Category: Class 11

MP Board Class 11th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 4 Journal

Journal Important Questions

Journal Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The first book of original entry is –
(a) Journal
(b) Ledger
(c) Trial Balance
(d)None of these.
Answer:
(b) Ledger

Question 2.
‘Drawings’ falls under which account –
(a) Personal account
(b) Real account
(c) Nominal account
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Personal account

Question 3.
Income tax is treated as –
(a) Business Expense
(b) Direct Expense
(c) Personal Expense
(d) Indirect Expense.
Answer:
(d) Indirect Expense.

Question 4.
A cheque on which two parallel lines are drawn in the left top corner is called –
(a) Bearer cheque
(b) Traveller’s cheque
(c) Account payee cheque
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Account payee cheque

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. The amount which cannot be recovered from debtors is called ……………..
2. The account in which amount can be deposited or withdrawn daily and which allows no interest on deposit is called ……………..
3. The discount allowed on cash transactions is called ……………..
4. Sales account always shows …………….. balance.

Answer:

1. Bad debts
2. Current account
3. Cash discount
4. Credit.

Question 3.
Match the following:

Answer:

1. (b)
2. (a)
3. (d)
4. (c).

Question 4.
State True or False:

1. Weekly information is sought from the subsidiary books.
2. Drawings account is a personal account.
3. Purchase account is always debited.
4. Order for sending goods is not a business transaction.
5. Cash A/c is a real A/c.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. False
4. True
5. True.

Question 5.
Answer in one word/sentence:

1. Under how many heads, the accounts have been categorised for the purpose of recording transactions in Journal?
2. When a single journal entry is passed for two transactions of same nature on same date, such an entry is called?
3. Give an example of intangible asset?
4. The discount which is offered to increase sale and attract customers is called?

Answer:

1. Three
2. Compound entry
3. Goodwill
4. Trade discount.

Journal Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the rules of making Journal.
Answer:
For recording the transactions in the journal, the following points should be kept in mind:

1. Affects two accounts – Every transaction affects two accounts. Firstly, it should find out.
2. Effect on two accounts – Secondly, find out how the affected accounts are effected, i.e., which account is debited and credited.
3. Apply debit and credit – After finding the debit and credit aspect of accounts, apply the rules of debit and credit to it. The rules are as follows:

(i) Personal account:

• Debit: The receiver
• Credit: The giver.

(ii) Real account:

• Debit: What comes in
• Credit: What goes out.

(iii) Nominal account:

• Debit: All expenses and losses
• Credit: All incomes, gains and profits.

Question 2.
Give the classification of Account.
Or
Explain the types of Account.
Answer:
1. Personal Accounts:
Personal Accounts are those Accounts which are in the names of persons, firms or companies. Ex., Shubham Account, United Hospital Account, Oriental Insurance Co. Personal Account is again divided into three. It includes:

• Natural person Account
• Artificial person Account
• Representative personal Account.

2. Real Account:
Real Accounts are those accounts which relate to things or properties. Ex. Buildings, Furniture, Machinery etc. It is again divided into two. It includes:

• Tangible Real Accounts
• Intangible Real Account.

3. Nominal Account:
These are the accounts of expenses, incomes, profits or losses. Ex. Salary account, Interesi Account, Loss on Sale of goods, Profit on sale, etc:

• Rule : Debit – All Expenses or losses.
• Credit – All Incomes or gains.

Question 3.
Trade discount is not entered in the books of accounts. Explain.
Answer:
Trade discount is included in the invoice price of a commodity and that invoice price should also be included with cost price and profit of the commodity, i.e., without bearing the risk of loss, the trader can easily sell the goods. In this way the seller also sells the goods to the customers by showing invoice price without any loss and does his service. So, either the seller or the buyer doesn’t enter trade discount in his books of accounts.

Question 4.
Describe ledger of goods account.
Answer:
Classification of goods A/c are as follows:

1. Purchase A/c – Whatever goods are being purchased weather it is in cash or credit all the goods are entered in purchase A/c.
2. Sales – Whatever goods are being sold cash or credit entered in sales A/c.
3. Purchase return – Whatever goods are returned by trader to its supplier is entered in purchase return A/c.
4. Sales returns – Whatever sold goods are returned by customer to trader is entered in sales return A/c.
5. Stock – Whatever goods remains unsold during the current year is called stock and entered it in stock A/c.

Journal Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the need of preparing journal.
Or
Explain the importance of Journal, (any four)
Or
Explain some objectives of Journal.
Answer:
Due to the following reasons journal is made:

1. For complete knowledge – It is essential to record the transactions in the journal for complete knowledge. Journal facilitates this need.
2. Helps ledger accounts – Journal helps to prepare ledger accounts, i. e., The preparation of ledger accounts depends on journal.
3. A short description – At the end of each journal entry a short description about the transaction, called narration is written. It gives a complete idea of transaction.
4. Knowledge of daily transactions – In journal transactions are recorded daily. If it is needed to know, the transactions of a particular date, it can be obtained from the journal.
5. Proof of evidence – If any dispute arises, journal helps to produce it as an evidence in the court.

MP Board Class 11 Accountancy Important Questions

MP Board Class 11th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 3 Business Transactions and Double Entry System

Business Transactions and Double Entry System Important Questions

Business Transactions and Double Entry System Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The Mathematical Expression defining the comparative relationship between Assets and Liabilities of any person, institution or Business concern is called –
(a) Accounting
(b) Accounting Equation
(c) Book – keeping
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Accounting Equation

Question 2.
Liabilities and Assets amount to Rs. 50,000 and Rs. 7,800 respectively. The difference Amount shall represent –
(a) Creditors
(b) Debentures
(c) Profit
(d) Capital.
Answer:
(d) Capital.

Question 3.
The basis of recording transactions is –
(a) Vouchers
(b) Profit
(c) Order form
(d) Quotation list.
Answer:
(a) Vouchers

Question 4.
As per American Belief, Accounts are of how many types –
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Five
(d) Four.
Answer:
(c) Five

Question 2.
State True or False:

1. Assets = Liabilities – Capital.
2. The sum of Assets is equal to the sum of liabilities.
3. Capital Account represents owner’s Account in Business.
4. Assets – Liabilities = Capital.
5. No need of voucher to be written.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. True
5. False.

Question 3.
Match the following:

Answer:

1. (d)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (b).

Business Transactions and Double Entry System Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is double entry system?
Answer:
Double entry system of book-keeping is a system in which each transaction has two aspects, one the debit and the other credit is essential to record. In this system, for every debit there must be a corresponding credit.

Question 2.
“Every debit must have its corresponding credit”. Explain.
Answer:
Every transaction used to have two parties, one giver and the other taker. One commodity comes then other goes. If one gets profit or income then other spends or losses. Thus, every transaction is affected by two accounts, one debit and other credit. This is the principle of double entry system, i.e., If one aspect of the transaction is written in debit side of an account, then the other aspect of the same transaction is written in the credit side of another account.

Question 3.
Explain the principles of double entry system.
Answer:
The principles of double entry system are as follows:

1. Effect of transaction on two accounts – The fundamental principles of double entry system is that every transaction affects two aspects simultaneously. One debit and other credit.

2. Simultaneous entry in two accounts – According to their principle every transaction recorded in two accounts at the same time.

3. Two sides of each transaction – There are two sides of each transaction. One is debit and other is credit. The left side is known as debit side and right side is known as credit side.

4. Entry in three stages – The transactions are entered in three stages firstly in journal, secondly posting to the ledger accounts and thirdly make the trial balance.

5. Entry in opposite sides of an account – Under this system, an account is divided into two sides. One aspect of a transaction is written in debit side of an account, the other aspect of the same transaction is credited in another account, i.e., Transactions are entered in opposite sides of two accounts.

Question 4.
Explain the stages of double entry system.
Answer:
The following are the three stages of double entry system:

1. Original record:
The transactions which are originally or directly recorded in a book is known as the book of original record. It is the book, where firstly the business transactions are recorded. It is also known as journal. Here transactions are recorded in chronological order.

2. Classification or ledger accounts:
The second stage of double entry system is said to be the classification of ledger accounts. In this stage, all the transactions are sorted out and written at one place. This is called posting. It is done in a book called ledger. In this book many accounts are opened. At the end, various accounts are totalled and balanced. These balances are then transferred to a statement called Trial Balance.

3. Summary or final account:
This is the third and final stage under double entry system of accounting. In this.stage, a summary is made in order to ascertain profit or loss of the business and financial position of the business. This is possible by preparing Trading Account, Profit and Loss Account and a Balance Sheet.

