से आशय ऐसे बैंकों से है, जो सामान्य बैंकिंग का कार्य करते हैं। ये बैंक रिजर्व बैंक के अधीन कार्य करते हैं तथा बैंकिंग नियमन अधिनियम का पालन करते हैं। ये जनता का धन जमा के रूप में स्वीकार करते हैं तथा उन्हें ऋण उपलब्ध कराते हैं। इसके अतिरिक्त ये बैंक एजेन्सी सम्बन्धी तथा सामान्य उपयोगिता सम्बन्धी अनेक कार्य करते हैं।

प्रश्न 5.
वित्तीय प्रणाली से क्या तात्पर्य है ?
उत्तर:
जब हमारी आय, अपनी आवश्यकता से अधिक होती है, तब उसे सुरक्षित रूप से रखने और उससे लाभ कमाने के लिए वित्तीय संस्थाओं की जरूरत होती है। इस प्रकार वित्तीय संस्थाएँ हमारी अतिरिक्त आय या बचत को जमा के रूप में अपने पास रखती हैं और जिन व्यक्तियों को धन की आवश्यकता होती है, उन्हें ऋण के रूप में उधार देती हैं। अतः जमा के रूप में धन एकत्रित करने और ऋण देने की प्रक्रिया को वित्तीय प्रणाली के रूप में जाना जाता है। इस प्रकार अर्थव्यवस्था में धन या पूँजी की माँग एवं पूर्ति के मध्य समन्वय बनाये रखने की प्रक्रिया को वित्तीय प्रणाली कहा जाता है।

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 17 दीर्घ उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
मुद्रा के विकास पर एक लेख लिखिए।
अथवा
वस्तु विनिमय प्रणाली क्या है तथा इसकी मुख्य समस्या क्या है ? उसकी दो कठिनाइयों को उदाहरण सहित लिखिए। (2012)
[संकेत – मुद्रा का विकास’ शीर्षक का प्रथम भाग देखें।]
उत्तर:
मुद्रा का परिचय-‘मुद्रा’ शब्द का आविष्कार अंग्रेजी भाषा के ‘Money’ तथा लैटिन भाषा ‘Moneta’ के शब्द से हुआ है। कहा जाता है कि प्राचीन काल में मुद्रा, देवी जूनो (Goddess Juno) के मन्दिर में बनायी जाती थी और देवी जूनो को ही Moneta कहा जाता था। इटली की दन्त कथाओं के अनुसार देवी जूनो स्वर्ण की रानी का नाम है, इसलिए कुछ अर्थशास्त्रियों ने मुद्रा को स्वर्गीय आनन्द का प्रतीक माना है। ऐसा मत है कि प्राचीन समय में रोम के मन्दिर में ही मुद्रा की ढलाई होती थी जिससे इसका अंग्रेजी नामकरण ‘मनी’ हुआ।

मुद्रा का विकास

आज जो मुद्रा का स्वरूप देखने को मिलता है, उसके विकास का एक लम्बा इतिहास है। प्राचीन युग का मनुष्य भी अपनी आवश्यकता की सभी वस्तुओं का उत्पादन स्वयं नहीं कर सकता था। फलतः उसने अपने द्वारा उत्पादित वस्तु का दूसरे व्यक्तियों द्वारा उत्पादित वस्तुओं से बदलना प्रारम्भ किया। इसे ‘वस्तु विनिमय’ के रूप में जाना जाता है। यह प्रणाली काफी समय तक प्रचलित रही। समय के साथ-साथ वस्तु विनिमय प्रणाली की अनेक कठिनाइयाँ सामने आईं। परिणामस्वरूप ऐसी वस्तुओं की खोज की गई जो सभी व्यक्तियों को स्वीकार हो, किन्तु इस व्यवस्था में भी अनेक कठिनाइयाँ सामने आईं, जैसे प्रमापीकरण का अभाव, संचय की कठिनाई आदि। इससे धातुओं के उपयोग की प्रेरणा मिली। राजा एवं महाराजाओं ने जालसाजी को रोकने के लिए इन सिक्कों की तौल, आकार, रंग-रूप आदि को निर्धारित किया तथा इन सिक्कों की प्रामाणिकता के लिए उन पर सरकार की मुहर लगाई जाने लगी।

