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MP Board Class 12th Business Studies Important Questions Chapter 2 Principles of Management

Principles of Management Important Questions

Principles of Management Very Short Answer Type Questions

Questions 1.
What do you understand by “Mental revolution” ?
Answer:
Principle of mental revolution assumes that even if there are large physical resources and other resources in an organization but if the human resources are not satisfied, there isn’t peace and prosperity and the moral of the human resources is not high till then the resources are simply resources. They can never take the form of production and services. Hence, managers must try to attain the maximum cooperation of the workers, to remove the gaps between labour and capital and to radicate mutual enmity.

Question 2.
What do you understand by principles of management ?
Answer:
Principles of management represent the techniques and principles which are related to management tasks and to show the correct path for achievement of the main objectives of the organization.

Question 3.
Explain Fayols principle of Initiatives ?
Answer:
According to this principle Fayol has suggested that the officers and employees of an organization should be given freedom to work on the new plans and to upgrade the old plans in order to increase the productivity. The employees should take the initiative in order to give suggestions to increase the productivity of the firm.

Question 4.
What is principle of equity ?
Answer:
This principle was formulated by Henri Fayol. Equity means fair dealings, equality of treatment and cooperative attitude among the employees in the enterprise. Equity results from a combination of kindness and justice. Employees expect equity from management.

Question 5.
How is efficiency developed through division of labour ?
Answer:
According to Henri Fayol all employees is an organization or institution do not have same efficiency. So according to their efficiency and interest they should be assigned the work. Labour should be divided into various groups. By doing this workers are motivated and this helps in increasing their efficiency.
The object of division of work is to derive benefits from specialization. The various functions of management like planning, organization cannot be done alone.

Question 6.
Distinguish is between principles of unity of command and principle of unity of direction.
Answer:
Difference between Principles of unity of command and Principle of unity of direction

principal of unity command:

1. it is concerned with the functioning of personnel.
2. 2.this principal makes the relation of and officers (authority) strong.

princpals of unity of direction:

1. it is concerned with the functioning of the department and sub-department comprising the business concern.
2. the principals help the unification of plans.

Question 7.
What do you mean by decentralization ?
Answer:
When the top level management gives more role and importance to its subordinates in management and organization, it is known as decentralization. The intensity of centralization of decentralization is decided by the top level management.

Question 8.
What do you mean by standardization ?
Answer:
According to Taylor standardization is essential for high quality product with low cost of production. It involves the standardization of tools and equipment conditions of work and materials so that the best product can be produced at a minimum cost.

Question 9.
Explain the principle of unity of direction formulated by Henri Fayol.
Answer:
Principle of unity of direction means there should be one head and one plan for a group of activities having the same objectives. While unity of command is concerned with the functioning of personnel unity of direction is concerned with the functioning of the body corporate. The departments and subdepartments comprising the business concern.

Question 10.
Explain Principle of scientific selection, training and development.
Answer:
According to Taylor, selection of employees should be done very carefully, because wrong selection may create disaster. This does not mean that only well qualified persons should be employed, but that person should be employed who can do that work or is capable of -handling that work. Taylor in his book, “The principle of scientific management” has written, that no matter how good your selection procedure is, but without training, the working capacity of the employees cannot be increased. Therefore, along with scientific selection method, arrangement for training should also be made. “A person should do the work not mere know the work.”

Question 11.
What is Taylor’s Eight Boss scheme ?
Answer:
Taylor has suggested functional organizational system. This organization is called Eight Boss scheme.
They are:

1. Gang Boss
2. Speed Boss
3. Repair Boss
4. Inspector
5. Shop disciplinarian
6. Route clerk
7. Instruction card clerk
8. Time and cost clerk.

Question 12.
ExpIain the principle of ‘I’ and ‘We’ propounded by Fayol ?
Answer:
According to this principle of Henry Fayol the industrialists should use the word we instead of ‘I’ in order to get maximum cooperation of the employees. Both the aspect should work in cave and harmony.

Question. 13.
Explain Taylor’s principle of task idea.
Answer:
Principle of task idea: This pertains to the norms of productivity of individual worker. It is a technique of forecasting and viewing ahead every step in a long series of separate operations. The standard task is the amount of work which an average worker does in congenial atmosphere during a working day. Taylor called it a fair day’s work. A worker usually works much below his capacity if no standard is set for him.

Question 14.
What do you mean by motion study ?
Answer:
It is the study of a machine operator and his movements for performing the job. The purpose is to eliminate useless motion and thereby establish a standard for performance. The study is undertook in order.

Question 15.
Explain the principle of unity of direction.
Answer:
Principle of unity of direction : It means, there should be one head and one plan for a group of activities having the same objectives while unity of command is concerned with the functioning of personnel, unity of direction is concerned with the functioning of the body corporate the departments and subdepartments comprising the business concern.

Question 16.
Who formulated scientific principles of management when and where did he die ?
Answer:
Principles of scientific management was formulated by F.W. Taylor. He died in 1915 at Filadalphiya.

Question 17.
How many parts did Henri Fayol divide the works of business ?
Answer:
Fayol has classified all the works of business in six parts :

1. Technical work
2. Commercial work
3. Financial work
4. Security work
5. Administrative work
6. Managerial work.

Question 18.
What do you mean by time study ?
Answer:
lt is done to observe and study the minimum time-period required to perform any task. Through time study the precise time required for man’s work is determined. It will help in fixing the standard time required to do a particular job.

Question 19.
what do you mean by Fatigue study ?
Answer:
Fatigue study : Excessive specialization of work and poor working conditions may cause monotony resulting in both physical and mental fatigue among industrial workers. Fatigue either a physical or mental always has an adverse effect on worker’s health and his efficiency. The idea of this study is to see that workers maintain their operational efficiency without any injury to their health and happiness.

Principles of Management Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the 14 principles of management formulated by Henri Fayol.
Answer:
AnirFayol’s Principles of Administration of Management:

1. Principle of division of work
2. Principle of authority and responsibility
3. Principle of discipline
4. Principle of unity of command
5. Principle of unity of direction
6. Principle of priority to common interest
7. Principle of remuneration of personnel
8. Principle of centralization
9. Principle of scalar chain
10. Principle of order
11. Principle of equity
12. Principle of stability
13. Principle of initiative and Esprit de corps
14. Principle of coordination of management.

Question 2.
Differentiate the time study and motion study.
Answer:
Differences between time study and motion study :

Time study:

1. Time study is done at first.
2. In time study, study of time is done of time taken by machine and time taken by labours.
3. Stopwatch is used in time study.
4. Time study is related to increase the efficiency of labourers.

Motion study:

1. Motion study is done after time study In motion study the study of work done by labours is done.
2. Camera is used in motion study.
3. The object of motion study is to minimize the movement of labours.

Question 3.
why the principles of scientific management opposed by labourers ? Give any six reasons.
Answer:
Opposition by labourers : The maximum opposition of scientific management has been done by the labourers. The reasons for opposition of scientific management are following: .

1. Increase of labourers work: To adopt the scientific management, it is necessary to increase the efficiency of a labour and so the work load on labour is increased. The increased work load creates bad effect on the health of labourer. Hence, it is opposed by the labourers.

2. Strict control: Under the scientific management, strictness has to be observed and so the labourers are kept under the strict control which they do not like.

3. Fear of unemployment: Increased use of machines create a sense of fear in the minds of the workers, thereby making them inefficient. This may further lead to retrench-ment. Hence, they are against being the standards set;

4. Exploitation of labourers : In scientific management, wages of the labourers are not increased in proportion to the increased production. So, in this system, exploitation of the labourers are maximum.

Question 4.
describe the similarities of opinions of Taylor and Fayol.
Answer:
Followings are the similarities of opinions Taylor and Fayol:

1. Both wanted to bring change in managerial conditions
2. Both were great supporters of human factor
3. Both gave much importance to forecasting and planning
4. Both were management experts of the same time, i.e., both were contemporaries
5. Both accepted management as an earned talent
6. Both were experts in their own fields
7. Both emphasised working in a technical and scientific way
8. Both formulated principles of management.

Question 5.
To increase the production efficiency in industrial organization many principles were developed by Taylor. Explain them.
Answer:
To increase the production efficiency in industrial organization following principle are adopted by Taylor :

Principle of modern machines and equipment: Modem machines and equipments yield good quality of goods. Cost incurred is also reduced, therefore under production management, best of modem machines and equipments should be used.

Principle of standardization : Taylor says that, “For production, standard material, standard method, proper procedure and good workers qualifying the standard requirements should be made available, such that good quality of goods can be produced at lesser cost.”

Principle of ideal cost accounting system : For controlling the wastage in expenditure and misuse of materials suitable system of cost accounting should be adopted. Capable and experienced cost accounts should so appointed in the organization.

Question 6.
What are the dissimilarities in study of Taylor and Fayol ?
Answer:
Dissimilarity of Opinions : Taylor and Fayol

1. Taylor’s centre of study was labour whereas Fayol’s centre of study was manager.
2. Taylor’s principles were Principles of Scientific Management whereas Fayol’s Principles were known as Principles of Administration.
3. Taylor’s experiment point was factory whereas Fayol’s experiment point was top administration.
4. Taylor justified functional organization (Eight Boss Scheme) for an enterprise whereas Fayol justified unity of command (One-man order).
5. Taylor’s study and contribution was lower level, labour to manager whereas Fayol’s_ study and contribution was manager from the beginning and he used the words order, direction, authority, etc.
6. Taylor is called as Factory Expert whereas Fayol is known as Management Expert.
7. Taylor’s principles are not applied in practice whereas Fayol’s principles have been applied in so many enterprises.

Question 7.
Mention the objectives of scientific management.
Answer:
Following are the main objectives of scientific management: .

1. Increase in the rate of production by use of standardized tools, equipments and methods
2. Increase in quality of goods by research, quality control and inspection devices
3. Reduction in the cost of production by rational planning and regulation and using cost control techniques.

Question 8.
“Principles of management are concentrated on human behaviour”. Explain.
Answer:
Management is totally related with human behaviour. The success of principles of management is affected by human behaviour. Management is related with persons. Management gives proper directions to human behaviour. Management is also done by human being and the consumer for whom the organization, is prepared is also human being. So it is said that principles of “Management are concentrated on human behaviour”.

Question 9.
The work of Taylor and Fayol are complementary.’ Explain
Answer:
F. W. Taylor is regarded as “father of scientific management and Henry Payol is regarded as “father of modern principles of industrial management”. Both were contemporaries and both were top class engineers. Both emphasized working in a technical and scientific way. Both have contributed a lot in the field of management. These existed a difference in thinking and working method of both. Economics for instance, Taylor focussed on improving efficiency of labourers while Fayol focussed on management work. The both realised that in every stage. Employees and their management will be the basis of success of an industrial Concern. To solve such problem both suggested scientific solutions and their implementation.

Despit of dissimilarities between the principles propounded by both learned economists. We can say that their work is complementary to each other.

Question 10.
Write the importance of principles of management is three points.
Or
Explain the importance of principle of management.
Answer:
Significance of Importance of Principles of Management: The principles of management are very useful as they provide useful guidelines to managerial behaviour and influence managerial practices. Actually, principles guide Them in taking and implementing decisions. Their importance can be understood by the discussion of the following points :

1. They provide useful In-sights : The principles provide the managers with useful insights into real world situations. Following these principles they increase their knowledge, ability and understanding and can face adverse situations effectively. Thus, the principles increase managerial efficiency.

2. They help in utilization to Resources of the optimum : As we know resources both human and material are limited. They have to be put to optimum use. They should be uses in such a way that they give maximum benefit with minimum cost. Principles equip the managers foresee the.cause and effect relationships of their decisions and actions. Thus, the wastage associated with a trial-and-error approach can be overcome.

3. Highlight the True Nature of Management: Lack of understanding of management principles makes it difficult to define clearly the nature and scope of the managerial job. Principles are necessary if the true nature of management is to be clearly understood. Principles act as a checklist of the meaning and contents of management. They highlight the role of managers in concrete terms and serve as a criteria to judge the appropriateness of managerial decisions and actions.

4. Based on Objective Assessment: Management principles help in thoughtful decision making. They emphasis logic rather than blind faith. Management decisions taken on the basis of principles are free from bias and prejudice. They are based on the objective assessment of the situation

5. To Guide Research : Principles of management indicate the lines along, which research should be carried out to develop new guidelines and to ascertain the validity of existing guidelines. Thus, management principles serve as focal points for useful research in management.

6. To attain Social Goals: Manager coordinate the efforts of people so that individual objectives get translated into social attainments. The standard of living of people depends upon the quality of management. If management is efficient, the resources of society are better utilized and quality of life is improved. Development of management principle by increasing, efficiency, in the use of resources, would definitely have a revolutionary impact on the cultural level of society and on human progress.

Question 11.
Distinguish between managerial principles and managerial techniques.
Answer:
Differences between Managerial principles and Managerial techniques

Managerial principles:

1. Managerial principle is flexible.
2. Managerial principles are directions for managerial work.

Managerial techniques:

1. Managerial techniques are less flexible
2. These are managerial techniques which are made fulfil the targets.

Question 12.
How are principles of management arises ?
Answer:
Principles of management arises due to following reasons :

1. Deep observation: In every business in front of management some problems arises. During this time managers observe working of employees. They see their reactions. On the basis of these observations principles are made.

2. Experiments done again and again : In this method experiments are done on various employees frequently. On the basis of results the principles are made.

Question 13.
Explain the principle of “Esprit De Corps”
Answer:
By ‘Esprit De Corps’ we mean “Power of Organization”. According to this principle each employee should consider himself/herself as the member of teach. He/she should try to achieve the target of team. Management should try to create feeling of cooperation among the workers. By following this target group target is achieved.

Question 14.
While fixing the proper wages which points are to be kept in mind ?
Answer:
While fixing the proper wages these points are kept in mind :

1. Financial situation of institution or organization.
2. Minimum wages act of government.
3. Payment of bonus and wages done by competent.

Question 15.
How principles of management make administration more effective ? Explain with example.
Answer:
Principles of management discourages partiality and prejudice. It makes administration more effective. These principles encourages the scientific principles.

For example “Principle of unity of command” and “Principle of unity of direction” lead the orderly working of the organization. Principle of direction do assimilation of effort made by workers in a specific direction. Principle of scalar chain do the flow of information in a proper way.

Question 16.
Recognize those techniques of scientific management which are analysed by the following statements :

1. When any expert supervises each labour.
2. To know the best solution of doing any work.
3. Different wages paid to labours.
4. When equality is brought in material, machines tools and working methods and conditions after proper experimentation.
5. To fix the standard time for completing the fixed work.
6. Employee is for the enterprise and enterprise is for the employee.

Answer:

1. Creative foremanship
2. Method study
3. Differential wages
4. Stan-dardization of work
5. Time study
6. Mental revolution.

Question 17.
Distinguish between principle of unity of command and functional foremanship.
Answer:
The differences between principle of unity of command and functional foremanship:
Principle of unity of command

1. This principle requires that the employees should receive orders from one superior only for any action or activity.
2. In it planning and performing work is same.
3. It means workers in a department are required to be accountable to one superior for orders.

Functional foremanship

1. Under it each worker has to takeorder for performance of any work from foreman.
2. Under it planning and performance of work is different, (excutation of function)
3. This concept was extended to the lower level.

Question 18.
Distinguish between principles of management and principles of pure science
Answer:
Principles of management:

1. Principles of management are of more flexible nature.
2. These changes in business environment according to change.
3. These principles are implemented with creativity.

Principles of puree science:

1. These principles are more strong.
2. These principles do not change according to time.
3. These are implemented with fixed or proposed way.

Question 19.
When a salesman gets order from two high authority then what bad effects may take place ?
Answer:
When a salesman gets order from two different authorities then following bad effects may be found:

1. Suspicion may take place in mind of salesman.
2. He tries to avoid the work.
3. There may be difference of opinion regarding the orders by two persons.
4. It may be difficult to maintain discipline.

Question 20.
It is seen that in organization present position is due to the non-violation of principles of management. What is this present position ?
Answer:
Due to violation of principles of management following positions may be in the organization:

1. Necessary material may not be made available at die time of requirement of it. In search of material much time will be wasted.
2. Conditions may increases.
3. Possibility of accidents may increase.

Question 21.
Write the names of those officers who work under foremanship the following works:

1. To examine the quality of produced goods. To check the standard of goods and if the goods are of not standardize, then finding the reason of it.
2. To cheek if all the labours are working their own work according to fixed rate.
3. To ensure what will be the order of any work in completing the specific work.
4. To keep the machines and tools in working conditions.
5. To give direction to workers to do work by a specific method.
6. To ensure that each work is done in proper way.

Answer:

1. Inspector
2. Speed Boss
3. Rote clerk
4. Repairs Boss
5. Card clerk
6. Displinarian.

Principles of Management Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain some merits of scientific management.
Answer:
some merits of scientific management are as follows :

1. Division of work : It stress on specialization and division of work. It helps the producer in completing of work effectively.
2. Industrial peace: The conflicts among labours are solved scientifically under scientific management. There is no place for conflicts which helps in main taining industrial peace.
3. Maximum work: It helps in getting the maximum work done from laboures. This helps in increase in profit as well.
4. Reduction in cost of production : If reduce the cost of production, it can achieve .success. ‘
5. Increase in Income: It increases the efficiency of worker which increase the income of labours.
6. Stability in employment: Efficient and able worker provide their service regularly it will increasestability in employment.

Question .2
What do you understand by scientific management ? Write its characteristics.
Answer:
Meaning of Scientific Management: Scientific management is made of two words science and management. Science is the application of logic, reasoning and it gives a new dimension to our study approach to different problems of life. When we apply scientific approach towards management concepts this is called as scientific management.
Following are the characteristics of scientific management:

1. The objectives of every job in scientific management is fixed and predetermined,
2. There is a fixed plan to attain objectives
3. Mutual cooperation among employees is essential in scientific management
4. Scientific management works on the objective of maximum production at minimum cast
5. Motivation is considered necessary for the completion of work
6. Scientific control system is implemented under scientific management
7. Time to time evaluation of standards is performed
8. Increase in efficiency of employees helps in increase in the income of employees
9. Researches and experiments plays an important role in the field of scientific management
10. Specialisation and division of work is also given importance
11. Much stress is given on right person for the right job
12. Responsibilities are assigned or fixed for every level of work.

Question 3.
Discuss the elements of scientific management. (Imp)
Answer:
In order to implement the principles of scientific management, Taylor and his associates developed the following techniques :

1. Time Study : In refers to the technique used to measure the time that may be taken by a worker of reasonable skill and efficiency to perform various elements of a job. The aim of time study is to fix ‘Time standards’ for each operation.

2. Motion Study : It refers to have close observation of the movements of a worker’s body involved in performing a job. The purpose of motion study is to avoid wasteful motions in working.

3. Fatigue Study ; Fatigue study seeks to find out how long a person can perform the standard task without any adverse effect on this health and efficiency. It helps to determine the mount and frequency of rest intervals in completing a job.

4. Method Study : The aim of this study is to maximize efficiency in the use of materials, machinery, manpower, and capital by improving work methods.

5. Scientific Task Setting : Scientific planning of a task is the technique of forecast¬ing and viewing ahead every step in a long series of separate operations. Each step has to be taken in the right place, of the right degree, and at the right time, so that work can be done with maximum possible efficiency. Scientific task is the amount of work which an average worker working under proper working conditions can perform during a working day.

6. Standardization : Standardization is the process of fixing well thought-out and tasted norms with a view to maximise efficiency of work standardization eliminates needles variety and thereby simplifies the process of production.

7. Scientific Selection and Training : Under scientific management right men are selected for right jobs. Employees are selected according to predetermined standard in an impartial way. Workers are specifically trained for the jobs, so that they can perform their jobs effectively and efficiently.

8. Mental Revolution : It requires that there should be perfect cooperation,coordination and adjustment between the efforts of labour and management.

Question 4.
describe the principles formulated by Taylor.
Answer:
‘The principles formulated by Taylor are in fact the principles of scientific management. Sir Taylor has formulated the principles of management after studying the scientific management minutely and deeply. Taylor has presented the principles of management in L scientific way. So, it is called as principles of scientific management. The following principles have been formulated by Taylor.

1. Principle of task idea : This pertains to the norms of productivity of individual worker. It is a technique of forecasting and viewing ahead every step in a long series of separate operations. The standard task is the amount of work which an average worker does in congenial atmosphere during a working day. Taylor called it a fair day’s work. A worker usually works much below his capacity if no standard is set for him.

2. Principles of experiment: Taylor suggested that the following studies be conducted by an organization so that it has an insight in knowing the method of doing a job, movement of a machine, time required for its completion and the fatigue that is associated with performing the job.

(i) Time study : It is done to observe and study the minimum time required to perform any task. Through time study, the precise time required for man’s work is determined. It will help in fixing the standard time required to do a particular job.

(ii) Motion study : It is the study of a machine operator and his movements for performing the job. The purpose is to eliminate useless motion and thereby establish a standard for performance. This study is undertook in order to develop a less time consuming system for accomplishing the work.

(iii) Fatigue study : Excessive specialization of work and poor working conditions may cause monotony resulting in both the physical and mental fatigue among the industrial workers. Fatigue either a physical or mental always has an adverse effect on worker’s health and his efficiency. The idea of this study is to see that workers maintain their operational efficiency without any injury to their health and happiness.

3. Principles of scientific selection and training : Scientific management requires a radical change in the methods and procedures of selecting workers for the plan. Hence, it is essential to entrust the task of selection to a central personnel department. After having selected the workers, every job must be entrusted to the’best worker in the factory. This depends upon the workers aptitude, skill and intelligence.

Under scientific management, the management has to undertake the training of workmen before allotting them certain tasks. Training should be imparted from time to time to improve the efficiency of labour.

4. Principles of justified division of work : According to the principle of division of work, work should be allotted to the right worker according to his choice and efficiency. This is called as right job to the right person.

5. Principles of incentive wage system : Taylor assumes that in addition to good wages, proper incentive should be given to the employees for getting proper attention towards the work. Taylor introduced ‘Differential Wage System’ in this regard. This implies that a worker who works as per the standards set should be paid more, in comparison to the inefficient worker, who does not work as per the standards set. In simple words, a worker who works more should receive more wages than the person who doesn’t.

Question 5.
Explain the principles of Fayol.
Answer:
Principles of administration or Management of Fayol: Fayol has mentioned 14 principles in his book, ‘General and Industrial Management’. As he has accepted administration and management as being synonyms, we can say it as principles of management.

These principles are as follows :

1. Principle of division of work : The object of division of work is to derive benefits from specialization. The various functions of management like planning, organization, coordination, control, etc., cannot be performed by a single proprietor or by a group of directors and they have to be entrusted to specialists in the related fields.

2. Principle of authority and responsibility: As management consists of getting the work done through others, it implies that the manager should have the right to give orders and the power to exact obedience. Thus, the manager gives order to his subordinates to perform the job as per his direction. A manager may exercise official authority and also personal authority. An individual to whom authority is given to exercise power must also be prepared to bear responsibility to perform the work.

3. Principle of discipline : Discipline is absolutely essential for the smooth running of the business. By discipline, we mean the obedience to authority, observance of the rules of service and norms of performance, respect for agreements, sincere efforts for completing the given job, respect to the superiors, etc.

Question 6.
Explain the nature of principles of management.
Or
Describe any six characteristics which clarify the nature of the principle of management.
Answer:
Nature/Characteristics of management principles: Management includes the qualities of both science and art that’s why management is called as a science or an art. The principles of management are not rigid and fixed like the principles of physics and chemistry. The main characteristics which highlight the nature of management principles are as follows:

(1) Universality of principles: Management principles can be applied to all manage
rial situations irrespective of the size (Small or large) and nature (Business government or social organization). That’s why Henri Fayol stressed on universality of management principles. Every organization or persons tries to achieve objectives through group efforts. Management principles can be implemented by the managers or directors in any level of management.

(2) Dynamic nature of principles : Management principles are dynamic in nature and flexible. These principles are not rigid and fixed like the principles of mathematics, physics and chemistry. Management principle changes due to cause and effect relationship. Management principles which were earlier important now have changed due to social changes. Management principles are dynamic in nature because these principles are directly related with human beings.

(3) Concentrated on human behavior: Management is totally related with human behavior. Management is related with persons. The success of management principles is affected by human behavior. Principles of management are directed towards enhancing human behavior so that the persons in organization give their best performance.

(4) Relative principles : Management principles are relative not absolute. These principles are implemented according to the needs of organization. It is not compulsory to apply these principles. Every organization, enterprise or society is having different type of nature. Thus due to different circumstances, assumptions, needs etc. accordingly the principles are applied in enterprises and organizations.

(5) Equal importance : All the principles of management are having equal importance. This is true that some principles are important for one organization while other principles may be important for other organization. But these principles are having some importance in all the organization.

(6) Cause and effect relationship : Management principles are always affected by cause and effect (result). Management principles establishes relationship between cause and result. These principles indicates the effect of an important decision on the activities of enterprise.

Question 7.
Write the characterstics of scientific management.
Answer:
Meaning of Scientific Management: Scientific management is made of two words science and management. Science is the application of logic, reasoning and it gives a new dimension to our study approach to different problems of life. When we apply scientific approach towards management concepts this is called as scientific management.

Following are the characteristics of scientific management:

1. The objectives of every job in scientific management is fixed and predetermined,
2. There is a fixed plan to attain objectives
3. Mutal cooperation among employees is essential in scientific management
4. Scientific management works on the objective of maximum production at minimum cast
5. Motivation is considered necessary for the completion of work
6. Scientific control system is implemented under scientific management
7. Time to time evaluation of standards is performed
8. Increase in efficiency of employees helps in increase in the income of employees
9. Researches and experiments plays an important role in the field of scientific management
10. Specialisation and division of work is also given importance
11. Much stress is given on right person for the right job
12. Responsibilities are assigned or fixed for every level of work.

MP Board Class 12 Business Studies Important Questions

MP Board Class 12th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 1 Accounting for Non-profit Organization

Accounting for Non – profit Organization Important Questions

Accounting for Non – profit Organization Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Advance Subscription received during a year is a:
(a) Income
(b) Expenses
(c) Liabilities
(d) Assets.
Answer:
(c) Liabilities

Question 2.
Receipts and payment account is prepared by:
(a) Firms
(b) Sole Trader
(c) Company
(d) Non-trading Concern.
Answer:
(d) Non-trading Concern.

Question 3.
Loss on sale of machine will be recorded in:
(a) Receipts & Payment A/c
(b) Income & Expenditure A/c
(c) Balance Sheet
(d) None of these. A/c
Answer:
(b) Income & Expenditure A/c

Question 4.
Entrance fee if no specific instruction is given will be treated as:
(a) Capital item
(b) Revenue item
(c) Assets
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Revenue item

Question 5.
The system of accounting used by non-trading concern and professional person:
(a) Single Entry System
(b) Double Entry System
(c) Mixed Accounting System
(d) Cash System.
Answer:
(d) Cash System.

Question 6.
Balance Sheet is a:
(a) Statement
(b) Account
(c) Account & Statement
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Statement

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. Opening Balance Sheet is prepared when opening balance of is not given…………….
2. The first (debit) side of Income & Expenditure Account shows ………………
3. Non-trading concern maintain their of account by ……………
4. Receipts and payment account is a summary of ……………
5. The aim of ……………… is not to earn profit

Answer:

1. Capital fund
2. Expenditure
3. Cash System
4. Cash book
5. Non-trading Concern

Question 3.
Match the columns:

Answer:

1. (d) Opening Capital
2. (a) Non-trading Concern
3. (e) School
4. (f) Real Account.
5. (b) Nominal Accounts
6. (c) Receipts & Payment A/c

Question 4.
Write true or false:

1. Receipts and payment account is like profit and loss account.
2. Among the various fund provided by government, scholarship given to the students will be debited in Income Expenditure Account.
3. If Sport Fund is shown then all the expenses related to sports will be shown in debit side of Income and Expenditure Account.
4. Receipts and Payment Account does not show the difference between capital and receipts.
5. The Receipt and payment account is a summary of all capital receipts and payment.
6. Donation for specific purpose will be always capitalized.
7. Receipts and payment account only record the revenue matured receipts and payment.

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. False
4. True
5. False
6. True
7. False.

Question 5.
Write the answer in one word/sentence:

1. Income & Expenditure account is prepared on the basis of which account ?
2. Which type of institution prepare Income Expenditure account ?
3. Persons who earn income utilizing their intelligence and skills are called as ?
4. Non-trading concern keep their accounts by which system ?
5. Account which is the summary of cash book is known as ?

Answer:

1. Receipts & Payment A/c
2. Non-trading Concern
3. Professional person
4. Cash system
5. Receipts & Payment A/c

Accounting for Non – profit Organization Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write one important difference between receipts and payment account and Income and Expenditure account
Answer:
Receipts and payment account is a real account while Income and Expenditure account is a nominal account.

Question 2.
Write any one basis of difference between trading concern and non-trading concern.
Answer:
Aim of non-trading concern is to serve the society while the aim of trading concern is to maximize profit.

Question 3.
What do you mean by non-trading concerns ?
Answer:
Non-trading concerns are those concerns, whose aim is not to do business and earn profit but to serve the public. It includes hospitals, clubs, schools and colleges, etc.

Question 4.
Write the names of incomes and expenses of a non-trading concern.
Answer:
The following are the incomes and expenses of a non-trading concerns : Income : Annual membership fee, charity, interest, rent from sublet, income from the sale of waste materials, etc.
Expenses : Stationery, wages, charity, postal charges, electricity charges, subscription to newspapers, etc.

Question 5.
What do you mean by receipt and payment account ?
Answer:
Receipt and payment account is the summary of cash book in which all receipts are debited and all the payments are credited. In receipt and payment opening balance and closing balance of cash is also shown.

Question 6.
Why non-cash transactions are not entered in receipts and payment ac¬count ?
Answer:
Non cash transactions are not entered in receipts and payment account because it is prepared on the basis of cash book of accounting.

Question 7.
What do you mean by income and expenditure account and by whom it is prepared ?
Answer:
Income and expenditure account is a type of profit and loss account, which is prepared at the end of the accounting year with the help of receipts and payments by the non-trading concerns. Income and expenditure account is prepared by non-trading institutions and professional persons to know their annual income and expenditure.

Question 8.
What is the nature of income and expenditure account ?
Answer:
Income and expenditure is a nominal account.

Question 9.
Which account is prepared by non-trading concern is place of profit and loss account ?
Answer:
Income and expenditure account is prepared in place of profit and loss account.