Question 5.
Explain some types of voucher.
Answer:
Vouchers are divided in two parts:

1. Secondary voucher
2. Accounting voucher.

Secondary voucher are divided in 2 parts:

1. External
2. Internal.

Accounting voucher are divided in 4 parts:

1. General voucher
2. Debit voucher
3. Credit voucher
4. Journal voucher or compound voucher.

Question 6.
What are the characteristics of Double Entry System?
Answer:
Characteristics of Double Entry System:
The chief characteristics of Double Entry System of Accounting are as follows:

1. Entry in two accounts – According to the principles of Double Entry System, each transaction affects minimum two accounts and they are entered simultaneously in both the accounts.

2. Definite rules – Under Double Entry System of Book-keeping, the transactions are recorded strictly according to certain definite principles, which are not arbitrary.

3. Definite objects – The transactions are recorded with some definite objects, under this system, like to ascertain profit or loss and financial position of the business.

4. Scientific system – Double Entry System of Book-keeping is said to be the only scientific system of accounting. It is based on certain fixed principles and a definite object is attained at the end.

5. Classification of accounts – According to the principles of Double Entry System, all the accounts are classified into various headings like Personal accounts, Real accounts and Nominal accounts.

Business Transactions and Double Entry System Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the advantages of double entry system.
Answer:
The following are the advantages of double entry system:

1. Complete and scientific system – In comparison to the other accounting systems, double entry system is more complete and scientific. Therefore, this system is followed all over the world by all types of business concerns.

2. Preparation of trial balance – At the end of the financial period, a trial balance is prepared to check the arithmetical accuracy of the books of accounts.

3. Information of profit or loss – Under this system, all the incomes, expenses, purchases, sales, etc. are entered in respective accounts. As a result the profit or loss can be found out by preparing a profit and loss account.

4. Knowledge of assets and liabilities – At the end of the financial year, a balance sheet is prepared to show the financial position of the business. It represents the assets and liabilities of the.business at a particular date.

5. Comparative study – Under this system, every year final accounts are prepared. Hence, it facilitates comparative study.

Question 2.
Why is double entry system best?
Answer:
Double entry system is considered best due to following reasons:

1. Various books maintained under this system is complete.
2. It helps to find out any transaction easily at any time.
3. Various books are maintained in this system which facilitates easy posting.
4. It reduces the chances of errors.
5. A trial balance is prepared in order to check arithmetical accuracy.
6. It helps to know the correct financial position of the business.

Due to above reasons, it can be concluded that double entry system is best. Various economists, specially. Carter, has considered it as a complete and best system of accounting.

Question 3.
Explain the disadvantages of double entry system.
Answer:
Following are the disadvantages of double entry system:

1. Expensive system – This system is not suitable for small business money as it needed to maintain numerous books of accounts. So, it is expensive.

2. Require special knowledge – To understand the principles of double entry system, one must be well – educated and have practical experiences.

3. Difficult to trace errors – Under this system, errors like compensating errors are difficult to find out.

4. Difficult to find out omitted entry – Under this system, an omitted entry is not possible to find out.

5. Complication in applying rules – Another drawback of this system is the application of rules of debit and credit. A slight change in applying the rules may result the accounts wrong.

MP Board Class 11 Accountancy Important Questions

MP Board Class 11th Economics Important Questions Unit 4 Development Experience (1947 – 1990) and Economic Reforms Since 1991

MP Board Class 11th Economics Important Questions

Development Experience (1947 – 1990) and Economic Reforms Since 1991 Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct option:

Question (a)
Industrial revolution came first in:
(a) France
(b) Germany
(c) England
(d) America.
Answer:
(c) England

Question (b)
In which year first train ran on rails in India:
(a) 1950
(b) 1953
(c) 1853
(d) 1901.
Answer:
(c) 1853

Question (c)
Development plans started in India in which year:
(a) 15 August 1947
(b) 1 April 1951
(c) 26 J anuary 1950
(d) 15 July 1969.
Answer:
(b) 1 April 1951

Question (d)
Which of the following organisation frame 5 year plan:
(a) Yojana Ayog
(b) National development
(c) Finance ministry
(d) Home ministry.
Answer:
(a) Yojana Ayog

Question (e)
In the year 1951 what % of contribution was from agriculture towards national income:
(a) 72%
(b) 65%
(c) 59%
(d) 51%.
Answer:
(c) 59%

Question (f)
In India green revolution was successful for:
(a) Wheat and Potato
(b) Wheat and Rice
(c) Cereals and Rice
(d) Pulses and Com.
Answer:
(b) Wheat and Rice

Question (g)
Small scale industry is:
(a) Labour intensive
(b) Capital intensive
(c) Complementary to large scale industries
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Labour intensive

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. In India iron production company TISCO was established in the year …………………….
2. In case of economic immobility industrial structure is ……………………………
3. Before British rule condition of cottage industry was ………………………..
4. Indian Poster Act was framed in the year ……………………………
5. In India till date use have ……………………… five year plans.
6. In India during independence …………………………… was the area on which population independance was least.
7. In planning period rate of savings and investment got ………………………………. times increased.
8. ………………………….. is the main programme for organisational remedy for agriculture.
9. Declaration of National policy for farmers was done in the year …………………………..
10. At present only Number of private public sector is ……………………………..
11. …………………………….. business has fear of Deflation.
12. At present only ………………………. type of industries are reserved.

Answer:

1. 1907
2. Weak
3. High
4. 1898
5. 12
6. Secondary
7. 2
8. Land development
9. 2007
10. 235
11. International
12. Two.

Question 3.
Match the columns:

Answer:

1. (c)
2. (a)
3. (e)
4. (f)
5. (b)
6. (g)
7. (d)
8. (i)
9. (h).

Question 4.
State true or false:

1. During independence 90% of working population was engaged in manufacturing unit.
2. Main aim of planning in India was to achieve equality.
3. Fourth plan started in 1969.
4. Indian agriculture is dependant on Monsoon.
5. NABARD is the best bank for agriculture.
6. Raw materials were exported during British rule.
7. In 1951 estimated age was 32 years.
8. First railway train ran in India from Bombay to Thane.
9. Chairman of Planning commission is President.
10. At present Planning commission has been discontinued in India.
11. Zamindari eradication Act was enforced first in Chennai in 1951.
12. Green revolution is related to food grains.
13. India is exporter of petroleum.
14. In 1991 India’s devaluation took place in three phases.

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. True
4. True
5. True
6. False
7. True
8. True
9. False
10. True
11. True
12. True
13. False
14. False.

Question 5.
Answer in one word:

1. Main problem arised due to partition of country?
2. When did Air transport started in India?
3. Who is the chairman of Planning commission?
4. Full form of M.R.T.P?
5. Iron, Coal, Cement are which type of industry?
6. Which are the main crops of India?
7. When was New Industrial Policy declared?
8. What is selling of goods to other countries called ?
9. How are the natural resources utilized in International trade ?
10. What is selling of goods at low prices to other nations called ?
11. What was trade balance in 1950-51?
12. What is called the interaction among economics of the world ?
13. When was new economic policy enforced.

Answer:

1. Scarcity of raw material
2. 1927
3. Prime Minister
4. Monopoly and restrictional business behaviouract
5. Primary industry
6. Food crops
7. 1991
8. Foreign trade
9. Complete
10. Deflation
11. -2
12. Globalization
13. 1991.

Development Experience (1947 – 1990) and Economic Reforms Since 1991 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which is regarded as the defining year to mark the demographic transition from its first to the second decisive stage?
Answer:
1921 is regarded as the defining year to mark the demographic transition from its first to the second decisive stage.

Question 2.
When was India’s first official census operation undertaken?
Answer:
In 1881.

Question 3.
What is meant by planning?
Answer:
Planning may be defined as a technique in which a central planning authority seeks to achieve definite objectives and targets with in a specified period of time. Planning is a way of organizing and utilizing country’s resources.

Question 4.
What are miracle seeds?
Answer:
Miracle seeds are high yielding variety (HYV) seeds. Miracle seeds are good quality seeds and plants that grow out of these seeds give high yield. The use of miracle seeds has made substantial contribution to improvement in agriculture productivity.

Question 5.
What is marketable surplus?
Answer:
The proportion of agricultural produce which is sold in the market is called marketable surplus.

Question 6.
Why, despite the implementation of green revolution, 65 per cent of our population continued to be engaged in the agriculture sector till 1990?
Answer:
The season was that the industrial sector and the service sector did not absorb the people working in the agricultural sector.

Question 7.
How many members are there in WTO?
Answer:
There are 149 members in 11th December, 2005.

Question 8.
What is the major function of RBI?
Answer:
Preparing and Implementing monetary policy.