समय के साथ-साथ धातु मुद्रा की कठिनाइयाँ सामने आने लगी। फलतः बैंकिंग व्यवस्था के साथ-साथ पत्र मुद्रा का विकास हुआ। पत्र मुद्रा का विस्तार अनेक रूपों में हुआ; जैसे-लिखित प्रमाण-पत्र, प्रतिनिधि कागजी मुद्रा, परिवर्तनीय कागजी मुद्रा, अपरिवर्तनीय कागजी मुद्रा आदि । केन्द्रीय बैंक एवं व्यापारिक बैंक के विस्तार के साथ-साथ चैक, हुण्डी, ड्रॉफ्ट के रूप में साख मुद्राओं का विकास हुआ। वर्तमान में क्रेडिट कार्ड एवं ए. टी. एम. कार्ड के रूप में प्लास्टिक मुद्रा भी चलन में है। इस प्रकार स्पष्ट है कि वर्तमान में हम जो मुद्रा देख रहे हैं उसका एक लम्बा इतिहास है। इसे निम्न चार्ट द्वारा भी स्पष्ट किया जा सकता है –

मुद्रा का विकास क्रम

प्रश्न 2.
स्व-सहायता समूह किसे कहते हैं ? इसके गठन के क्या-क्या उद्देश्य हो सकते हैं ? लिखिए। (2009)
अथवा
स्व-सहायता समूह के गठन के कोई चार उद्देश्य लिखिए। (2009, 13)
उत्तर:
स्व-सहायता समूह-स्व-सहायता समूह निर्धन व्यक्तियों का एक स्वैच्छिक संगठन है। इन समूहों का गठन आपसी सहयोग द्वारा अपनी समस्याओं के समाधान के लिए किया जाता है। यह समूह अपने सदस्यों के बीच छोटी-छोटी बचतों को प्रोत्साहित करता है। इन बचतों को बैंक में जमा किया जाताहै। बैंक के जिस खाते में यह राशि जमा की जाती है, वह खाता समूह के नाम होता है। सामान्यतः एक समूह के सदस्यों की अधिकतम संख्या 20 होती है।

प्रायः समूह के सदस्य ऐसे व्यक्ति होते हैं जिनकी पहुँच बैंक आदि वित्तीय संस्थाओं तक नहीं होती। अतः समूह सदस्यों को बचत की ऐसी विधि सिखाता है, जो सदस्यों की आवश्यकताओं की पूर्ति हेतु उपयुक्त है। समूह सदस्यों को कम ब्याज दर पर आसानी से छोटे ऋण उपलब्ध कराता है। इन समूहों ने महिला सशक्तिकरण की दिशा में महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका निभाई है। समूह की बैंकिंग सम्बन्धित गतिविधियों का उद्देश्य समाज के उन निर्धन और पिछड़े व्यक्तियों को बैंकों से जोड़ना है जिनको अभी तक अनदेखा किया गया है। देश में स्व-सहायता समूह महिलाओं का हो सकता है, पुरुषों का हो सकता है या फिर महिला और पुरुष दोनों का मिश्रित हो सकता है, परन्तु यह देखा गया है कि महिला स्व-सहायता समूह अधिक सफल रहे हैं।

स्व-सहायता समूह के गठन के उद्देश्य

स्व-सहायता समूह के गठन के निम्नलिखित उद्देश्य हो सकते हैं –

1. सामूहिक रूप से संगठित होकर कार्य करने की भावना विकसित करना।
2. सदस्यों में बेहतर भविष्य के लिए बचत करने की आदत विकसित करना।
3. सदस्यों में स्वावलम्बन की भावना का विकास करना।
4. स्वास्थ्य, पोषण, शिक्षा और घरेलू हिंसा जैसे विषयों के प्रति जागृति उत्पन्न करना।
5. सदस्यों को ऋण प्रदान करके स्वरोजगार के अवसरों का सृजन करना।
6. सरकार, बैंक तथा अन्य स्वयंसेवी संस्थाओं की सहायता से कल्याणकारी गतिविधियों का संचालन आदि।

प्रश्न 3.
भारत में पायी जाने वाली निजी वित्तीय संस्थाएँ कौन-कौनसी हैं ? लिखिए।
उत्तर:
निजी वित्तीय संस्थाएँ