Question 10.
What is surplus in income and expenditure account ?
Answer:
Excess of income over expenditure refers to surplus in an income and expenditure account.

Question 11.
What is the basis of preparing income and expenditure account ?
Answer:
Income and expenditure account is prepared on accrual basis.

Question 12.
A school collected Rs. 50,000 as donation for the construction of buildings. In which side of school’s balance sheet will it be showed ?
Answer:
In the liabilities side of balance sheet.

Question 13.
Following balance appeared in the books of Modern club in the beginning of the year :

• Fixed assets Rs. 50,000,
• Bank overdraft Rs. 5,000,
• Subscribed received in advance  Rs. 2,000.
• Prepared rent Rs. 1,000.

Find the opening capital.

Answer:
Capital fund = Rs. 50,000 + Rs. 1,000 – Rs. 5,000 – Rs. 2,000
= Rs. 51,000 – Rs. 7,000 = Rs. 44,000.

Accounting for Non – profit Organization Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is life time membership fees ?
Answer:
In non-trading organization some person becomes the life time member of the firm. The fee taken from such kind of persons is called as life time membership fee. This fees is not for a particular year but for the whole period. So it is treated as capital receipts and added to capital fund. It is also shown separately in the liabilities side.

Question 2.
What do you mean by endowment fund ?
Answer:
The cash or assets received by the members of the concern from the third person is called ‘endowment fund’. It is of capital nature, hence is written in receipt and payment account and is Shown in liability side of balance sheet.

Question 3.
state the meaning of ‘Not – for – Profit’ Organizations.
Answer:
Not – for – Profit Organizations (NPO) are set up with the prime objective of providing services and not to earn profit thereby enhancing the welfare of society. Such organizations include schools, hospitals, trade unions, religious organizations, etc. The person/s or the groups of individuals who govern and manage the working of an NPO are known as trustees.

NPO’s main sources of income are donations, subscriptions, life membership fees, grants etc. As these organizations are not set up with profit motive, they do not prepare Trading and Profit and Loss Account. Instead, they maintain Receipt and Payments Ac-count, Income and Expenditure Account and Balance Sheet.

Question 4.
State the meaning of Receipt and Payment Account.
Answer:
Receipts and Payments Account is a summary of the Cash Book. All cash receipts are recorded on the Receipts side (i’. e., Debit side) and all cash payments are recorded on the Payments side (i.e., Credit side) of Receipts and Payments Account. It is prepared on the basis of cash and bank transactions recorded in the Cash Book. It begins with the opening balance of cash and bank and ends with the closing balances of cash and bank (balancing figure) at the end of the accounting period.

It records all cash and bank transactions both of capital and revenue nature. It not only records the cash and bank transactions relating to the current accounting period, but also the cash and bank receipts (or payments) received during the current accounting period that may be related to the previous or next accounting period. This account only helps us to ascertain the closing balance of the cash and bank and helps in assessing the cash position of an NPO.

Question 5.
State the meaning of Income and Expenditure Account.
Answer:
Income and Expenditure Account (I&E) is similar to the Profit and Loss Account in the sense that while the former is prepared to ascertain surplus or deficit during an accounting period, the latter is prepared to ascertain net profit or net loss incurred during an accounting period. I&E Account is a nominal account and is prepared on the accrual basis. It records all transactions of revenue nature that are related to the current accounting period (whether outstanding or prepaid) for which the books are maintained.

All expenses and losses are recorded on the debit side (Expenditure side) and all income and gains are recorded on the credit side (Income side) of I&E Account. The closing balance or the balancing figure of I&E Account is termed as surplus (or deficit), if the sum total of the Income side exceeds (is lesser than) the sum total of the Expenditure side.

Question 6.
Write the objective of receipts and payment account.
Answer:
Following are the objectives of receipts and payment account:

1. Knowledge of cash: This account is summary of cash book on the basis of which the closing cash balance for a certain period can be known.
2. Knowledge of cash receipts: By the help of this account the cash receipts of the organization at the beginning, mid of the year and at the end of the year can be easily found out.
3. Knowledge of cash payments: Receipts and payment account shows all the cash payments made by the organization at the end of the year.
4. 4. Basis of income and expenditure a/c:  With the help of receipts and payment account, income and expenditure account is prepared.

What is subscription? How is it calculated?
Answer:
subscription is the main source of income for an NPO besides entrance fees, donations, grants, etc. Subscriptions refer to the amount of money paid by the members on periodic basis for keeping their membership with the organization alive. It is paid monthly, quarterly, half yearly or annually by the members.

It is shown in the debit side of the Receipt and Payment Account with the total amount received during the year that may be related to the current period and to the previous and next accounting period. While calculating subscription for the current period, advance subscription received for the current period in the previous period and outstanding subscription for the current period are added to the subscription received during the current period.

Whereas, on the other hand, advance subscription received for the next accounting period during the current period and outstanding subscription for the preceding period are deducted from the subscription received during the current period.

Calculation of Subscription:
Subscription received during the year
Add: Subscription received (in advance) during previous year for current year
Add: Subscription outstanding at the end of the year
Less: Subscription received in advance for the next year
Less: Subscription outstanding for the previous year
## Subscription shown in Income and Expenditure Account

This subscription is related to the current accounting period and is shown in the In-come side of the Income and Expenditure Account.

Question 8.
What is Capital Fund? How is it calculated?
Answer:
Capital fund is the excess of NPOs’ assets over its liabilities. In other words, the excess of assets over the liabilities for a profit earning organization is termed as capital and the same for an NPO is termed as capital fund. Any surplus or deficit ascertained from Income and Expenditure account is added to (deducted from) the capital fund. It is also termed as Accumulated Fund.

Calculation of Capital Fund
Capital Fund at the beginning of the year
Add: Surplus from Income and Expenditure Account
Add: Subscription Amount (Capitalized amount)
Add: Life membership fee.
Less : Deficit from Income and Expenditure Account
Capital Fund at the end of the year

Question 9.
Explain the statement: “Receipt and Payment Account is a summarized version of Cash Book”.
Answer:
Receipts and Payments Account is a summary of the Cash Book. This account is prepared by those organizations which maintain their books on cash basis. All cash receipts are recorded on the Receipts side (i.e., Debit side) and all cash payments are recorded on the Payments side (i.e., Credit side) of Receipts and Payments Account. It is prepared on the basis of cash and bank transactions recorded in the Cash Book.

It begins with the opening balance of cash and bank and ends with the closing balances of cash and bank (balancing figure) at the end of the accounting period. It records all the cash and bank transactions both of capital and revenue nature. It not only records the cash and bank transformations relating to the current accounting period, but also cash and bank receipts (or payments) received during the current accounting period that may be related to the previous or next accounting period.

This account only helps us to ascertain the closing balance of the cash and bank and helps in assessing the cash position of an NPO. It also forms the basis for the preparation of Income and Expenditure Account.

Question 10.
What steps are taken to prepare Income and Expenditure Account from a Receipt and Payment Account ?
Answer:
The following steps are taken to prepare Income and Expenditure Account (I&E) from Receipts and Payment Account (R&P).

Step 1:
All the revenue expenditures paid for the current accounting period are transferred from the Payments side of R&P to the Expenditure side of I&E.

Step 2:
All the revenue receipts for the current accounting period are transferred from the Receipts side of R&P to the Income side of I&E.

Step 3:
Expenses outstanding for the current period and expenses paid in advance (prepaid expenses) for the current period in the preceding accounting periods are to be added (adjusted) to their related expenses in the Step 1.

Step 4:
Income outstanding (accrued income) for the current period and income re-ceived in advance for the current period in the preceding accounting periods are to be added (adjusted) to their related incomes in Step 2.

Step 5:
Non-cash items like depreciation, appreciation for the current accounting period are to be adjusted in the I&E.

Step 6:
After adjusting all the revenue items for the current accounting period, the Income and the Expenditure sides are totaled. If the sum total of the Income side exceeds (or is lesser than) the sum total of the Expenditure side, then the balancing figure is termed as surplus (or deficit).

Accounting for Non – profit Organization Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Differentiate the receipts and payments account and cash account, (any 2)
Answer:
Difference between receipts and payments account and cash account:
Receipts and Payments A/c:

1. It is maintained by non-trading concerns.
2. It is a summary of cash account.
3. Income and expenditure account is prepared from it.
4. Date is written at the top along with the heading.

Cash A/c:

1.  It is prepared by both the trading and non-trading concerns.
2. It is main account and write daily.
3. Receipts and payments account is prepared from it.
4. Date is written along with each transact-ion.

Question 2.
“Income and Expenditure Account of a Not – for – Profit Organisation is akin to Profit and Loss Account of a business concern”. Explain the statement.
Answer:
Income and Expenditure Account (I&E) is similar to Profit and Loss Account (P&L), in the sense that the former is prepared by Not-for-profit-Organisations and the latter is prepared by profit earning organisations. Both the accounts are prepared on the accrual basis.

Similar to the P&L, all the expenses and losses pertaining to the current accounting period are recorded on the debit side (Expenditure side) and all the gains and income of the current accounting period are recorded on the credit side (Income side) of the I&E.

The balancing figure of the I&E is surplus or deficit and that of the P&L is net profit or net loss. Both the accounts record only revenue items which are related to the current accounting period. Similarities between Income and Expenditure Account and Profit and Loss Account I&E Account of an NPO is akin to the Profit and Loss Account of a profit earning business in the following manners.

1. Nature of Account: Both the concerned accounts are nominal in nature.

2. Basis of Recording: Both the accounts record only revenue expenses and revenue income related to the current accounting period. The items of capital nature are not ignored while preparing these accounts.

3. Period: Transactions related to current year are recorded in Income and Expenditure account in the same manner in which profit and loss account is prepared. Transactions related to previous year or next year are excluded.

4. Adjustments: The treatment of adjustments like, outstanding expenses, prepaid expenses, income received in advance, income due but not received, depreciation, bad debts etc. is same as that in Profit and Loss Account. Thus, both the accounts are prepared on the accrual basis.

Question 3.
Why does non-trading concerns maintain their accounts on the basis of cash system ? Given any five reasons.
Answer:
Due of the following reasons, non-trading concerns are maintaining these books of accounts according to the cash system of book-keeping.

1. Easy method: Cash system is in easy method. It is a part of cash-book and its is maintained as a cash-book is prepared.
2. Less expensive system: Under this method, no need for keeping more accounts. Even untrained and un experienced persons can do this work.
3. Limited transactions: In non-trading concerns, the number of receipts and payments are limited.
4. Cash transaction: Only cash receipts and payments are entered here as in the cash-book. If there is more credit transactions it will be entered in memorandum book.
5. Checking of correctness: Correctness can be checked by comparing with cash-book.

Question 4.
What points should be kept in mind while preparing the receipts and payments account ?
Answer:
The following points should be kept in mind while preparing receipts and payments account:

1. In this account, enter first of all the opening cash balance. This balance might be closing balance of the previous year.
2. Only cash transaction, i.e., cash receipts and payments are entered and no credit transaction.
3. All types of capital and revenue nature transactions are entered here.
4. All types of receipts and payments whether they relate to previous, current or coming year should be entered.
5. No adjustment relating to outstanding, prepaid, as earned and accrued are done here.

Question 5.
Differentiate the receipts and payments account and income and expenditure account ? (any 4 points)
Answer:
Differences between receipts and payments and income and expenditure

Question 6.
Describe in brief the sources of income of non-trading concern.
Answer:
The various sources of income of non trading concern are :

(a) Subscription:
Subscription is the main source of income for the non-trading concern. It is the amount paid by the members of the organization monthly or yearly for keeping their membership with the organization alive.

(b) Donation:
Donation refers to the amount received by the organization as gift from the members or outsiders. If the amount of donation is merge, it will be treated as revenue income. But if the amount is huge and for specific purpose, then it is treated as capital receipt.

(c) Entry fee:
Amount paid by new member at the time of joining an organization is known as entry fee. It is paid by every member once at the time of becoming a member of the organization.

(d) Interest:
For increasing its sources of income, these non-trading organization invest money outside. The interest earned on this investment is also a source of income.

(e) Income from entertainment:
These organization organize various types of cultural programmes and collected income from the common people.

(I) Rent received:
By giving the building or some other portion in rent, the rent received is also a source of income for them.

Question 7.
What are the process of preparing income and expenditure account from receipts and payments account ?
Answer:
The following is the process of preparing income and expenditure account from receipts and payment account:

(a) Opening cash and bank balance:
It is not entered in income and expenditure account. It is shown in assets side of opening balance sheets.

(b) Closing cash and bank balance:
It is not recorded in income and expenditure account. It is shown in assets side of closing balance sheet.

(c) Capital receipts:
Capital receipts are not entered in income and expenditure account. It is shown in liabilities side of closing balance sheet. Example of capital receipts are donation fund, sports fund, prize fund etc.

(d) Reserve and fund:
Reserve and funds are not recorded in income and expenditure account. It is shown in liabilities side of balance sheet and the concerned expenses are deducted from it.

(e) Sale of fixed assets:
Sale of fixed assets is not shown in income and expenditure account. It is entered in assets side of balance sheet by deducting if from concerned assets.

(f) Capital payments:
Capital payments are not entered in income and expenditure account. It is shown in assets side of closing balance sheet. Example of capital payments are purchase of assets, investment fixed deposits etc.

Question 8.
How is capital fund ascertained in non-trading organization ?
Or
How is initial capital ascertained in non-trading organizations ? Explain.
Answer:
For calculating initial capital, an opening balance sheet is prepared with the help of last year’s assets and liabilities. The total of liabilities side is deducted from the total of assets side and the difference thus gained is called initial capital.
Capital = Total assets – Total liabilities on opening date.

MP Board Class 12 Accountancy Important Questions

MP Board Class 11th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 9 Trial Balance

Trial Balance Important Questions

Trial Balance Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
What kind of accuracy is tested by Trial balance –
(a) Theoritical
(b) Practical
(c) Arithmetical
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Arithmetical

Question 2.
How many methods are there for preparing Trial Balance –
(a) One
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Four

Question 3.
Which of the following is prepared on the basis of Trial Balance –
(a) Journal
(b) Ledger
(c) Final Accounts
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Final Accounts

Question 4.
Of the two sides of Trial balance does not tally, which Account is opened –
(a) Suspense Account
(b) Personal Account
(c) Real Account
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Suspense Account

Question 5.
The error which can be disclosed by Trial balance –
(a) Error of ommission
(b) Error of principal
(c) Compensatory error
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(d) None of these.

Question 2.
Fill in the Blanks:

1. Trial balance is merely a …………… not an Account.
2. …………….. are prepared on the basis of Trial balance.
3. Trial balance is a test of …………….. Accuracy.
4. Generally …………… does not form a part of Trial balance.
5. ……………. stock is not included in Trial balance.

Answer:

1. Statement
2. Final Accounts
3. Arithmetical
4. Closing stock
5. Closing stock.

Question 3.
Answer in one word/sentence:

1. “A Trial balance is a statement of debit and Credit Balances Extracted from the ledger with a view to test the arithmetical accuracy of the books.” Who said this?
2. Mention any account which can show Debit or Credit Balance.
3. Debtor’s Accounts always show which balance?
4. What Balance is shown by Drawing Account?
5. How many methods are there for preparing trial balance?
6. Is trial balance Ultimately proof of accuracy of accounts?
7. What is the nature of suspense A/c ?

Answer:

1. J.R. Batliboi
2. Rent
3. Debit
4. Debit
5. Four methods
6. No
7. Fluctuating.

Question 4.
State True or False:

1. Closing stock appears outside the trial balance.
2. A trial balance is not a conclusive proof of accounting accuracy.
3. Trial balance is a test of only Arithmetical accuary.
4. Trial balance helps to check the principles of Double Entry System.
5. Trial balance is a part of ledger.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. True
4. True
5. False.

Question 5.
Match the following:

Answer:

1. (d)
2. (c)
3. (e)
4. (f)
5. (b)
6. (a).

Trial Balance Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define trial balance. Discuss its objects.
Answer:
A trial balance may be defined as “A trial “balance is not an account. It is a statement or a test of debit and credit balances of all ledger accounts as on a given date, prepared with the object of proving the arithmetical accuracy of ledger accounts”.

The main objects of preparing a trial balance are:

1. The balance of any ledger account can be easily found from the trial balance without going through the pages of the ledger book.
2. To check the arithmetical accuracy of the books.
3.  It is a base for the preparation of final accounts.

Question 2.
Mention the merits and demerits of balance method of preparing trial balance.
Answer:
Following are the merits and demerits of balance method:

1. Helpful in preparing final accounts – With the help of balances from trial balance in this method, final accounts are prepared.
2. Small size – Some accounts show no balance and hence they are not recorded in trial balance. Hence the size reduces.
3. Less chance of error – Due to small size, the totalling becomes easy and the chances of errors are minimised.

Question 3.
Explain the preparation of trial balance under balancing method.
Answer:
Under this method, each account is totalled and balanced. Then this balance is transferred to the trial balance. If a particular account shows a debit balance, it is transferred to the debit balance column of trial balance and vice versa. At the end, both the columns are totalled in the trial balance. There should not be any difference. If there is some difference, there is some mistake and it must be corrected.

Question 4.
What is suspense account?
Answer:
Even after checking of journal and ledger completely, the errors are not located, then the difference amount is transferred to a temporary account, i.e., suspense account in order to tally the Trial Balance. In future, when errors are detected, suspense account is closed.

Trial Balance Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Is trial balance a conclusive proof of accuracy of accounts? Explain.
Or
Explain the errors which are not disclosed by a trial balance.
Answer:
Generally, it is treated that, when the debit total and credit total agrees, the ledger accounts are prepared correctly. But then also it is not possible to agree with the accuracy of accounts because there are some errors which are not disclosed by a trial balance and the trial balance may agree. They are as follows:

1. Errors of omission:
If an entry is omitted to record in journal, it will not reflected in ledger accounts and trial balance, such type of an error, will not be disclosed by a trial balance. This type of an error is called ‘Errors of omission’ e.g., Sold goods to Mr. Kshitij for 5,000 is not entered in Journal.

2. Errors of principle:
When the transactions are entered against the principles of double entry system, it is said to be Errors of Principle’. For e.g. Machinery purchased for Rs. 5,000 is entered in purchase account. As per the rule of D.E.S. when an asset buys that particular asset is debited. This type of error will not be disclosed by the trial balance.

3. Compensating errors:
These are those errors where one error is compensated with another error, e.g., In wages A/c, it is entered Rs. 100 less and in salary account it entered Rs. 100 more. In this condition, both are errors. But one error is adjusted with another error. This type of error will not affect the agreement of trial balance and it will not be disclosed there.

4. Wrong posting in ledger accounts:
When journal entries are posted wrongly in ledger account, it will affect the agreement of trial balance, e.g., Instead of salary paid Rs. 1,000 entered in wages account with the same amount. This type of error will not disclose by the trial balance.

MP Board Class 11 Accountancy Important Questions

MP Board Class 11th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 8 Bank Reconciliation Statement

Bank Reconciliation Statement Important Questions

Bank Reconciliation Statement Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why is Bank Reconciliation Statement prepared?
Answer:
When it is found that there are some differences between the cash-book balance and passbook balance, these differences should be rectified. For this purpose, a statement is prepared on a particular date, which is known as Bank Reconciliation Statement.

Question 2.
What are the different methods of preparing B.R. statement ?
Answer:
The following are some of the methods of preparing B.R. statement:

1. On the basis of debit balance as per cash – book
2. On the basis of credit balance as per cash – book
3. On the basis of debit balance as per passbook
4. On the basis of credit balance as per passbook.

Question 3.
In a B.R. statement if the debit balance of a cash – book is given, which items to be added?
Answer:
The following items are added to the debit balance of a cash – book, when a B.R. statement is going to prepare:

1. Cheques issued, but not presented for payment.
2. Interest allowed by the bank, only entered in passbook.
3. Dividends etc. collected and credited only in the passbook.
4. A customer directly deposited in the customers account and only entered in pass¬book.
5. Cheques issued and dishonoured but not entered in cash – book.
6. Any wrong entry in credit side of passbook.

Question 4.
Write five reasons why the cash – book balance and the passbook balance differ.
Answer:
Due to the following reasons, the cash-book balance and passbook balance may vary

1. Cheques issued but not presented for payment
2. Cheques deposited in the bank but not credited in the passbook
3. Cheques deposited entered in the cash – book, but forget to sent the bank
4. Interest on deposit allowed by the bank entered in the passbook but not in cash – book
5. Bank charges charged by the bank only entered in the passbook and not in the cash-book.

Question 5.
Explain the advantages of Bank Reconciliation statement.
Or
Explain the benefits of preparation of Bank Reconciliation statement.
Or
Write the utility or importance of Bank Reconciliation statement.
Answer:
The following are the advantages of preparing B.R. statement:

1. Discovery of errors – With the help of its preparation, the errors which might committed either in the cash – book or in the passbook can be discovered.
2. Helps to enter the transactions in the cash – book – The bank provides various agency services to the customers. But sometimes the bank fails to inform him then and there. For this purpose, the statement will become useful.
3. Wrong entry in passbook – By preparing the B.R. statement, the wrong entry made in the passbook can be found out.
4. To find out the correct balance – By preparing the B.R. statement, the correct balance at bank can be ascertained.
5. For audit purpose – For audit purpose, it is necessary to prepare B.R. statement.

Question 6.
Explain the four features of bank reconciliation statement.
Answer:
The different characteristics of B.R. statement are as follows:

1. When there is difference between cash – book balance and passbook balance, B. R. statement is prepared
2. It is prepared on a fixed date
3. It is prepared by the bank’s customer and not the bank
4. It can be make even on a sheet of paper
5. The main aim of this statement is to the reveal the errors and compare it.

Question 7.
What are uncollected cheques? Explain.
Answer:
As soon as the cheques are received by a trader, he sends them to bank for collection. If the amount is not deposited in trader’s account in the bank till a bank reconcilation statement is prepared, such cheques are called uncollected cheques.

Question 8.
How a B.R. statement is prepared on the basis of balance as per cash – book?
Answer:
In the following ways, B. R. statement is prepared on the basis of cash – book balances. They are added to it:

1. Cheques issued but not presented for payment.
2. Interest on deposit etc. entered only in passbook.
3. Wrong entry in the credit side of passbook.
4. Dividend collected by bank only entered in passbook.
5. The customer directly deposited the amount in the customers A/c.

The following items are deducted from the cash-book balance :

1. Cheques, bills, drafts, etc. deposited for collection but not collected till date.
2. Bank charges, commission, expenses, etc. charged by the bank only entered in passbook.
3. Interest on overdraft and charges only in passbook.
4. Bills discounted with the bank but dishonoured.
5. Cheques debited in cash – book but forget to send them to the bank.

Question 9.
How a B.R. statement is prepared by taking passbook balance?
Answer:
The debit balance of passbook means that the businessman (customer) has to give money to the bank or the customer has taken an overdraft from the bank and credit balance of passbook shows the deposit balance of the customers.When a B.R. statement is prepared the following points should be kept in mind. When the passbook shows a credit balance, the following items are added:

1. Cheques deposited in the bank, but not collected there.
2. Expenses paid by bank, commission charged, interest on overdraft, etc. entered only in the passbook and not in the cash-book.
3. A discounted bill, dishonoured which was not entered in the cash-book.

The following items are deducted:

1. Cheques issued but not presented for payment.
2. Interest on deposit only entered in cash – book.
3. Dividend collected by the bank not entered in cash – book.
4. Direct deposit made by a customer not entered in cash – book.
5. When the passbook shows a debit balance, added items will be deducted and deducted items be added.

Bank Reconciliation Statement Long Answer Type Questions 

Question 1.
What is B.R. statement? Explain fully why and how it is prepared?
Answer:
When it is found that there are some difference between the cash – book balance and passbook balance, it should be rectified by means of statement on a particular date. This statement is known as bank reconciliation statement. There are various reasons behind this difference of balances. But it must be necessary to find out and reconcile it. With this aim, the bank reconciliation statement is prepared.

Objects:

1. To find out the real bank balance
2. To know the amount of interest allowed by the bank on deposit
3. To know the amount of interest charged on overdraft By the bank
4. To find out whether there is any error in passbook or in cash – book.

The need of bank reconciliation statement is as follows:

1. By comparing the passbook balance with cash – book balance, it can be easily known about any undue delay in the clearance of cheque.
2. If any errors were committed, it can be found out by comparing the balances in the B. R. statement.
3. By preparing B. R. statement, the trader can find out how many cheques were presented for payment out of his issue and how many of them were not presented for payment.
4. B. R. statement shows the total amount of interest allowed by the bank on customer’s deposit.
5. It show’s how many cheques were collected by the bank directly from trader’s customers.

It is prepared as follows:

1. It is prepared on the basis of cash-book or passbook balance.
2. If it is prepared on the basis of RB. balance, C.B. balance is ascertained and vice versa.

MP Board Class 11 Accountancy Important Questions

MP Board Class 11th Economics Important Questions Unit 5 Current Challenges Facing Indian Economy

MP Board Class 11th Economics Important Questions

Current Challenges Facing Indian Economy Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct option:

Question (a)
It is found in rural areas of India:
(a) Educated unemployment
(b) Disguised unemployment
(c) Seasonal unemployment
(d) Frictional unemployment.
Answer:
(b) Disguised unemployment

Question (b)
What is important in organic farming:
(a) Crop rotation
(b) Animal manure
(c) Mechanical agriculture and Natural fertilizer control
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question (c)
Fair in villages are held:
(a) Weekly
(b) Fortnightly
(c) Daily
(d) On special occasions.
Answer:
(a) Weekly

Question (d)
In 1951 number of universities in country:
(a) 25
(b) 27
(c) 36
(d) 53.
Answer:
(b) 27

Question (e)
When was state of Madhya Pradesh established:
(a) 1948
(b) 1956
(c) 1961
(d) 1856.
Answer:
(b) 1956

Question (f)
When price index increases it means:
(a) Value of currency increases
(b) Value of currency decreases
(c) No effect of value of currency
(d) None of the these.
Answer:
(b) Value of currency decreases

Question (g)
Element of commercial energy:
(a) Coal
(b) Petroleum
(c) Gas and electricity
(d) All.
Answer:
(d) All.

Question (h)
Energy from hot spring:
(a) Small hydro power
(b) Biomass
(c) Geothermal energy
(d) Hydro – electricity
Answer:
(c) Geothermal energy

Question (i)
In india supply of electricity started first:
(a) In Delhi
(b) In Chennai
(c) In Darjeeling
(d) In Bhopal.
Answer:
(c) In Darjeeling

Question (j)
National literacy mission is related to:
(a) Primary education
(b) High education
(c) Rural
(d) Adult education.
Answer:
(d) Adult education.

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. Economic development is ……………………..
2. Per capita income = ……………………….. /Total population.
3. Universal indicator of Quality of life is ………………………….
4. Economic development leads to …………………….. pollution.
5. In approx ……………………….. % cities of India amount of sulphur – dioxide and S.P.M. is maximum.
6. …………………… is a challenge for Indian economy.
7. For poverty eradication in Aug 1979 ………………………… plan was started.
8. Nehru employment plan was started in …………………………
9. …………………………… % of Indian population lives in villages.
10. Main problems of farmers is …………………….. and ………………………..
11. Duration of ………………………….. loan is 15 months to 5 years.
12. ………………………. is physical capital.
13. In order to improve quality of school education ……………………….. is the best organisation.
14. In India for every 100 people there are ………………………………
15. Repo Rate causes increase in consumption expenditure and …………………………… expenditure.

Answer:

1. Continuous
2. National income
3. Three
4. Environment
5. 20
6. Unemployment
7. Trisem
8. 28 April 1989
9. 74 – 3%
10. Agriculture finance
11. Temporary
12. Dynamic
13. NCERT
14. 40
15. Investment.

Question 3.
Match the columns:

Answer:

1. (b)
2. (d)
3. (f)
4. (g)
5. (a)
6. (i)
7. (l)
8. (n)
9. (c)
10. (e)
11. (k)
12. (h)
13. (j)
14. (o)
15. (m).

Question 4.
State true or false:

1. Poverty line is same for rural and urban areas.
2. Trisem plan is working at present.
3. Bio farming and organic farming are different.
4. Proportion of man in working population is higher to woman.
5. Rate of participation of women in rural areas as compared to urban area is higher.
6. By the end of 11 plan no. of unemployed people will be 480 lakh.
7. Inflation results in favourable settlement.
8. Economic development is a short term process.
9. Indian medical has six recognition system.
10. With the passing time use of electricity is decreasing in agriculture.
11. Life expectancy of women is less as compared to man.
12. Forest destruction is a result of soil erosion.
13. Environment includes biological and non – biological elements.
14. Midday meal programme started from 15 August 1995.

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. False
4. False
5. True
6. True
7. False
8. False
9. True
10. False
11. False
12. True
13. True
14. True.

Question 5.
Answer in one word:

1. Reason for poverty in India.
2. Person who is willing to work and have qualification too but could not get job.
3. Farming were chemical fertilizer and insecticides are not used.
4. This type of marketing started in 1912 in India.
5. Reason for rural unemployment.
6. When was NABARD was established.

Answer:

1. Increase in population
2. Unemployed
3. Organic farming
4. Agriculture
5. Mechanization of agriculture
6. 12 July.

Current Challenges Facing Indian Economy Very Short Answer type Questions

Question 1.
Define Poverty?
Answer:
Poverty refers to a state in which an individual is unable to fulfill even the basic necessities of life.

Question 2.
What are the two sources of Human capital of a nation?
Answer:

1. Investment in Education
2. Investment in health.

Question 3.
Name two indicators of educational achievement of a nation?
Answer:

1. Primary Education
2. Youth literacy rate
3. Adult literacy rate.

Question 4.
What is worker?
Answer:
All those persons who are engaged in various economic activities and hence . contribute to gross domestic products, are workers.

Question 5.
Define worker population ratio?
Answer:
Worker population ratio is defined as the percentage of total population which is actively contributing to GDP of the nation.

Question 6.
Are the following workers: a beggar, a thief, a smuggler, a gambler? Why?
Answer:
These are not workers because they are not involved in any economic activity and hence not contributing to GDP of the nation.

Question 7.
What are the various non – commercial sources of energy?
Answer:
The various sources of non – commercial energy are:

1. Agricultural wastes
2. Firewood
3. Dried dung.

Question 8.
What are the basic sources of generating power?
Answer:
The basic sources of generating power are:

1. Water
2. Coal
3. Oil.

Question 9.
What is sustainable development?
Answer:
It is the development that meets the need of the present generation without compromising the ability of the future generation to meet their own needs.