Question 9.
What is quantitative restriction?
Answer:
Quantitative restrictions refer to non tariff barriers imposed on the quantity of imports and exports.

Question 10.
What were the aim of British colonial period in India?
Answer:
Colonial government, followed the policies of protection and promotion of the economic interests of their home country than developing the Indian economy.

Question 11.
In which state cotton textile Industries were localized before Independence?
Answer:
Bengal.

Question 12.
Whether Indian economy was industrial based or agricultural based at the time of Independence?
Answer:
Agricultural Based.

Question 13.
Why was Indian economy called agricultural based before independence?
Answer:
Because 85% of population was dependent on agriculture.

Question 14.
What was the main occupation of people of the nation during colonial period?
Answer:
Agriculture.

Question 15.
What is meant by primary sector?
Answer:
Primary sector of an economy makes direct use of natural resources or exploits natural resources. This includes agriculture, forestry, fishing and mining.

Question 16.
What is secondary sector?
Answer:
Secondary sector includes those industries which converts one product into other and manufactures it. For e.g., Cotton textiles produced from raw cotton.

Question 17.
What is tertiary sector?
Answer:
Tertiary sector includes those industries which provide services like Banking, Insurance, communication, transportation etc.

Question 18.
What was the contribution of primary sector in national income at the time of Independence?
Answer:
58 – 7%.

Question 19.
What was the contribution of secondary sector in national income at the time of independence?
Answer:
14 – 3%.

Question 20.
What was the contribution of tertiary sector in national income at the time of independence?
Answer:
27%.

Question 21.
What is commercialization of Agriculture?
Answer:
Commercialization of agriculture means encouraging farmers to use cash crops in place of traditional crops.

Question 22.
When was TATA Iron and Steel Company founded?
Answer:
In 1907.

Question 23.
What is capitalist Industry?
Answer:
Capitalist industries are those industries which manufactures machines and tools required for production of products of daily use.

Question 24.
What was the literacy rate of India at the time of Independence?
Answer:
16%.

Question 25.
What is public sector?
Answer:
Public sector means those industries which are in ownership of government.

Question 26.
What is Gross Domestic Product?
Answer:
The monetary value of produced goods and services of an economy in a financial year is called Gross Domestic Product.

Question 27.
What is capitalism?
Answer:
The economic system in which economic decisions, market forces activities are taken by private ownership.

Question 28.
What is socialism?
Answer:
The economic system in which all economic decisions are taken by government, for social welfare.

Question 29.
What is mixed economy?
Answer:
Mixed economy is economic system which comprises of features of capitalism and socialism.

Question 30.
Economic planning is the feature of which economic system?
Answer:
Socialism.

Question 31.
Which medium was selected by Indian government for economic development after Independence?
Answer:
Economic planning.

Question 32.
On whose ideals second five year plan of India based?
Answer:
Second five year plan was based on Ideals of Shri Prashant Chandra Mahalanovis.

Question 33.
Who is the chairman of planning commission?
Answer:
Prime minister.

Question 34.
When was planning commission formed by India?
Answer:
In 1950.

Question 35.
What is the duration of planning commission in India?
Answer:
5 years.

Question 36.
When was economic planning started in India?
Answer:
Economic planning was started on 1st April 1951 in India.

Question 37.
When was Green Revolution started in India?
Answer:
In 1966 – 1967.

Question 38.
What is self reliance?
Answer:
Self reliance means not depending on foreign aid for economic development of a nation.

Question 39.
What is devaluation of rupee?
Answer:
Devaluation refers to fall in the official value of a currency with respect to foreign currency.

Question 40.
What is Green revolution?
Answer:
Green revolution means to improve techniques of agricultural production and increase the agricultural production.

Question 41.
What is meant by land reforms?
Answer:
Land reforms means the steps used to remove the limitations of land ownership.

Question 42.
What in Chakbandi?
Answer:
It is the rearrangement of land holdings among different owners of a land in a manner such that the land holdings of individual, instead of being scattered become consolidated at one place.

Question 43.
What is co – operative farming?
Answer:
Co – operative farming means that system in which various farmers unite together in the form of co – operative society and performs fanning.

Question 44.
What is industrial policy?
Answer:
Industrial policy is the policy of government which helps the government to regulate the activities of industrial units.

Question 45.
What is license?
Answer:
License means the written permission given by government to industries to produce or sell a specific types of product.

Question 46.
What is small scale and cottage Industry?
Answer:
Those industries which requires less capital and more labour is called small scale and cottage industries.

Question 47.
What is Import substitution?
Answer:
Import substitution implies domestic production of those goods which the economy has been importing from rest of the world.

Question 48.
What is Import duty?
Answer:
The tax which is imposed to minimize the imports is called import duty.

Question 49.
Define balanced development?
Answer:
Balanced development means planned development in all sectors.

Question 50.
What is meant by economic reforms?
Answer:
Economic reforms refer to a set of economic policies directed to achieve improve¬ment in economic efficiency.

Question 51.
When was new economic policy implemented?
Answer:
In 1991.

Question 52.
What is liberalization?
Answer:
Liberalization of economy means its freedom from direct or physical controls imposed by the government.

Question 53.
What is privatization?
Answer:
Privatization is the general process of involving the private sector in the ownership or operation of a state owned enterprise.

Question 54.
What is Globalization?
Answer:
It is defined as a process associated with increasing openness, growing economic interdependence and deepening economic integration in the world economy.

Question 55.
How many industries of public sector were included in the industrial policy of 1956?
Answer:
12.

Question 56.
What is Direct tax?
Answer:
Those taxes whose burden cannot be shifted to other persons is called direct tax.

Question 57.
What is Indirect tax?
Answer:
Those taxes whose burden can be shifted to other persons is called indirect tax.

Question 58.
Why is entertainment tax an indirect tax?
Answer:
The burden of entertainment tax can be shifted to other persons.

Question 59.
What is balance of payments?
Answer:
Balance of payment means proper maintenance of records of economic transactions of a financial year with remaining world.

Question 60.
What is denationalization?
Answer:
The policy through which ownership of public sector is transferred to private sector is called denationalization.

Question 61.
When was WTO formed?
Answer:
In 1995.

Question 62.
What is foreign trade?
Answer:
Trade between different countries (Import and Export) is called foreign trade.

Question 63.
What is special economic zone?
Answer:
A special economic zone is an area in which business and trade laws are different from rest of country.

Question 64.
What is deficit finance system?
Answer:
It is that situation when expenditure of government is more than revenue.

Question 65.
What is trade policy?
Answer:
Trade policy means that policy of government which affects the import and export trade.

Question 66.
What is Direct foreign Investment?
Answer:
Direct foreign investment means foreign investment in internal infrastructure, machineries and institutions of a country.

Question 67.
What is multiple trade agreement?
Answer:
When any country makes agreement with two or more countries for give and take of goods and services then it is called multiple trade agreement.

Question 68.
What is fiscal reforms?
Answer:
Fiscal reforms or tax reforms are concerned with the reforms in government revenue and government expenditure which are collectively known as fiscal policy.

Question 69.
When was new economic policy declared?
Answer:
On 26th July 1991.

Question 70.
Which law was brought in place of FERA?
Answer:
FEMA.

Development Experience (1947 – 1990) and Economic Reforms Since 1991 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What was the focus of the economic policies pursued by the colonial government in India? What were the impacts of these policies?
Answer:
India was under British rule for almost two centuries before attaining independence in 1947. The main focus of the economic policies pursued by the colonial government was to make India a mere supplier of raw materials for Britain’s own industrial base which was undergoing rapid expansion. The Indian Economy was exploited in order to promote British industries.

Such exploitative policies created a lopsided structure in the Indian Economy by reducing it to a supplier of raw materials and consumer of finished industrial products imported from Britain. The impacts of these policies are discussed below:

1. Low Level of Economic Development:
During the colonial rule, Indian Economy experienced very low level of economic development reason that:

(I) The British government was more concerned with the economic interests of their home country.

(II) Be hue the colonial rule, Indian Economy was predominantly agriculture based but manufacturing activities of various kinds were also present.

(III) The handicrafts industries of India were well known for their quality of material as well as craftsmanship. British policies ruined these small manufacturing industries.

(IV) These industries faced a stiff competition from the British machine made products and India was reduced to a cheap raw material provider. This resulted in low growth of aggregate output which was less than two per cent according to studies along with a half per cent growth in per capita output per year.

2. Agricultural Backwardness:
Under the colonial rule, India was basically an agrarian economy with nearly 85% of its population employed in agriculture sector. Nevertheless, the growth of the agriculture sector was very poor and productivity was low. This was due to the prevalence of various systems of land settlement, particularly zamindari system. Under this system, the zamindars (owners of land) got the profit from land cultivation who collected rent from the cultivators regardless of the economic condition of the cultivators.