निजी क्षेत्र की वित्तीय संस्थाओं के अन्तर्गत उन संस्थाओं को रखा जाता है जिनका स्वामित्व निजी व्यक्तियों या संस्थाओं के हाथों में होता है; जैसे-जमींदार, चिट-फण्ड आदि। वर्तमान में अनेक व्यापारिक बैंक एवं बीमा कम्पनियाँ भी निजी क्षेत्र के अन्तर्गत कार्य कर रही हैं।

भारत में कार्यरत् निजी क्षेत्र की प्रमुख वित्तीय संस्थाएँ निम्नलिखित हैं –

(1) साहूकार-साहूकार या महाजन वह व्यक्ति है जो अपने ग्राहकों को समय-समय पर ऋण उपलब्ध कराता है। साहूकार दो प्रकार के होते हैं –

• जमींदार या कृषक साहूकार, तथा
• व्यावसायिक साहूकार।

(i) कृषक साहूकार या जमींदार-कृषक साहूकार वे व्यक्ति कहलाते हैं, जो मुख्य रूप से कृषि करते हैं लेकिन धनवान होने के कारण, धन उधार देने का कार्य सहायक व्यवसाय के रूप में करते हैं।
(ii) व्यावसायिक साहूकार-व्यावसायिक साहूकार वे व्यक्ति कहलाते हैं जिनका मुख्य व्यवसाय उधार देना ही होता है।

साहूकारों के कार्य करने का तरीका बहुत सरल होता है। ये अल्पकालीन, मध्यमकालीन व दीर्घकालीन तीनों प्रकार के ऋण देते हैं। ये उत्पादन व उपभोग दोनों कार्यों के लिए ऋण देते हैं। ऋण जमानत लेकर व बिना जमानत लिए दोनों प्रकार के होते हैं।

(2) जमींदार – इस प्रथा का प्रारम्भ 1793 में लार्ड कार्नवालिस ने बंगाल में किया था। जमींदार बड़े भू-स्वामी होते थे। इनका कार्य किसानों से लगान वसूल करना था। ये किसानों से लगान वसूल करके सरकार को देते थे। जमींदार आवश्यकता पड़ने पर किसानों को उनकी आवश्यकता पूर्ति के लिए ऋण भी दिया करते थे। इनके द्वारा किसानों को दिए गये ऋणों पर ब्याज की दर बहुत ऊँची होती थी। इनके द्वारा प्रदत्त ऋणों की शर्ते भी कठोर होती थीं। ये ऋण वसूली में निर्दयता का व्यवहार करते थे, जिससे किसानों का शोषण होता था।

फलस्वरूप सभी राज्यों ने कानून बनाकर जमींदारी प्रथा को पूर्णतः समाप्त कर दिया है किन्तु वर्तमान समय में भी जमींदारों द्वारा ग्रामीण क्षेत्रों में ऋण देने का कार्य किया जाता है।

(3) चिट-फण्ड – चिट-फण्ड भारत में पायी जाने वाली एक प्रकार की बचत योजना है। इसमें निर्धारित संख्या में सदस्य बनाये जाते हैं। ये सदस्य पूर्व निर्धारित समय अन्तराल के बाद एक निश्चित स्थान पर एकत्रित होकर, तयशुदा धनराशि एक स्थान पर एकत्रित करते हैं। फिर इस एकत्रित धनराशि की सदस्यों के बीच नीलामी की जाती है। इस नीलामी में जो सदस्य सबसे ऊँची बोली लगाता है, उसे एकत्रित धनराशि सौंप दी जाती है। इस प्रकार की चिट-फण्ड योजनाएँ किसी पंजीकृत वित्तीय संस्था या कुछ मित्र या रिश्तेदार आपस में मिलकर भी चलाते हैं। उद्देश्य में भिन्नता के साथ-साथ, अलग-अलग तरह की अनेक चिट-फण्ड योजनाएँ देश में चल रही हैं।