Question 10.
What happens when the rate of resource extraction exceeds that of their regeneration?
Answer:
Environmental crisis occur when the rate of resource extraction exceeds that of their regeneration.

Question 11.
What is poverty line?
Answer:
Poverty line may be defined as a cut off point on the line of distribution which divides the population as poor and non – poor. People with income below poverty line are poor and people with income above poverty line are non – poor.

Question 12.
What is the factor considered while defining poverty line in India?
Answer:
Consumption of calories by people.

Question 13.
What is the measure of poverty line in India?
Answer:
Those people who do not get 2000 calories in cities and 2400 calories in villages are called poor.

Question 14.
Who thought about poverty line before independence in India?
Answer:
Dadabhai Naoroji.

Question 15.
Which organization collects data on poverty in India?
Answer:
Planning commission.

Question 16.
When was food for work programme started?
Answer:
In 1970.

Question 17.
Give two examples of self – employment programmes?
Answer:

1. Swamajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana.
2. Sampooma Grameen Rozgar Yojana.

Question 18.
What is agricultural diversification?
Answer:
Diversification towards new areas such as livestock, fisheries and other non- agricultural activities is necessary not only to reduce the risk from agriculture sector but also to provide productive sustainable livelihood options to our rural people.

Question 19.
What is Human capital?
Answer:
It represents enhanced labour productivity, which is an acquired ability and an outcome of deliberate investment decisions with an expectation that it will increase future income sources.

Question 20.
What is human capital formation?
Answer:
Human capital formation implies the additions to the stock of abilities and skills among the population of the country.

Question 21.
When are people considered as the asset of a nation?
Answer:
When people are educated, healthy and having working ability.

Question 22.
When are people considered as liability of a nation?
Answer:
When people are unhealthy and illiterate.

Question 23.
Define Training?
Answer:
Training is that process which increases the ability, skills and capability of employees.

Question 24.
Out of the total educational expenses of India in which education major part is invested?
Answer:
Primary education.

Question 25.
What is the difference between human capital and human development?
Answer:
Human capital is a means while human development is ends.

Question 26.
What is education?
Answer:
Education means attaining knowledge in schools and colleges.

Question 27.
What is the difference between education and literacy?
Answer:
Literacy is a narrow concept while education is a wider concept.

Question 28.
What is life expectancy?
Answer:
Life expectancy at a specified age is the average the people at that specified age at a given point of time.

Question 29.
What is maternal mortality rate?
Answer:
The annual ratio of death of mothers during delivery period and birth is called maternal mortality rate.

Question 30.
What is mortality rate?
Answer:
Mortality rate is the annual number of deaths per 1000 people.

Question 31.
What is Infant mortality rate?
Answer:
The ratio of children died before one year and birth of children in same year is called infant mortality rate.

Question 32.
What is the traditional source of agricultural credit?
Answer:
Indigenous bankers.

Question 33.
When was NABARD formed?
Answer:
In 1982.

Question 34.
What is NABARD?
Answer:
NABARD is an apex body to co – ordinate the activities of all institutions involved in the rural financing system.

Question 35.
What is Golden Revolution?
Answer:
The period between 1991 – 2003 is known as period of golden revolution because during this period the planned investment in horticulture became highly productive and the sector emerged as sustainable livelihood option.

Question 36.
Why is diversification needed?
Answer:
To reduce the risk in agriculture.

Question 37.
What is operation flood?
Answer:
It is a system whereby all formers can pool their milk produced according to different grading and the same is processed and marketed to urban centers through co – operatives.

Question 38.
What is organic farming?
Answer:
The whole system of fanning that restores, maintains and enhances the ecological balance is called organic farming.

Question 39.
What is co – operative marketing?
Answer:
Under this system, farmers get together and form marketing societies to sell the produce collectively and take benefit of collective bargaining to secure a better price of their product.

Question 40.
What is agricultural credit?
Answer:
Agricultural credit means that credit which is required for agricultural work, e.g., for purchasing seeds, manure, machinery, etc.

Question 41.
What are regular workers?
Answer:
Regular workers are hired on permanent basis.

Question 42.
What are casual workers?
Answer:
Causal workers are not hired on permanent basis.

Question 43.
What is labour force?
Answer:
Labour force refers to the number of persons who are working and those who are not working but are able and willing to work at the existing wage rate.

Question 44.
What is formal sector?
Answer:
It is an organized sector which includes all the public sector enterprises and private enterprises which employ 10 or more than 10 workers.

Question 45.
What is informalisation of employment?
Answer:
Informalisation of employment means those private industries where labour laws are not implemented.

Question 46.
What is unemployment?
Answer:
Unemployment means open involuntary unemployment. It is a situation under which those who are willing not to get work.

Question 47.
Which type of unemployment is found in agricultural sector?
Answer:
Disguised unemployment.

Question 48.
What is open unemployment?
Answer:
It refers to the unemployment in which people are able and willing to work but fail to get work.

Question 49.
What is seasonal unemployment?
Answer:
When workers does not get employment whole year or in all seasons means they have work for 5 to 6 month and remains unemployed for the remaining is called seasonal unemployment.

Question 50.
What is disguised unemployment?
Answer:
Disguised unemployment may be defined as a situation where more people work than what is required.

Question 51.
When was National Rural employment guarantee act passed?
Answer:
In 2005.

Question 52.
What is Infrastructure?
Answer:
Infrastructure means a network of physical facilities and public services which supports an economic system to work effectively and efficiently.

Question 53.
What is economic infrastructure?
Answer:
It includes those aspects of economic system which provides a support to the process of economic development.

Question 54.
What is social infrastructure?
Answer:
It includes those aspects of economic system which provides a support to the process of social development.

Question 55.
How has Punjab, Haryana and Himachal Pradesh developed in agriculture and farming?
Answer:
Due to better irrigation facilities.

Question 56.
Why is Gujarat and Maharashtra far ahead than other states in terms of Industries?
Answer:
Because they have better means of transportation and are situated near ports which helps in easily receiving of raw – materials.

Question 57.
Why does Bangalore attracts many multinational companies?
Answer:
Because here world class means of communication is available.

Question 58.
What is commercial source of energy?
Answer:
The energy which is largely used for commercial purposes in industries, agriculture and service sector are called commercial sources of energy.

Question 59.
What are non – commercial sources of energy?
Answer:
It is commonly used by rural households for domestic consumption.

Question 60.
What is conventional source of energy ?
Answer:
Conventional sources of energy include both commercial and non – commercial sources of energy e.g., natural gas, coal, petroleum, etc.

Question 61.
What is non – conventional sources of energy?
Answer:
These are basically renewable sources of energy. They have environment friendly characteristics and involves less cost of production, e.g., solar energy, wind energy, etc.

Question 62.
How are non – conventional source of energy better than conventional sources of energy?
Answer:
Non – conventional sources of energy do not pollute the environment.

Question 63.
What is Bio – energy ?
Answer:
Bio – energy is an energy generated by agricultural wastes, dried dung and other biological materials.

Question 64.
What is Bio – mass?
Answer:
Bio – mass is the production of fuel which is produced by converting agricultural wastes in pillets and briquette.

Question 65.
Why is more preference given to air and water sources in energy policy of India?
Answer:
Because they are not fossil fuels and it does not effect the environment negatively.

Question 66.
What is health?
Answer:
Health means a state of complete physical, mental and social soundness.

Question 67.
What is the meaning of AYUSH?
Answer:
AYUSH means:
A – Ayurveda
Y – Yoga
U – Unani
S – Siddha
H – Homeopathy.

Question 68.
What is morbidity?
Answer:
Morbidity is a term used to describe how often a disease occurs in a specific area or is term used to describe a focus on death.

Question 69.
What is environment?
Answer:
Environment is defined as the total planetary inheritance and the totality of all resources.

Question 70.
What are renewable resources?
Answer:
The resources which may be regenerated through natural process such as forest, animals, water, etc.

Question 71.
What are non – renewable resources?
Answer:
The resources which are available to as a fixed stock, which cannot be regenerated such as coal, gas and petroleum.

Question 72.
What is environmental crisis?
Answer:
Due to pollution in environment it creates an imbalance in the environment which is called as environmental crisis.

Question 73.
When was pollution control board formed?
Answer:
In 1974.

Question 74.
What is Pollution?
Answer:
It refers to those chemicals, substances which contaminate the environment.

Question 75.
What is global warming?
Answer:
The gradual increase in the average temperature of the earth’s atmosphere, as a result the increase in greenhouse gases since industrial revolution.

Question 76.
What is ozone depletion?
Answer:
It referes to the phenomenon of reduction in the amount of ozone in the stratosphere.

Question 77.
What is the objective of Chipko movement?
Answer:
To save forests in Himalaya festival.

Question 78.
What is the major cause of air pollution?
Answer:
Smoke from vehicles.

Current Challenges Facing Indian Economy Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by ‘Food for Work’ programme?
Answer:
‘Food for work programme’ is one of the programmes to generate wage employment for the poor unskilled people living in rural areas. Under this programme, wages is paid partly in kind in the form of foodgrains and partly in cash. The food component of wages ensures that poor workers get some minimum amount of food for their consumption requirement.

Question 2.
How can creation of income earning assets address the problem of poverty?
Answer:
Creation of earning assets will lead to increase in domestic product and per capita income. Increase in domestic product would spread to all sections of society and will trickle down to the poor sections of society also. Swamajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana aims at encouraging self – employment among the poor by providing income earning assets through a mix of loans and subsidies.

Question 3.
What programme has the government adopted to help the elderly people and poor and destitute women?
Answer:
The government has many of social security programme to help some specific groups. One such programme is National Social Assistance Programme. Under this programme elderly people who do not have anyone to take care of them are given pension to question themselves. Poor woman who are destitute and windows are also covered under this scheme.

Question 4.
Is there any relationship between unemployment and poverty? Explain?
Answer:
There exists a deep relationship between unemployment and poverty. Unemployment or under employment and the casual and intermittent nature of work in both rural and urban areas drives unemployment people who do not have resources to make their ends meet into indebtedness and poverty.

Due to unemployment, income of the people is reduced to a large extent and they are unable to get access to education, health facilities, proper sanitation, etc. This causes poor quality of living and hence poor human capital and skills.

Question 5.
What is the difference between relative and absolute poverty?
Answer:
Absolute poverty is defined as inability to secure minimum human needs con¬cerning food, clothing, housing, education and health. On the other hand, relative poverty is a concept that enable us to understand the relative position of different regiments of the population in the social ladder.

Question 6.
Why do we observe regional difference in education attainment in India?
Answer:
The regional differences in educational attainment in India is due to:

1. Low expenditure by the government in education sector.
2. Inequality of Income.

Question 7.
Bring out the differences between Human capital and Human development?
Answer:
Following are the differences between human capital and human development:

1. Human capital considers education and health as a means to increase labour productivity. On the other hand, human development considers education and health integral to human well – being.

2. Human capital treats human beings as a means to an end; the end being the increase in productivity. Human development treats human beings as ends in themselves. In the context of human development basic education and basic health are the rights of every individual irrespective of their contribution to labour productivity.

Question 8.
How is human development a broader term as compound to human capital?
Answer:
Human capital considers education and health as a means to increase labour productivity. Human development is based on the idea that education and health are integral to human well – being because only when people have the ability to read and write and the ability to lead a long and healthy life, they will be able to make other choices they value.

Question 9.
Distinguish between Human capital and Physical capital?
Answer:
Difference between human capital and physical capital:

1. Human capital and physical capital are both types of capital resources that are essential to the smooth running of any business. Human capital refers to the skills, abilities, experience and value that is brought on to a firm by its employees.

Physical capital refers to all non – human assets created by human and used in the production process such as machinery, buildings, vehicles, etc. An important point to note is that physical and human capital must go hand in hand for a business to run its business operations successfully.

2. The right human capital can enhance the value of physical capital and without the right physical capital human capital cannot contribute to its full extent.

Question 10.
What is the role of human capital in economic development?
Answer:
Role of human capital formation in economic development:
The human capital formation plays crucial role in the economic development. Firstly, formation of human capital would tend to change the traditional society to modem society, which has higher scope for economic development.

Secondly, human capital increases the productivity of the physical capital (For example, they can handle the tools and machines in better way). Enhanced productivity would accelerate the growth.

Thirdly, higher standard of the life is possible only via development of human capital. Fourthly, human capital formation facilitates the use and growth of innovation. Innovation is the principle determinant of growth. Fifthly, human capital formation increases the rate of participation.

Higher the rate of participation, greater is the degree of economic equality in the society. Finally, investment in human capital yields larger returns and the returns on this type of investment far outweigh its input costs. For example, training of the workers increases their productivity which ultimately leads to overall increase in production.

Question 11.
Education is considered to be an important input for the development of a nation? How?
Answer:
Education is the process of teaching, training, learning, impacting knowledge and develop skills. It facilitates the use of natural and human resources of all regions of the country. Following points are describing why education is an important input for the development of a nation:

1. Knowledge and Skills:
A better educated person has greater skills and knowledge which enhance productivity and therefore provide a greater opportunity to work and earn higher income.

2. Rationality:
Education develops logics in people and helps them in making rational choices which lead to efficient utilization of resources resulting in higher productivity.

3. Values and Ethics:
Education inculcates moral values and professional ethics in people making them law abiding citizens who help each other and hence contribute in the well – being of the nation.

4. Adoption of Modern technology:
Education develops the skills required for understanding and adoption modem technology. This helps in increasing output and growth of the nation.

5. Reduction in Income inequality:
Education enhances the income earning capacity of people from economically backward sections of the country and thus reduces the inequalities in the distribution of income.

Question 12.
Discuss the following as a source of human capital formation:

1. Health infrastructure
2. Expenditure on migration.

Answer:

1. Health infrastructure:
Investment in health facilities to build a physically as well as mentally strong human capital, is essential for increasing productivity. Preventive medicine (vaccination), curative medicine (medical intervention during illness), social medicine (spread of health literacy) and provision of clean drinking water and good sanitation are the various forms of expenditures done on building health infrastructure which is considered as an important factor for human capital formation as it directly increases the supply of healthy labour force.

2. Expenditure on Migration:
People migrate in search of jobs with higher salaries than what they may get in their native places. People froms rural areas migrate to urban areas in search of employment. Technically qualified persons, like engineers and doctors, migrate to other countries because of higher earnings in such countries. Migration in both these cases involves cost of transport, higher cost of living in the migrated places and psychological costs of adapting to a new socio – cultural set – up.

Question 13.
Establish the need for acquiring information relating to health and education expenditure for the effective utilization of human resources?
Answer:
The availability of courses and admissions related information helps the students to opt for the best course according to their interest areas and capabilities. This helps in efficient utilization of resources invested in education and results in productive human resources. The availability of information regarding health creates awareness about health in the people.

This increases the acceptability of various healthy habits and family welfare programmes which ensure the supply of a healthy workforce and a healthy society at large. Various health measures are not adopted due to lack of complete knowledge and information.

For example:
Few years back, people considered AIDS as a disease which could spread by shaking hands or sharing food and even people suffering from this disease were not aware of the medicines available but through awareness campaigns people are now informed about it and suffering of patients has reduced not only physically but also socially.

Question 14.
How does investment in human capital contribute to growth?
Answer:
Investment in human capital is believed to be positively related to economic growth. The contribution of human capital formation to economic growth can be explained as follows:

1. Increase in Labour productivity:
Investment in human capital through expenditure on education, health, etc. enhances the productivity of labour as they become physically fit and skilled in their jobs. It leads to efficient utilization of the material inputs and capital.

2. Innovations:
Research and development is necessary for innovations in an economy, which lead to advancement in technology and creation of new products. Human capital formation helps in preparing learned scientists and researchers in various subjects who bring out innovative products, technologies and processes and thus add to the economic growth.

3. Absorptive capacity:
Advanced technology can be adopted only if the skills and knowledge required for using that technology is present in the country. Investment in education and on the job training helps to create these skills and knowledge base and thus helps in absorption of new technologies which lead to higher production and thus economic growth.

Question 15.
‘There is a downward trend in inequality world – wide with a rise in the average education levels’? Comments?
Answer:
It is believed that education level reduces the inequality at the global level. Education imparts the knowledge and technical skills which enhance the productivity of people. An educated person possesses higher productivity and efficiency and hence a relatively higher income earning capacity.

Distribution of income has become less skewed and income disparity between the rich and the poor is reducing across the world with better earning opportunities available due to rise in education.

Governments of different countries have been investing heavily in the education sector as rise in average education levels not only reduce inequality but also other problems like poverty, unemployment and underutilization of resources.

Question 16.
Explain the importance of Education?
Answer:
Importance/Objectives of Education:

1. Imparting an adequate knowledge of the subject – matter.
2. Equipping the prospective teachers with necessary pedagogic skills.
3. Enabling the teacher to acquire understanding of child psychology.
4. Developing proper attitudes towards teaching.
5. Developing self – confidence in the teachers.
6. Enabling teachers to make proper use of instructional facilities.
7. Enabling teachers to understand the significance of individual differences of child and to take appropriate steps for their optimum development.
8. Development of the ability to give direct satisfaction of parents from the achievement of children.

Question 17.
Explain how investment in education stimulates economic growth?
Answer:
Investment in education stimulates economics growth in the following manner:

1. Investment in education stimulates economic growth as education is provided to all.
2. As per the government policies. They want to increase the literacy rate for both adults and youth.
3. It improves the difference in literacy rates between males and females.
4. Women are also taking higher educations.
5. This all lead to form a well educated nation and investment in education by all individuals give them in return a good standard of living a good labour productive force and high participation rate of both males and females. Which automatically stimulates the growth of economy.

Question 18.
Bring out the need for on – the – job – training for a person?
Answer:
Firms provide on – the – job training to their workers to enhance their skill which helps in human capital formation. The workers may be trained in the firm itself under the supervision of a skilled worker or the workers may be sent for off – campus training.

On – the – job training is an important factor of human capital formation as it results in enhanced labour productivity. On – the – job training allows trainees and employees to get acquainted with their co – workers.

Needs of On – the – job training:
Training allows the supervisors or managers to assess progress of a person over a short period of time enabling them to determine any flaws or problems and rectifying the problem on the spot. This leads to higher efficiency of not only the person under training but also the organization as a whole.

Question 19.
Trace the relationship between human capital and economic growth?
Answer:
Human capital is believed to be positively related to economic growth though it is difficult to establish a relation of cause and effect from the growth of human capital to economic growth. Human capital formation is related to economic growth in the following manner:

1. Increase in Labour Productivity:
Investment in human capital through expenditure on education, health, etc. Enhances the productivity of labour as they become physically fit and skilled in their jobs. It leads to efficient utilization of the material inputs and capital. With increase in productivity, output increases at an increasing rate and hence economic growth accelerates.

2. Innovations:
Research and development is necessary for innovations in an economy which lead to advancement in technology and creation of new products. Human capital formation helps in preparing learned scientists and researchers in various subjects who bring out innovative products, technologies and processes and thus add to the economic growth.

3. Absorptive capacity:
Advanced technology can be adopted only if the skills and knowledge required for using that technology is present in the country. Investment in education and on – the – job training helps to create these skills and knowledge base and thus helps in absorption of new technologies which lead to higher production and thus economic growth.

4. Participation rate:
Human capital formation makes a greater proportion of population capable of par acipating in the economic, social and political activities of a nation thus raising the participation of people in the process of economic growth.

Question 20.
Discuss the need for promoting women’s education in India?
Answer:
Women have always been neglected when it comes to education in India. The access to education has always been biased towards male population due to our social system which is patriarchal. The lack of education has caused exploitation of women and has resulted in a lower social status of women in India.

There is an imminent need for promoting female education in India because of the following reasons:

1. Women education is essential for providing them economic independence and empowering them to save them from exploitation and domestic violence.
2. Women education is essential in order to raise the social status of women so that the quality of life of women can be improved.
3. Education women help in promoting family welfare programmes and thus in population control.
4. Educated women are aware of the importance of health care and thus take proper care of their family members contributing in human capital formation.
5. Educating a woman means educating a family. An educated woman can inculcate moral values in her children and can facilitate their education.

Question 21.
In your view, is it essential for the government to regulate the fee structure in education and health care institutions? If so, why?
Answer:
Education and health are two basic requirements of human beings so that they may be able to live a life of dignity. It is the responsibility of government to ensure education and health facilities to even the poorest of the poor.

For this purpose either the government should itself provide these services through government schools, colleges and hospitals or encourage private sector participation in these sectors. Private sector is allowed to operate in these sectors.

But private sector works with profit as the primary motive and so if government does not regulate the fee structure in education and health care institutions, the fee may become too high to be in affordable limits of common people. This will defeat the purpose of these facilities altogether and hence government must intervene and regulate the fee structure of even the private institutes in education and health care sectors.

Question 22.
Discuss the importance of credit in rural development?
Answer:
Following points highlight the importance of credit in rural development:

1. Credit is required by the farmers to meet their personal needs because the gestation period between crop sowing and realisation of income after production is quite long.
2. Credit is required by the farmers to make investment on seeds, fertilizers, implements, etc. Since majority of the farmers are poor, they do not have sufficient personal resources to make investment.
3. Credit is required by the non – farm sectors also such as cottage and small – scale industries.
4. Credit is required by the rural people for self – employment.

Question 23.
Why is agricultural diversification essential for sustainable livelihoods?
Answer:
Agricultural diversification includes two aspects:

1. Diversification of crop production.
2. Shifting of workforce from agriculture to other allied activities and non – agriculture sector?

Agricultural diversification is essential because there is greater risk in depending exclusively on agriculture for livelihood. The diversification reduces the risk from agriculture sector and provides productive sustainable livelihood options to the people living in rural areas. It provides alternate employment opportunities in non – farm sectors which will reduce overcrowding of agriculture.

Question 24.
Briefly discuss the problems related to agricultural finance in India?
Answer:
Various factors that led to the related growth in economic development in China are as given below:

1. There is overall inadequacy of agricultural finance, particularly of the institutional credit. Agricultural finance is not available in sufficient quantity.
2. Loans are not available at the right time.
3. Loans are not available at reasonable rate of interest.
4. Despite the recent expansion of credit from commercial banks, its contribution to agricultural finance continues to be a small proportion of its total lending.
5. There has been neglect of small farmers who cannot offer any security for loans.
6. A serious problem is that of mounting overdues.

Question 25.
What is agricultural trading?
Answer:
Agricultural trading:
It means to exchange of agricultural commodities between farmer and traders. Agricultural trading includes gradation, standardization, collection and conservation. In India the undermentioned system is prevailed for the trading of agricultural commodities Trading in villages, Trading in mandies, Trading through co – operative societies, with government, the trading through retailers.

Question 26.
Mention some obstacles that hinder the mechanism of agricultural marketing?
Answer:
Some obstacles that hinder the mechanism of agricultural marketing are:

1. Faulty weighing and manipulation of accounts by traders results in exploitation of farmers when they sell their products to traders.
2. Farmers do not have proper storage facilities to keep back their produce for selling later at a better price. Hence, they are forced to sell even at lower price to save the products from decaying.
3. Fanners cannot avail agricultural credit, leading to their exploitation by the moneylenders.

Question 27.
Write the problems of agricultural diversification?
Answer:
The major problems of agricultural diversification are as follows:

1. Farmers particularly small farmers are not able to invest in Agro and non – agro based industries. If requires more capital and labours. They are not having enough time to learn new economic agricultural policy and are unable to take risk.
2. Technological changes are the key of agricultural diversification. Available technological is not suitable for many agricultural related situations.
3. Infrastructure established by govt, is centralized in developed areas. In backward areas infrastructure like roads, transport, irrigation, cold storage are required but they are not available.

Question 28.
Explain Golden Revolution?
Answer:
Golden Revolution:
The rapid growth in the production of diverse horticultural crops such as fruits, vegetables, tuber crops, flowers, medicinal and aromatic plants, spices and plantation crops is known as Golden Revolution. It led to increase in production of fruits, vegetables, flowers, aromatic plants, spices, etc.

Golden Revolution made India a world leader in the production of mangoes, bananas, coconut and spices. Golden Revolution provided nutrition and sustainable livelihood options.

Question 29.
Explain the role of non – farm employment in promoting rural diversification?
Answer:
A major proportion of the increasing labour force needs to find alternate employment opportunities in other non – farm sectors. The dynamic sub – sectors in non – farm sector include agro – processing industries, food processing industries, leather industry, tourism, etc. There are other sectors which have the potential but lack infrastructure and other support. These include traditional home – based industries like pottery, crafts, handlooms etc.

Majority of rural women find employment in agriculture while men generally look for non – farm employment. Nowadays women have also begun to work in non – farm jobs e.g., in Tamil Nadu, many Farm Women’s Groups are creating savings in their group through a micro – credit system and promoting small – scale household activities like mushroom cultivation, soap manufacture.

Question 30.
Information technology plays a very significant role in achieving sustainable development and food security? Comment?
Answer:
Information Technology (IT) is playing a significant role in achieving sustainable development and food security in present time. Governments can predict areas of food insecurity and vulnerability using appropriate information and software tools so that action can be taken to prevent or reduce the chances of an emergency like monsoon failure and resultant drought or low crop yield.

Role of Information Technology (IT):
1. IT can help in disseminating information regarding advanced technology and its applications, prices, weather and soil conditions for growing different crops etc. Which facilitates farmers in taking effective decisions regarding their crops and other activities. It also enhances productivity in farm and non-farm sectors of rural economy.

2. IT can act as a means of releasing the creative potential and knowledge in the society and has the potential of employment generation in rural areas as kisan call centres and various websites providing valuable information regarding measures to sustainable development.

Question 31.
What is organic farming and how does it promote sustainable development?
Answer:
Organic farming is an eco – friendly technique of growing crops which promotes sustainable development. In other words, organic agriculture is a whole system of farming that restores maintains and enhances the ecological balance and enhances the food safety. Thus, encouraging the practices towards sustainable development.

Question 32.
Compared to urban women, more rural women are found working. Why?
Answer:
The difference in participation rates is very large in urban areas:
For every 100 urban females, only about 14 are engaged in some economic activities. In rural areas, for every 100 rural women about 26 participate in the employment market. It is common to find that where men are able to earn high incomes, families discourage female members from taking up jobs. Earnings of urban male workers are generally higher than rural males and so the urban families do not want females to work.

Question 33.
Why are regular salaried employees more in urban areas than in rural areas?
Answer:
Regular salaried employees are more in urban areas than in rural areas due to following reasons:

1. Education and Training:
Regular salaried employment requires certain educational qualifications and professional skills. Education and training facilities are not as good in rural areas as in urban areas. Therefore, chances of regular employment are higher for urban People.

2. Infrastructure:
Large companies including MNCs are concentrated in the urban areas due to the presence of economic infrastructure and availability of modem facilities like banks, transport and communication, etc.

3. Agriculture:
Rural population is primarily engaged in agricultural sector and are not willing to take the risk of leaving their farms for regular salaried employment. This is also a reason for regular salaried employment to be less prevalent in rural areas.

Question 34.
Why are less women found in regular salaried employment?
Answer:
Less women are found in regular salaried employment due to the following reasons:

1. Lack of Education facilities:
Female education is not given due importance in India and hence majority of the women in India do not have the educational qualification and professional skills required for regular salaried employment.

2. Discouragement from Family:
In India, families still do not want the female members to step out from the house for work especially if it is for long hours as in regular salaried employment.

3. Family responsibilities:
Household work and responsibility of children and other family members do not allow the women to devote time and energy in regular employment.

Question 35.
Is it necessary to generate employment in the formal sector rather than in the informal sector? Why?
Answer:
Yes, it is necessary to generate employment in the formal sector rather than in the informal sector because labour is exploited in the informal sector. In the formal sector, labour laws, enable the workers to protect their rights in various ways. The workers in the formal sector form trade unions, bargains with employers for better wages and other social security measures. They earn more than those in the informal sector.

Workers and enterprises in the informal sector do not get regular income; they do not have any protection or regulation from the government. Workers are dismissed without any compensation.

Question 36.
Victor is able to get work only for two hours in a day. Rest of the day, he is looking for work. Is he unemployed? Why? What kind of jobs could persons like Victor be doing?
Answer:
Victor is a casual worker and is under – employed, though not completely unemployed. He is not being able to find a job according to his capabilities and willingness and therefore even after two hours of work in a day he remains jobless for the rest of the day. He can do other part – time jobs like those of delivery man, waiter in a restaurant, etc. Till he finds a regular wage employment suiting his education and skills.

Question 37.
You are residing in a village. If you are asked to advice the village panchayat, what kinds of activities would you suggest for the improvement of your village which would also generate employment?
Answer:
Following activities can be undertaken for the improvement of the village which would also generate employment:

1. Poverty alleviation programmes providing employment generation opportunities such as construction of roads, schools, etc.
2. Provision of services in areas such as primary health and primary education, which can employ educated youth of the village after training them.
3. Provision for safe drinking water and sanitation facilities by employing village population in construction of these facilities.
4. Providing assistance for people to buy income and employment generating assets.
5. Development of community assets by generating wage employment through construction of houses, financial assistance for constructing houses, laying of rural roads, etc.
6. Development of wastelands/degraded lands to improve agricultural production and farm incomes.

Question 38.
Who is a casual wage labourer?
Answer:
Casual workers refer to those workers, who do not earn regular wages and do not have regular employment throughout the year. They work for few months or days and earn wages for the work done. Casual workers are not hired by employers on a regular basis.

Question 39.
How will you know whether a worker is working in the informal sector?
Answer:
Thus, informal sector includes millions of farmers, agricultural labourers, owners of small enterprises and people working in those enterprises as also the self – employed who do not have any hired workers. All non – farm casual wage labourers who work for more than one employer such as construction workers and headdload workers are also working in informal sector.

Those who are working in the informal sector do not enjoy social security benefits. They earn less than those in the formal sector. Workers and enterprises in the informal sector do not get regular income; they do not have any protection or regulation from the government. Workers in the informal sector are dismissed without any compensation. Workers of this sector are even found living in slums.

Question 40.
Explain the term ‘Infrastructure’?
Answer:
Infrastructure refers to the supporting services in the main areas of industrial and agricultural production, domestic and foreign trade and commerce. These services include roads, railways, ports, airports, dams, power stations, oil and gas pipelines, telecommunication, schools and colleges, hospitals, sanitary system and also the monetarily system including banks, insurance and other financial institutions.

Question 41.
Infrastructure contributes to the economic development of a country. Do you agree? Explain?
Answer:
Infrastructure contributes to the economic development of a country in the following ways:

1. Increasing Productivity:
Social infrastructure such as housing, health and education makes living conditions better for the population. Healthy and educated population is a source of human capital formation which results in greater productivity.