3. Deindustrialisation of India Economy:
The status of industrial sector during the British rule can be well defined by the term ‘ Systematic deindustrialization’ to make India an exporter of raw materials and importer of finished goods from Britain. The deindustrialization can be attributed to the downfall of India’s handicraft industry and the slow growth of modem industry due to lack of investment.

Question 2.
Name some notable economists who estimated India’s per capita income during the colonial period?
Answer:
Dadabhai Naoroji, William Digby, Findlay Shiras, R.C. Desai and Dr. VKRV Rao.

Question 3.
What were the main causes of India’s agricultural stagnation during the colonial period?
Answer:
Under the colonial rule, India was basically an agrarian economy with nearly 85% of its population employed in agriculture sector. Navertheless, the growth of the agriculture sector was very poor and productivity was low. This was due to the following causes:

1. Land Settlement and Revenue Settlement System:
Under the colonial rule, India was basically an agrarian economy with nearly 85% of its population employed in agriculture sector. Nevertheless, the growth of the agriculture sector was very poor and productivity was low.

2. Commercialisation of Agriculture:
In order to provide British industries with cheap raw materials. The Indian farmers were forced to grow cash crops (like indigo and cotton required by British textiles industries) instead of food crops (like rice and wheat). This led to the commersialisation of Indian agriculture,

3. Lack of Irrigation Facilities and Resources:
Besides the above factors, Indian agricultural sector also faced lack of irrigation facilities, insignificant use of fertilizer, lack of investment, frequent famines and other natural calamities etc, that further exaggerated the agricultural performance and made it more vulnerable.

Question 4.
Name some modern Industries working at the time of Independence?
Answer:

1. Cotton textile industries
2. Jute industry
3. Iron and steel industry.

Question 5.
What was the two – fold motive behind the systematic deindustrialization effected by the British in pre – independent India?
Answer:
The following are the two – fold motive behind the systematic deindustrialization effected by the British:

1. Making India a supplier of Raw materials:
The main motive of the British Government was to make India a mere supplier of cheap raw materials to feed its own rapidly expanding industrial base.

2. Making India a Market for Finished Goods:
Another important objective of the British Government in deindustrialising Indian Economy was to use India as a large and growing market to sell the finished good produced by the British industries so that their industries never faced a demand shortage and could keep flourishing.

Question 6.
The traditional handicrafts industries were ruined under the British rule? Do you agree with this view? Give reasons in support of your answer?
Answer:
Yes, we agree with the above statement that the traditional handicrafts industries were ruined under the British rule. The following are the reasons:

1. Discriminatory Tariff Policy:
The British rule used India both as a source of cheap raw materials as well as easy accessible market for their finished products. Thereby, they imposed heavy tariffs (export duties) on India’s export of handicraft products, while allowed free export of India’s raw material to Britain and free import of British finished products into India.

2. Competition from machine-made British Goods:
The demand for the handicrafts products experienced a downward trend in the domestic markets as well. This was due to stiff competition from the machine – made textiles from Britain. The goods produced mechanically in Britain using cheap raw material from India ware comparatively lower in price and of superior quality than the Indian handicraft goods. This narrowed the market for Indian handicrafts industries.

3. Emergence of Western Lifestyle:
The British rule in India popularized western lifestyle in India. There was an emergence of a new section of population (consisting mainly of zamindars) in India who liked the British goods and also promoted their use to please the British government.

This section used to spend lavishly on the British products that provided impetus for the development of British industries at the cost of the domestic industries. Hence, gradually Indian handicrafts industries perished away.

Question 7.
What objectives did the British intend to achieve through their policies of infrastructure development in India?
Answer:
It is true that under the British rule. There was significant infrastructural development in the country. But the actual motive of the British behind the infrastructure development was only to serve their own colonial interests. British rule brought about development in the areas of transport and communication.
Objectives:

1. The roads served the purpose of mobilizing the army within India and facilitating transportation of raw materials from different parts of the country.

2. Ports, and ports were developed for easy and fast exports to and imports from Britain.

3. Railways were introduced and developed for commercialization of agriculture and for the transportation of finished goods of British industries to the interiors of India. Railways assisted British industries to widen the market for their finished product.

4. Posts and telegraphs were developed to enhance the efficiency and effectiveness of the British administration in maintaining law and order.

5. Hence, The aim of infrastructural development was not the growth and development of the Indian Economy but to serve the economic and political interests of Britain.

Question 8.
Critically appraise some of the shortfalls of the industrial policy pursued by the British colonial administration?
Answer:
The focus of the industrial policies pursued by the colonial government in India was to make our country a mere supplier of Britain’s own flourishing industrial base. The policies were concerned mainly with the advancement of the British economic and political power. The industrial policy pursued by the British colonial administration had the following shortfalls:

1. Neglect of Indian Handicraft Industries:
The British followed a discriminatory tariff policy under which they imposed heavy tariffs (export duties) on India’s export of handicraft products while allowed free export of India’s raw material to Britain and free import of finished products from Britain to India.

2. Lack of investment in Modern Indian Industries:
The modem industries in India demanded investments in capital goods and technology that were beyond the means of Indian investors. British Government was least interested in investing in Indian industries as they never wanted India to become self reliant.

Question 9.
What do you understand by the drain of Indian wealth during the colonial period?
Answer:
Dadabhai Naoroji propounded the theory of ‘Drain of Wealth’ in the 19th century. By the following ways drain of Indian worth during the control period:

1. The colonial period was characterized by the exploitation of Indian resources.

2. The primary motive of Britain to conquer India was to own a perennial source of cheap raw materials to feed its own industrial base in Britain.

3. On the other hand, income of Indians was spent on expensive imports of finished goods from Britain which made Britain richer on the expense of India.

4. Further, British Government used India’s manpower to spread its colonial base outside India. Indians served in the British army at lower salaries than their British counterparts.

5. The expenses of war and administrative expenses that were incurred by the British Government to manage the colonial rule in India were drawn from the revenue collected from Indians and the export surplus generated through foreign trade of India. Thus, the British rule drained out Indian wealth for the fulfilment of its own interests.

Question 10.
Highlight the salient features of Indias pre – independence occupational structure?
Answer:
The occupational structure, which refers to the distribution of population working its different sectors, showed no variation throughout the British rule. The following are the salient features of India’s pre – independence occupational structure.

1. Predominance of Agriculture:
Under the colonial rule, India was basically an agrarian economy, with nearly 70-75% of its workforce engaged directly or indirectly in agriculture. Due to massive poverty and widespread illiteracy during the colonial rule, a large proportion of the population was engaged in farming and related activities to earn their subsistence.

2. Lack of Opportunities in Industry:
Only a small proportion of population was employed in manufacturing sector. Nearly 10% of the total workforce was engaged in manufacturing and industrial sector. This was due to the stiff competition that the Indian industries faced from the machine made cheap goods from Britain.

3. Unequal Distribution among sectors:
The three sectors of Indian Economy, i.e., agricultural, industrial and service sector were unequal in terms of occupational structure. While the agricultural sector employed majority of the workforce, the other two sectors were not contributing much to employment with 10% of the workforce in industries and 15-20% in service sector.

Question 11.
Underscore some of the India’s most crucial economic challenges at the time of independence?
Answer:
The exploitative colonial rule created a damaging effect on almost every sphere of Indian Economy. As a result, India faced major economic challenges at the time of independence such as:

1. Low Agricultural Productivity:
During the colonial rule Indian agricultural sector was exploited by the British to serve their own interest. As a result, Indian agricultural sector experienced stagnation, low level of productivity and lack of investment in technology, fertilizers and irrigation facilities.

This resulted in poor condition of landless farmers and peasants. Commercialization of agriculture created shortage of food grains in India. Thus, the immediate concern for India was to develop its agricultural sector and its productivity to become self reliant and ensure food security for people.

2. Under – developed Industrial sector:
India failed to develop a sound industrial base during the colonial rule. There was a need of huge capital investments, infrastructure, human skills, technical know how and modem technology for industrialization. Further, due to stiff competition from the British industries.

India’s domestic industries had failed to sustain. Thus, development of small scale and large scale industries simultaneously while facing capital shortage was a matter of concern for India.

3. Inadequate Infrastructure:
Although, the British brought about significant infrastructural development in the country, but it was done only for serving their interests and was not sufficient to improve the performance of agricultural and industrial sector in the country. Also there was a need to upgrade and to modernize the existing infrastructure to enhance its efficiency and effectiveness.