(4) व्यापारिक बैंक – सन् 1991 के बाद निजी क्षेत्र में अनेक बैंक स्थापित किए गए हैं। उदाहरणार्थ आई. सी. आई. सी. आई (ICICI) बैंक, एच. डी. एफ. सी. (HDFC) बैंक, इन्डस (INDUS) बैंक आदि निजी क्षेत्र की बैंक हैं। वर्तमान में निजी क्षेत्र में बैंकों का कार्यक्षेत्र बहुत अधिक बढ़ गया है। बीमा क्षेत्र भी निजी कम्पनियों के लिए खोल दिया गया है।

प्रश्न 4.
बैंकों के विभिन्न प्रकार कौन-कौनसे हैं? लिखिए
उत्तर:
बैंकों के प्रकार

भारत में निम्न प्रकार की बैंकें पायी जाती हैं –

(1) व्यापारिक बैंक (Commercial Bank) – व्यापारिक बैंक वह होती है जो साधारणतया व्यापार और उद्योग को अल्पावधि ऋण सहायता प्रदान करती है। ये बैंक जनता से जमाओं के रूप में नकदी प्राप्त करती हैं। जमाकर्ताओं की ये जमा उनके माँगने पर स्वयं उनको अथवा उनके आदेशानुसार किसी भी व्यक्ति अथवा संस्था को वापस लौटाती है। वर्तमान में ये बैंक इसके अतिरिक्त अन्य कार्य; जैसे-ड्राफ्ट, धन का हस्तान्तरण, लॉकर सुविधा आदि प्रदान करते हैं।

(2) औद्योगिक बैंक (Industrial Bank) – औद्योगिक बैंक वे होते हैं जो उद्योग-धन्धों की दीर्घकालीन वित्त सम्बन्धी आवश्यकताओं की पूर्ति करते हैं। इसके अतिरिक्त ये बैंक अंशों एवं ऋणों-पत्रों का अभिगोपन भी करते हैं। भारत में औद्योगिक विकास बैंक (IDBI), औद्योगिक वित्त निगम (IFC), राज्य वित्त निगम (SFC) तथा भारतीय औद्योगिक साख एवं विनियोग निगम (ICICI) आदि औद्योगिक बैंक के रूप में कार्य कर रहे हैं।

(3) विदेशी विनिमय बैंक (Foreign Exchange Bank) – ये बैंक विदेशी विनिमय में व्यापार करते हैं तथा विदेशी व्यापार की व्यवस्था करते हैं। इन बैंकों का प्रमुख कार्य विदेशी विनिमय की अर्थव्यवस्था करना होता है। ये बैंक विदेशी व्यापार के लिए उधार धन देने, सलाह देने, विदेशी बिलों को भुनाने, क्रय-विक्रय करने तथा आयात-निर्यात की व्यवस्था करने का कार्य करते हैं। ये बैंक विदेशी विनिमय दरों में स्थिरता बनाये रखने का कार्य करते हैं।

(4) सहकारी बैंक (Co-operative Bank) – सहकारिता की भावना को लेकर इन बैंकों का उदय हुआ है। ये बैंक परस्पर सहयोग के सिद्धान्त पर कार्य करती हैं। ये बैंक सहकारी समिति अधिनियम के अधीन पंजीकृत होते हैं। ये तीन स्तर पर पाये जाते हैं –

1. राज्य स्तर पर (राज्य सहकारी बैंक)
2. जिला स्तर पर (जिला सहकारी बैंक)तथा
3. ग्राम स्तर पर (सहकारी साख समिति)।

(5) केन्द्रीय बैंक (Central Bank) – केन्द्रीय बैंक देश की सम्पूर्ण बैंकिंग व्यवस्था का शीर्ष होता है। यह बैंक या अन्य बैंकों से भिन्न होता है। इस बैंक का मुख्य कार्य देश की बैंकिंग प्रणाली को व्यवस्थित एवं सुसंगठित रूप से संचालित करना तथा देश के अन्य बैंकों पर प्रभावी ढंग से नियन्त्रण करना होता है। केन्द्रीय बैंक देश की आवश्यकतानुसार पत्र-मुद्रा का निर्गमन करता है, देश की साख एवं बैंकिंग प्रणाली का नियन्त्रण करता है तथा सरकार के वित्तीय प्रतिनिधि के रूप में कार्य करता है। भारत में रिजर्व बैंक ऑफ इण्डिया केन्द्रीय बैंक के रूप में कार्य करता है।