2. Boosting Production:
Infrastructure boosts production both by increasing the productivity of the factors of production and by providing supportive facilities. Agricultural production depends largely on the adequate expansion and development of irrigation facilities and power-supply needed for the same.

3. Inducing Investment:
Economic infrastructure facilitates production and increases income in the economy. Business environment in the economy becomes conducive and this induces more investment which leads to employment generation leading to higher income and better standard of living.

4. Quality of Life:
Infrastructure facilities such as transport, communication and power-supply make life easier for people and increase their access to other related facilities such as education and health. This makes people more productive.

Question 42.
What is the state of rural infrastructure in India?
Answer:
The state of rural infrastructure in India is very critical. India’s more than billion plus population resides in rural areas. There is a lack of access to safe, reliable power, water telecommunication, sanitation and transportation services. The government had announced several schemes but still there is not a very remarkable growth in it as per the data of census 2001 in rural India only 56% households have an electricity connection and 43% still use kerosene.

About 90% of the rural households use bio – fuels such as crop residues, dung and fuel wood to meet their energy requirement for cooking. Tap water availability is limited to only 24% rural households. About 76% of the population drinks water from open sources such as wells, tanks, ponds, lakes, rivers, canals, etc. Access to improved sanitation in rural areas was only 20%.

Question 43.
Justify that energy crisis can be overcome with the use of renewable sources of energy?
Answer:
The energy crisis in India is the result of excessive use of non – renewable sources of energy for present consumption which has created a threat for sustainable development of the country. The conventional sources of energy, especially the commercial sources are generally exhaustible (except hydro – power).

There are three sources of energy which are commonly termed as non – conventional sources-solar energy, wind energy and tidal power. India has almost unlimited potential for producing all three types of energy being a tropical country. Some appropriate cost effective technologies are already available which can be use to produce energy from these sources.

Question 44.
What problems are being faced by the power sector in India?
Answer:
Some of the problems being faced by India’s power sector are:

1. At present, India is able to add only 20000 MW a year India’s installed capacity to generate electricity is not sufficient to feed an annual economic growth of 9% and even, this capacity remains under – utilised due to inefficient operation of plants.

2. State Electricity Boards (SEBs), which distribute electricity, incur losses which exceed 500 billion due to transmission and distribution losses, wrong pricing of electricity and other inefficiencies.

3. Electricity is stolen in different areas and tariffs are not paid which also adds to the losses of SEBs.

Question 45.
What is a ‘Global Burden of Disease’?
Answer:
Global Burden of Disease (GBD) is an indicator used by experts to know the number of people dying prematurely due to a particular disease as well as the number of years spent by them in a state of ‘Disability’ owing to the disease.

Question 46.
What is the difference between sustainable development and economic development?
Answer:

1. Sustainable development easy stress on environment protection and pollution control while in economic development does not give importance to environmental protection and pollution control.
2. Natural capital is properly used in sustainable development while natural resources are exploited in economic development.

Question 47.
What are the functions of the environment?
Answer:
Following are the functions of environment:

1. Offer resources for production: All the resources which are like as a free gift to us e.g., wind, water, sunlight, land are available because of environment.
2. Sustains life: All essential ingredients which we are receiving from environment are necessary for the sustenance of human life.
3. Assimilates waste: Environment absorbs the waste automatically which is produced by the production and consumption activities.
4. Quality of life: Water, mountains, deserts are enjoying by the human and adding quality to his life.

Question 48.
India has abundant natural resources substantiate the statement?
Answer:
India has abundant natural resources including rich quality soil, various rivers and tributaries, green forests, mineral deposits, vast stretch of the Indian Ocean, mountain ranges, etc.

1. Soil:
The black soil of the Deccan Plateau is ‘particularly suitable for cultivation of cotton, leading to concentration of textile industries in this region. The Indo – Gangetic plains spread from the Arabian Sea to the Bay of Bengal are highly fertile, intensively cultivated and densely populated regions in the world.

2. Forests:
India’s forests, though unevenly distributed, provide green cover for a majority of its population and natural cover for its wildlife.

3. Minerals:
Large deposits of iron – ore, coal and natural gas are found in the country. India alone accounts for nearly 20% of the world’s total iron-ore reserves. Bauxite, copper, chromate, diamonds, gold, lead, lignite, manganese, zinc, uranium, etc. are also available in different parts of the country.

Question 49.
Is environmental crisis a recent phenomenon? If so, why?
Answer:
Yes, environmental crisis is a recent phenomenon. The environment has been able to perform its functions without any interruption till the resource extraction was not above the rate of regeneration of the resource and the wastes generated were within the assimilating capacity of the environment.

But today, environment fails to perform its third and vital function of life sustenance resulting in an environmental crisis. The rising population of the developing countries and the affluent consumption and production standards of the developed world have placed a huge stress on the environment in terms of its first two functions.

Question 50.
Give two instances of:

1. Overuse of environmental resources.
2. Misuse of environmental resources.

Answer:

1. Overuse of environmental resources:

• Soil degradation due to improper crop rotation and crop shifting.
• Drying up of rivers due to overuse of water from them through dams and reservoirs.

2. Misuse of environmental resources:

• Excess use of electricity leads to depletion of resources like coal and water from which electricity is generated.
• Excess use of petrol and diesel in vehicles.

Question 51.
State any four pressing environmental concerns of India. Correction for environmental damages involves opportunity costs. Explain?
Answer:
Four pressing environmental concerns of India are:

1. Land degradation.
2. Biodiversity loss.
3. Air pollution with special reference to vehicular pollution in urban cities.
4. Management of fresh water and solid waste management.

Correction for environment damages involves opportunity costs as explained below:

• The industrial development in past has polluted and dried up rivers and other aquifers making water an economic good.

Question 52.
Mention the strategies for sustainable development?
Answer:
The strategies are:

1. Use of non – conventional sources of energy.
2. Encouraging use of cleaner fuel.
3. Setting mini hydel plants.
4. Using traditional practices.
5. Biocomposting.
6. Biopest control.

Question 53.
Explain the relevance of intergenerational equity in the definition of sustainable development?
Answer:
Sustainable development in itself makes it obligatory for the development process to be such that the basic needs of not only the present generation but also of the future generations are taken care of. It becomes the moral duty of this generation to hand over the earth to the future generation in good form.

Sustainable development aims at maximizing the welfare of both present and future generations. It does not mean hindering the existing pace of economic growth, but refers to a judicious or optimum utilization of resources in such a manner that pace of economic growth sustains with inter generational equity.

Question 54.
Write a short note on National Rural Employment Guarantee Plan?
Answer:
This Act was passed in 2005 and the scheme i.e. National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (Scheme) or NREGA scheme was launched in 2nd February, 2006. The aim of the act is to provide guaranteed wage employment to every household whose adult volunteer is to do unskilled manual work for a minimum of 100 days in a year.

Question 55.
Distinguish between Human capital and Physical capital?
Answer:
Role of human capital formation in economic development:
The human capital formation plays crucial role in the economic development. Firstly, formation of human capital would tend to change the traditional society to modem society, which has higher scope for economic development.

Secondly, human capital increases the productivity of the physical capital (For example, they can handle the tools and machines in better way). Enhanced productivity would accelerate the growth.

Thirdly, higher standard of the life is possible only via development of human capital. Fourthly, human capital formation facilitates the use and growth of innovation. Innovation is the principle determinant of growth. Fifthly, human capital formation increases the rate of participation.

Higher the rate of participation, greater is the degree of economic equality in the society. Finally, investment in human capital yields larger returns and the returns on this type of investment far outweigh its input costs. For example, training of the workers increases their productivity which ultimately leads to overall increase in production.

Question 56.
What are the problems of education sector?
Answer:
Problem/Challenges of Education sector:

1. Lack of infrastructure.
2. Poor global ranking of institutes.
3. System of education.
4. Gap between education provided and industry required education.
5. Gender issues.
6. Costly higher education.

Question 57.
What are the causes of migration in India?
Answer:
The causes of migration in India are as follows:

1. Lack of education facilities in rural area.
2. Poor condition of agriculture and good opportunities of employment due to industrialization.
3. Lack of medical facilities in rural area.
4. Lack of security.
5. Lack of facilities in rural area.
6. Social cause.

Question 58.
What are the sources of rural credit?
Answer:
The sources for providing agricultural credit are divided into two parts:

(A) Institutional sources:

1. Co – operative Credit Societies
2. Bhoomi Vikas Bank,
3. Rural Bank (26 Sep., 1975)
4. Commercial Bank (July, 1969)
5. Government
6. State Bank of India
7. Reserve Bank of India (1 April, 1935), (h) National Agricultural and Rural Development Bank.

(B) Non – institutional sources:

1. Sahookar or Private money lenders.
2. Friends and relatives.
3. Trader and commission agent.

Question 59.
What are the problems of rural development?
Answer:
The rural areas are facing following problems today:

1. Inadequate employment opportunities
2. Low level of income.
3. Increasing pressure on agriculture.
4. Low standard of living.
5. Lack of means of transport and communication.
6. Lack of education facilities.
7. Lack of medical facilities.
8. Lack of civil amenities in urban areas like drinking water, electricity, gutters, library recreation, etc.
9. Lack of housing facilities.
10. Lack of fair price shops.
11. Lack of banking facilities.

Question 60.
Explain the importance of agriculture in Indian economy?
Answer:
Agriculture and allied sectors, including agribusiness, domesticated animals, and ranger service and fishery sub segments as for as rate of GDP is 13 – 9 percent during 2013 – 2014 at 2004 – 2005 prices. Agricultural exports constitute a fifth of the total exports of the country. In perspective of the overwhelming position of the Agricultural sector, gathering and support of Agricultural Statistics expect incredible significance.

The 6% of agricultural production is converted in to processed food, which is focused to achieve 20% in coming future. The business is work escalated and contributes around 50% for industrial production. Multi – National Food Companies have assumed a part of making business sector draw and rivalry. Selection of inventive and experimental bundling strategies by food industry has empowered the assembling of sheltered and quality sustenance.

Conclusion:
India has the capacity to produce the food grains which can make vast difference in Indian economy. To achieve targeted mark by the government it needs to provide support in case of land, bank loans and other machineries to the small farmers along with the big farmers with this we can expect some improvement in Indian economy.

Agriculture is the most important sector of Indian economy. Indian agriculture sector accounts for 18 percent of India’s gross domestic product (GDP) and provides employment to 50 % of the countries workforce. India is the world’s largest producer of pulses, rice, wheat, spices and spice products. India has many areas to choose for business such as dairy, meat, poultry, fisheries and food grains etc.

India has emerged as the second largest producer of fruits and vegetables in the world. According to the data provided by Department of Economics and Statics (DES) the production of food grains for the year 2013 – 2014 is 264 million tons which is increased when compared to (2012 – 2013) 257 million tons. This is a good symptom for the Indian economy from the agriculture sector.

The commitment of agribusiness in the national income in India is all the more, subsequently, it is said that agriculture in India is a backbone for Indian economy. The contribution of agriculture in the initial two decades towards the total national output is between 48% and 60% In the year 2001 – 2002, this contribution declined to just around 26%.

Question 61.
Briefly explain in role of Minimum Support Price (MSP) in the context of agricultural marketing in India?
Answer:
The Government of India has adopted the policy of minimum support price to safeguard fanners from undue fluctuations in market prices of agricultural commodities. Under this policy, the government well in advance of the sowing season declares the minimum prices at which the government will purchase various commodities.

It means that the farmers have an option to sell their output to the government if the market prices fall below these minimum support prices. However, if the market prices are higher, the fears are free to sell in the market.

Question 62.
By giving examples differentiate between self – employed workers and hired workers?
Answer:
Self – employed workers use self – employed resources to earn their living while hired workers are employed by others on salary. Example of self – employed workers are doctor running his own clinic, a cement shop owners /example of hired workers are a civil engineer in the construction company, a doctor working in a govt, hospital, etc.

Question 63.
Write the types of unemployment found in Indian economy?
Answer:
Types of Unemployment:

1. Open Unemployment:
Open unemployment is a situation wherein a large section of the labour force does not get a job that may yield them regular income. This type of unemployment can be seen and counted in terms of the number of unemployed persons. The labour force expands at a faster rate than the growth rate of economy. Therefore all people do not get jobs.

2. Disguised Unemployment:
It is a situation in which more people are doing work than actually required. Even if some are withdrawn, production does not suffer. In other words it refers to a situation of employment with surplus manpower in which some workers have zero marginal productivity.

So, their removal will not affect the volume of total production. Overcrowding in agriculture due to rapid growth of population and lack of alternative job opportunities may be cited as the main reasons for disguised unemployment in India.

3. Seasonal Unemployment:
It is unemployment that occurs during certain seasons of the year. In some industries and occupations like agriculture, holiday resorts, ice factories, etc., production activities take place only in some seasons. So, they offer employment for only a certain period of time in a year. People engaged in such type of activities may remain unemployed during the off – season.

4. Cyclical Unemployment:
It is caused by trade cycles at regular intervals. Generally capitalist economics are subject to trade cycles. The down swing in business activities results in unemployment. Cyclical unemployment is normally a shot – run phenomenon.

Question 64.
Explain disguised unemployment with example?
Answer:
Disguised Unemployment:
It is a situation in which more people are doing work than actually required. Even if some are withdrawn, production does not suffer. In other words it refers to a situation of employment with surplus manpower in which some workers have zero marginal productivity.

So, their removal will not affect the volume of total production. Overcrowding in agriculture due to rapid growth of population and lack of alternative job opportunities may be cited as the main reasons for disguised unemployment in India.

Question 65.
Distinguish between regular workers and casual workers?
Answer:
Regular workers are hired on permanent basis, e.g., a doctor employed in a govt, hospital while casual workers are not hired on permanent basis e.g., a daily wage earn working in a construction site. Regular workers are entitled to social security benefits (pension, etc.) from their employers. Causal workers are not entitled to social security benefits from their employers.

Question 66.
Write the factors of economic infrastructure?
Answer:
The factors of economic infrastructure are:

1. Energy:
Energy is that power without which no human economic activity can be performed. Industrial development is not possible without energy. For running machines in agriculture energy is required.

2. Transport:
Transportation is the life blood of an economy. For lending raw materials to production place and for sending finished product to consumers transportation is essential.

3. Communication:
It means to send message or information from one place to another place or from one person to another person. Communication increases productivity and encourages investment.

Question 67.
Distinguish between Conventional sources and Non – conventional sources?
Answer:
Differences between Conventional sources and Non – conventional sources of energy:

Question 68.
Distinguish between economic infrastructure and social infrastructure?
Answer:

1. Economic Infrastructure:
Economic infrastructure means those basic facilities and services which directly benefit the process of production and distribution of an economy. Irrigation, power, transport and communication are the examples of economic infrastructure.

2. Social Infrastructure:
Social infrastructure means those basic activities and services which, in addition to achieving certain social objectives, indirectly help various economic activities. For example, education does not directly affect economic activities like production and distribution but indirectly helps in the economic development of the country by producing scientists and engineers.

Question 69.
Write three factors of social Infrastructure?
Answer:
The three factors of social Infrastructure are:

1. Education: Education helps in improving working ability and productivity. It changes the outlook of people and they adopt modem technology.
2. Health: Good health is a means of development. If people of a nation are unhealthy then no one will complete the work with interest.
3. Housing: Ideal housing facility improves the ability and productivity of people.

Question 70.
Differentiate between Commercial sources and Non – commercial sources of energy?
Answer:
Differentiate between Commercial sources and Non – commercial sources of energy:

Question 71.
Write a short note on Global warming?
Answer:
Global warming is a gradual increase in the average temperature of the earth’s lower atmosphere as a result of increase in greenhouse gases since industrial revolution. The causes of global warming are :

1. Destruction of forests.
2. Use of fossil fuels.

Some of the effects of global warming are:

1. Melting of polar ice resulting in rise of sea level and floods.
2. Extinction of species.
3. Frequent tropical storms, etc.

Question 72.
What is ozone depletion?
Answer:
One of the problems created by the air pollution is ozone depletion. The presence of pollutants like, fluorocarbons and chlorofluorocarbons (CFC) in the depleted ozone in the atmosphere. This has created a hole in the ozone layer of the atmosphere. CFC chemicals are used in refrigerators and air conditioners as cooling agents.

The ozone layer protects life on earth by preventing harmful ultraviolet rays of the sun from entering the atmosphere. This layer has become too thin and has developed a hole exposing human life to the dangerous ultaviolet rays of sun. It is known that long exposure to ultraviolet rays of sun cause cancer and other genetic disorders in human beings.

Question 73.
Explain poverty line?
Answer:
Poverty line:
It is that line which expresses per capita average monthly expenditure by which people can satisfy their minimum needs. Relative poverty and absolute poverty are the two variants of poverty.

Poverty line is fixed in India:

1. In the estimation of consumption cut off.
2. In private consumption expenditure.
3. Frequencies are recorded against each class – interval. Each frequency counts the number of heads belonging to a particular consumption class.

Question 74.
What is meant by sustainable development? State its features?
Answer:
Sustainable development may be defined as a development that meets the needs of the present generation without compromising with the ability of the future generation to meet their own needs.

1. Sustainable development does not limit development. There should be a sustained rise in per capita income.

2. No increase in pollution should be the objective of all economic activities. Sustainable development does not approve of those activities, which in order to maintain existing high standard of living, are detrimental to environment.

3. Sustainable development ensures no reduction in the quality of life of future generations. It means that there is no reduction in the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.

4. Sustainable development does not prevent the use of natural resources. Sustainable development simply requires that natural resources should be efficiently used.

Current Challenges Facing Indian Economy Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
The three dimensional attack on poverty adopted by the government has not succeeded in poverty alleviation in India? Comment?
Answer:
Poverty alleviation has always been accepted as one of the major objectives of planned development process in India but even after vast spending on poverty alleviation programmes, the government has not succeeded in poverty alleviation in India.

Despite various strategies to alleviate poverty, problems like hunger, malnourishment, illiteracy and lack of basic amenities are prevalent in India. None of the poverty alleviation strategies resulted in any radical change in the ownership of assets, process of production and improvement of basic amenities to the needy.

Due to unequal distribution of assets, the benefits from poverty alleviation programmes have not actually reached the poor. The amount of resources allocated for the poverty alleviation programmes is not sufficient when we take the magnitude of poverty into consideration.

The implementation of the poverty alleviation programmes is the responsibility of government and bank officials who are ill motivated, inadequately trained, corruption prone and vulnerable to pressure from local elites. The resources are thus used inefficiently.

Government policies have also failed to address the various issues related to poverty due to non -participation of local level institutions in programme implementation. It is evident that high growth. Alone is not sufficient to reduce poverty without the active participation of the people.

Further, it is necessary to identify poverty stricken areas and provide infrastructure such as schools, roads, power, telecom, IT services, training institutions, etc. Institutional weaknesses abound and implementation failure are the biggest reasons that these programmes not succeeded.

Question 2.
Explain the problems of Human capital formation in India?
Answer:
Problems Facing Human Capital Formation in India:
There are several problems of formation of human capital in India. Firstly, rapid growth of population adversely affects the quality of human capital. It reduces per head availability of the natural resources. Secondly, migration of skilled persons to developed countries is a serious brain drain threat to the process of human capital formation in the country.

Thirdly, there is insufficient manpower planning by raising the standard of education at different stages. There is a need to maintain a balance between the demand and supply of technical labour force. Last but not the least, the insufficient supply of qualified and trained technologists is a pointer to a serious neglect of human capital formation in India. On – the – job training should be provided to working population to create a productive human capital formation.

1. Check the high rate of population growth.
2. Proper Manpower Planning:
   A proper manpower planning is a critical requirement to combat the problem of human resources wastage.
3. The planning needs to focus on both the quantitative and qualitative aspects of human capital.
4. Proper educational planning:
   An effective educational planning that promotes human capital formation must be developed.
5. It should provide for adequate health services and nutritive food to the existing population of the country.

Question 3.
What are the measures to remove poverty in India?
Answer:
The measures to remove poverty in India are:

1. Population Control:
The high growth rate of population has depressed the increase in per capital income in India. As a result of it, in spite of increase in total output, the consumption level of common man has not increased and the number of poor people has been increasing. Hence, to eradicate poverty population control is essential in India. For this family planning programme has to be effectively implemented.

2. Redistribution of Income:
Inequality in the distribution of income and wealth makes the poverty perpetuate and permanent and also reduces the efficiency of the people in general. All efforts for development become futile if the already well – off sections are allowed to comer the additional income largely. In this situation, instead of coming down, the level of poverty may go up.

It is, therefore, essential to redistribute income in such a way that the income and consumption level of the poor class may increase. For this, we have to redirect the flow of income, wealth and resources from the rich people to the poor people. In this regard following measures may be adopted:

1. Creation of employment opportunities for the poor and fair wages to the workers.
2. To make available goods to the people of the poor class at reasonable prices through public distribution system.
3. Implementation of land reform measures.
4. Imposing taxes at higher rates on the rich and giving concessions in taxes on the goods used by the poor people.
5. Improving the conditions of the landless labourers and small farmers.
6. Raising the standard of living of the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes, etc.

• Government has identified seven basic minimum services, which are to be provided to improve the living conditions of the poor.

3. High Rate of Growth:
Economic growth is the most important measure for poverty eradication. Economic growth creates more resources and has the potential of creating more space for the involvement of the poor. But the involvement of the poor depends on the sources of growth and the nature of the growth.

Therefore, it is important to source a large part of economic growth in agriculture, in rural non – agricultural activities and in production expansion of the informal sector which all have high employment elasticities. Besides this, an export strategy based on labour intensive exports may also be useful.

Here, we must note one more thing that a high growth rate is a necessary but not a sufficient condition for removal of poverty. It is possible that in spite of increase in production the consumption standard of the poor may not improve.

It may happen because of rapid rise in population or cornering the additional income by the well – off section of the society. Hence, along with the high rate of economic growth, we have also to adopt measures for population control and redistribution of income. In fact all these three measures are complementary to each – other.

4. Development of Agriculture and Cottage and Small – scale Industries:
A large chunk of poor people in India are in the agricultural sector. Therefore, we have to pay more attention on the development of agriculture. In this regard, measures should be adopted to improve the conditions of landless labourers and marginal farmers. Redistribution of land is also very important measure for the eradication of poverty in the rural sector.

• Development of cottage and small – scale industries can play a very crucial role in providing employment to the poor sections of the society.

5. Social Participation:
Poverty can effectively be eradicated only when the poor start contributing to the growth by their active involvement in the growth process. Implementation of the programmes should be increasingly based on the approaches and methods which involve the poor themselves in the process of poverty eradication and economic growth.

This is, possible through the process of social mobilization, encouraging participatory approaches and institutions and empowerment of the poor. In this Panchayati Raj institutions, the voluntary organisations and community based self – help groups should be more closely involved.

Question 4.
What do you mean by rural development? Bring out the key issues in rural development?
Answer:
Rural development means a comprehensive plan of action for the overall development of the rural areas.
Following are the key issues in rural development:

1. Development of human resources by providing more educational and health facilities and services in rural areas.
2. Land reforms.
3. Development of the local productive resources.
4. Development of infrastructure i. e development of irrigation, transport, electricity, credit facilites, etc.
5. More employment opportunities in the rural areas.

Question 5.
Discuss the importance of credit in rural development?
Answer:
Following points highlight the importance of credit in rural development:

1. Credit is required by the farmers to meet their personal needs because the gestation period between crop sowing and realisation of income after production is quite long.
2. Credit is required by the farmers to make investment on seeds, fertilizers, implements etc. Since majority of the farmers are poor, they do not have sufficient personal resources to make investment.
3. Credit is required by the non – farm sectors also such as cottage and smallscale industries.
4. Credit is required by the rural people for self – employment.

Question 6.
Explain the steps taken by the government in developing rural markets?
Answer:
Four major steps initiated by government to develop rural markets are as follows:

1. Regulation of markets:
The first step taken by the government was regulation of markets to create orderly and transparent marketing conditions. This policy benefited farmers as well as consumers. Under this market committee consists of farmer, government agents and traders regu-lated and monitored the sale and purchase of the market.

2. Infrastructure facilities:
Government is trying to ensure the provision of physical infrastructure facilities like roads, railways, warehouses, godowns, cold storages and processing units in the rural areas. This enables the farmers to bring their product to urban areas where they can earn huge profits. The existing infrastructure facilities are quite inadequate to meet the growing demand.

3. Co – operative marketing:
Government has initiated ‘co – operative marketing in an effort for relishing fair prices for farmers’ products. The milk co – operatives of Gujarat and some other states have been successful in transforming the social economic landscape of these states.

4. Policy instruments:
Government has initiated policy instruments like:

1. Assurance of Minimum Support Prices (MSP) for agricultural products
2. Maintenance of buffer stocks of wheat and rice by food corporation of India and
3. distribution of foodgrains and sugar through PDS. These instruments are aimed at protecting the income of the farmers and providing foodgrains at a subsidized rate to the poor.

Question 7.
Explain four measures taken by the government to improve agricultural marketing?
Answer:
Following are the measures taken by the government to improve agricultural marketing:

1. Regulation of Market:
The government has regulated the agricultural markets to create orderly and transparent transactions.

2. Provision of Physical infrastructure:
The government has provided physical infrastructure facilities like roads, railways, warehouses, godowns, cold storages and processing units.

3. Co – operatine Societies:
The government has promoted co – operative marketing societies. The co – operative marketing has ensured fair prices to farmer for their products.

4. Pricing Policy:
The government has been following the policy of minimum support price for 24 agricultural products.

Question 8.
Bring out the importance of animal husbandry, fisheries and horticulture as a source of diversification?
Answer:

(I) Importance of animal Husbandry:
In India, the mixed crop – livestock farming system with mainly cattle, goats and fowl is prevalent. Livestock production provides increased stability in income, food security transport, fuel and nutrition for the family.

1. Today, livestock sector alone provides alternate livelihood options to a significant number of women and over 70 million small and marginal farmers including landless laboures.

2. Milk production of the Indian dairy sector has increased by more than five times between 1960 – 2009 with the successful implementation of ‘Operation flood’. It is a system whereby all the farmers can pool their milk produced according to different grading (based on quality) and the same is processed and marketed to urban centres through co – operatives.

(II) Importance of Fisheries:
The water bodies consisting of sea, oceans, rivers, lakes, etc. are a source of living for the fishing community. Presently, fish production from inland sources contributes about 61% to the total fish production and the balance 39% comes from the marine sector (sea and oceans). Today, total fish production accounts for 0 – 7% of the total GDP.

This has become possible with progressive increase in budgetary allocations and introduction of new technologies in fisheries and aquaculture. Kerala, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu are the major producers of marine products. Fishing has become a source of women empowerment.

(III) Importance of Horticulture:
Diverse horticultural corps such as:
Fruits, vegetables, tuber crops, flowers, medicinal and aromatic plants, spices and plantation crops are grown in India. These crops play a vital role in providing food and nutrition, along with sustainable employment opportunities. India has emerged as a world leader in producing a variety of fruits like mangoes, bananas, coconuts, cashew nuts and a number of spices and is the second largest producer of fruits and vegetables.

Economic condition of farmers engaged in horticulture has improved. Flower harvesting, nursery maintenance, hybrid seed production and tissue culture, propagation of fruits and flowers and food processing are highly remunerative employment options for women in rural areas.

Question 9.
Identify the benefits and limitations of organic farming?
Answer:
Benefits of Organic Farming:

1. Organic farming substitutes costlier agricultural inputs such as:
HYV seeds, chemical fertilizers, pesticides, etc. with locally produced organic inputs which are cheaper and thereby generate better returns on investment for farmers.

2. Organic farming generates income through exports as the global demand for organically grown crops is increasing.

3. Organically grown food has more nutritional value than food grown through chemical farming thus creating a positive effect on health.

4. Organic farming is appropriate for india as organic farming is more labour intensive than conventional farming.

5. Organic farming promotes soil that are teaming with life and rich in micronutrients which can be used for decades to grow crops virtually year round in many parts of the world.

Limitations of Organic farming:

1. Organic farming is labour intensive. Thus, it is beneficial for small farmers who has abundant labour in his/her family.
2. Organic farming is very expensive, the farmer has to carry out the transition, modify the soil structure.
3. Organic produce is not traded in many markets, marketing is difficult.
4. Organic food prices are not stable and keep fluctuating time to time.
5. Organic farming requires a lot of time as it requires greater interaction between a farmer and his crop for observation.

Question 10.
What is organic farming and how does it promote sustainable development?
Answer:
Organic farming is a system of farming which uses locally produced organic inputs rather than the chemical fertilizers, pesticides, etc. Organic farming leads to sustainable development. Conventional agricultural farming relies heavily on chemical fertilisers and toxic pesticides which enter the food supply, penetrate the water sources, harm the livestock, deplete the soil and disturbs the natural ecosystems. Organic farming is eco – friendly and enhances the ecological balance. Thus, organic promotes sustainable development.

Question 11.
How do infrastructure facilities boost production?
Answer:
Infrastructure facilities boost the production in the following ways:

1. Output of infrastructure sector such as power, water, etc. are used as inputs for production.
2. Transport moves men and materials from place to place for production and investment.
3. Power meet the requirements of economic activities such as lighting of factories and offices, driving of machines, etc.
4. Infrastructure is a component of the capital stock of a society. Cement, steel, etc. stimulates production activities.
5. Larger the infra – structure facilities the bigger the opportunities for producers to produce more and invest more.

Question 12.
State the significance of energy?
Answer:
The singnficance of energy may be listed as under:

1. Energy is the base of the high living levels. There is a remarkable correlation between the per capita consumption of energy and the level of income.

2. Energy is an essential prerequiste for improving the physical quality of life as life as also for the socio – economic development of the rural people of the country. Energy makes life easy and comfortable. It is useful for the spread of illteracy and also for the provision of health facilities, paricularly in rural areas.

3. Energy plays an important role in the development of the country. Energy is an important input for industries and agriculture.

Question 13.
What do you mean by transmission and distribution losses? How can they reduced?
Answer:
Transmission and Distribution (T and D) losses refer to losses which occur at the time of transmission distribution of power to its consumers. Nation’s average loss is around 25% on this account.

Transmission and Distribution losses can be reduced by:

1. Having appropriate size of conductors.
2. Using proper load management.
3. Privatization of distribution work.
4. Introducing energy audits.
5. Checking theft of power.