Question 12.
Indicate the volume and direction of trade at the time of independence?
Answer:
During the colonial rule, the British followed a discriminatory tariff policy under which they imposed heavy tariffs (export duties) on India’s export of handicraft products, while allowing free export of India’s raw material to Britain and free import of British products to India.

1. Volume of Trade:
The British policies made Indian handicrafts exports costlier and its international demand fell drastically. Consequently, India’s export basket during the colonial rule comprised mainly of primary products like sugar, jute, raw silk, indigo, wool, etc.  And the imports comprised of finished consumer goods like cotton silk and woollen clothes and capital goods like light machinery from Britain. India registered large export surplus during the colonial period.

2. Direction of Trade:
As the monopoly power of India’s export and import rested with Britain, so, more than half of India’s trade was restricted to Britain and the remaining imports were directed towards China. Persia (Iran), and Ceylon (Sri Lanka). The surplus generated from India’s foreign trade was not invested in Indian Economy; rather it was used for administrative and war purposes. This led to the drain of Indian wealth to Britain.

Question 13.
Were there any positive contributions made by the British in India? Discuss?
Answer:
Yes, there were various positive contributions that were made by the British in India though these contributions were not made with the objective of welfare for Indians but for the British interests. Some of the positive contributions made by British are:

1. Introduction of Railways:
The introduction of railways by the British was a breakthrough in the development process of Indian Economy. It opened up the cultural and geographical barriers and facilitated commercialization of Indian agriculture.

2. Introduction of commercialization of Agriculture:
The introduction of commercial agriculture is an important breakthrough in the history of Indian agriculture. Prior to the advent of the British, Indian agriculture was of subsistence nature. But with the commercialization of agriculture, the agricultural production was carried out as per the market requirements leading to higher agricultural incomes.

3. Introduction of free trade:
British forced India to follow free trade pattern during the colonial rule. This is the key concept of globalization today. The free trade provided domestic industry with a platform to compete with the British industries.

4. Development of Infrastructure:
The infrastructure developed in India by the British proved to be useful for Indian people. The telegram and postal services served Indian public and the roads built by British provided connectivity to interior regions.

Question 14.
Why did India opt for planning?
Answer:
Following are the reason for planning:
With the objective that the government would undertake comprehensive planning for the nation as a whole, the planning commission was established in 1950:

1. After independence, India had to make an important choice of economic system and opt either for. capitalism or socialism. India finally opted for socialism as the Indian leaders were inspired by the extra – ordinary success of planning in Soviet Union.

2. Indian planners understood the death of private capital at the eve of independence and the lack of incentive for private sector to operate in social sector where profit making could not be the main motive.

3. India went for planning so as to adopt the socialist idea with a strong emphasis on public sector but also allow for active private sector participation in non – priority industries through a democratic framework.

4. Planning was undertaken to make public sector work towards the basic economic framework and to encourage private sector firms for their active contribution to the economic growth.

Question 15.
Why should plans have goals?
Answer:

1. Every plan should have specified goals, which it seeks to pursue.
2. Goals are the ultimate targets, the achievement of which ensures the success of plans.
3. A plan specifies the means and ways to allocate scarce resources in an optimum manner so as to achieve these desired goals.
4. Without specific goals, a plan would be directionless and resources would not be utilized in a proper manner without wastage. There should be following goals:
   • Economic Growth
   • Modernization
   • Self reliance
   • Economic and social equality.

Question 16.
Explain subsidies to farmers and give arguments in favour and against of it?
Answer:
Subsidies refers to availability of inputs at lower prices than the market price. Economic justification of subsidies in agriculture is at present a hotly debated question.
In favours:

1. Govemment should provide agricultural subsidies to farmers as farming requires latest technologies.
2. In terms of equity subsidies are very much essential. .

Against:

1. It is a huge burden on government finances.
2. Subsidies are meant to benefit farmers but they are also benefitting various industries.

Question 17.
What is Green Revolution? Why was it implemented and how did it benefit the farmers? Explain in brief?
Answer:
The introduction of High Yielding Varieties (HYV) of seeds and the increased use of fertilizers, pesticides and irrigation facilities are known collectively as the Green Revolution, which resulted in the increase in crop yield needed to make India self-sufficient in food – grains. Various land reforms were also undertaken in order to make green revolution successful. Thus, Green revolution included the following measures :

1. Use of High Yielding Varieties (HYV) of seeds.
2. Increase in irrigation cover.
3. Use of insecticides and pesticides.
4. Consolidation of holdings.
5. Rural electrification.
6. Improvement in rural infrastructure.
7. Agricultural credit facilities.
8. Use of chemical fertilizers.

Green Revolution was implemented because of the following reasons:

1. Food Security:
The colonial rule had made Indian agriculture suffer from low level of productivity especially in foodgrains as more emphasis during colonial rule had been on cash crops which served as raw material to British industries.

2. Low Irrigation Facility:
The land area under irrigation cover was only 17% in 1951. The major part of agriculture was dependent on rainfall from monsoon and in case of scanty rainfall or delayed monsoon, crops were destroyed due to lack of proper irrigation facilities. This caused low level of agricultural production.

3. Conventional Methods:
The use of conventional inputs and absence of modem techniques led to low level of agricultural productivity.

4. Self – reliance:
Due to low productivity and rapidly growing population, there was foodgrains shortage which had to be imported from United States and other countries. This drained away scarce foreign reserves.

Question 18.
Explain full employment as long term objective of planning?
Answer:
Full employment:
The main objective of economic planning in the economy is aimed at full employment. Full employment is called when the willing people get work and also who are ready to work at the prevailing wage rate. This means that not only the rich people should take part in the process of economic growth but also the common people should take part equally. Economic growth should not be jobless otherwise this gives birth to disappointment, dissatisfaction and terrorism among the general public.

Question 19.
Why was it necessary for a developing country like India to follow self – reliance as a planning objective?
Answer:
Self – reliance means avoiding imports of those goods which could be produced in domestically. Achieving self – reliance was considered important for a developing country like India to reduce the county’s dependence on foreign products, specially for food.

Dependence on foreign goods and services could make the country vulnerable to foreign interference in economic policies and hence, result into loss of economic sovereignty. This was a great fear after being under colonial rule for such a long time.

It was also considered important as imports may promote economic growth and consumer satisfaction but this may be at the cost of domestic infant industries. Further, imports drain away the scarce foreign reserves that are of prime importance to any developing and underdeveloped economy.

Question 20.
What is sectoral composition of an economy? it is necessary that the service sector should contribute maximum to GDP of an economy? Comment?
Answer:
The sectoral composition of an economy is the proportionate contribution of different sectors to the total Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of an economy during a year. It gives the share of agricultural sector, industrial sector and service sector in GDP. It is necessary that at the later stages of development, the service sector should contribute the maximum to the total GDP.

There exists a phenomenon called structural transformation which implies that gradually the country’s dependence on the agricultural sector will shift from the maximum to minimum and at the same time, the share of industrial and service sector in the total GDP will increase.

Question 21.
Why was public sector given a leading role in industrial development during the planning period?
Answer:
At the time of independence, Indian economic conditions were very poor and weak. There was neither much private capital nor did India have international investment credibility so as to attract foreign investment. Moreover, Indian planners did not want to be dependent on foreign capital for economic development. In such a situation, it was only the public sector that could take the initiative.

The following are the reasons that explain the driving role of the public sector in the industrial development:

1. Heavy Capital Requirement:
There was a need of large amount of investment in infrastructure and heavy and basic industries for economic development. Private sector in India at the eve of independence did not have the capacity to invest such a big amount. Thus, the government played the leading role to provide the basic framework of heavy industries and infrastructure through public sector to facilitate the private sector.

2. Low Level of Demand:
After the exploitative colonial rule, the majority of Indian population was left poor and had very low purchasing power. Consequently, there was low level of demand and so there was no inducement for private sector to undertake investment. This could result into low level of employment in private sector thereby reducing demand even more. The only way to encourage demand was by public sector investments.

3. Social Welfare:
Majority of Indian population was suffering from abject poverty at the inception of planning. Hence, the strategic industries and those involving social considerations could not be left to the private sector which would have operated with a profit motive rather than social welfare motive.

Question 22.
Explain the statement that Green Revolution enabled the government to procure sufficient foodgrains to build its stocks that could be used during times of shortage?
Answer:
The use of modem technology, extensive use of fertilizers, pesticides and HYV seeds which together formed the Green Revolution led to an impressive rise in foodgrains production. The agricultural productivity and average yield also increased considerably.

The other measures accompanying Green Revolution such as the development of marketing system, abolition of intermediaries and subsidized credit for farm investment provided greater portion of marketable surplus to farmers.