(6) अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय बैंक (International Bank) – अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय बैंकों के अन्तर्गत उन बैंकों को शामिल किया जाता है जिनकी स्थापना अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय आर्थिक समस्याओं को निपटाने तथा सदस्य राष्ट्रों को आर्थिक सहायता प्रदान करने के लिए की गयी है। इस दिशा में सन् 1945 में दो संस्थाओं विश्व बैंक तथा अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय मुद्रा कोष की स्थापना की गयी।

प्रश्न 5.
मुद्रा के प्रमुख कार्यों की व्याख्या कीजिए। (2009)
अथवा
मुद्रा के कोई दो कार्य लिखिए। (2016)
अथवा
मुद्रा किसे कहते हैं ? इसके प्रमुख कार्य लिखिए। (2009)
[संकेत : मुद्रा का आशय लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न 3 के उत्तर में देखें
उत्तर:
मुद्रा के प्रमुख कार्य मुद्रा के प्रमुख कार्य निम्नलिखित हैं –

(1) विनिमय का माध्यम – यह मुद्रा का अत्यन्त महत्वपूर्ण कार्य है। इस कार्य द्वारा मुद्रा ने वस्तु विनिमय के दोहरे संयोग के अभाव की कठिनाई को दूर करके विनिमय रीति को व्यवस्थित और सरल बना दिया है अर्थात् प्रत्येक व्यक्ति अपनी वस्तु के बदले मुद्रा प्राप्त करता है और फिर उस मुद्रा से अपनी आवश्यकताओं की पूर्ति करता है। प्रो. मार्शल के अनुसार, “मुद्रा को केवल इसलिए प्राप्त नहीं किया जाता है कि वह स्वयं मूल्यवान होती है वरन् इसलिए कि इसके द्वारा वस्तुओं और सेवाओं को प्राप्त किया जा सकता है, क्योंकि उसमें सामान्य क्रय-शक्ति होती है।”

(2) मूल्य का मापक – मुद्रा का दूसरा महत्वपूर्ण कार्य मूल्य मापक के रूप में विभिन्न वस्तुओं एवं सेवाओं की विनिमय शक्ति को आँकने का रहा है। वस्तु विनिमय के अन्तर्गत विभिन्न वस्तुओं का अन्य वस्तुओं के रूप में मूल्य मापन एक कठिन कार्य था। मुद्रा के प्रचलन से अब यह कठिनाई दूर हो गयी है और सभी वस्तुओं व सेवाओं के मूल्यों को मुद्रा में मापा जा सकता है। प्रो. कोलबर्न के अनुसार, “यह माप या तुलना अत्यन्त महत्वपूर्ण है, क्योंकि सम्पूर्ण अर्थव्यवस्था में लाभ और हानि का अनुमान इसी के आधार पर लगाया जाता है।”

(3) मूल्य संचय का आधार – प्रत्येक व्यक्ति भविष्य की आवश्यकताओं को पूरा करने के लिए संग्रह करना आवश्यक समझता है। यदि यह संग्रह वस्तुओं के रूप में किया जाए तो यह स्पष्ट है कि वस्तुएँ कुछ समय पश्चात् नष्ट हो जाएँगी। मुद्रा के आविष्कार ने इस समस्या का समाधान किया। वर्तमान में प्रत्येक व्यक्ति मुद्रा को संग्रह करके रखता है, क्योंकि मुद्रा में वस्तुओं को क्रय करने की शक्ति होती है।

(4) मूल्य का हस्तान्तरण – मुद्रा द्वारा मूल्य का हस्तान्तरण एक व्यक्ति से दूसरे व्यक्ति और एक स्थान से दूसरे स्थान पर सरलतापूर्वक किया जा सकता है, क्योंकि इसमें सामान्य स्वीकृति का गुण पाया जाता है। जैसे कोई व्यक्ति आगरा छोड़कर इलाहाबाद बसना चाहता है तो वह आगरा में स्थित मकान व अन्य सम्पत्ति को मुद्रा में बेचकर उसी मुद्रा से इलाहाबाद में नया मकान व सम्पत्ति क्रय कर सकता है।