Question 14.
Discuss the reforms which have been initiated recently to meet energy crisis in India?
Answer:
The following reforms have been initiated by the government to meet he the energy crises:

1. Privatization in Power generation:
Power generation sector has been opened up for private sector and the government monopoly in the generation and distribution of electricity has been eliminated to gain competitive efficiency.

2. Privatization in Power Transmission and Distribution:
The Indian Government has approved private companies like Tata power and Reliance Energy along with Power- grid Corporation of India for constructing transmission networks and look after distribution of power supply in certain states.

3. Regulatory mechanism:
The Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC) along with State Electricity Regulatory Commissions (SERCs) has been established in 19 states under the Electricity Regulatory Commissions Act, 1998 to regulate tariff, promote efficiency and competition.

4. Rationalization of Tariff:
Tariff rates have been revised upwards to discourage wasteful consumption of power and bring down the losses of SEBs.

5. Encouraging FDI in Power sector:
In order to meet the growing demand for electricity, India’s commercial energy supply needs to grow at about 7%. In order to achieve this target, the Ministry of Power aimed at attracting US s 250 billion of investment into the power sector. As domestic investment in power sector is not sufficient. FDI is being encouraged to supplement it.

6. Accelerated Power Development and Reform Programme:
(APDRP) APDRP was initiated in the year 2000 – 2001 with the objective of improving financial viability, reducing transmission and distribute losses and promoting transparency through computerization.

Question 15.
What are the main characteristics of health of the people of our country?
Answer:
The health status of a country can be assessed through indicators such as infant mortality and maternal mortality rates, life expectancy and nutrition levels, along with the incidence of communicable and non – communicable diseases. Some of the health indicators in india are given in the table below:

Sources:
World Health Report 2005 and Economic Survey 2007 – 2008.
The following characteristics of health of the people of our country emerge from the above table:

1. Life expectancy at birth is only 67 years which is low in comparison to global standards.
2. Infant mortality as well as child mortality rates are still high in India though they have shown a declining trend in the past few years.
3. Around 50% of births in India still take place without the help of skilled attendants.

Question 16.
How can we increase the effectiveness of health care programmes?
Answer:
We can increase the effectiveness of health care programmes by following measures:

1. The government should increase its share of expenditure on health. Health requires huge investment.
2. Private sector should be assigned a role but it should be effectively regulated by the government.
3. More medical facilities should be mode available in rural areas.
4. There should be proper upkeep and maintenance of the government health care centres.
5. Sanitation level should be improved.
6. People must be educated to create awareness on health and hygiene.
7. Indian systems of medicine should be used to support public health.

Question 17.
How has women’s health become a matter of great concern?
Answer:
Women’s health has become a matter of great concern in India due to the following:

1. There are increasing cases of female foeticide.
2. The incidence of mortality is still high in case of women in India.
3. About 3 lakh girls under the age of fifteen become mothers every year.
4. Frequently bearing a child has caused anemia which contributes to 19% material deaths.
5. Abortions are a major cause of mortality in India.

Question 18.
Describe the meaning of public health. Discuss the major public measures undertaken by the state in recent years to control diseases?
Answer:
Public health refers to the health status of all the people of the country. Some measures undertaken by state in recent years to control diseases are:

1. Success in the long – term battle against diseases depends on education and efficient health infrastructure. It is, therefore, critical to create awareness on health and hygiene systems.
2. The role of telecom and IT sectors should be extended.
3. The effectiveness of health care programmes also rests on primary health care.
4. In order to provide basic health care to all, accessibility and affordability need to be intergrated in our basic health infrastructure.

Question 19.
Give suggestions to improve Health level in India?
Answer:
The Suggestions to improving Health level in India are:

1. Develop and implement national standards for examination by which doctors, nurses and pharmacists are able to practice and get employment.

2. Rapidly develop and implement national accreditation of hospitals; those that do not comply would not get paid by insurance companies.

3. Obtain proposals from private insurance companies and the government on ways to provide medical insurance coverage to the population at large and execute the strategy.

4. Encourage business schools to develop executive training programmes in healthcare, which will effectively reduce the talent gap for leadership in this area.

5. Revise the curriculum in medical, nursing, pharmacy and other schools that train healthcare professionals, so that they too are trained in the new paradigm.

6. Develop partnerships between the public and private sectors that design newer ways to deliver healthcare. An example of this would include outpatient radiology and diagnostic testing centres.

7. The government should appoint a commission which makes recommendations for the healthcare system and monitors its performance.

Question 20.
Throw light on causes of environmental crisis?
Answer:
The causes of environment crisis are:

1. Pollution:
Pollution of air, water and soil require millions of years to recoup. Industry and motor vehicle exhaust are the number one pollutants. Heavy metals, nitrates and plastic are toxins responsible for pollution.

While water pollution is caused by oil spill, acid rain, urban runoff; air pollution is caused by various gases and toxins released by industries and factories and combustion of fossil fuels; soil pollution is majorly caused by industrial waste that deprives soil from essential nutrients.

2. Global Warming:
Climate changes like global wanning is the result of human practices like emission of Greenhouse gases. Global wafming leads to rising temperatures of the oceans and the earth’s surface causing melting of polar ice caps, rise in sea levels and also unnatural patterns of precipitation such as flash floods, excessive snow or desertification.

3. Overpopulation:
The population of the planet is reaching unsustainable levels as it faces shortage of resources like water, fuel and food. Population explosion in less developed and developing countries is straining the already scarce resources.

Intensive agriculture practiced to produce food damages the environment through use of chemical fertilizer, pesticides and insecticides. Overpopulation is one of the crucial current environmental problem.

4. Natural Resource Depletion:
Natural resource depletion is another crucial current environmental problem. Fossil fuel consumption results in emission of Greenhouse gases, which is responsible for global warming and climate change. Globally, people are taking efforts to shift to renewable sources of energy like solar, wind, biogas and geothermal energy. The cost of installing the infrastructure and maintaining these sources has plummeted in the recent years.

5. Waste Disposal:
The over consumption of resources and creation of plastics are creating a global crisis of waste disposal. Developed countries are notorious for producing an excessive amount of waste or garbage and dumping their waste in the oceans and less developed countries.

Nuclear waste disposal has tremendous health hazards associated with it. Plastic, fast food, packaging and cheap electronic wastes threaten the well – being of humans. Waste disposal is one of urgent current environmental problem.

Question 21.
Identify six factors contributing to land degradation in India?
Answer:
Land degradation means loss of fertility of land. Six of the factors responsible for land degradation are:

1. Loss of vegetation occurring due to deforestation
2. Unsustainable fuel wood and fodder extraction
3. Extraction of groundwater in excess of the recharge capacity,
4. Non – adoption of adequate soil conservation measures
5. Improper crop rotation,
6. Indiscriminate use of agro – chemicals such as fertilizers and pesticides.

Question 22.
Explain how the opportunity costs of negative environmental impact are high?
Answer:
Opportunity cost is the cost in terms of foregone opportunities of doing things. There has been a reversal of supply – demand relationship for environmental quality. We are no faced with increased demand for environmental resources and services but their supply is limited due to overuse resulting from rise in population, affluent consumption patterns and industrialization. Many resources have become extinct and the wastes generated are beyond the absorptive capacity of the environment.

This negative environmental impact has high opportunity costs as explained below:

1. The industrial development is past has polluted and dried up rivers and other aquifers making water an economic good. Cleaning up of polluted rivers and replenishing water resources require huge investments.

2. The intensive and extensive extraction of both renewable and non – renewable re – sources are exhausted.

3. The health costs of degraded environmental quality are also present as decline in air and water quality have resulted in increases incidence of respiratory and water – borne diseases.

4. Global environmental issues such as global warming and ozone depletion also contribute to increased financial commitments for the government.

Thus, it is clear that the opportunity costs of negative environmental impacts are high.

Question 23.
Explain the steps involved in attaining sustainable development in India?
Answer:
Steps involved in attaining sustainable development in India are outlined below:

1. Population Control:
Limiting the human population to a level within the carrying capacity of the environment is the first step to be followed for attaining sustainable development as population is exerting tremendous pressure in terms of demand for resources which is more than the absorptive capacity of the environment leading to environmental crisis.

2. Efficient utilization Of Resources:
Technological progress and industrialization should be input efficient and wastage of resources should be minimized by proper utilization. This will help to produce more with lesser amount of resources and thus, depletion of resources will be slower.

3. Control of Over extraction:
Rate of extraction of renewable resources should not be exceed the rate of regeneration so that they are extracted on a sustainable basis.

4. Control of Depletion:
Rate of depletion of non-renewable resource should not exceed the rate of creation of renewable substitutes so that environmental crisis does not emerge and resources, are available for the future generations.

5. Pollution control:
Pollution in all forms has a negative environmental impact which has high opportunity cost. Hence, control of pollution is a must to maintain the quality of natural resources such as air and water for sustainable development.

6. Use of Non – conventional energy:
India is hugely dependent on thermal and hydropower plants to meet its power needs which have adverse environmental impacts. Wind power and solar rays are cleaner and greener energy sources which should be explored on a large scale by developing technological devices along with non – conventional sources like, nuclear energy.

Question 24.
Explain the supply – demand reversal of environmental resources?
Answer:
Before the advent of industrial revolution, the rate of resource extraction was less than the rate of regeneration of these resources. But with expanding population and its growing needs, the demand for resources for both production and consumption went beyond the rate of regeneration of the resources.

This has resulted in reversal of supply – demand relationship for environmental resources as now there in very high demand for environmental resources and services, but their supply is limited dure to oversue and misure.

Question 25.
Highlight any two serious adverse environmental consequences of development in India. India’s environmental problems pose a dichotomy: they are poverty induced and at the same time due to affluence in living standard: Is this true?
Answer:
Two serious adverse environmental consequences of development in India are as follows:

(I) Land Degradation:
Land in India has suffered degradation stemming mainly from unstable use and inappropriate management practices during the development process.

The factors responsible for land degradation are:

1. Loss of vegetation occurring due to deforestation.
2. Unsustainable fuel, wood and fodder extraction.
3. Extraction of groundwater in excess of the recharge capacity.
4. Non – adoption of adequate soil conservation measures.
5. Improper crop rotation.
6. Indiscriminate use of agro – chemical such as fertilizers and pesticides.

(II) Air and water pollution:
In India, air pollution is widespread in urban areas where vehicles are the major contributors and in a few other areas which have a high concentration of industries and thermal power plants. Water bodies are contaminated when pollutants are discharged from industries directly or indirectly into water bodies without adequate treatment to remove harmful compounds. Water contamination affects plants and organisms living in these bodies of water.

On one hand, population explosion and widespread poverty has lead to deforestation in India as the poor people in the rural areas are compelled to fell trees for earning their livelihood and for use as fuel, on the other hand, the growing demand for natural resources due to affluence in living standards in the urban areas is also equally responsible for the present environment degradation.

Question 26.
What are the causes of poverty?
Answer:
Following are the causes of poverty:

1. Slow growth in agriculture sector:
During the planning period, agriculture was not adequately strengthened due to inadequacy of irrigation, shortage of fertilizers, lack of infrastructural facilities such as transport power, etc. It could not generate enough employment opportunities.

2. Population explosion:
Rapid decline in death rate and slow decrease in birth rate caused rapid growth in population.

3. Inappropriate educational system:
Educational system is not employment oriented. Educational system is not vocational. Present educational system produces clerks and not the entrepreneurs who possess initiative, imagination and risk taking ability.

4. Inequalities of income and asset ownership:
Inequalities of income and asset ownership have contributed to the poverty. Rich persons have taken advantage of new opportunities. Most of the gains of development have accrued only to rich classes. Poor sections of the society could not take benefit of new opportunities and remained poor.

Question 27.
List some of the poverty alleviation programmes in rural areas and explain them?
Answer:
Following are some of the poverty alleviation programmes in rural areas:

1. Swarnajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana:
Swamajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana is centrally sponsored scheme but executed by the district administration with the involvement of Panchayati Raj representatives. It aims at promoting micro – enterprises and helping the rural poor into self – help groups so that poor families may generate additional income on sustained basis.

Assistance is provided in the form of subsidy and bankcredit. More than five crore families have been given assistance. Total assistance amounted to around Rs. 40,000 crore. Average assistance comes out to be Rs. 7,500 – 8,000 per family.

2. Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana (SGRY):
It seeks to provide wage employment and food security to rural poof. The earlier schemes viz, Employment Assurance Scheme and Jawahar Gram Samriddhi Yojana have been fully integrated within this scheme from April, 2002.

3. Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana (PMGY):
PMGY focuses on village level development in health, primary education, drinking water, housing and rural roads. The objective of this scheme is to uplift the living standards of the rural poor. It comprises following schemes :

1. Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana.
2. Pradhan Mantri Gram Awas Yojana.
3. Pradhan Mantri Rural Drinking Water Projects.
4. National Employment Guarantee Scheme (NEGS):
   It seeks to provide at least 100 days of guaranteed employment to rural unskilled workers.
5. Antyodaya Anna Yoj ana (AAY): It was launched in December, 2000. This scheme provides highly subsidised foodgrains to the people living below the poverty line.

Question 28.
What factors contribute to human capital formation?
Answer:
There are various factors which contribute to human capital formation as discussed below:

1. Education:
An educated individual has more knowledge and skills than an uneducated person. Hence, education imparts the necessary attitude and aptitude, for adopting new technologies and efficient management practices which help in raising productivity, Education is an important factor in human capital formation which leads to higher efficiency and productivity in human beings and thus, higher income and standard of living which again facilitates further investment in education and health.

2. Health:
A sound mind in a sound body like education, investment in health is also considered as an important factor for human capital formation as it directly increases the supply of healthy labour force. A healthy person is an asset for the nation as he is more productive than a sick person who is unable to work efficiently due to bad health.

Therefore, investment in health facilities to build a physically as well as mentally strong human capital, is essential for increasing productivity.

3. On the Job Training:
Firms provide on – the – job training to their workers to enhance their skills which helps in human capital formation. The workers may be trained in the firm itself under the supervision of a skilled worker or the workers may be sent for off – campus training.

Expenditure regarding on the job training is an important factor of human capital formation as the return of such expenditure in the form of enhanced labour productivity is more than the cost involved.

4. Migration:
It contributes to human capital formation as it facilitates utilization of inactive skills of the people. People from rural areas migrate to urban areas in search of employment. Technically qualified persons, like engineers and doctors, migrate to other countries because of higher earnings in such countries.

Migration in both these cases involves cost of transport, higher cost of living in the migrated places and psychological costs of adapting to a new socio – cultural set – up.

5. Information:
Information relating to the labour market and other markets is also a factor which contributes to human capital formation. Information regarding the level of salaries in various types of jobs, whether the educational institutions provide the required skills and at what is the associated cost is necessary to make decisions regarding investments in human capital as well as for efficient utilization of the acquired human capital stock. Information is necessary to make decisions regarding investments in human capital.

Question 29.
Explain benefits of Organic farming?
Answer:
Benefits of Organic Farming:

1. Organic farming substitutes costlier agricultural inputs such as:
HYV seeds, chemical fertilizers, pesticides, etc. with locally produced organic inputs which are cheaper and thereby generate better returns on investment for farmers.

2. Organic farming generates income through exports as the global demand for organically grown crops is increasing.

3. Organically grown food has more nutritional value than food grown through chemical farming thus creating a positive effect on health.

4. Organic farming is appropriate for india as organic farming is more labour intensive than conventional farming.

5. Organic farming promotes soil that are teaming with life and rich in micronutrients which can be used for decades to grow crops virtually year round in many parts of the world.

Limitations of Organic farming:

1. Organic farming is labour intensive. Thus, it is beneficial for small farmers who has abundant labour in his/her family.
2. Organic farming is very expensive, the farmer has to carry out the transition, modify the soil structure.
3. Organic produce is not traded in many markets, marketing is difficult.
4. Organic food prices are not stable and keep fluctuating time to time.
5. Organic farming requires a lot of time as it requires greater interaction between a farmer and his crop for observation.

Question 30.
Explain the role of co – operatives?
Answer:
Role of Co – operatives:
Cooperative is a voluntarily formed trading association which aims to provide mutual benefits to their members. Therefore, co – operatives voluntarily form association, where farmers sell their commodities mutually and earn the money.

Objectives of Co – operative:

Following are the objectives of the co – operatives:

1. To ensure timely and rapid flow of credit to the farmers.
2. To gradually eliminate the money lenders from the profile of credit agencies.
3. To spread credit facilities across all regions of the country.
4. To provide adequate credit support to areas covered by special programme of development.

Role of Trading Co – operatives:

1. The trading co – operatives play an important role in elimination of middlemen.
2. To get rid from the evils prevailed in the market.
3. Facilitate classification.
4. Provided standard scale measurement.
5. Storage facility.
6. Financial assistance, etc.

Question 31.
Explain the problems of agricultural trading?
Answer:
It means to exchange of agricultural commodities between farmer and traders. Agricultural trading includes gradation, standardization, collection and conservation. In India the undermentioned system is prevailed for the trading of agricultural commodities: Trading in villages, Trading in mandies, Trading through co – operative societies, with government, the trading through retailers.

Problems of Agricultural Trading:

1. Large number of mediators
2. Malpractices in mandies
3. Increasing market expenditure
4. Lack of grading and standardization,
5. Lack of storing facility
6. Lack of transportation facility
7. No proper communication of price list.

Question 32.
What are the causes of unemployment in India?
Answer:
The following are the main causes of unemployment:

1. Caste System:
In India caste system is prevalent. The work is prohibited for specific castes in some areas. In many cases, the work is not given to the deserving candidates but given to the person belonging to a particular community. So, this gives rise to unemployment.

2. Slow Economic Growth:
Indian economy is underdeveloped and role of economic growth is very slow. This slow growth fails to provide enough unemployment opportunities to the increasing population.

3. Increase in Population:
Constant increase in population has been a big problem in India. It is one of the main causes of unemployment. The rate of unemployment is
11 – 1% in 10th Plan.

4. Agriculture is a Seasonal occupation:
Agriculture is underdeveloped in India. It provides seasonal employment. Large part of population is dependent on agriculture. But agriculture being seasonal provides work for a few months. So, this gives rise to unemployment.

5. Joint Family System:
In big families having big business, many such persons will be available who do not do any work and depend on the joint income of the family. Many of them seem to be working but they do not add anything to production. So, they encourage disguised unemployment.

Question 33.
Unemployment is a major economic and social problem? Explain?
Answer:
Unemployment is a major economic and social problem due to the following reasons:

1. Loss of Human Resources:
The problem of unemployment causes loss of human resources, labourers waste their maximum time in search of employment.

2. Increase in Poverty:
Unemployment deprives a man of all sources of income. As a result he grows poor. Therefore, unemployment generates poverty.

3. Social Problems:
Unemployment breeds many social problems comprising of dishonesty, gambling, bribery, theft, etc. As a result of unemployment social security is jeopardized.

4. Political Instability:
Unemployment gives birth to political instability in country. Unemployed persons can easily be enticed by antisocial elements. They lose all faith in democratic values and peaceful means. They consider that government is worthless which fails to provide them work.

5. Exploitation of Labour:
In the state of unemployment, labourers are exploited to the maximum possible extent. Those labourers who get work have to work under adverse condition of low wages. All this tells upon the efficiency of labourers greatly influence the pattern of employment opportunities in the country. Being poor, a person does not make any gainful use of existing resources.

6. More Emphasis on Capital Intensive Techniques:
In India, capital is scarce and labour is available in surplus quantity. Under these circumstances, the country should adopt labour intensive techniques of production. But it has been observed that not in industrial sector, also in agriculture sector; there is substantial increase of capital than labour.

In the case of Western countries, where capital is in abundant supply, use of automatic machines and other sophisticated equipments are justified while in our country’ abundant labour, results in large number of unemployment.

7. Defective Education System:
The education system in our country too has failed to respond to the existing intergeneration gap. It simply imparts general and literary education devoid of any practical content. India’s education policy merely produces clerks and lower cadre executives for the government and private concerns. The open door policy at the secondary and university level has increased manifold unemployment among the educated that are fit only for white collar jobs.

Question 34.
Explain measures for removing unemployment.
Answer:
Following are the suggestions to solve unemployment problems:

1. Change in industrial technique:
Production technique should suit the needs and means of the country. It is essential that labour intensive technology should be encouraged in place of capital intensive technology.

2. Policy regarding seasonal unemployment:
Seasonal unemployment is found in agriculture sector and agro – based industries. To remove it:

1. Agriculture should have multiple cropping,
2. Plantations, horticulture, dairying and animal husbandry should be encouraged,
3. Cottage industries should be encouraged.

3. Change in education system:
Educational pattern should be completely changed. Students who have liking for higher studies should be admitted in colleges and universities. Emphasis should be given on vocational education. Qualified engineers should start their own small units.

4. Expansion of employment exchanges:
More employment exchanges should be opened. Information regarding employment opportunities should be given to people.

5. More assistance to self – employed people:
Most people in India are self – em – ployed. They are engaged in agriculture, trade, cottage and small-scale industries, etc. These persons should be helped financially, providing raw materials and technical training.

6. Full and more productive employment:
The main objective of country’s employment policy should be to increase employment opportunities and productivity of labour. Government should adopt a policy that provides employment to all people.

Question 35.
Explain the health facilities available in rural areas of India?
Answer:
1. There is a lack of doctors to help those who need it. India has lack of doctors, there being only one doctor for every 2000 people within the country. This means that many people who require professional help are often unable to As a result, a lot of illnesses go unchecked and untreated and overtime worsen.

In a lot of cases, especially in villages and other remote areas, the lack of doctors results in citizens consulting unqualified practitioners who are unable to provide the help and aid their sick patient needs. At times, their advice can worsen the affected person’s condition and overall can be detrimental towards their health.

2. Another cause of poor health includes poor sanitation. Lack of toilets and bath rooms in over 122 million households in the country lead to improper disposal of stools, which are often left in the open. This open air defecation leads to the spread of disease through parasitic and bacterial infections. These diseases are also quite harmful and will continue to spread without the addressing of poor sanitation. Need of good hygiene is quite urgent, as not only is it simple to implement, but can stop the spread and cause of numerous diseases.

3. Lack of safe drinking water in India also accounts for their poor levels of health. Sources of water in India are often unsafe to drink, especially in areas of slums, with only 26% of the slum population having access to clean water. The problem is worsened by falling levels of ground water, insufficient maintenance of environment around water sources, excessive fluoride and arsenic in drinking water and groundwater pollution.

Having dangerous drinking water is a very large problem as every single living thing is dependent on it for survival. Fixing this issue, all over India would result in a very steep raise of health in India, as it would mean no one would be affected by unsafe drinking water.

4. Another key contributor of poor health in India includes increased drug resistance of many diseases. Diseases such as dengue fever, hepatitis, tuberculosis, malaria and pneumonia continue to greatly affect the Indian population due to the diseases increased resistance to drugs. These diseases are both highly dangerous and very common in India and the fact that their resistance to medicine is increasing means they will only cause more devastation in the country.

Question 36.
Give measures to protect environment?
Answer:
Suggestions for Environmental protection:
We all want to protect our planet, but we’re mostly too busy or too lazy to put up big change that would improve our lifestyle and save the environment. These are 7 simple habits to implement in your everyday life which will make a difference. There is nothing new here but if you follow atleast some of these tips, you can be proud of yourself participating in the protection of the environment.

1. Use compact fluorescent light bulbs:
It is true that these bulbs are more expensive, but they last much longer and they can save energy and in the long term your electricity bill would be reduced.

2. Donate:
You have tons of clothes or things you want to get rid of. If they are still usable, give them to someone who needs them. You may also choose to give them to associations. These associations may sell them and collect a little money. Not only will you protect the environment, but you will also contribute to a good cause.

3. Turn off your devices:
When you do not use a house device, turn it off. For example, if you don’t watch TV, turn it off. Turn off the light when you leave a room (even if you intend to return.) It’s an easy habit to take up which will help you save a lot of money.

4. Walk or cycle:
Driving is one of the biggest causes of pollution. If you want to use your car, ask yourself the following question: do I really need my car? Walk or use your bike if the journey is a short one.

5. Detergent:
Follow the recommended dose of detergent to wash your clothes or dishes.

6. Leaky faucets:
Watch leaky faucets, which can cause a significant increase in the water bill. An average of 120 litres of water can be wasted due to a dripping faucet.

Question 37.
Describe the strategies for sustainable development?
Answer:
Strategies for Sustainable Development:
The conceptual meaning of sustainable development is not to create an obstacle in development process but this concept belongs to how we utilize our resources so that an inter – relationship can be established among present and future generation. To attained sustainable development, many probable strategies can be useful.

1. Input Efficient Technology can be reducing the exploitation of resources. So, this technology may good for sustainable development. Via Using of Environmental friendly Sources of Energy, such as LPG and CNG which are eco – friendly fuel, we can reduce the greenhouse gases from the earth.

Delhi Transport Corporation’s initiative to CNG Buses in Delhi is the one of the best effort to reduce C02 and other harmful gases. Government should pay attention on Integrated Rural Development Programmes.

2. Through this the burden and interdependency on cities for employment can be decreased to focus on.

3. Renewable sources of energy like solar and wind for energy needs. It will be beneficial for the country like India, where is enough sun light, to convert Sunlight into solar Energy and Solar Energy in Electricity.

4. It will create an atmosphere for green development. For attaining the sustainable development it is necessary for the government and society to control on the Tragedy of Commons.

Question 38.
Explain the major issues related with environment?
Answer:

1. The intensive and extensive extraction of both renewable and non – renewable resources has exhausted some of these vital resources and huge amount of funds need to be spent on technology and research to explore new resources.

2. The health costs of degraded environmental quality are also present as decline in air and water quality have resulted in increased incidence of respiratory and water – borne diseases.

3. Global environmental issues such as global warming and ozone depletion also contribute to increases financial commitments for the government.

MP Board Class 11th Economics Important Questions

MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Haloalkanes and Haloarenes NCERT Intext Exercises

Question 1.
Write structures of the following compounds :
(i) 2-Chloro-3-methylpentane
(ii) 1-Chloro-4-ethylcyclohexane
(iii) 4-tert. ButyI-3-iodoheptane
(iv) 1,4-Dibromobut-2-ene
(v) 1-Bromo-4-sec. buty1-2-methylbenzene.
Answer:

Question 2.
Why is sulphuric acid not used during the reaction of alcohols with KI ?
Answer:
H₂SO₄ is an oxidizing agent. It oxidizes HI produce during the reaction to I₂ and thus prevents the reaction between alcohol and HI to form an alkyl iodide.
KI + H₂SO₄ → KHSO₄ + HI
2HI + H₂SO₄ → I₂ + 2H₂O + SO₂
To remove this difficulty a non-oxidizing agent such as H₃PO₄ is used in place of H₂SO₄.

Question 3.
Write structures of different dihalogen derivatives of propane.
Answer:

Question 4.
Among the isomeric alkanes of molecular formula C₅H₁₂, identify the one that on photochemical chlorination yields:
(i) A single monochloride
(ii) Three isomeric monochlorides
(iii) Four isomeric monochlorides.
Answer:

All the hydrogen are same i.e. 1°. Therefore, replacement of only one of them will give the same product.

Replacement of a, b and c hydrogen atoms give three isomeric monochlorides.

Replacement of a, b, c and d hydrogen atoms give four isomeric monochlorides.

Question 5.
Draw the structures of major monohalo products in each of the following reactions:

Answer:

Question 6.
Arrange each set of compounds in order of increasing boiling points.
(i) Bromomethane, Bromoform, Chloromethane, Dibromomethane.
(ii) 1-Chloropropane, Isopropyl chloride, 1-Chlorobutane.
Answer:
(a) For the same alkyl group boiling point increases with increase in the molar mass of halogen atom; increase in the number of halogen atoms.
(b) For the same halogen with the increase in branching boiling point decreases.
On the basis of this following order is predicted :
(i) Chloromethane < Bromomethane < Dichloro-methane < Bromoform.
(ii) Isopropyl chloride < 1-Chloropropane < 1-Chlorobutane.

Question 7.
Which alkyl halide from the following pairs would you expect to react more rapidly by an SN₂ mechanism ? Explain your answer.

Answer:
If the leaving group is same in different isomers of a particular formula, the reactivity of the isomers towards S_N2 mechanism decreases with the steric hindrance.

which is 2° alkyl halide having some steric hindrance.

which is 3° alkyl halide having much more steric hindrance (than 2°).

are 2° alkyl halides. But in (II) the CH₃ group is at C₂ atom which is closer to Br (exerts more steric hindrance) to the attacking nucleophile at C₁ atom as compared to (I)

Question 8.
In the following pairs of halogen compounds, which compound undergoes faster S_N1 reaction :

Answer:
The reactivity of alkyl halide towards S_N1 reaction depends upon the stability of the intermediate carbocation formed as 3° > 2° > 1°

Question 9.
Identify A, B, C, D, E, R and R’ in the following :


Answer:

Since, D of D₂O gets attached to same C-atom on which – MgBr or Br was present so that

tert-Alkyl halides do not undergo Wurtz reaction. Therefore, the question is not correct. They undergo dehydrohalogenation to give alkenes. Hence,

Haloalkanes and Haloarenes NCERT Textbook Exercises

Question 1.
Name of the following halides according to IUPAC system and classify them as alkyl, allyl, benzyl (primary, secondary, tertiary), vinyl or aryl halides :

1. (CH₃)₂CHCH(Cl)CH₃
2. CH₃CH₂CH(CH₃)CH(C₂H₅)Cl
3. CH₃CH₂C(CH₃)₂CH₂I
4. (CH₃)₃CCH₂CH(Br)C₆H₅
5. CH₃CH(CH₃)CH(Br)CH₃
6. CH₃C(C₂H₅)₂CH₂Br
7. CH₃C(Cl)(C₂H₅)CH₂CH₃
8. CH₃CH=C(Cl)CH₂CH(CH₃)₂
9. CH₃CH=CHC(Br)(CH₃)₂
10. p-ClC₆H₄CH₂CH(CH₃)₂
11. m-ClCH₂C₆H₄CH₂C(CH₃)₃
12. o-Br-C₆H₄CH(CH₃)CH₂CH₃.