Question 23.
While subsidies encourage farmers to use new technology, they are a huge burden on government finances. Discuss the usefulness of subsidies in the light of this fact?
Answer:
Subsidy in agriculture means providing some important inputs to farmers at a concessional rate that is much lower than its market rate. During 1960s, in order to adopt new technology, HYV seeds and use of modem fertilizers and insecticides, farmers were provided inputs at a subsidized rate. The following arguments are given to prove the usefulness of subsidies.

1. It was necessary to use subsidies to provide an incentive for adoption of the new HYV technology by farmers especially the small fanners.
2. Any new technology is considered as being risky by farmers. Subsidies were, therefore, needed to encourage farmers to adopt the new technology initially.
3. Farming in India is still a risky business and subsidies provide hedging against the risk of climatic conditions.
4. Most farmers are very poor and they will not be able to afford the required inputs without subsidies.
5. Subsidies bring about equity between rich and poor farmers by enabling the poor farmers to use modem technology and inputs.

On the other hand, some economists believe that once subsidies should be phased out since their purpose has been served and the technology is now widely adopted due to its profitability. They argue that there is no case for continuing with subsidies as it does not benefit the target group and it is a huge burden on the government’s finances. They give the following arguments against subsidies in agriculture.

1. Subsidies are benefitting the fertilizer industry more than farmers and it is not making any efforts towards increasing its efficiency as it is protected from market competition by subsidies.
2. Subsidies are mainly being availed by big farmers in affluent regions who do not actually need them.

Question 24.
Though public sector is very essential for industries, many public sector undertakings incur huge losses and are a drain on the economy’s resources, Discuss the usefulness of public sector undertakings in the light of this fact?
Answer:
Although, the inefficiency and low productivity in Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs/ Paralle) may lead to wastage of the scarce resources and result in huge losses forming a constraint on economic resources of the country, they do have some advantages.

1. Social Welfare:
The basic objective of the PSU was to provide goods and services that add to the welfare of the society without looking for profits. Public welfare facilities such as schools, hospitals, railways, electricity etc. are necessary to be provided at reasonable cost to the people of the country.

2. Heavy Investment and Long Gestation Projects:
Projects like heavy and basic industries, power generation, railways, etc. need a very huge initial investment and have long gestation period. Hence, government is the most appropriate to invest in these projects under public sector as private sector is reluctant to enter such ventures due to the high risk involved.

3. Basic Infrastructure:
An important ideology that was inherited in the initial Five Year Plans was that the public sector should lay down the basic infrastructure required for industrialization that would encourage and facilitate the private sector at the later stage of industrialization.

4. Reduce Exploitation:
It is believed that in public sector units the labour is not exploited as it is protected by the government. The consumers are also not exploited by charging high prices or serving low quality goods as PSUs/parallel do not operate with profit motive.

Question 25.
Explain how import substitution can protect domestic industry?
Answer:
In the initial seven five year plans, India opted for import substitution strategy, which implies discouraging the imports of those goods that could be produced domestically. Import substitution strategy not only reduces an economy’s dependence on the foreign goods but also provides impetus to the domestic firms. Government provides various financial encouragements, incentives, licenses to the domestic producers to produce domestically the import substituted goods.

This would not only allow the domestic producers to sustain but also enables them to grow as they enjoy the protective environment. They need not to fear from any competition and also not to worry about their market share as license gives them the monopoly status in the domestic market.

Being monopolist, they earn more profits and invest continuously in R & D and always look for new and innovative techniques. This gradually improves their competitiveness and when they are exposed to the international market they can survive and compete with their foreign counterparts.

Question 26.
Why and how was private sector regulated under the IPR1956?
Answer:
The Industrial Policy Resolution (IPR) 1956 was adopted in order to achieve the aim of a socialist state with government controlling the major strategic industries of the economy. According to this resolution, industries were classified into following three categories:

Category 1:
Those industries that were established and owned exclusively by the public sector.

Category 2:
Those industries in which public sector would perform the primary role while the private sector would play the secondary role.

Category 3:
Those industries that are not included in category 1 and category 2 were left to the private sector. The government kept an indirect control on the industries in the private sector through the policy of industrial licensing.

In order to initiate a new industry or expand existing capacity, private entrepreneurs were supposed to obtain license from the government. Hence, the government fully controlled the private sector either directly or indirectly through the IPR1956.

Question 27.
How is RBI controlling the commercial banks?
Answer:
RBI controls the commercial banks through the following measures:

1. RBI Fixes the Bank Rate and Repo Rate:
Bank rate is the interest rate at which the RBI, lend funds to other commercial banks in the country. It is also called the discount rate. In order to control the supply of currency in the economic system RBI often uses the bank rate. On the other hand, Repo Rate is the rate at which commercial banks will borrow the funds from the RBI against the securities.

2. Variable Reserve Ratios:
The commercial banks have to keep a certain proportion of their total assets in the form of liquid assets so that they are always in a position to honour the demand for withdrawal by their customers. These reserve ratios are named as Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and a Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR).

The CRR refers to the percentage of deposits with the commercial banks which they have to maintain with the RBI in cash form and SLR refers to the percentage of deposits to be maintained as reserves in the form of gold or foreign securities.

3. Fixing Margin Requirements:
The margin refers to the “proportion of the loan amount which is not financed by the bank” This method is used to encourage credit supply for the needy sector and discourage it for other non-necessary sectors by increasing margin for the non-necessary sectors and by reducing it for priority sectors.

Question 28.
Distinguish between the following:

1. Strategic and Minority sale?
2. Bilateral and Multi – lateral trade?
3. Tariff and Non – tariff barriers?

Answer:
1. Differences between Strategic and Minority sale:

2. Differences between Bilateral and Multi – lateral trade:

3. Differences between Tariff and Non – tariff barriers:

Question 29.
Why are tariffs imposed?
Answer:
Tariffs are taxes-imposed on the imports by a country for providing protection to its domestic industries. Imposition of tariffs increases the price of imported goods such as customs duty are indirect taxes the burden of which is shifted to consumers in the form of higher price. The rise in price discourages consumption of imported goods by consumers and thus domestic industries get a level playing field to compete with imports from other countries.

Question 30.
Those public sector undertakings which are making profits should be privatized? Do you agree with this view? Why?
Answer:
Many of public sector units have become chronically sick and thus cause a huge drain on the exchequer, they also keep resources locked, preventing these from being put to productive use. Hence loss making sick PSUs/should be privatized instead of wasting resources in trying to revive them.

On the other hand, the profit making PSUs should not be privatized only for drawing out funds to cover the deficit in government budget. A profit – making PSU should be privatized only if it can earn better revenues and thus higher profit if run more efficiently by the private sector. Privatisation may cause exploitation of workers in these units and also may have socially undesirable effects such as concentration of economic power.

Question 31.
Do you think outsourcing is good for India? Why are developed countries opposing it?
Answer:
Outsourcing is one of the important outcomes of the globalization process. In outsourcing, a company hires regular service from external sources. Mostly from other countries. Services by outsourcing: Many of the services such as voice – based business processes, record keeping accountancy, music recording, film editing, book transcription clinical advice, etc are being outsourced by companies in developed countries to India. Therefore, outsourcing has proved to be good for India in the following manner:

1. Employment Generation:
Outsourcing from developed nations has helped in creating more employment opportunities in India.

2. Increased Foreign Investment:
Successful execution of processes outsourced to India has increased India’s international credibility and hence the inflow of foreign capital to India.

3. Promotes Other Sectors:
Outsourcing creates various backward and forward linkages which make it beneficial for other related sectors like industrial and agricultural sector too.

4. Human Resource Development:
Outsourcing has helped in developing human resources by training the youth and imparting skills required for specific jobs which have high remuneration.

Question 32.
Why has Government of India gave protection to small scale industries and explain the measures taken?
Answer:
Industrial protection policy is based on assumption that products manufactured by developing countries are not able to face competition with products of developed countries. So if protection is given to small scale industries than they will be able to face the competition. That’s why stress is given to domestic production compared to import for proper supply.

According to this policy small scale industries were protected from foreign competition. Process of Industrialisation was tuned to import substitution as a key policy instrument. Implying domestic production of imported goods was to be accorded as a high priority. It was to achieved with self – reliance. Domestic industry was to be protected from foreign competition by:

1. Heavy duty on imports and
2. Fixation of import quotas.

Question 33.
Do you think the navaratna policy of the government helps in improving the performance of public sector undertaking in India? How?
Answer:
The government identifies PSUs and declare them as maharatnas, navaratnas and miniratnas in order to improve their efficiency and enable them to compete globally. They are given greater managerial and operational autonomy in taking various decisions. Greater operational, financial and managerial autonomy has also been granted to profit making enterprises referred to as miniratnas.