इसके साथ ही मुद्रा के माध्यम से उधार लेन-देन की प्रक्रिया बहुत सरल हो गई है। उपभोक्ता मुद्रा के माध्यम से अधिकतम सन्तुष्टि प्राप्त करता है तथा उत्पादक अपने उत्पादन की मात्रा को बढ़ाता है। संक्षेप में, मनुष्य के जीवन में मुद्रा अनेक महत्वपूर्ण कार्य करती है।

प्रश्न 6.
कृषि ऋण देने वाले संस्थाओं की विवेचना कीजिए।
उत्तर:
कृषि ऋण देने वाली संस्थाएँ

कृषि व्यवस्था, व्यापार तथा उद्योग-धन्धों से भिन्न होती है। अतः इसकी ऋण सम्बन्धी आवश्यकताएँ व्यापार तथा उद्योग-धन्धों की ऋण सम्बन्धी आवश्यकताओं से भिन्न होती हैं। यही कारण है कि कृषकों की आवश्यकता को पूरा करने के लिए कृषि बैंकों की स्थापना की गई। कृषि वित्त की आवश्यकताओं की पूर्ति अग्रलिखित कृषि बैंकों द्वारा की जा रही है –

(1) कृषि सहकारी बैंक – कृषि सहकारी बैंक किसानों को अल्पकालीन ऋणों की सुविधाएँ कम ब्याज की दर पर प्रदान करते हैं। भारत में सहकारी बैंकों की रचना त्रिस्तरीय है। सबसे नीचे ग्राम स्तर पर प्राथमिक सहकारी साख समिति होती है। इन समितियों के ऊपर केन्द्रीय सहकारी बैंक (या जिला सहकारी बैंक) होते हैं जो आवश्यकता पड़ने पर इन समितियों को ऋण देते हैं। इन केन्द्रीय सहकारी बैंकों के ऊपर राज्य सहकारी बैंक होते हैं। राज्य सहकारी बैंक जिला सहकारी बैंक की ऋण सम्बन्धी आवश्यकताओं की पूर्ति करता है। राज्य सहकारी बैंकों को जब ऋण सम्बन्धी आवश्यकता होती है तो राष्ट्रीय कृषि तथा ग्रामीण विकास बैंक (नाबार्ड) इनकी मदद करता है।

(2) भूमि विकास बैंक – भूमि विकास बैंक किसानों को दीर्घकालीन ऋण देते हैं। यह बैंक भूमि में सुधार करने, कुआँ खोदने, नलकूप लगाने, कृषि यन्त्र खरीदने, ट्रैक्टर खरीदने आदि के लिए कम ब्याज पर 15 से 20 वर्ष की अवधि तक के लिए ऋण देते हैं। चूँकि इन बैंकों द्वारा भूमि की जमानत पर ऋण दिया जाता है, अतः इनका लाभ बड़े किसानों को अधिक प्राप्त हो रहा है।

(3) क्षेत्रीय ग्रामीण बैंक – क्षेत्रीय ग्रामीण बैंक की स्थापना वर्ष 1975 में हुई थी। इन बैंकों की स्थापना विशेषकर दूर-दराज के ग्रामीण क्षेत्रों के लोगों को बैंकिंग सुविधाएँ पहुँचाने के उद्देश्य से की गई है। इन बैंकों द्वारा छोटे एवं सीमान्त कृषकों, कृषि श्रमिकों, ग्रामीण शिल्पकारों एवं छोटे उद्यमियों को ऋण प्रदान किये जाते हैं। देश में 30 जून, 2015 को क्षेत्रीय ग्रामीण बैंकों की 20,290 शाखाएँ कार्यरत् हैं।

(4) राष्ट्रीय कृषि तथा ग्रामीण विकास बैंक (नाबार्ड) – राष्ट्रीय कृषि एवं ग्रामीण विकास बैंक की स्थापना कृषि विकास हेतु ऋण उपलब्ध कराने के उद्देश्य से 12 जुलाई, 1982 को की गई। यह संस्था अनेक वित्तीय संस्थाओं; जैसे-राज्य भूमि विकास बैंक, राज्य सहकारी बैंक, वाणिज्यिक बैंक तथा क्षेत्रीय ग्रामीण बैंक को .पुनर्वित्त की सुविधाएँ प्रदान करती है। अपनी ऋण सम्बन्धी आवश्यकताओं की पूर्ति के लिए नाबार्ड भारत सरकार, विश्व बैंक तथा अन्य संस्थाओं से धन प्राप्त करता है।