Answer:

1. 2-Chloro-3-methylbutane (2° alkyl)
2. 3-Chloro-4-methylhexane (2° alkyl)
3. l-Iodo-2,2-dimethylbutane (1° alkyl)
4. l-Bromo-3,3-dimethyl-l-phenylbutane (2° benzylic)
5. 2-Bromo-3-methylbutane (2° alkyl)
6. 3-Bromomethyl-3-methylpentane (1° alkyl)
7. 3-Chloro-3-methylpentane (3° alkyl)
8. 3-Chloro-5-methylhex-2-ene (vinyl)
9. 4-Bromo-4-methylpent-2-ene (allylic)
10. 1-Chloro-4-(2′-methylpropyl) benzene (aryl) or p-Chloro isobutyl benzene
11. 1-Chloromethyl-3-(2’2′-diethylpropyl) benzene (benzylic) or /n-Neopentyl ben-zyl chloride
12. 1-Bromo-2-(l’-methylpropyl) benzene (aryl).

Question 2.
Give the IUPAC names of the following compounds :

1. CH₃CH(Cl)CH(Br)CH₃
2. CHF₂CBrCIF
3. ClCH₂C = CCH₂Br
4. (CCl₃)₃CCl
5. CH₃C(p-CIC₆H₄)2CH(Br)CH₃
6. (CH₃)₃CCH=ClC₆H₄I-p.

Answer:

1. 2-Bromo-3-chlorobutane
2. 1 -Bromo-1 -chloro-1,2,2-trifluoroethane
3. l-Bromo-4-chlorobut-2-yne
4. 1,1,1,2,3,3,3-heptachloro-2-(trichloromethyl) propane
5. 3-Bromo-2,2,-bis (4′-chlorophenyl) butane
6. 1-Chloro-l-(4′-iodophenyl)-3,3-dimethyl-but-1-ene.

Question 3.
Write the structures of the following organic halogen compounds :
(i) 2-Chloro-3-methylpentane
(ii) p-Bromochlorobenzene
(iii) 1-Chloro-4-ethylcyclohexane
(iv) 2-(2-Chlorophenyl)-1-iodooctane
(v) Perfluorobenzene
(vi) 4-tert-Butyl-3-iodoheptane
(vii) 1-Bromo-4-sec-butyl-2-methylbenzene
(viii) 1,4-Dibromobut-2-ene.
Answer:

Question 4.
Which one of the following has the highest dipole moment:
(i) CH₂Cl₂
(ii) CHCl₃
(iii) CCl₄.
Answer:

CCl₄ (iii) is a symmetrical and has resultant zero dipole moment. In CHCl₃ (ii), the resultant of two C – Cl dipoles is opposed by the resultant of C – H and C – Cl bonds. Since, the latter resultant is expected to be smaller than the former, therefore, CHCl₃ has finite dipole (1.03 D) moment.
In CH₂Cl₂ (i), the resultant of two C-Cl dipole moments is reinforced by resultant of two C-H dipoles, therefore, CH₂Cl₂ (1.62 D) has a dipole moment higher than that of CHCl₃.
Thus, CH₂Cl₂ has the highest dipole moment.

Question 5.
A hydrocarbon C₅H₁₀ does not react with chlorine in dark but gives a single monochloro compound C₅H₉Cl in bright sunlight Identify the hydrocarbon.
Answer:

1. The molecular formula suggests that it can either be a cycloalkane or alkene.
2. Since, the hydrocarbon does not react with Cl₂ in the dark, it cannot be alkene. Therefore, it must be a cycloalkane.
3. The hydrocarbon reacts with Cl₂ in the presence of bright sunlight to give a single mono-chloro compound C₅H₉Cl, therefore, all the ten H-atoms of cycloalkane must be equivalent.

Question 6.
Write the isomers of the compound having formula C₄H₉Br.
Answer:
The isomers of C₄H₉Br along with their common names are given below :

Question 7.
Write the equations for the preparation of 1-iodobutane from :
(i) 1-butanol
(ii) 1-chlorobutane
(iii) but-1-ene.
Answer:

Question 8.
What are ambident nucleophiles ? Explain with an example.
Answer:
The nucleophile having two nucleophilic centres are called ambident nucleo-phile. Example is cyanide group because it can attack through C or N because of the following resonance structures :

Question 9.
Which compound in each of the following pairs will react faster in S_N2 reaction with OH-:
(i) CH₃Br or CH₃I
(ii) (CH₃)₃CCl or CH₃Cl.
Answer:
(i) CH₃I reacts faster than CH₃Br in S_N2 reaction with OH^– because I^– ion is a better leaving group than Br^– ion because of its large size.
(ii) CH₃Cl reacts faster than (CH₃)₃CCl because of steric hindrance in (CH₃)₃CCl.

Question 10.
Predict all the alkenes that would be formed by dehydrohalogenation of the following halides with sodium ethoxide in ethanol and identify the major alkene :
(i) 1-Bromo-1-methylcyclohexane
(ii) 2-Chloro-2-methylbutane
(iii) 2,2,3-Trimethyl-3-bromopentane.
Answer:
(i) In 1-Bromo-l-methylcyclohexane, the β hydrogens on either side of the Br atom are equivalent, therefore, only 1-alkene is formed.


Since, the alkene (A) is more substituted according to SaytzefTs rule, it is more stable and will be the major product.

Question 11.
How will you bring about the following conversions :
(i) Ethanol to but-1-yne
(ii) Ethane to bromoethene
(iii) Propene to 1-nitropropane
(iv) Toluene to benzyl alcohol
(v) Propene to propyne
(vi) Ethanol to ethyl fluoride
(vii) Bromomethane to propanone
(viii) But-l-ene to but-2-ene
(ix) 1-Chlorobutane to n-octane
(x) Benzene to biphenyl.
Answer:

Question 12.
Explain why:
(i) The dipole moment of chlorobenzene is lower than that of cyclohexyl chloride ?
(ii) Alkyl halides, though polar, are immiscible with water ?
(iii) Grignard reagents should be prepared under anhydrous conditions ?
Answer:

Due to sp² hybridization of C-atom in chlorobenzene, C-atom is more electronegative (greater s-character) whereas, cyclohexyl chloride, C-atom is sp3 hybridized i.e., less electronegative (lesser 5-character). So, polarity of C—Cl bond in chlorobenzene is less than C—Cl bond in cyclohexyl chloride. Further due to delocalisation of lone pair of electrons of Cl-atom over the benzene ring, C—Cl bond in chlorobenzene acquires partial double bond character while C—Cl bond in cyclohexyl chloride is a pure single bond. Thus, C—Cl bond in chlorobenzene is shorter than in cyclohexyl chloride. As dipole moment is a product of charge and distance, therefore, the dipole moment of chlorobenzene is lower than that of cyclohexyl chloride.

(ii) Water molecules have enough strong intermolecular H-bonding which is difficult to be broken by alkyl halides though they are polar in nature as well. Therefore, alkyl halide do not dissolve in water and form separate layers.

(iii) Grignard reagents (R-Mg-X) are readily decomposed by water to produce al-kanes. That is why, they should be prepared under anhydrous conditions. Instead, ether is used as a solvent during the preparation of Grignard reagent.

Question 13.
Give the uses of freon-12, D.D.T., Carbon tetrachloride and Iodoform.
Answer:
It is an important pesticide.

Freon-12 : Since freons have been found to be one of the factors responsible for the depletion of ozone layer, they are being replaced by other harmless compounds in many countries.

D.D.T. : DDT is highly toxic and has strong insecticidal properties and thus it was widely used as an insecticide and pesticide.

Carbon Tetrachloride : It is produced in large quantities for use in the manufacture of refrigerants and propellants for aerosol cans. It is used as feed stock in the synthesis of chlorofluorocarbons and other chemicals, pharmaceutical manufacturing and general sol¬vents use. Until the mid 1960’s, it was widely used as a cleaning fluid both in industry as a degreasing agent and in the home, as a spot remover and as fire extinguisher.

Iodoform : It was earlier used as an antiseptic but the antiseptic properties are due to the liberation of free iodine and not due to iodoform itself. Due to its objectionable smell, it has been replaced by other formulations containing iodine.

Question 14.
Write the structure of the major organic product in each of the following reactions :


Answer:

Question 15.
Write the mechanism of the following reaction :

Answer:
KCN gives CN- ion as a nucleophile in an aqueous medium which is resonance hybrid of the following :

Thus, cyanide ions is an ambident nucleophile. Therefore, it can attack the C-atom of C—Br bond in «-BuBr either through C-atom or through N-atom. Thus, two possible products are cyanides and isocyanides respectively.

But C—C bond is more stable than C—N bond, so attack occurs through C-atom and hence, cyanide is predominantly formed.

Question 16.
Arrange the compounds of each set in order of reactivity towards SN2 displacement:
(i) 2-Bromo-2-methylbutane, 1 Bromopentane, 2-Bromopentane
(ii) 1-Bromo-3-methyIbutane, 2-Bromo-2-methylbutane, 3-Bromo-2- methylbutane
(iii) 1-Bromobutane, l-Bromo-2,2-dimethyl-propane, l-Bromo-2-methylbutane, l-Bromo-3-methylbutane.
Answer:
The reactivity of S_N2 reaction depends upon steric hindrance. More the steric hindrance lesser will be the reactivity. Therefore, the reactivity of different alkyl halides towards S_N2 reaction is 1° > 2° > 3°.

Question 17.
Out of C₆H₅CH₂Cl and C₆H₅CHClC₆H₅, which is more easily hydrolysed by aqueous KOH ?
Answer:

However, under S_N2 mechanism, the reactivity depends on steric hindrance, therefore, C₆H₅CH₂Cl get hydrolysed more easily than C₆H₅CHClC₆H₅ under S_N2 conditions.

Question 18.
p-Dichlorobenzene has higher m.p. and solubility than those of o- and m- isomers. Discuss.
Answer:
p-dichlorobenzene has higher melting point than its o-isomer due to symmetry of p-isomer that fits in the crystal lattice better than the o- or m- isomer. Therefore, it has stronger intermolecular forces of attraction than o- and m- isomers and thus greater energy is required to break crystal lattice to melt or dissolve the p-isomer than the corresponding o- and m- isomers. In other words melting point of p-isomer is higher and its solubility is lower than corresponding m- and o- isomers.

Question 19.
How the following conversions can be carried out:
(i) Propene to propan-1-ol
(ii) Ethanol to but-l-yne
(iii) 1-Bromopropane to 2-bromopropane
(iv) Toluene to benzyl alcohol
(v) Benzene to 4-bromonitrobenzene
(vi) Benzyl alcohol to 2-phenylethanoic acid
(vii) Ethanol to propanenitrile
(viii) Aniline to chlorobenzene
(ix) 2-Chlorobutane to 3,4-dimethyIhexane
(x) 2-Methyl-1-propene to 2-chloro-2-methyl-propane
(xi) Ethyl chloride to propanoic acid
(xii) But-1-ene to n-butyliodide
(xiii) 2-Chloropropane to 1-propanol
(xiv) Isopropyl alcohol to iodoform
(xv) Chlorobenzene to p-nitrophenol
(xvi) 2-Bromopropane to 1-bromopropane
(xvii) Chloroethane to butane
(xviii) Benzene to diphenyl
(xix) ttert-Butyl bromide to isobutyl bromide
(xx) Aniline to phenyl isocyanide.
Answer:

Question 20.
The treatment of alkyl chlorides with aqueous KOH leads to the formation of alcohols but in the presence of alcoholic KOH, alkenes are major products. Explain.
Answer:
In the presence of water, KOH dissociates completely into OH^– ions which being a strong nucleophile brings about substitution on alkyl halides and produce alcohols from alkyl halide. Further in aqueous solution, OH^– ions are highly solvated (hydrated). This solvation reduces the basic character of OH^– ions which therefore, fails to abstract a proton from β-carbon of alkyl chloride to form alkenes. In alcoholic medium, (less polar than H₂O) OH- is less highly hydrated therefore, acts as strong base and abstract the proton from β-carbon giving alkene as major product (dehydrohalogenation). Moreover alcoholic solution contains C₂H₅O- ethoxide ion in addition to OH^– ions. Being a stronger base than OH^–, they abstract proton gives alkene.

Qusetion 21.
Primary alkyl halide C₄H₉Br (a) is reacted with alcoholic KOH to give com-pound (b). Compound (b) is reacted with HBr to give (c) which is an isomer of (a). When (a) is reacted with sodium metal it gives compound (d). C₈H₁₈ which is different from the compound formed when n-butyl bromide is reacted with sodium. Give the structural for-mula of (a) and write the equations for all the reactions.
Answer:
Two possible isomers of given 1° alkyl halide C₄H₉Br are :

According to the question, compound (a) on reaction with sodium does not give the same product produced by n-butyl bromide. So (a) cannot be (I).

Question 22.
What happens when:
(i) n-butyl chloride is treated with alcoholic KOH.
(ii) bromobenzene is treated with Mg in the presence of dry ether.
(iii) chlorobenzene is subjected to hydrolysis.
(iv) ethyl chloride is treated with aqueous KOH.
(v) methyl bromide is treated with sodium in the presence of dry ether.
(vi) methyl chloride is treated with KCN ?
Answer:
(i) CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂Cl + KOH (alc.)

Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Other Important Questions and Answers

Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
Which of the following compound gives yellow precipitate with AgN03 solution :
(a) KIO₃
(b) CHI₃
(c) KI
(d) CH₂I₂.
Answer:
(c) KI

Question 2.
What is formed by the reaction of Ethyl bromide with lead sodium alloy :
(a) Tetraethyl lead
(b) Tetraethyl bromide
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Tetraethyl lead

Question 3.
Reaction CH₃Br + OH → CH₃ – OH + Br- is :
(a) Electrophilic substitution
(b) Electrophilic addition
(c) Nucleophilic addition
(d) Nucleophilic substitution.
Answer:
(d) Nucleophilic substitution.

Question 4.
When acetylene added to HC1, the product formed is :
(a) CH₂ = CHCl
(b) CH₃ – CH – Cl₂
(c) Cl – CH = CHCl
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) CH₃ – CH – Cl₂

Question 5.
In Aryl halide, the carbon linked to halogen atom is :
(a) sp hybridized
(b) sp hybridized
(c) sp hybridized
(d) sp³d hybridized.
Answer:
(b) sp hybridized

Question 6.
In S_N1 reaction in the first step is formed :
(a) Free radical
(b) Carbanion
(c) Carbcation
(d) Final product.
Answer:
(c) Carbcation

Question 7.
Chlorobenzene reacts with chloral and concentrated H₂SO₄ to form :
(a) PVC
(b) TNT
(c) B.H.C.
(d) DDT.
Answer:
(d) DDT.

Question 8.
Reaction CH₃OH + OH^– → CH₃OH + Br^– is :
(a) S_N1
(b) S_N2
(C) S_E-1
(d)S_E-2.
Answer:
(b) S_N2

Question 9.
The following compound reacts with silver powder to form acetylene :
(a) CH₂I₂
(b) CH₃I
(c) CHI₃
(d) Cl₄.
Answer:
(c) CHI₃

Question 10.
Pyrene is used with any one of the following for extinguishing fire :
(a) CO₂
(b) CH₂Cl₂
(c) CCl₄
(d) CH₂ = CHCl.
Answer:
(c) CCl₄

Question 11.
Which of the following compound is known by the name freon :
(a) CHCl₃
(b) CCl₄
(c) CCl₂F₂
(d) CF₄.
Answer:
(c) CCl₂F₂

Question 12.
On heating ethyl iodide with alcoholic KOH the product formed is :
(a) Ethanol
(b) Ethane
(c) Acetylene
(d) Ethylene.
Answer:
(d) Ethylene.

Question 13.
On heating C₂H₅OH with iodine and a base the product formed is :
(a) CH₃I
(b) CHI₃
(c) CH₃CHO
(d) CHCI₃.
Answer:
(b) CHI₃

Question 14.
Which of the chemical formula is of chloropicrin :
(a) CCl₃ – CHO
(b) C(NO₂)Cl₃
(c) CH₃ – C(NO₂)Cl₂
(d) CCl₃ – NH₂.
Answer:
(b) C(NO₂)Cl₃

Question 15.
Order of polarity of CH₃I, CH₃Br and CH₃Cl molecules is :
(a) CH₃Br > CH₃Cl > CH₃I
(b) CH₃I > CH₃Br > CH₃Cl
(c) CH₃CI > CH₃Br > CH₃I
(d) CH₃CI > CH₃I > CH₃Br.
Answer:
(c) CH₃CI > CH₃Br > CH₃I

Question 16.
Correct order of reactivity of Alkyl halides is :
(a) Iodide > Bromide > Chloride
(b) Iodide < Bromide < Chloride
(c) Bromide > Iodide > Chloride
(d) Bromide < Chloride < Iodide.
Answer:
(a) Iodide > Bromide > Chloride

Question 17.
What is formed on heating iodoform with silver powder :
(a) Alkane
(b) Ethylene
(c) Acetylene
(d) Isocyanide.
Answer:
(c) Acetylene

Question 18.
Raschig method is used for the manufacture of which of the following :
(a) Chlorobenzene
(b) Benzene
(c) Toluene
(d) Nitro-benzene.
Answer:
(a) Chlorobenzene

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks :

1. The formula of the harmful product formed on keeping chloroform open is ………………
2. General formula of alkyl halide is ………………
3. On heating aromatic primary amine with chloroform and alcoholic caustic potash a bad smelling gas ……………… is formed.
4. B.H.C. is an insecticide whose commercial name is ………………
5. Chloretone is a high grade ………………
6. SN1 reaction occur in ……………… steps.
7. In haloarene substitution reactions are mainly ………………
8. Formula of refrigerant Freon is ………………

Answer:

1. 1. COCl₂

1. C_nH_2n+1X
2. Phenyl isocyanide
3. Gammaxene or lindane
4. Hypnotic medicine
5. Two
6. Electrophilic
7. CCl₂F₂.

Question 3.
Match the following :

Answer:

1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (f)
4. (b)
5. (c)
6. (g)
7. (a).

Question 4.
Answer in one word/sentence :

1. On reacting Benzene with methyl chloride in presence of AlCl₃, Toluene is formed, what is the name of the reaction ?
2. Alkyl halide is polar in nature still it is insoluble in water.
3. On heating alkyl halide with sodium metal, product formed is.
4. On heating Benzene diazonium salt with cuprous halide and its corresponding acid haloarene is formed. Write name of the reaction.
5. On heating iodobenzene with copper powder at 200°C, product obtained is.
6. What is formed on treating benzene with Cl₂ in the presence of sunlight ?
7. Write laboratory method of preparation of chlorobenzene.
8. Write the name of nucleophilic substitution reaction in primary alkyl halide.

Answer:

1. Friedel-Crafts reaction
2. Due to inability to form hydrogen bond
3. Alkane
4. Sandmeyer reaction
5. Diphenyl
6. B.H.C.
7. Raschig method
8. Bimolecular nucleophilic substitution reaction.

Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
(i) Write Iodoform reaction.
(ii) Iodoform gives yellow ppt with AgNO₃ solution but chloroform doesn’t Why ?
(iii) What happens when ethyl bromide is heated with alcoholic KOH ?
Answer:
(i) Iodoform reaction : When ethyl alcohol or acetone is heated with iodine and NaOH, yellow crystals of iodoform are formed.
C₂H₅OH +4I₂ + 6NaOH → 5NaI + HCOONa + 5 H₂O + CHI₃

(ii) When iodoform is heated with AgNO₃ solution a yellow ppt. (Agl) is obtained but chloroform doesn’t give this reaction because in chloroform C-Cl bond is more stable than C-I bond in iodoform.

(iii) On boiling Ethyl bromide with alcoholic KOH ethylene is formed.

Question 2.
Explain the Sandmeyer reaction with example.
Answer:
Decomposition of diazonium salts (Sandmeyer reaction): When a diazonium salt solution is added to a solution of cuprous halide dissolved in the corresponding halogen acid, the diazo group is replaced by a halogen atom.

Question 3.
Give chemical reaction between chlorobenzene and chloral in presence of cone. H₂SO₄.
Or,
How is D.D.T. formed ? Write its one application.
Answer:
DDT (Dichlorodiphenyl trichloroethane) is formed by the condensation of one molecule of chloral with two molecules of chlorobenzene in presence of cone. H₂SO₄.

Application : It is an important pesticide.

Question 4.
What are Gem-dihalide and Vicinal-dihalide ?
Answer:
When both halogen atoms are linked to one carbon atom of hydrocarbon then it is known as Gem-dihalide. Gem means geminal i.e., same position.

When both halogen atoms are connected to two different neighbouring carbon atoms, then it is known as vicinal dihalide. Vic means vicinal which means adjacent position.

Question 5.
What is Lucas reagent ? Give its application.
Answer:
Solution of ZnCl₂ in cone. HCl is known as Lucas reagent.
Application : It is used to differentiate primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols. On adding the alcohol to Lucas reagent, a tertiary alcohol reacts immediately forming a ppt. of alkyl chloride. If the ppt. appears after few minutes, then the alcohol is secondary. If no ppt. is obtained in cold the alcohol is primary.

Question 6.
Explain, Carbylamine reaction and give one application of this reaction.
Answer:
Carbylamine reaction: On heating chloroform with primary amine (e.g., aniline) and alcoholic KOH solution, phenylisocyanide or carbylamine is formed which has a very bad smell and is poisonous.

Application : Chloroform and primary amine can be tested by this reaction.

Question 7.
What is 666 (lindane) ? Explain its preparation and use in agriculture.
Answer:
It is 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6-Hexachlorocyclohexane. It is obtained by heating benzene with chlorine in presence of sunlight.
Preparation : It is prepared by the chlorination of benzene in the presence of ultra-violet light.

1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6-Hexachlorocyclohexane (B.H.C.)
Uses : Benzene hexachloride is an addition compound and its 7 -isomer is called gammexane. It is an important pesticide used in agriculture. It is also called lindane or 666.

Question 8.
Explain the following reaction of chlorobenzene :
(i) Reaction with chlorine in the presence of FeCI₃ in dark
(ii) Fittig reaction.
Answer:
(i) When Chlorobenzene reacts with Cl₂ in the presence of FeCl₃ in dark o – dichlorobenzene and P – dichlorobenzene is obtained.

(ii) Fittig reaction : When Chlorobenzene is heated at 200°C with Cu powder in a sealed tube Diphenyl is formed.

When two molecules of aryl halide reacts with sodium metal in presence of dry ether, then diphenyl is formed. This reaction is known as Fittig reaction.

Question 9.
How can you obtained following compounds from chloroform ? Give equations :
(a) Methane
(b) Acetylene
(c) Carbon tetrachloride.
Answer:
(a) Chloroform reduces into methane by Zn and H₂O.

(b) When CHCl₃ heated with Ag powder it gives C₂H₂.

(c) By the chlorination of CHCl₃ in presence of sunlight CCl4 is formed.

Question 10.
Write short notes on :
(a) Hunsdiecker method and
(b) Raschig process.
Ans.
(a) Hunsdiecker method : When silver salt of a carboxylic acid is heated with bromine, in the presence of an inert solvent like CCl₄, aryl bromide is formed.

This method is called Hunsdiecker method.

(b) Raschig process : When benzene vapours mixed with air and HCl gas is passed over CuCl₂(catalyst) at 230°C, chlorobenzene is formed.

Question 11.
Write method of preparation, properties and uses of Freon.
Answer:
Freon : Dichloro, Difluoro methane.
It is formed by the action of SbF₃ with CCl₄ in presence of SbCl₅.

It has very low boiling point due to which by increasing the pressure at room temperature it can be liquefied.
It is a non-poisonous, non-combustible and inactive substance which is used as a cooling agent in the refrigerator. It is used in aerosol and foam.

Question 12.
(i) b.p. of ethyl iodide is higher than b.p. of ethyl bromide. Give reason
(ii) Explain why the m.p. of para dichlorobenzene is higher than its ortho and meta derivatives.
Answer:
(i) In alkyl halides containing same alkyl group boiling point increases with increases in atomic weights of halogen atoms. Molecular weight of ethyl iodide is more than ethyl bromide and therefore boiling point of ethyl iodide is also high.
(ii) Para derivatives of dichlorobenzene is more symmetrical than its ortho and meta derivatives therefore its m.p. is higher.

Question 13.
Give main nucleophilic substitution reaction of alkyl halides.
Answer:
Nucleophilic substitution Reactions :

1. Substitution by —OH group (Hydrolysis): Alkyl halide on reacting with water or aqueous KOH hydrolyse to form alcohol.
C₂H₅Br + KOH → C₂H₅ — OH + KBr

2. Substitution by —OR group : Alkyl halide reacts with sodium alkoxide or Ag₂O to form ether by substitution of halogen atom by —OR group.
C₂H₅Br + NaOC₂H₅ → C₂H₅ — OC₂H₅ + NaBr
2C₂ H₅I + Ag₂O → (C₂H₅)₂ O + 2AgI

3. Substitution by —CN group: Alkyl halide reacts with aqueous or alcoholic KCN to form alkyl cyanide.
C₂H₅Cl + KCN → C₂H₅CN + KCl

4. Substitution by ammonia (Hofmann method) : On heating alkyl halide with aqueous or alcoholic solution of NH₃ in a sealed tube at 100°C, a mixture of various amine is obtained.

Question 14.
Give the laboratory method for the preparation of chlorobenzene and explain its nitration and sulphonation reactions.
Answer:
Laboratory method: Chlorobenzene is prepared by direct halogenation of arene. Aryl chloride may be prepared from arenes by the action of chlorine or presence of halogen carrier like FeCl₃, FeBr₃ and AlCl₃. Iodine and iron filings can also be used as halogen carrier.

Nitration : Haloarenes react with nitrating mixture to form o-nitro and p-nitro sub-stituted haloarenes.

Sulphonation : On heating with cone. H₂SO₄, 2-Chlorobenzene sulphonic acid and 4-Chlorobenzene sulphonic acid are formed.

Question 15.
Give the chemical reactions when ethyl halide reacts with the following :
(i) Alloy of Pb-Na
(ii) Mg metal
(iii) AgNO₂
(iv) Na metal.
Answer:
(i) Reaction with lead-sodium alloy: Alkyl halides, form alkyl lead when treated with lead-sodium alloy.

Tetraethyl lead (TEL) is an antiknock compound which is added in petrol.

(ii) Reaction with magnesium : Alkyl halide forms alkyl magnesium halide i.e., Grignard reagent with magnesium in presence of dry ether as a solvent.

(iii) Reaction with AgNO₂: Mainly nitroethane is formed.
C₂H₅I + AgNO₂ → C₂H₅ NO₂ + Agl

(iv) Reaction with sodium (Wurtz reaction) : When alkyl halide is heated with sodium, in the presence of dry ether, alkane is formed.

Question 16.
Give the preparation method, properties and applications of dichloroethane. Ans. Preparation of dichloroethane: It can be prepared by replacing two hydrogen of ethane by two chlorine atoms.
(i) By the passage of Cl₂ into ethene :

(ii) By the heating of mix of ethane diol and HCl in presence of anhydrous ZnCl₂.

Properties : (a) Reaction with aqueous KOH :

(b) Reaction with alcoholic KOH :

Vinyl chloride reacts with ale. KOH and form vinyl ethyl other.
CH₂ = CHCl + HOC₂H₅ + KOH → CH₂ = CH – OC₂H₅ + KCl + H₂O
(c) Reaction with KCN :

(d) Reaction with Zn powder and methanol:

Use : (i) As a solvent, (ii) As an antiknocking fuel, (iii) Removing paints.

Question 17.
Write Frankland reaction.
Answer:
Reaction with zinc (Frankland’s reaction) : This reaction is similar to the Wurtz reaction but zinc is used in place of sodium.

Question 18.
Explain Friedel-Craft’s reaction with chemical equation.
Answer:
Friedel-Craft’s reaction (alkylation) : Alkyl halides react with benzene in presence of anhydrous aluminium chloride to give alkyl benzene.

Acetylation : Acetyl chloride reacts with benzene in presence of anhydrous aluminium chloride to give acetophenone.

Question 19.
Identify ‘A’, ‘B’ ‘C’ and ‘D’

Answer:

Question 20.
An alcohol ‘A’ on reaction with cone. H₂SO₄ gives an alkene ‘B’. ‘B’ after bromination with sodamide gives dehydrogenated compound ‘C’. ‘C’ on reaction of H₂SO₄ in presence of HgSO₄ gives ‘D’ Identify ‘A’, ‘B% ‘C% and ‘D’.
Answer:

Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write short notes on :
(a) Hunsdiecker method
(b) Raschig process
(c) Wurtz’s reaction
(d) Westron
(e) Frankland reaction
(f) Carbylamine reaction
(g) Iodoform reaction
(h) Fittig reaction.
Answer:
(a) Hunsdiecker method : When silver salt of a carboxylic acid is heated with bromine, in the presence of an inert solvent like CCl₄, aryl bromide is formed.

This method is called Hunsdiecker method.
(b) Raschig process : When benzene vapours mixed with air and HCl gas is passed over CuCl₂(catalyst) at 230°C, chlorobenzene is formed.

(c) Wurtz’s reaction : When alkyl halide is heated with sodium, in the presence of dry ether, alkane is formed.

(d) Westron : Symmetrical tetrachloromethane or acetylene tetrachloride are known as Westron. It can be prepared by the chlorination of acetylene.
Westron, it can be prepared by the chlorination of acetylene.

It is poisonous, non- flammable liquid, which gives westrol when it is boiled with lime.
(e) Frankland reaction : When alkyl halide is heated with zinc dust, alkane is formed.

(f) Carbylamine reaction : On heating chloroform with primary amine (e.g., aniline) and alcoholic KOH solution, phenylisocyanide or carbylamine is formed which has bad smell and is poisonous.

(g) Iodoform reaction : When ethyl alcohol or acetone is heated with iodine and NaOH, yellow crystals of iodoform are formed.
C₂H₅OH +4I₂ + 6NaOH → 5NaI + HCOONa + 5 H₂O + CHI₃

(h) Fittig reaction : When Chlorobenzene is heated at 200°C with Cu powder in a sealed tube Diphenyl is formed.

When two molecules of aryl halide reacts with sodium metal in presence of dry ether, then diphenyl is formed. This reaction is known as Fittig reaction.

Question 2.
Give the laboratory method for the preparation of chloroform. Describe the formation of chloroform by ethanol with labelled diagram, equation and principle.
Answer:
Laboratory method : Chloroform is prepared in the laboratory by the action of water and bleaching powder on ethyl alcohol or acetone.

Method : About 100 gm of bleaching powder made into a paste by adding about 200 ml of water and taken in a flask fitted with a condenser. Now, 25 ml of alcohol or acetone is added and the mixture is distilled, chloroform collects as a heavy liquid under water.

It is washed with dilute NaOH solution then with water, dried over fused calcium chloride and redistilled.

The available chlorine of bleaching powder acts as oxidising as well as chlorinating agent during the preparation of chloroform from alcohol and acetone.