A few examples of public enterprises with their status are as follows:

1. Maharatnas:

• Indian Oil Corporation Limited
• Steel Authority of India Limited

2. Navaratnas:

• Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
• Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Limited

3. Miniratnas:

• Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited
• Airport Authority of India
• Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Corporation Limited.

Many of these profitable PSUs were established during the 1950s and 1960s when self – reliance was an important objective of planning. They were set up with the intention of providing infrastructure and direct employment to the public so that quality products are made available to the masses at a reasonable cost. These companies themselves were made accountable to all stakeholders.

Question 34.
What are the major factors responsible for the high growth of the service sector?
Ansewer:
The major contribution to GDP in India comes from the service sector which has grown impressively since liberalization. The major factors responsible for the high growth of the service sector are as follows:

1. Rise in Income:
Rise in per capita income is an indicator of increase in general affluence levels. With rise in income people start demanding sendees which can make their lives more comfortable.

2. Rise in Life Expectancy:
Health programmes have contributed significantly to increase in life expectancy.

3. Working Women:
Increase in numbers of working women has led to an increase in demand for day care facilities for children, packed food, laundry services etc.

4. Complex and Busy Lifestyles:
As daily routines have got busier, individuals find it difficult to manage things on their own. Hence, people require services of tax consultants, legal advisors, investment advisors, etc. to manage various tasks.

5. Product complexity:
A large number of products such as air conditioners, water purifiers, computers etc. have now become a part of urban life. These products need after sales service, maintenance that can only be serviced by specialized persons.

6. Cultural changes:
The emergence of the nuclear family system in place of the traditional joint family system has created a demand for a host of services like education, health care, entertainment, telecommunication, transport, tourism and so on.

Question 35.
Agriculture sector appears to be adversely affected by the reform process? Why ?
Answer:
Economic reforms did not benefit the agriculture and the agricultural growth rate has been decelerating. Public investment in agriculture sector has been reduced in the reform period due to which irrigation, power, roads, market linkages and agricultural research have suffered.

Globalisation and membership of WTO has resulted in policy changes such as reduction in import duties on agricultural products, removal of minimum support price and lifting of quantitative restrictions on agricultural products which have increased international competition for Indian fanners making their condition more miserable.

There has been a shift from production for the domestic market towards production for the export market because of export oriented policy strategies in agriculture. This has shifted the focus on cash crops in place of production of foodgrains which has led to a fall in supply of foodgrains thereby creating pressure on prices of foodgrains.

Question 36.
Why has the industrial sector performed poorly in the reform period?
Answer:
The industrial sector has performed poorly in the reform period because of decreasing demand of industrial products due to various reasons such as cheaper imports, inadequate investment, infrastructure, etc. The investment made in infrastructure facilities, including power supply, has remained inadequate and hence domestic industries have not found conditions favorable to compete with foreign goods.

Globalisation has led to free movement of goods and services from foreign countries and thus caused the local industries to die out and employment opportunities to fall in developing countries like India. Moreover, India still does not have the access to developed countries markets because of high non – tariff barriers not only in the form of quantitative restrictions but also in the form of agricultural subsidies, sanitary and phytosanitary conditions, etc. Thus, the domestic industries were adversely affected by liberalization.

Question 37.
What were the features of strategies of Industrial development from 1950 – 1990?
Answer:
The features of strategies of Industrial development from 1950 – 1990 were:

1. Public sector was given more importance in industrial development of nation.
2. To achieve the objective of employment small scale industries were encouraged.
3. To develop basic infrastructure stress was laid on development of large scale industries.

Question 38.
“Zamindari system was responsible for the poor condition of agriculture before Independence”?Explain?
Answer:
Land tenure system:
At the time of independence, the land occupancy and tenure system comprised the following forms:

1. Zamindari system
2. Ryotwari system
3. Mahalwari system.

Over 60 per cent agricultural land was under zamindari system. The zamindars used to pay a certain fixed amount to the government in the form of land revenue, but realized the revenue from the peasants at higher rate. The same was the fraction tradition under ryotwari and mahalwari system and the ryots played the role of middlemen between the government and peasants.

Question 39.
Explain objectives of Britishers regarding development of railways in India?
Answer:
The objectives of Britishers regarding development of railways in India were:

1. Development of Railways was done by Britishers to have administrative control over various developed countries. It helped in maintaining law and order.
2. It was done to send the raw materials prepared in Britain in internal parts of India.
3. Britishers found it profitable in investing their capital in development of railways.
4. Britishers wanted to utilize resources properly.

Question 40.
Why did India adopted mixed economy?
Answer:
After Independence India adopted mixed economy, under mixed economy those industries which were more important for economy government kept in their own hands which included steel, energy, education and health services, etc.

Other industries which were in the hands of private sector were also controlled by government, so that centralization of economic powers should not take place. Thus, for getting benefits of private and public sector, mixed economy was adopted.

Question 41.
Explain the types of economy on the basis of ownership and control over means of production?
Answer:
Economy may be classified into following categories on the basis of ownership and control over means of production:

1. Capitalist economy
2. Socialist economy
3. Mixed economy.

1. Capitalist economy:
Capitalist economy means an economy system in which mean of production are owned by the private individuals who work for profit. In such an economy, there is no control or interference by the government in the economic activities. There is complete freedom of consumption and production.

2. Socialist economy:
Socialist economy means an economy system in which means of production are owned by the government who works for the welfare of the society. Socialist economy aims at the maximum welfare of all. All economic decisions are taken by the government controlled central planning authority.

3. Mixed economy:
Mixed economy means an economic system which combines the elements of capitalist economy and socialist economy. Mixed economy permits co – existence of both private and public sectors. There is a controlled price mechanism.

Question 42.
What is mixed economy? Why is it found in most of the countries of the world?
Answer:
Mixed economy means an economic system which combines the elemenis of capitalist economy and socialist economy. Mixed economy permits co – existence of both private and public sectors. In most of the countries of the world, mixed economy is found because due to combination of public and private sector it results in encouragement of economic development and social justice.

Question 43.
Why was public sector given a leading role in industrial development during the planning period?
Answer:
Public sector was given a leading role in industrial development during the planning period because of the following reasons:

1. There were several basic and strategic industries which were essential for economic development but private sector did not have sufficient resources and will to development them.
2. Private sector had no interest in the development of infrastructure such as roads, power, irrigation, scientific research etc.
3. Private sector was keen to set up industries in backward regions. The government was committed to balanced regional development.
4. Public sector was considered an instrument to reduce economic inequalities and to promote social justice.

Question 44.
Explain objectives of Five Year Plans in India?
Answer:
Following have been important objectives of Five Year Plans:

1. Increase in national income:
The first objective of planning in India has been to increase national income by improving agriculture and industrial output.

2. Inverse in employment:
Another objective of plans has been to create more and more employment opportunities.

3. Social Justice:
One of the objectives of planning is to promote social and economic justice through removal of poverty and regional disparities and special assistance to weaker section.

4. Stable growth:
Another objective of planning is to ensure stable growth by removing fluctuations in the price level, wage rate etc.

5. Modernization:
Modernization of the economy by adopting the latest equipment and technology is the prime objective of Five Year Plans.

Question 45.
Explain industrial policy of 1956 in detail?
Answer:
In a short period of operation of the 1948 Industrial Policy, some significant changes took place in the economic and political spheres that called for changes in industrial policy as well. The country hand launched a programme of planned economic development with the first five – year plan.

The second five – year plan gave high priority to industrial development aimed at setting up a number of heavy industries such as steel plants, capital goods industries, etc., for which direct government participation and state involvement was needed.

Further in December 1954, the Parliament adopted the ‘Socialistic Pattern of Society’ as the goal of economic policy which called for the state or the public sector to increase its sphere of activity in industrial sector and thus, prevent concentration of economic power in private hands. In view of all these developments, a new industrial policy was announced in April 1956. The main features of this Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 were as follows:

A comprehensive industrial policy was formulated in 1956. It has following objectives:

1. Development of machine – building industries
2. Increase in rate of industrial development.
3. Reduction of income and wealth inequalities.

Question 46.
Explain the main features of New Economic Policy?
Answer:
Following are the main features of New Economic policy:

1. Liberalisation
2. Globalisation
3. Privatisation.

1. Liberalisation:
Liberalisation refers to the extensive reduction in government regulations guiding private sector. Liberalisation includes liberal provisions regarding licensing, foreign investment, foreign technology agreements, merger and amalgamation of units etc.

2. Globalisation:
Globalisation refers to the growing economic interdependence among countries as reflected in increasing cross – border flow of goods, services, capital and technology. Globalisation ensures free movement of capital, technology, labour and man¬power.