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 17 अन्य परीक्षोपयोगी प्रश्न

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 17 वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न

बहु-विकल्पीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
लैटिन भाषा में मुद्रा को कहते थे – (2012)
(i) मोनेटा
(ii) जूनो
(iii) पैक्यूना
(iv) पैकस।
उत्तर:
(iii) पैक्यूना

प्रश्न 2.
व्यापारिक बैंकों का राष्ट्रीयकरण किस वर्ष में हआ ?
(i) 1975
(ii) 1969
(iii) 1965
(iv) 1962
उत्तर:
(ii) 1969

प्रश्न 3.
राष्ट्रीय कृषि तथा ग्रामीण विकास बैंक की स्थापना हुई थी –
(i) 12 जुलाई, 1982 को
(ii) 14 अगस्त, 1980 को
(iii) 30 जुलाई, 1975 को
(iv) 30 मई, 1985 को।
उत्तर:
(i) 12 जुलाई, 1982 को

रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिए

1. वस्तुओं एवं सेवाओं का क्रय-विक्रय …………. के माध्यम से होता है।
2. मनुष्य स्वभाव से भावी विपत्तियों से निपटने के लिए ……… करता है।
3. स्व-सहायता समूह का एक स्वैच्छिक संगठन है।

उत्तर:

1. मुद्रा
2. बचत
3. गरीब व्यक्तियों।

सत्य/असत्य

प्रश्न 1.
जमींदारी प्रथा का प्रारम्भ 1793 में लार्ड कार्नवालिस ने बंगाल में किया था।
उत्तर:
सत्य

प्रश्न 2.
साहूकारों का औद्योगिक वित्त में महत्वपूर्ण स्थान है।
उत्तर:
असत्य

प्रश्न 3.
चिट-फण्ड योजनाओं का दक्षिण भारत के राज्यों में लम्बा इतिहास रहा है।
उत्तर:
सत्य

प्रश्न 4.
क्षेत्रीय ग्रामीण बैंक छोटे एवं सीमान्त किसानों, कृषि श्रमिकों को ऋण प्रदान करते हैं।
उत्तर:
सत्य

प्रश्न 5.
केन्द्रीय बैंक का सम्बन्ध जनता से सीधा होता है।
उत्तर:
असत्य।

जोड़ी मिलाइए

उत्तर:

1. → (ग)
2. → (ङ)
3. → (घ)
4. → (क)
5. → (ख)

एक शब्द/वाक्य में उत्तर

प्रश्न 1.
एच. डी. एफ. सी. (HDFC) बैंक सार्वजनिक क्षेत्र का बैंक है या निजी क्षेत्र का ?
उत्तर:
निजी क्षेत्र का

प्रश्न 2.
स्व-सहायता समूहों के माध्यम से बांग्लादेश में ग्रामीण बैंकों की स्थापना कब और किसने की ?
उत्तर:
1970 में, मोहम्मद यूनुस ने

प्रश्न 3.
भारत में बैंकों का राष्ट्रीयकरण कब हुआ ? (2012, 15, 18)
उत्तर:
14 जुलाई, 1969

प्रश्न 4.
भारत में सहकारी बैंकों की रचना किस प्रकार की है ?
उत्तर:
त्रिस्तरीय

प्रश्न 5.
क्षेत्रीय ग्रामीण बैंक की स्थापना किस वर्ष में की गई थी ?
उत्तर:
वर्ष 1975 में

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 17 आत लघु उत्तराय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
ICICI बैंक सार्वजनिक क्षेत्र का बैंक है या निजी क्षेत्र का ?
उत्तर:
निजी क्षेत्र का।

प्रश्न 2.
वस्तु विनिमय क्या है ?
उत्तर:
एक वस्तु के बदले में दूसरी वस्तु प्राप्त करना या अदला-बदली करना वस्तु विनिमय कहलाता है।

प्रश्न 3.
‘मुद्रा’ क्या है ?
उत्तर:
वह वस्तु है जो वस्तुओं तथा सेवाओं को खरीदने एवं ऋणों का भुगतान करने के लिए स्वीकार की जाती है।