CaOCl₂ + H₂O →(OH)₂ + Cl₂

The chemistry involved in the conversion of alcohol and acetone into chloroform is as shown below:

(A) From alcohol: The steps involved are :
(i) Ethyl alcohol is oxidized by chlorine to acetaldehyde.

(ii) Acetaldehyde reacts with chlorine to give chloral, i.e. trichloro acetaldehyde.

(iii) Two moles of chloral react with one mole of calcium hydroxide to produce chloroform.

Question 3.
What product is formed by the reduction of chloroform ? Give the chemical equation when it reacts to nitric acid and acetone.
Answer:
Reduction: (i) On heating with Zn and HCl, it reduces to form methylene dichloride.

(ii) On heating with zinc dust and water, methane is formed.

Nitration : On treating chloroform with concentrated nitric acid, the hydrogen atom of chloroform is replaced by nitro group and nitro chloroform (or chloropicrin) is formed. It is a liquid (b.p. 112°C) which is used in war as a poisonous gas.

Condensation : Chloroform condenses with acetone in presence of sodium hydroxide to form chloretone which is a hypnotic (sleep inducing drug) of high grade.

Question 4.
Give the Chemical reaction when chloroform reacts with following :
(a) Oxidation, (b) Carbylamine reaction, (c) Ag powder, (d) Nitration, (e) Reimer- Tiemann reaction.
Or,
How will you obtain the following from chloroform : (i) Carbonyl chloride, (ii) Acetylene, (iii) Chloropicrin, (iv) Phenyl isocyanide, (v) Chloretone, (vi) Salicylal- dehyde.
Or,
How trichloro methane reacts with : (a) Atmospheric air, (b) Aniline and ale. KOH, (c) Ag powder, (d) Cone. HNO₃, (e) Phenol.
Answer:
(a) Action of air and light (Oxidation): Chloroform oxidizes in presence of sunlight and air and forms a poisonous gas, phosgene (carbonyl chloride).

Ordinary chloroform contains phosgene gas and is used as a solvent. Pure chloroform which is used as an anaesthetic does not contain even traces of phosgene. While preserving chloroform which is to be used as an anaesthetic, the following precautions are taken :

(i) The chloroform is filled in blue or brown coloured bottle up to the neck. After putting a stopper, the bottle is kept in dark. As there is no empty space in the bottle, it is also free from air.
(ii) One percent ethyl alcohol is added in the bottle. If phosgene gas is formed, alcohol reacts with it to form diethyl carbonate, a non-toxic substance, i.e. (C₂H₅)₂CO₃,

(b) Carbylamine reaction : On heating chloroform with primary amine (e.g., aniline) and alcoholic KOH solution, phenylisocyanide or carbylamine is formed which has a very bad smell and is poisonous.

(c) Reaction with Ag powder or Dehalogenation : On heating chloroform with sil-ver powder, pure acetylene gas is formed.
CHCl₃ + 6 Ag + Cl₃CH → HC ≡ CH + 6 AgCl

(d) Nitration : On treating chloroform with concentrated nitric acid, the hydrogen atom of chloroform is replaced by nitro group and nitro chloroform (or chloropicrin) is formed. It is a liquid (b.p. 112°C) which is used in war as a poisonous gas.

(e) Reimer-Tiemann reaction : On heating chloroform with concentrated alkali and phenol at 60-70°C, o-hydroxy benzaldehyde (salicylaldehyde) is formed. Traces of p-hydro- xybenzaldehyde are also formed.

Question 5.
Explain nucleophilic substitution reaction of chlorobenzene (Give only equations).
Answer:
Nucleophilic substitution reaction of Chlorobenzene : Halogen atom in haloarenes is very strongly linked directly to benzene ring due to which it cannot be easily substituted by nucleophilic reagents like -OH,-OR,-NH₂,-CN etc. but at high pressure, temperature and in presence of suitable catalyst halogen can be substituted by these groups.

(i) Substitution by -OH group : On heating chlorobenzene with NaOH at 200 at-mospheric pressure and 300°C temperature phenol is formed.

(ii) Substitution by alkoxy (-OR) group :

With sodium alkoxide mixed ether is formed.

(iii) Substitution by Amino group : On heating with aqueous ammonia in presence of Cu₂O at 60°C atmospheric pressure and 200°C temperature aromatic amine is formed.

(iv) Substitution by Cyano group:

Question 6.
Explain the nucleophilic substitution reaction in alkyl halide by S_N1 and S_N2 mechanism.
Answer:
Nucleophilic substitution reaction : In the carbon halogen bond of haloalkane, halogen atom is more electronegative as compared to the carbon atom hence, the shared pair of electrons between carbon and halogen is more attracted by the halogen atom. As a result a small negative charge and an equivalent positive charge develops on halogen atom and carbon atom respectively.

Nucleophile attacks the electron deficient carbon due to the presence of partial posi-tive charge on it and replaces the weaker nucleophilic ion i.e. the halide ion. Thus, the reaction is known as nucleophilic substitution reaction.

The order of reactivity of different alkyl halide towards nucleophilic substitution reaction is:
RI > RBr > RCl > RF
Mechanism of Nucleophilic substitution reactions :
Nucleophilic substitution reaction occurs through two different mechanism :

(1) S_N1 Mechanism (Unimolecular nucleophilic substitution) : In this mechanism following steps are involved :
(a) Formation of carbocation by dissociation of substrate i.e., reactant molecule.

(b) Attack of nucleophile on carbocation forming the product.

(2) S_N2 mechanism (Bimolecular nucleophilic substitution): Reactions of this type occur in one step i.e. they are concerted reactions. These reaction nucleophilic attack results in a transition state in which both the reactant molecules are partially bonded to each other and then the halide ion escapes out forming the product.

Rate of reaction = K[(RX)OH^–]
Order of reactivity of alkyl halide is : Primaiy > Secondary > Tertiary.

Question 7.
Draw labelled diagram of laboratory method for preparation at iodoform from alcohol. Write related chemical equation.
Answer:

Chemical reaction :

Question 8.
Explain the following reactions of chlorobenzene :
(a) Reaction with chlorine in the absence of FeCl₃ in dark.
(b) Ullmann reaction.
Answer:
(a) Chlorine reacts with chlorine in dark, in the presence of FeCl3 to form ortho -dichlorobenzene and p-dichlorobenzene.

(b) On heating bromo or iodobenzene at 200°C temperature with Cu in a sealed tube, diphenyl is formed. This reaction is known as Ullmann reaction.

Question 9.
Write the equation of following reactions of chlorobenzene :
(i) Halogenation
(ii) Nitration
(iii) Sulphonation
(iv) Alkylation.
Answer:
(i) Halogenation : Haloarene reacts with halogen in presence of halogen carrier like FeCl₃ to form ortho and para substituted dihaloarene.

(ii) Nitration : Haloarenes react with nitrating mixture to form o-nitro and p-nitro substituted haloarenes.

(iii) Sulphonation : On heating with cone. H₂SO₄, 2-Chlorobenzene sulphonic acid and 4-Chlorobenzene sulphonic acid are formed.

(iv) Alkylation: Alkylation takes place with alkyl halide in presence of anhydrous AlCl₃.

Question 10.
Haloalkanes are more reactive than haloarenes. Give reason.
Or,
Why, aryl halides are less reactive than alkyl halides ?
Answer:
In aryl halides, halogen atom is attached more strongly to the nucleus therefore the nucleophilic substitution takes slowly than alkyl halides. There is two reasons for the less reactivity of aryl halides.

(i) In aryl halides sp3 hybridization takes place whereas in alkyl halides sp2 hybridization is present due to sp2 hybridization in haloarenes the halogen are attached to nucleus more strongly.

(ii) Due to the presence of resonance in aryl halides there is some double bond character in C—Cl bond. Thus, the bond length of C—Cl bond is lesser than C—Cl bond in haloalkanes. Therefore, it is difficult to replace the halogen of haloarenes.

MP Board Class 12th Chemistry Solutions

MP Board Class 11th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 7 Ledger

Ledger Important Questions

Ledger Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers:

Question 1.
What statement is used while closing a Drawing Account –
(a) Balance c/d
(b) By Trading A/c
(c) By P & L A/c
(d) By Capital Account.
Answer:
(d) By Capital Account.

Question 2.
The entry which is passed for bringing forward the balances of personal and Real Account as shown in the last year’s balance sheet is called –
(a) Closing entry
(b) Journal entry
(c) Opening entry
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Opening entry

Question 3.
The balance of good’s Account is transferred to –
(a) Profit and loss Account
(b) Trading Account
(c) Balance sheet
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Trading Account

Question 4.
Which Account is opened first in ledger book –
(a) Personal
(b) Real
(c) Non – real
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Personal

Question 5.
How many columns are there in a Ledger (in one side) –
(a) Six
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Seven.
Answer:
(b) Four

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. Ledger posting is done on the basis of ……………..
2. ……………. of transaction is not written in Ledger Account.
3. The recording of page number from subsidiary books to Ledger book and vice versa is called ……………..
4. The balance of Income and Expenditure Accounts is transferred to ……………..

Answer:

1. Journal book and Subsidiary book
2. Narration
3. Folioing
4. Profit and loss Account.

Question 3.
State True or False:

1. The word ‘By’ should be used always while making and entry in debit side of an account.
2. The debit balance of personal accounts denotes debtors.
3. The balance of goods accounts is transferred to trading account.
4. Ledger book does not possess legal acceptability.
5. In ledger narration is not required.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. False
5. False.

Question 4.
Answer in one word/sentence:

1. The book in which accounts relating to person, goods, income and expenditure is maintained and transactions are recorded is called.
2. On which date account are closed?
3. Sales account always shows which balance?
4. The process of totaling the debit and credit side of a ledger account is called.

Answer:

1. Ledger book
2. Last day of the month or year
3. Credit balance
4. Closing of account.

Ledger Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is a ledger account?
Answer:
The head on which the transactions pertaining to a particular person, asset, liability, expense, income, etc. are entered in the books is called account. It should have two sides Debit side and Credit side. They are classified as-Real account. Personal account and Nominal account.

Question 2.
Explain the need of ledger accounts.
Answer:
The importance of ledger accounts are:

1. Knowledge of accounts – In ledger, all the transactions of same nature are written at one place. A trader may know the position of every account very easily.
2. Information – A trader may get every sort of information from the ledger. He may know what he owes to others and what is due from others.
3. Knowledge of profit – A trader may ascertain his profit or loss easily for a particular period from profit and loss account which is prepared from ledger accounts.
4. Economy of time – Ledger make the information readily available, this saves a lot of time.
5. Test of accuracy – On the basis of ledger, trial balance is prepared which is a token of checking arithmetical accuracy of the accounts.

Question 3.
Explain the procedure of transferring journal entries from the journal to the ledger accounts.
Answer:
When the entries are transferred from journal to ledger accounts, the following points are remembered:

1. Always the entries are transferred from journal.
2. In ledger, accounts related to real, personal and nominal accounts are opened.
3. Each account should be opened in prescribed form only.
4. If one account is debited in journal, in ledger, the other account is transferred in the same side. In the same way, if an account is credited in journal, in ledger, the other account is entered in the credit side.
5. In particulars column, each account starts with the word ‘To’ in debit side and with the word ‘By’ in credit side.
6. In a particular ledger account, the same account is not entered in particular column.

Question 4.
Name five accounts which always have credit balance.
Answer:
Following accounts represent always debit balance:

1. Capital account
2. Sales account
3. Purchase returns account
4. Out – standing expenditure account
5. Creditors account.

Question 5.
What is meant by ‘Ledger Folio’?
Answer:
Ledger folio (L.F.):
This is shown in the journal as the third column. In this column it is written with corresponding page number of the particular account in ledger. It saves time and energy to the book – keeper to find out respective account from the ledger.

Question 6.
Why is posting done?
Answer:
From the balances extracted from ledger book, Trial balance is prepared which ultimately helps to prepare final accounts. Only journal entries cannot help a trader to know about the Debtors, Creditors, Balances of real accounts of the business. Hence, posting is done in ledger accounts. This book can be present in court, in case of any dispute, as proof.

Question 7.
Explain the need of opening entry.
Answer:
Due to the following reasons opening entries are made:

1. It gives a green signal to the book – keeper to start writing the books of accounts for the current year.
2. Another important need is that a book – keeper will not be able to tally a trial balance unless he brings forward the closing balances of previous year.

Question 8.
Explain the need of closing entry? Mention few characteristics.
Answer:
Closing entries are made necessarily for two reasons:
Firstly, nominal accounts relate to one accounting period only and must be closed when that period is over. Secondly, the balances of nominal accounts must be transferred to trading and profit and loss account, so that the net result of the business for the period can be ascertained.

Characteristics:

1. It is done in subsidiary book.
2. It is done only once at the end of the year.
3. Its main object is to close goods accounts and other accounts.

Ledger Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the method of balancing and closing ledger accounts.
Answer:
All the journal entries are transferred to ledger accounts for a particular period. Then these ledger accounts are totalled and balanced. By doing so, the accounts are being closed. For balancing an account, the totals of debits and credits are find out separately. Then, the difference of their totals are calculated and this difference is known as balance.

1. If the debit total is more than credit total, it is said to be debit balance. After finding the balance it is written as ‘By Balance c/d’ in the credit side just above the total. Then this amount is transferred to debit side as ‘To Balance b/d’ in the new accounting year.

2. If the credit total is more than the debit total, it is said to be credit balance in the debit side it is entered with ‘To balance c/d’ just above the total. Then this balance is transferred to the credit side as ‘By Balance b/d’ in the new accounting year.

3. The balances of personal and real accounts are transferred. The accounts relating to goods account are transferred to trading account and balances of nominal accounts are transferred to profit and loss account at the end of the year.

Question 2.
Differentiate between journal and ledger.
Answer:
The following are the differences between journal and ledger:

Question 3.
Differentiate between opening entries and closing entries.
Answer:
Following are the differences between opening entries and closing entries:

Question 4.
What is Endorsement? Explain its Merits.
Answer:
Endorsement of a Bill:
Endorsement of a bill means when drawer or the holder of a bill, transfer and delivered it in favour of his creditor to settle his account. Bill is a negotiable instrument which can be endorsed or transferred. The drawer who endorses the bill is called endorser and the person who receives the bill under endorsement is called endorsee. The result of endorsement of bill is that payment can be recovered by endorsee only. For endorsement of bill the drawer puts his signature on the face of the bill and gives it to his creditor in settlement of his account.

In transactions relating to endorsement of bill (i) The writer of bill or drawer or endorser and (ii) The receiver of bill or endorsee are only affected. So, endorsement entries are entered in the books of endorser and endorsee. Acceptor (drawee) is not affected in this transaction. Therefore, in his book no journal entries related to endorsement of bill are entered.

Endorsement of the bill to any other person by the endorsee:
If the drawer had endorsed the bill to a person and that person again endorses the bill to any other person and that person to any other person again.

MP Board Class 11 Accountancy Important Questions

MP Board Class 11th Biology Solutions Chapter 20 गमन एवं संचलन

गमन एवं संचलन NCERT प्रश्नोत्तर

प्रश्न 1.
कंकाल पेशी के एक सार्कोमियर का चित्र बनाइए और विभिन्न भागों को चिन्हित कीजिए।
उत्तर:

प्रश्न 2.
पेशी संकुचन के सी तंतु सिद्धान्त को परिभाषित कीजिए।
उत्तर:
पेशी संकुचन के सी तंतु (Sliding filament) सिद्धान्त के अनुसार पेशी संकुचन की क्रिया पतले पेशी तंतुओं के मोटे तंतुओं के ऊपर सरकने (Sliding) से होती है।

प्रश्न 3.
पेशीय संकुचन के प्रमुख चरणों का वर्णन कीजिए।
उत्तर:
प्रत्येक रेखित पेशी तन्तु की मोटाई 14 (म्यू) होती है इसमें गहरे एवं हल्के रंग की पट्टियाँ पाई जाती हैं। गहरे रंग की पट्टी को A एवं हल्के रंग की पट्टी को (Isotropic) I बैण्ड कहते हैं। I पट्टी के मध्य गहरे रंग की हल्की पट्टी होती है जिसे “Z” रेखा या क्राऊस की झिल्ली (Krause’s membrane) कहते हैं। दो पासपास “Z” रेखा के बीच का भाग सार्कोमीयर कहलाता है जो कि संकुचनशील होता है। A पट्टी के मध्य में एक हल्के रंग की पट्टी होती है । जिसे “H” क्षेत्र कहते हैं। संकुचन के समय “H” क्षेत्र गायब हो जाता है। “H” क्षेत्र को टेन्सन की रेखा भी कहते हैं।

पेशीय गति या संकुचन शिथिलन की क्रियाविधि:
पेशीय गति की क्रिया – विधि का सबसे मान्य सिद्धान्त हक्सले (1965) के द्वारा बताया गया है, इस सिद्धान्त को फिसलन तन्तु सिद्धान्त (Sliding filament theory) कहते हैं। इस सिद्धान्त के अनुसार पेशियाँ हमेशा किसी उद्दीपन के आवेग के कारण संकुचित या शिथिलित होती हैं जिसके कारण जन्तुओं में गति एवं प्रचलन की क्रिया होती है। जब कोई आवेग तन्त्रिका द्वारा पेशी को पहुँचाया जाता है तो यह उत्तेजित हो जाती है और इसमें उपस्थित ATPase.

ATPase प्रकीण्व के कारण अपघटित होकर ऊर्जा को मुक्त कर देता है। इस ऊर्जा के कारण “I” बैण्ड्स पर . स्थित एक्टीन उसके सार्कोमीयर में स्थित मायोसीन के ऊपर आ जाता है और एक एक्टिन का सिरा दूसरे एक्टिन के सिरे के ऊपर चला जाता है जिसके कारण सार्कोमीयर की लम्बाई कम हो जाती है।

इस प्रकार से सार्कोमियर के संकुचित या छोटे होने से मायोफाइब्रिल्स भी संकुचित हो जाते हैं, फलतः पेशी भी संकुचित हो जाती है। इसके विपरीत जब एक्टिन तथा मायोसीन अपने स्थानों पर सरक जाते हैं तथा सार्कोमियर को पूर्णरूप से शिथिल कर देते हैं तब पेशियाँ शिथिल (फैल) हो जाती हैं।

प्रश्न 4.
सत्य / असत्य बताइए –

1. एक्टिन पतले तंतु में स्थित होता है।
2. रेखित पेशी रेशे का H – क्षेत्र मोटे और पतले, दोनों तंतुओं को प्रदर्शित करता है।
3. मानव कंकाल में 206 अस्थियाँ होती हैं।
4. मनुष्य में 11 जोड़ी पसलियाँ होती हैं।
5. उरोस्थि शरीर के अधर भाग में स्थित होती है।

उत्तर:

1. सत्य
2. सत्य
3. सत्य
4. असत्य
5. सत्य।

प्रश्न 5.
इनके बीच अंतर बताइए –

1. एक्टिन और मायोसिन पेशी तन्तु।
2. श्वेत और लाल पेशी तन्तु।
3. अंस और श्रोणि मेखला।

उत्तर:
(i) ऐक्टिन एवं मायोसिन पेशी तन्तु में अन्तर –
ऐक्टिन तंतु (Actin filament):

• रेखित पेशी में हल्के रंग की पट्टी जिसे ‘I’ पट्टी कहते हैं, ऐक्टिन प्रोटीन की बनी होती है।
• ‘I’ पट्टी के मध्य में गहरा भाग या रेखा पायी जाता है, जिसे ‘H’ क्षेत्र कहते हैं।
• संकुचन के समय ‘I’ पट्टी गायब हो जाती है एवं दो ‘Z’ रेखाएँ पास-पास आ जाती हैं।

मायोसिन तन्तु (Myosin filament):

• रेखित पेशी तन्तु में गहरे रंग की पट्टी जिसे ‘A’ पट्टी कहते हैं, मायोसिन प्रोटीन की बनी होती है।
• ‘A’ पट्टी के मध्य हल्के रंग का एक भाग पाया जाती है, जिसे ‘Z’ रेखा कहते हैं।
• संकुचन के समय ‘A’ पट्टी में कोई परिवर्तन नहीं होता है, परन्तु ‘H’ क्षेत्र गायब हो जाता है।

(ii) श्वेत पेशी तन्तु एवं लाल पेशी तन्तु में अन्तर –

श्वेत पेशी तन्तु (White muscle fibres):

• मोटे आकार की होती है।
• हीम प्रोटीन मायोग्लोबिन के कारण लाल रंग की होती है।
• संकुचन तेजी से होता है।
• इनमें माइटोकॉण्ड्रिया अधिक संख्या में पाये जाते हैं।
• ऑक्सीजन संरक्षण की क्षमता कम होती है।
• लैक्टिक अम्ल का निर्माण होता है, जिससे पेशीय थकान उत्पन्न होती है।
• अनॉक्सी श्वसन द्वारा ऊर्जा उत्पन्न होती है।

लाल पेशी तन्तु (Red muscle fibres):

• पतले आकार की होती है।
• हीम प्रोटीन मायोग्लोबिन नहीं पाया जाता है।
• संकुचन धीरे-धीरे होता है।
• इनमें माइटोकॉण्डिया कम संख्या में पाये जाते हैं।
• ऑक्सीजन संरक्षण की क्षमता अधिक होती है। लैक्टिक अम्ल का निर्माण नहीं होता है।
• ऑक्सी श्वसन द्वारा ऊर्जा उत्पन्न होती है।

(iii) अंस मेखला एवं श्रोणि मेखला में अन्तर –

अंस मेखला (Pectoral girdle):

• यह वसीय गुहा के अन्तरांगों की रक्षा करती है।
• अग्रपाद को जुड़ने का स्थान देती है।
• शरीर के अग्र भाग को जुड़ने का स्थान देती है।
• यह पेशियों को जुड़ने का स्थान प्रदान करती है।

श्रोणि मेखला (Pelvic girdle):

• यह गर्भाशय तथा दूसरे अन्तरांगों को सुरक्षा देती है।
• यह पश्चपाद को जुड़ने का स्थान देती है।
• यह पेशियों को जुड़ने का स्थान देती है।
• यह उछलने-कूदने में लगने वाले झटकों से सुरक्षा प्रदान करती है।

प्रश्न 6.
स्तंभ-I का स्तंभ-II से मिलान कीजिए –

उत्तर:

1. (d) अनैच्छिक
2. (b) पतले तंतु
3. (a) मायोग्लोबिन
4. (c) सीवन (Suture)

प्रश्न 7.
मानव शरीर की कोशिकाओं द्वारा प्रदर्शित विभिन्न गतियाँ कौन-सी है ?
उत्तर:
मानव शरीर की कोशिकाओं में मुख्यत: तीन प्रकार की गतियाँ पायी जाती है –

1. अमीबीय
2. पक्ष्माभी
3. पेशीय।

1. अमीबीय गति:
मानव शरीर में कुछ विशिष्ट कोशिकाएँ जैसे-महाभक्षकाणु और श्वेताणु रुधिर में अमीबीय गति प्रदर्शित करते हैं। कोशिका कंकालतंत्र जैसे-सूक्ष्मतंतु की अमीबीय गति में सहयोगी होते हैं।

2. पक्ष्माभी गति:
मनुष्य के अधिकांश नलिकाकार अंगों में जो पक्ष्माभ से आस्तरित होते हैं, पक्ष्माभ गति होती है। श्वासनली में पक्ष्माभों की समन्वित गति से वायुमंडलीय वायु के साथ प्रवेश करने वाले धूल कणों एवं बाह्य पदार्थों को हटाने में मदद मिलती है। मादा में प्रजनन मार्ग डिंब का परिवहन पक्ष्माभ गति की सहायता से होती है।

3. पेशीय गति:
मनुष्यों में पादों, जिव्हा, जबड़ों आदि की गति के लिये पेशीय गति आवश्यक है। पेशियों के संकुचन के गुण का प्रभावी उपयोग मनुष्य और अधिकांश बहुकोशिकीय जीवों के चलन और अन्य प्रकार की गतियों में होता है। चलन के लिये पेशीय, कंकाल और तंत्रिका तंत्र की पूर्ण समन्वित क्रिया की आवश्यकता होती है।

प्रश्न 8.
आप किस प्रकार से एक कंकाल पेशी और हृदय पेशी में विभेद करेंगे?
उत्तर:
ऐच्छिक पेशी, अनैच्छिक पेशी तथा हृदयक पेशी में अंतर –

प्रश्न 9.
निम्नलिखित जोड़ों के प्रकार बताइए –

1. एटलस / अक्ष(ऐक्सिस)
2. अँगूठे के कार्पल / मेटाकार्पल
3. फैलेंजेस के बीच
4. फीमर/ ऐसिटाबुलम
5. कपालीय अस्थियों के बीच
6.  श्रोणि मेखला की प्युबिक अस्थियों के बीच।

उत्तर:

1. धुराग्र संधि (PivotJoint)
2. सैडल संधि (Saddle Joint)
3. ग्लाइडिंग संधि (Gliding Joint)
4. कंदुक-खल्लिका संधि (Boll and Socket Joint)
5. तंतुमय संधि (Fibrous Joint)
6. उपास्थिमय संधि (Cartilagenous Joint)

प्रश्न 10.
रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिए –

1. सभी स्तनधारियों में (कुछ को छोड़कर) ………….. ग्रीवा कशेरुक होते हैं।
2. मायोफाइब्रिल के पतले तंतुओं में 2 ‘F’ ऐक्टिन और दो अन्य दूसरे प्रोटीन जैसे ………….. और …………. होते हैं।
3. प्रत्येक मानव पाद में फैलेंजेस की संख्या ……………
4. पेशी रेशा में कैल्सियम ……………. में भंडारित होता है।
5. ……………… और …………… पसलियों की जोड़ियों को प्लावी पसलियाँ (Floating ribs) कहते हैं।
6. मनुष्य का कपाल ……………….. अस्थियों से बना होता है।

उत्तर:

1. 7
2. ट्रोपोमायोसीन, ट्रोपोनीन
3. 14
4. पेशीद्रव्य जालिका (सार्कोप्लाज्मिक रेटीकुलम)
5. 11वीं और 12 वीं,
6. 8.

गमन एवं संचलन अन्य महत्वपूर्ण प्रश्नोत्तर

गमन एवं संचलन वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए –
1. बॉल एवं सॉकेट सन्धि में दो अस्थियों की आपस की रगड़ निम्नलिखित में किस पदार्थ से कम होती है –
(a) पेरीकार्डियल द्रव
(b) म्यूसिन
(c) साइनोवियल द्रव
(d) सीलोमी द्रव।
उत्तर:
(c) साइनोवियल द्रव

2. मनुष्य के कन्धे की सन्धि होती है –
(a) हिन्ज सन्धि
(b) कन्दुक-खल्लिका सन्धि
(c) अचल सन्धि
(d) पाइवोट सन्धि।
उत्तर:
(b) कन्दुक-खल्लिका सन्धि

3. साइनोवियल सन्धि का एक उदाहरण वह है जो –
(a) दो कशेरुकाओं के बीच पाया जाता है
(b) दो करोटि अस्थियों के बीच पाया जाता है
(c) ह्यूमरस और अल्ना के बीच पाया जाता है
(d) पूँछ की कशेरुकाओं के बीच पाया जाता है।
उत्तर:
(c) ह्यूमरस और अल्ना के बीच पाया जाता है

4. बाइसेप्स एवं ट्राइसेप्स के विषय में क्या सही है
(a) ये इच्छा के नियन्त्रण में हैं पर थकती नहीं हैं
(b) इनमें रेखित और अरेखित पेशियों के लक्षण हैं और वे थकती नहीं हैं
(c) ये अग्रपाद और पश्चपाद में पायी जाती हैं और सार्कोलेमा से संबद्ध नहीं होती हैं
(d) ये सार्कोलेमा से परिबद्ध होती हैं और थक सकती हैं।
उत्तर:
(d) ये सार्कोलेमा से परिबद्ध होती हैं और थक सकती हैं।

5. स्तनियों में ग्रीवा कशेरुका की संख्या होती है –
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 10
(d) 12.
उत्तर:
(b) 7

6. स्तनियों में अंस मेखला का प्रत्येक अर्धभाग बना होता है –
(a) इलियम का
(b) आसनास्थि का
(c) जंघनास्थि का
(d) उपर्युक्त सभी।
उत्तर:
(d) उपर्युक्त सभी।

7. स्तनियों में नीचे का जबड़ा बना होता है –
(a) दंतकास्थियों का
(b) जंभिका का
(c) जंभिका पूर्वी का
(d) तालव का।
उत्तर:
(a) दंतकास्थियों का

8. हैवर्सियन नाल क्या कार्य करती है –
(a) अस्थि की लम्बाई का
(b) अस्थि में कोमल ऊतक का निर्माण
(c) रुधिर वाहिनियों, तन्त्रिका व अन्य गतिशील कोशिकाओं के अस्थि के भीतरी लैमेली में स्थान बनाना
(d) वोल्कमान नाल बनाना।
उत्तर:
(c) रुधिर वाहिनियों, तन्त्रिका व अन्य गतिशील कोशिकाओं के अस्थि के भीतरी लैमेली में स्थान बनाना

9. पेशी संकुचन के लिए कौन-सा तत्व आवश्यक है –
(a) Na ⁺
(b) K ⁺
(c) Mg ⁺
(d) Ca ⁺
उत्तर:
Ca⁺

10. सार्कोमियर किन दो पट्टियों के बीच का भाग है –
(a) H – पट्टियाँ
(b) Z – पट्टियाँ
(c) A – पट्टियाँ
(d) I – पट्टियाँ।
उत्तर:
(b) Z – पट्टियाँ

प्रश्न 2.
रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिए –

1. खोपड़ी की. अस्थियों में ……………. संधि पाई जाती है।
2. कंकालीय गति ……………. पेशियों के कारण होती है।
3.  ……………. मानव शरीर की सबसे छोटी अस्थि होती है।
4. मायोग्लोबिन ……………. को संचित करने का कार्य करती है।
5. हैवर्सियन तंत्र ……………….. में पाया जाता है।
6. उपास्थि …………….. प्रोटीन की बनी होती है।
7. पेशियों का लाल रंग ……………… के कारण होता।
8. मनुष्य की पसलियाँ .. ……………… से जुड़ी होती हैं।
9. लिगामेन्ट ……………….. को जोड़ने का कार्य करता है।
10. साइनोवियल द्रव ………………. में उपस्थित होता है।

उत्तर:

1. अचल संधि
2. ऐच्छिक पेशियाँ
3. स्टेपीस
4. ऑक्सीजन
5. अस्थियों में
6. कॉण्ड्रिन
7. मायोग्लोबिन
8. उरोस्थि
9. अस्थियों
10. स्वतंत्र चलायमान अस्थि में।

प्रश्न 3.
उचित संबंध जोडिए –

उत्तर:

1. (c) स्पर्शक
2. (d) नाल पाद
3. (e) कूटपाद।
4. (a) सिलिया
5. (b) सीटी

उत्तर:

1. (b) कंदुक-खल्लिका संधि
2. (c) कब्जा संधि
3. (d) अस्थि-अस्थि
4. (e) अस्थि-मांसपेशी
5. (a) कर्ण

प्रश्न 4.
एक शब्द में उत्तर दीजिये –

1. एक युवा पुरुष के शरीर में कितनी हड्डियाँ पायी जाती हैं ?
2. ह्यूमरस तथा रेडियो अल्ना के बीच किस प्रकार की संधि पाई जाती है ?
3. केंचुआ और तारामछली के प्रचलन अंगों के नाम लिखिए।
4. किस मसल में अधिक माइटोकॉण्ड्रिया होते हैं ?
5. मनुष्य में पसलियों की संख्या कितनी होती है ?
6. ग्लीनॉइड गुहा कहाँ पाई जाती है ?
7. एसीटाबुलम कहाँ पायी जाती है ?
8. मनुष्य के कंकाल तंत्र की सबसे छोटी अस्थि का नाम बताइये।
9. मनुष्य के शरीर की सबसे लम्बी अस्थि का नाम बताइये।
10. अस्थि और पेशियों को जोड़ने वाले ऊतक का नाम लिखिए।
11. अस्थि किस प्रोटीन की बनी होती है ?
12. कंकालीय गति किन पेशियों के कारण होती है ?
13. पेशियों के संकुचन के लिए आवश्यक तत्व का नाम लिखिए।
14. पेशियों में थकान किसके कारण होती है ?
15. अमीबा का प्रचलन अंग कौन-सा है ?