प्रश्न 4.
पत्र मुद्रा से क्या आशय है ?
उत्तर:
वह कागजी मुद्रा है जिसे केन्द्रीय बैंक द्वारा सरकार की साख के आधार पर जारी किया जाता है।

प्रश्न 5.
विदेशी विनिमय से क्या आशय है ?
उत्तर:
एक राष्ट्र की मुद्रा के बदले में दूसरे राष्ट्र की मुद्रा प्राप्त करना विदेशी विनिमय कहलाता है।

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 17 लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
ए. टी. एम. (ATM) क्या है ? (2015) इसके लाभ लिखिए। (2012)
उत्तर:
ए. टी. एम. (ATM) (Automated Teller Machine) – ए. टी. एम. से आशय एक ऐसी व्यवस्था से है जिसमें कभी भी पैसे निकाले जा सकते हैं। इसका कार्ड प्लास्टिक का बना होता है और इसमें धातु की एक चिप लगी रहती है, जिस पर बैंक एकाउण्ट से सम्बन्धित सभी विवरण दर्ज रहते हैं। ए. टी. एम. से एक दिन में एक निश्चित धनराशि ही निकाली जा सकती है। वास्तविकता यह है कि ए. टी. एम. ने बैंकिंग कार्य को बहुत सरल एवं सुविधाजनक बना दिया है।

प्रश्न 2.
केन्द्रीय बैंक से आप क्या समझते हैं ? इसके प्रमुख कार्य संक्षेप में लिखिए।
उत्तर:
केन्द्रीय बैंक – केन्द्रीय बैंक देश का राष्ट्रीय बैंक होता है। यह बैंक अन्य बैंकों से भिन्न होता है। इस बैंक का मुख्य कार्य देश की बैंकिंग प्रणाली को व्यवस्थित एवं सुसंगठित रूप से संचालित तथा देश के अन्य बैंकों पर प्रभावी ढंग से नियन्त्रण करना होता है। केन्द्रीय बैंक देश की आवश्यकतानुसार पत्र मुद्रा का निर्गमन करता है, देश की साख एवं बैंकिंग प्रणाली का नियन्त्रण करता है तथा सरकार के वित्तीय प्रतिनिधि के रूप में कार्य करता है। भारत में रिजर्व बैंक ऑफ इण्डिया केन्द्रीय बैंक के रूप में कार्य करता है।

MP Board Class 10th Social Science Chapter 17 दीर्घ उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित पर टिप्पणी लिखिए –
(i) राष्ट्रीय कृषि तथा ग्रामीण विकास बैंक
(ii) अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय बैंक।
उत्तर:
(i) राष्ट्रीय कृषि तथा ग्रामीण विकास बैंक (नाबार्ड) – राष्ट्रीय कृषि एवं ग्रामीण विकास बैंक की स्थापना कृषि विकास हेतु ऋण उपलब्ध कराने के उद्देश्य से 12 जुलाई, 1982 को की गई। इसे संक्षेप में ‘नाबार्ड’ कहते हैं। यह ग्रामीण एवं कृषि ऋणों से सम्बन्धित एक शीर्ष संस्था है। यह संस्था अनेक वित्तीय संस्थाओं; जैसे-राज्य भूमि विकास बैंक, राज्य सहकारी बैंक, वाणिज्यिक बैंक तथा क्षेत्रीय ग्रामीण बैंक को पुनर्वित्त की सुविधाएँ प्रदान करती है। अपनी ऋण सम्बन्धी आवश्यकताओं की पूर्ति के लिए ‘नाबार्ड’ भारत सरकार, विश्व बैंक तथा अन्य संस्थाओं से धन प्राप्त करता है।

(ii) अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय बैंक – अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय बैंकों के अन्तर्गत उन बैंकों को सम्मिलित किया जाता है जिनकी स्थापना अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय आर्थिक समस्याओं को निपटाने तथा सदस्य राष्ट्रों को आर्थिक सहायता प्रदान करने के लिए की गयी है। इस दिशा में 1945 में दो संस्थाओं विश्व बैंक तथा अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय मुद्रा कोष की स्थापना की गयी।