उत्तर:

1. 206 हड्डियाँ
2. कब्जा संधि
3. केंचुआ-सीटी, तारामछली-ट्यूब फीट
4. लाल मसल फाइबर,
5. 12 जोड़ी
6. अंस मेखला के पार्श्व में
7. श्रोणि मेखला में
8. कर्ण की स्टेपीस
9. फीमर
10. टेन्डन
11. ओसीन
12. ऐच्छिक पेशियाँ
13. कैल्सियम
14. लैक्टिक अम्ल के कारण
15. कूटपाद।

गमन एवं संचलन अति लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
पेशी स्फुट (Muscle Twitch) क्या है ?
उत्तर:
जब किसी पेशी तन्तु को एक बार उद्दीपन प्राप्त होता है, तो उसमें एक बार संकुचन होता है,यही केवल एक बार पेशी तन्तु का संकुचन पेशी स्फुट कहलाता है। इस प्रक्रिया के तुरन्त बाद पेशी में शिथिलन होता है।

प्रश्न 2.
मानव शरीर में सबसे लम्बी अस्थि का नाम लिखिए।
उत्तर:
मानव शरीर की सबसे लम्बी अस्थि फीमर (Femur) अस्थि है।

प्रश्न 3.
मनुष्य में कशेरुकाओं एवं पसलियों की संख्या कितनी होती है ?
उत्तर:
मनुष्य में कशेरुकाओं की संख्या 26 एवं पसलियों की संख्या 24 है।

प्रश्न 4.
ऑर्थाइटिस क्या है ?
उत्तर:
ऑर्थाइटिस वास्तव में संधियों में होने वाला प्रकार का शोथ (Inflammation) है । यह रोगाणुओं के संक्रमण, ऐलर्जी अथवा हॉर्मोनल असन्तुलन के कारण होता है।

प्रश्न 5.
निम्नलिखित जन्तुओं के प्रचलन अंगों के नाम लिखिये (i) पैरामीशियम, (ii) हाइड्रा, (iii) केंचुआ, (iv) ऑक्टोपस, (v) स्टार फिश।
उत्तर:

1. पक्ष्माभिका
2. स्पर्शक
3. सीटी (शूक)
4. मांसल पाद
5. ट्यूब फीट।

गमन एवं संचलन लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
अस्थि संधि क्या है ? निम्न अस्थियों से संबंधित संधियों के नाम लिखिए –

1. घुटने की संधि
2. अंस मेखला की ग्लीनॉइड गुहा तथा श्रोणि मेखला की एसीटाबुलम के साथ ह्यूमरस तथा फीमर अस्थि की संधि,
3. कोहनी की संधि
4. खोपड़ी की अस्थियों की संधि
5. अँगूठे के कार्पल्स एवं मेटाकार्पल्स के बीच की संधि
6. एड़ी की संधि।

उत्तर:
वह स्थान जहाँ पर दो या दो से अधिक अस्थियाँ आपस में इस प्रकार मिलें कि उनमें गति हो सके या नहीं हो सके तो इस स्थान को अस्थि संधि या संधि कहते हैं।

1. घुटने की संधि – कब्जा संधि
2. अंस मेखला की ग्लीनॉइड गुहा तथा श्रोणि मेखला की एसीटाबुलम के साथ ह्यूमरस तथा फीमर अस्थि की संधि – कंदुक-खल्लिका संधि
3. कोहनी की संधि – कब्जा संधि
4. खोपड़ी की अस्थियों की संधि – अचल संधि
5. अँगूठे के कार्पल्स एवं मेटाकार्पल्स की संधि – सैडल संधि
6. एड़ी की संधि – कब्जा संधि।

प्रश्न 2.
पेशियों द्वारा कंकाल में गति कैसे होती है ?
उत्तर:
हमारे शरीर के कंकाल ऐच्छिक पेशियों के द्वारा एक-दूसरे से जुड़े होते हैं। जब पेशी तन्तु कंकाल को किसी पेशी से जोड़ते हैं, तब इन्हें टेण्डन कहते हैं, लेकिन जब पेशी तन्तु कंकाल से कंकाल को जोड़ते हैं। तब इन्हें लिगामेण्ट्स कहते हैं। पेशी कोशिकाएँ पेशी तन्तुओं की बनी होती हैं, जिनमें संकुचन तथा शिथिलन का गुण पाया जाता है। इसी कारण पेशी कोशिकाओं में भी संकुचन तथा शिथिलन का गुण पाया जाता है। इन्हीं पेशियों के संकुचन तथा शिथिलन के कारण कंकाल में गति होती है।

प्रश्न 3.
कंकाल तन्त्र के कार्य लिखिए।
उत्तर:
एक कशेरुकी जन्तु का अन्त:कंकाल निम्नलिखित मुख्य कार्यों को करता है –

1. यह शरीर के कोमल अंगों जैसे-हृदय, मस्तिष्क इत्यादि की रक्षा करता है।
2. यह शरीर को आधार प्रदान करके उसको एक निश्चित आकार देता है।
3. कंकाल तन्त्र उत्तोलक की तरह कार्य करके गति तथा प्रचलन की क्रिया को सम्पादित करता है।
4. इसकी मोटी अस्थियों की मज्जा में R.B.Cs और W.B.Cs. का निर्माण होता है।

प्रश्न 4.
लाल पेशी तन्तु श्वेत पेशी तन्तु की तुलना में लम्बे समय तक कार्य करते हैं, क्यों?
अथवा
लाल पेशी तन्तु क्या हैं ? ये बिना थके लम्बे समय तक संकुचित रह सकते हैं, क्यों ? कारण बताइए।
उत्तर:
हमारे शरीर की कुछ पेशियों में ऑक्सीजन को संगृहीत करने के लिए मायोग्लोबीन नामक प्रोटीन पाया जाता है । यह अपने अन्दर O₂ को संगृहीत करके रखता है। इसका रंग लाल होता है, इस कारण इसको धारण करने वाली पेशियाँ लाल दिखाई देती हैं इन पेशियों को ही लाल पेशी तन्तु कहते हैं। जया पेशियों का मायोग्लोबीन O₂ को संगृहीत करके ऑक्सी मायोग्लोबीन बना देता है।

जब इन पेशियों को देर तक संकुचन शिथिलन करना होता है, तब भी उन्हें मायोग्लोबीन के कारण बराबर 0, मिलती रहती है, जिससे इनमें लैक्टिक अम्ल का निर्माण नहीं हो पाता, इस कारण ये पेशियाँ बिना थके लम्बे समय तक कार्य करती रहती हैं। श्वेत पेशी तन्तुओं में मायोग्लोबीन नहीं होता, जिसके कारण इनमें लैक्टिक अम्ल का जमाव हो जाता है और ये देर तक कार्य नहीं कर पातीं।

प्रश्न 5.
पेशियों को संकुचन के लिए ऊर्जा कहाँ से प्राप्त होती है ?
उत्तर:
पेशी संकुचन के लिए ऊर्जा ATP से प्राप्त होती है। मायोसीन ATPase एन्जाइम की उपस्थिति में ATP का विखण्डन होता है –

एक अन्य उच्च ऊर्जा युक्त यौगिक क्रिएटिन फॉस्फेट (CP) पेशियों में पाया जाता है। यह यौगिक ATP की निरन्तरता को बनाए रखता है। क्रिएटिन फॉस्फेट ADP से क्रिया करके ATP एवं क्रिएटिन बनाता है।

जब संकुचन पूर्ण हो जाता है, तब क्रिएटिन ATP से क्रिया करके क्रिएटिन फॉस्फेट बना लेता है –
ATP + क्रिएटिन → ADP + क्रिएटिन फॉस्फेट (CP)

प्रश्न 6.
अचल सन्धि एवं सिनोवियल सन्धि में अन्तर लिखिए।
उत्तर:
अचल सन्धि एवं सिनोवियल सन्धि में अन्तर –
अचल सन्धि (Fixed joint):

• इस प्रकार की सन्धि में अस्थियाँ तन्तुमय संयोजी ऊतक के बन्ध द्वारा जुड़ी रहती हैं, इसे सीवन (Suture) कहते हैं।
• इस प्रकार की सन्धि में किसी प्रकार की गति नहीं पायी जाती है।
• खोपड़ी (Skull) में उपस्थित सन्धियाँ अचल होती हैं।

सिनोवियल सन्धि (Synovial joint):

• लिगामेण्ट का बना सन्धि कैप्स्यूल पाया जाता है।
• इसमें सिनोवियल गुहा पायी जाती है, जिसमें सिनोवियल द्रव पाया जाता है। इस कारण इस सन्धि को सिनोवियल सन्धि कहते हैं।
• इस प्रकार की सन्धि गतिशील होती है।
• गति करने वाली सभी अस्थियों में इस प्रकार कीसन्धि पायी जाती है।

प्रश्न 7.
ऑक्सीजन ऋण (Oxygen debt) क्या है ?
उत्तर:
भारी काम या कसरत करते समय पेशियाँ ऊर्जा की पूर्ति के लिए पर्याप्त ऑक्सीजन प्राप्त नहीं कर पातीं। इस कारण ये ग्लाइकोलिसिस के द्वारा अनॉक्सी रूप से ATP का उत्पादन करने लगती हैं और पेशियों में लैक्टिक अम्ल जमा होने लगता है। इस समय सामान्य अवस्था के अनुपात में O₂ की खपत बढ़ जाती है। इसी O₂ की अतिरिक्त खपत को पेशियों का 0₂ ऋण कहते हैं।

इस अतिरिक्त O₂ का उपयोग लैक्टिक अम्ल के ऑक्सी-ऑक्सीकरण में किया जाता है, जिसके द्वारा ATP और क्रिएटिन फॉस्फेट का उत्पादन किया जाता है। कुछ मात्रा में ऑक्सीजन ऋण की पूर्ति मायोग्लोबीन के द्वारा की जाती है, जो O₂ को भविष्य के उपयोग के लिए बाँधकर रखता है। एथलीटों की ट्रेनिंग उनकी पेशियों के ऑक्सी संकुचन की दर को बढ़ा देती है। इसी कारण एथलीटों में नॉनएथलीटों की अपेक्षा ऑक्सीजन ऋण की कम आवश्यकता होती है।

प्रश्न 8.
श्रोणि मेखला का नामांकित चित्र बनाइये।
उत्तर:
श्रोणि मेखला

प्रश्न 9.
मानव कंकाल तंत्र के विभिन्न भागों के नाम एवं हड्डियों की संख्या बताइए।
उत्तर:
मानव कंकाल तंत्र के विभिन्न भागों के नाम एवं हड्डियों की संख्या को निम्न प्रकार व्यक्त किया जा सकता है –

प्रश्न 10.
‘पेशी स्फुट’ व ‘टीटेनस’ शब्द से क्या अभिप्राय है?
उत्तर:
पेशी स्फुट (Muscle twitch):
जब किसी पेशी को एक बार उद्दीपन प्राप्त होता है, तो उसमें एक बार संकुचन होती है। पेशी तन्तु के इस एक बार हुए संकुचन को पेशी स्फुट (Muscle twitch) कहते हैं। इस क्रिया के तुरन्त बाद पेशी में शिथिलन होता है।

टीटेनस (Tetanus):
इन पेशियों की एक बार स्थायी संकुचन अवस्था है, जो कई लगातार पैदा होने वाले आवेगों के संलयन से पैदा होती है। वास्तव में जब पेशियों में संकुचन पैदा करने वाले आवेग स्थायी रूप से पैदा होने लगते हैं, तब पेशियाँ संकुचित ही रह जाती हैं। इसी अवस्था को टीटेनस कहते हैं। इसके कारण मृत्यु भी हो सकती है।

गमन एवं संचलन दीर्घ उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
सन्धि क्या हैं ? मनष्य के शरीर में पायी जाने वाली विभिन्न प्रकार की सन्धियों का वर्णन कीजिए।
उत्तर:
सन्धि (Joints):
वह स्थान जहाँ पर दो या अधिक सन्धियाँ आपस में इस प्रकार मिलें कि उनमें गति हो सके, वह स्थान सन्धि कहलाता है। सन्धि के प्रकार (Types of Joints)-गति के आधार पर सन्धियाँ तीन प्रकार की होती हैं –

(A) पूर्ण सन्धि
(B) अपूर्ण सन्धि
(C) अचल सन्धि।

(A) पूर्ण सन्धि (Perfect joint):
इस प्रकार की सन्धि में सन्धि स्थान पर पाई जाने वाली हड्डियाँ गतिशील होती हैं। इसमें सन्धि कैप्सूल पाया जाता है। सन्धि कैप्सूल में सिनोवियल गुहा पाई जाती है जो चारों ओर से सिनोवियल झिल्ली द्वारा घिरी रहती है। इस गुहा में सिनोवियल द्रव पाया जाता है। लिगामेण्ट द्वारा दोनों अस्थियाँ आपस में जुड़ी रहती हैं एवं अपने स्थान से नहीं हटती हैं।

(1) गेंद एवं प्याला सन्धि (Ball and Socketjoint):
इस सन्धि में एक अस्थि का सन्धि सिरा गेंद के समान होता है जो दूसरी अस्थि के प्याले के समान संरचना वाले भाग पर फिट रहता है। इस प्रकार गेंद वाली अस्थि चारों दिशाओं में आसानी से घूम सकती है। जैसे-अंस मेखला की ग्लीनॉइड गुहा, जो प्याले के समान होती है, में ह्यूमरस का गेंद वाला भाग फिट रहता है। श्रोणि मेखला की एसीटाबुलम का आकार प्याले के समान है जिस पर फीमर का गेंद वाला भाग फिट रहता है।

(2) कब्जा सन्धि (Hinge joint):
इस प्रकार की सन्धि में गति केवल एक दिशा में होती है, जैसेकुहनी, घुटना एवं कलाई की सन्धि।

(3) प्रसर सन्धि (Gliding joint):
इस प्रकार की सन्धि में अस्थियाँ आसानी से एक-दूसरे के ऊपर फिसल जाती हैं, जैसे रेडियो-अल्ला एवं कलाई के बीच पाई जाने वाली सन्धियाँ।

(4) खूटीदार सन्धि (Pivot joint):
इस प्रकार की सन्धि में अस्थि का एक भाग नुकीला उभारयुक्त होता है एवं दूसरी अस्थि में इस उभार के लिए गड्ढा पाया जाता है। इस सन्धि में एक अस्थि गोलाई में चारों ओर घूम सकती है, जैसे-करोटि एवं मेरुदण्ड के बीच पाई जाने वाली सन्धि।

(5) सैडल सन्धि (Saddle joint):
यह गेंद एवं प्याला सन्धि के समान होती है, परन्तु यह कम विकसित होती है, जैसे-अँगूठे में कार्पल एवं मेटाकार्पल के बीच पाई जाने वाली सन्धि।

(B) अपूर्ण सन्धि (Imperfect joint):
इस प्रकार की सन्धि में लिगामेण्ट एवं सिनोवियल गुहा का अभाव होता है, जैसे-श्रोणि मेखला में दो प्यूबिस के बीच पाई जाने वाली सन्धि । इन सन्धियों पर मामूली गति होती है।

(C) अचल सन्धि (Immovable joint):
इस प्रकार की सन्धि में अस्थियाँ अपने स्थान से नहीं हटती हैं। खोपड़ी में पाई जाने वाली अस्थियों के बीच इसी प्रकार की सन्धि पाई जाती है।

प्रश्न 2.
अक्षीय कंकाल क्या है ? मनुष्य के अक्षीय कंकाल में पायी जाने वाली विभिन्न अस्थियों का वर्णन कीजिए।
उत्तर:
अक्षीय कंकाल:
शरीर का मुख्य अक्ष बनाने वाले कंकाल को अक्षीय कंकाल कहते हैं। इसके अन्तर्गत करोटि, हाइऑइड, कशेरुक दण्ड, स्टर्नम तथा पसलियाँ आती हैं।

(1) करोटि या खोपड़ी:
सिर के कंकाल को करोटि या खोपड़ी कहते हैं। यह कुल 29 अस्थियों से मिलकर बना होता है। खोपड़ी की अस्थियाँ सीवनों (Sutures) के द्वारा आपस में दृढ़ता से जुड़ी होती हैं। खोपड़ी एक छिद्र के द्वारा कशेरुक दण्ड की केन्द्रीय नाल से जुड़ी रहती हैं, जिसे महारन्ध्र कहते हैं। मानव खोपड़ी निम्नलिखित भागों में विभाजित रहती है –

(i) क्रेनियम या मस्तिष्क बॉक्स (Cranium or Brain Box):
यह मस्तिष्क के चारों ओर पाया जाता है तथा 8 अस्थियों, 1 फ्रन्टल (Frontal), 2 पेराइटल (Parietal), 2 टेम्पोरल (Temporal) एवं 1-1 ऑक्सिपिटल (Occipital), स्फीनॉइड (Sphenoid) एवं एथिमॉइड (Ethemoid) से मिलकर बना होता है।

(ii) चेहरे की अस्थियाँ (Facial bones):
ये अस्थियाँ खोपड़ी में चेहरे का भाग बनाती हैं। इनकी कुल संख्या 14 होती हैं। 2 नेजल (Nasal), 2 मैक्जिलरी (Maxillary), 2 स्क्वेमोजल (Squamosal), 1 मैण्डिबल (Mandible), 2 लैक्राइमल (Lacrymal), 2 पैलेटाइन (Palatine), 2 टर्बिनल (Turbinals) एवं 1 वोमर (Vomer).

(iii) कर्ण अस्थियाँ (Ear bones):
खोपड़ी में उपस्थित कर्ण में 3 जोड़ी कर्णास्थियाँ, 2 मेलियस (Melleus), 2 इंकस (Incus) एवं 2 स्टेपिस (Stapes).

(2) हाइऑइड (Hyoid):
यह जीभ को आधार प्रदान करने वाली अस्थि है।

(3) कशेरुक दण्ड (Vertebral Column):
मनुष्य तथा शेष सभी कशेरुकियों की पृष्ठ सतह पर बीच में सिर से लेकर शरीर के एकदम पीछे या पूँछ तक एक मोटी छड़ के समान संयुक्त अस्थि पायी जाती है, जिसे कशेरुक दण्ड या मेरुदण्ड कहते हैं। यह भ्रूण के नोटोकॉर्ड (Notochord) से विकसित होता है और अनेक छोटी-छोटी अस्थियों का बना होता है, जिन्हें कशेरुकाएँ (Vertebrae) कहते हैं। मनुष्य के कशेरुक दण्ड में 26 कशेरुकाएँ पायी जाती हैं, लेकिन प्रारम्भिक अवस्था में इनकी संख्या 33 होती है। कशेरुक दण्ड की पहली कशेरुका को एटलस कहते हैं। इसी के ऊपर सिर टिका रहता है।

(4) स्टर्नम या उरोस्थि (Sternum):
वक्ष के अधर तल में मध्य रेखा में वक्ष की सम्पूर्ण लम्बाई में स्थित अस्थि को उरोस्थि (Sternum) कहते हैं । मनुष्य की उरोस्थि केवल एक छड़नुमा अस्थि की बनी होती है। इसके तीन भाग होते हैं-मैनूब्रियम (Manubrium), काय (Body) एवं जिफॉइड प्रवर्ध (Xiphoid process)। उरोस्थि से ही 12 जोड़ी पसलियाँ (Ribs) जुड़ी रहती हैं। उरोस्थि सीने (Chest) के अग्र भाग को आधार प्रदान करती है।

(5) पसलियाँ (Ribs):
वक्ष का पार्श्व भाग कई पतली-पतली मुड़ी अस्थियों का बना होता है, जिन्हें पसलियाँ कहते हैं। अधिकांश पसलियाँ कशेरुक दण्ड तथा स्टर्नम से जुड़ी होती हैं, जबकि कुछ केवल कशेरुक दण्ड से जुड़ी होती हैं। मनुष्य में कुल 24 पसलियाँ पायी जाती हैं।

प्रश्न 3.
अनुबन्धीय कंकाल क्या है ? मानव शरीर में उपस्थित अनुबन्धीय कंकाल का वर्णन कीजिये।
उत्तर:
अनुबन्धीय या उपांगीय कंकाल (Appendicular skeleton):
शरीर के मुख्य अक्ष के इधर – उधर अर्थात् दोनों पार्यों में पाया जाने वाला कंकाल उपांगीय कंकाल कहलाता है। यह निम्नलिखित भागों अर्थात् अस्थि समूहों का बना होता है –

(1) भुजास्थियाँ (Limb bones):
मनुष्य के शरीर में दो प्रकार की भुजास्थियाँ पायी जाती हैं –

(I) अग्र भुजा की अस्थियाँ (Bones of fore arms):
मनुष्य के शरीर में दो अग्र भुजाएँ होती हैंप्रत्येक अग्रभुजा 27 अस्थियों से मिलकर बनी होती है – Bones of fore arms)-मनुष्य के शरीर में दो अग्र भुजाएँ होती हैंप्रत्येक अग्रभुजा 27 अस्थियों से मिलकर बनी होती है –

• ह्यूमरस-अग्र बाहु की अस्थि – 1
• रेडियस-पूर्व बाहु की अस्थि – 1
• अल्ना-पूर्व बाहु की अस्थि – 1
• कार्पल्स-कलाई की अस्थियाँ – 8
• मेटाकार्पल्स-हथेली की अस्थियाँ-2
• (f) अँगुलास्थियाँ या फैलेंजस-अँगुली की अस्थियाँ-14

(II) पश्च भुजा की अस्थियाँ (Bones of Hind arm):
पैर को पश्च भुजा कहते हैं। पश्चपाद (पैर) कई भागों जाँघ (Thigh), पिण्डली (Shank), घुटना (Knee), टखना (Ankle), तलवा (Sole) एवं उँगलियों (Fingers) का बना होता है। मनुष्य की प्रत्येक पश्च भुजा 30 अस्थियों से मिलकर बनी होती है।

(2) मेखलाएँ (Girdles):
कशेरुकी जन्तुओं में अग्रपाद तथा पश्चपाद को अक्षीय कंकाल पर साधने के लिए दो चाप पाये जाते हैं, जिन्हें मेखलाएँ कहते हैं। अग्र भुजा (हाथ) को साधन वाली मेखला अंस मेखला (Pectoral girdle) तथा पश्च पाद को साधने वाली मेखला श्रोणि मेखला (Pelvic girdle) कहलाती है।

(I) अंस मेखला (Pectoral girdles):
अंस मेखला कंधे वाले भाग में पायी जाती है तथा यह अग्र भुजा या हाथ को साधने का कार्य करती है। अंस मेखला के दोनों पार्यों में अग्र भुजा की ह्यूमरस (Humerus) अस्थि के जुड़ने के लिए एक – एक गुहा पायी जाती है, जिसे ग्लीनॉइड गुहा (Glenoid cavity) कहते हैं। ह्यूमरस इसी गुहा के साथ कन्दुक-उलूखल सन्धि (Ball and Socket joint) के द्वारा जुड़ा रहता है।

यह एक माध्यमिक संरचना के रूप में होती है, जिसके द्वारा शरीर का वजन अग्र भुजा में स्थानान्तरित रहता है। अंस मेखला दो प्रकार की अस्थियों 2 स्कैपुला (Scapula) एवं 2 क्लैविकल (Clavical) से मिलकर बना होता है।

(II) श्रोणि मेखला (Pelvic girdle):
यह पश्च पाद को साधने वाली मेखला है। श्रोणि मेखला के दोनों पार्यों में पैर की फीमर (Femur) अस्थि को जोड़ने के लिए एक गुहा पायी जाती है, जिसे ऐसीटाबुलम गुहा (Acctabulum cavity) कहते हैं। फीमर इसी गुहा के साथ कन्दुक – उलूखल सन्धि (Ball and Socket joint) के द्वारा जुड़ा रहता है। श्रोणि मेखला दो अर्द्धाशों (Halves) की बनी होती है। प्रत्येक अर्द्धाश में तीन प्रकार की अस्थियाँ पायी जाती हैं-

• इलियम (Ilium) – पृष्ठ भाग में।
• इस्चियम (Ischium) – अधर भाग में।
• प्यूबिस (Pubis) – अधर भाग में।

MP Board Class 11th Biology Solutions

MP Board Class 11th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 6 Subsidiary Books-II

Subsidiary Books-II Important Questions

Subsidiary Books-II Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers:

Question 1.
Cash purchase of goods is recorded in –
(a) Purchase book
(b) Sales book
(c) Cash – book
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Cash – book

Question 2.
Credit purchase of furniture shall be recorded in –
(a) Purchase book
(b) Journal book
(c) Cash – book
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Journal book

Question 3.
Who prepares a debit note –
(a) Saler
(b) Purchaser
(c) Cashier
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Purchaser

Question 4.
Return of goods by a customer is recorded in –
(a) Purchase book
(b) Sales book
(c) Sales return book
(d) Purchase return book.
Answer:
(c) Sales return book

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. The purchase of packing material along with goods purchased is recorded in ……………
2. Such transactions for which no separate subsidiary books are maintained are recorded in ……………..
3. Sub – division of Journal is called …………….
4. Credit note is sent to …………….

Answer:

1. Purchase book
2. Journal book
3. Subsidiary book
4. Purchaser.

Question 3.
Match the following:

Answer:

1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (b)
4. (e)
5. (a).

Question 4.
Answer the following in one word/sentence:

1. Mention the transaction which is not recorded in purchase book?
2. Credit sale of goods is recorded in which book?
3. Interest on capital is recorded in which subsidiary book?
4. Which discount is recorded in purchase and sales book?

Answer:

1. Cash transaction
2. Sales book
3. Journal book
4. Trade discount.

Question 5.
State True or False:

1. Purchase book is a principle book.
2. Preparation of sales account is not essential when sales book is maintained.
3. Goods received on consignment is recorded in purchase book.
4. Cash sale of asset is recorded in main journal book.

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. False
4. False.

Subsidiary Books-II Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why a purchases account is opened when a purchases day book is already kept in the business?
Answer:
Due to the following reasons, a purchases account is opened when a purchases day book is kept:

1. In purchases day book, only credit purchases are entered. But in the business both cash and credit purchases take place usually. Hence, from purchases day book complete information regarding purchases is not obtained.
2. The total of purchases day book is less than purchases account. This is because in purchases account both cash and credit purchases of goods are entered.
3. By transferring the total of purchases returns book to purchases day book, the net purchases can be obtained.

Question 2.
Explain the advantages of subsidiary books.
Answer:
The various advantages of subsidiary books are as follows:

1. Division of work – The accounting work will be divided amongst a number of clerks as there are so many subsidiary books.
2. Saves time – By using a number of books, various accounting processes can be undertaken simultaneously. This helps the work to be completed quickly.
3. Easy availability of information – Since a separate register is kept for each class of transaction, the information relating to each transaction will be available easily.
4. Less chances of misappropriation – By division of work, there are no chances of misappropriation of accounts.
5. Safety of accounts – There is no danger of loss of accounts even if one book of accounts is lost because relevant information may be obtained from other books.

Question 3.
What do you understand by purchase and sales returns book?
Answer:
Purchase return book:
It is a subsidiary book where the purchased goods that are returned to the supplier are recorded. It is also known as return outward book.

Sales return book:
It is a subsidiary book where the sold goods that are returned by the purchasers are recorded. It is also known as return inward book.

Subsidiary Books-II Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Prepare the format of a subsidiary Book and show the method of writing.
Answer:

1. Date – Date of transaction is mentioned.
2. Particulars: Name of purchaser and seller is written.
3. Invoice No. is written.
4. Page No. (Ledger folio) is mentioned.
5. Amount is written in which adjustments are done.
6. Net amount after adjustment is written.

Question 2.
What is journal proper? Why it is prepared?
Answer:
According to the rules of Double Entry System, each transaction is to be entered in any of the subsidiary books. But there are some transactions which are not entered in any of the subsidiary books. They are to be entered in a separate book, which is known as journal proper.

The following transactions are entered there:

1. Opening entries
2. Transfer entries
3. Rectifying entries
4. Adjustment entries
5. Closing entries
6. Miscellaneous entries.

Thus, journal proper serves this purpose.

Question 3.
What is the importance of sales and sales return book in the business? (Any five points)
Answer:
Importance of sales and sales return book:

1. From, sales book – total credit sales can be known easily.
2. Similarly total debtor can be known and accordingly credit sales can be controlled.
3. Due to writing of credit sales separately, the chances of error minimises.
4. From sales return book, it is known that how much goods are returned and for what reasons. This helps in checking and controlling these errors.
5. Sales returns helps to know correct amount of debtors as the value of sales return is deducted from sundry debtors.

MP Board Class 11 Accountancy Important Questions