3. Privatisation:
Privatisation means infusing competition i.e., marketisation or liberalisation where demand and supply are allowed to play their free role instead of being controlled by the government. Privatisation ensures opening a larger part of the economy for private sector and thus reducing state monopoly.

Question 47.
Differentiate between the policy of restriction and policy of liberalisation?
Answer:
Policy of restriction means the policy under which the government imposes a number of restrictions on economic activities through taxation policy, industrial policy, trade policy and monetary policy. On the other hand, policy of liberalisation means the policy under which the government withdraws some of the existing restrictions on the economic activities.

Question 48.
What is WTO? What were its major functions?
Answer:
World Trade Organization is an international organization whose objective is to reduce the obstacles of International market and encourage open trade. Following are the major functions of WTO:

1. To increase competition in international market.
2. To encourage open trade among various nations of the world.

Question 49.
What is privatization? Explain its objectives?
Answer:
Privatization refers to that process by which the participation of state and public sector in economic activities is reduced. Objectives of privatization:

Following are the objectives of privatization under new economic policy:

1. To encourage the private sector to play more important role in the economy
2. To provide functional liberty to private sector
3. To privatize the public sector units
4. To increase the competitiveness of private sector for global point of view.
5. To protect the interest of private sector.

Question 50.
Explain the objectives of Economic reforms?
Answer:
Objectives of New Economic Reforms:
The main objective of new economic reform is to improve the quality life of the people. Shri P. N. Dhar in his book ‘Economic Reforms in India has highlighted five objectives of new economic reforms.

1. The policy of the government is to make the export and import trade free and independent and without much restrictions.
2. The economy should have free exchange rate.
3. The country should have efficient and dynamic industrial sector.
4. The country should have sound financial system.
5. The country should have an autonomous.

Development Experience (1947 – 1990) and Economic Reforms Since 1991 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What were the characteristics of Indian economy at the time of independence?
Answer:
Indian economy at the time of independence:

Indian economy at the time of independence can be studied under three heads:

1. Nature of Indian economy at the time of independence.
2. Structural pattern of Indian economy at the time of independence.
3. Main features of Indian economy at the time of independence.

Nature of Indian Economy at the Time of Independence:
According to Dr. Karma Singh Gil, “At the time of independence, Indian economy was underdeveloped, stagnant, semi-feudal, depreciated economy and the partition has made India a disintegrated economy”. Following points will help us to know more about the nature of Indian economy at the time of independence:

1. Underdeveloped Economy
2. Stagnant Economy
3. Semi – feudal, Economy
4. Depreciated Economy
5. Disintegrated Economy.

1. Underdeveloped Economy:
At the time of independence, Indian economy was an underdeveloped economy. According to M.P. Todaro, “Underdeveloped economy is that economy in which there are low level of living, absolute poverty, low per capita income, low consumption level, poor health services, high death rates, high birth rates and dependence on foreign economy”.

2. Stagnant Economy:
During the British period, Indian economy remained almost stagnant. Stagnant economy is one in which there is prolonged period of slow economic growth.

3. Semi – feudal Economy:
During the British rule, Indian economy had a mixed mode of production. Feudalism was more prominent than other modes of production. A substantial developed capitalistic sector had emerged. Handicraftsmen had lost their independent status and were engaged in a simple commodity production. Bonded labour force was prevalent in agriculture. Primitive social organizations existed in areas inhabited by the tribals.

4. Depreciated Economy:
On the eve of Independence Indian economy was depreciated. In every economy, extensive use of factors of production, inevitably leads to their wear and tear. If no arrangements are made to replace the depreciated factors then the stock of gross capital declines. This results into the fall in production capacity.

Such an economy is called depreciated economy. After World War II, Indian economy also turned into depreciated economy. During World War II, India had supplied large quantity of goods to Britishers. India was paid for it in terms of sterling. But due to lack of real capital, its production capacity declined.

5. Disintegrated Economy or effect of partition on the Indian Economy:
Britishers from the very beginning were pursuing the policy of divide and rule in India. The partition of the country was very much an inevitable outcome of this British policy. The following were the main adverse impact of partition on Indian economy.

Question 2.
Explain the colonial exploitation of Indian Economy?
Answer:
The Indian economy under the British rule was subjected to colonial exploitation. It implied a targeted exploitation of all sectors of the economy by the British government This is how it was achieved:

1. Agriculture was exploited through Zamindari system of land revenue.

2. Industrial sector in India implied the predominance of handicrafts. But these were systematically destroyed by allowing tariff free import of machine made goods from Britain.

3. India’s International trade was exploited through discriminatory tariff policy. Duty free export of Indian raw material was encouraged while on the other hand duty free import of British goods was encouraged to enhance access to Indian market by Britishers.

Question 3.
Explain in brief Indian agriculture at the time of independence?
Answer:
Indian Agriculture at the Time of Independence:

1. Agricultural production:
The agricultural production of India was much less than its demand at the time of independence. The production of foodgrains in 1947- 1948 was only 508 lakh tonnes whereas its demand was 540 lakh tonnes. The main reason of this shortage was the policy of the British rule to pay more attention on the production of commercial crops. Hence, imports of foodgrains from foreign countries continued.

2. Commercialization of agriculture:
The Indian cultivators were inclined to grow such crops which can be immediately sold in the market. They gave more preference to cultivation for trade rather than for consumption. As a result, a new class of middlemen such as sahookar, money lender, broker etc. came into existence. These prices of Indian crops were controlled by international market conditions.

3. Rural indebtedness:
The economic conditions of cultivators was miserable. Hence they had to depend on loans from money lenders and sahookars for cultivation and paying land revenue. These loans were taken on high rate of interest. The cultivators had to face severe hardships and the burden of indebtedness increased.

4. Less utilization of agricultural inputs:
At the time of independence, agricultural inputs like irrigation, seeds, fertilizers and modem production techniques were not used properly. As a result, it adversely affected agricultural productivity.

5. More pressure on land:
At die time of independence, decline of handicrafts and cottage industries dye to competition of machine made goods the pressure on agricultural land was increased to a great extent. As a result, land holdings were subdivided and fragmented due to lack of alternative employment opportunities. Thus, the pressure of population on agriculture increased.

Question 4.
Explain the characteristics of Economic planning?
Answer:
The Characteristics of Economic Planning:

1. Long term process:
Planning is a long term process. Its successful results can be achieved only in a long term period and therefore, it is like a chain work. If this chain of planning is disturbed, it has an adverse effect on the economic growth of the country.

2. Establishment of central authority:
Planning is always done by a Central authority. In India, this authority is named as ‘Planning Commission. ’ The Central authority conceives the plan, prepares it and suggests appropriate measures for its implementation.

3. Fixing of targets:
“Planning contains targets that are to be achieved. Targets are determine on the basis of priorities. Every field is touched and priorities are fixed on the basis of definite time – period. Efforts are made to achieve the aims within that period.

4. Predetermined objectives:
Economic planning is characterized by some definite and predetermined objectives to be realized within a definite time – period. Efforts are made to achieve the aims within that period.

5. Maximum utilization of natural resources:
Planning ensures maximum utilization of available resources of the country which results in its progress and development.

6. Financial planning:
Financial planning involves the provision for the financial outlay for the different sectors of the economy. It can be done through additional taxation, surplus of public enterprise, external assistance, public debts, deficit financing etc. A plan can be successfully implemented only if it makes an adequate and detail provision for the mobilization of financial, human and natural resources of the country.

Question 5.
Explain the measures of land reforms taken in India after independence?
Answer:
The comprehensive land reform policy that evolved so far after independence consisted of:

1. Abolition of intermediaries:
Abolition of zamindari and similar intermediary tenures during 1950 – 1955 essentially involved removal of intermediary levels or layers of various amorphous and parasitic groups in land between the state and the actual cultivators. However, such abolition of intermediaries involved compensation to the owners of land.

As a result of this measure, about 2 – 5 crore farmers were brought into direct relationship with the state. This facilitated distribution of 61 lakh hectares of land to landless farmers. Large areas of privately owned forests and wasteland now vested in the state.

2. Ceiling on Landholdings:
To reduce the existing disparities in the pattern of land ownership and make some land available for distribution to landless agricultural workers, the Second Plan (1956 – 1961) recommended the imposition of ceilings on agricultural holdings.

It was envisaged that land above a certain limit would be acquired by the state and redistributed among the landless workers and small farmers so as to meet their hunger for land and, thus, to enable them to create economic holdings.

Land ceiling laws were passed in two phases. In the first phase – which lasted up to the end of 1972 ‘landholder’ was treated as the unit of the cultivation. This ceiling unit was changed to ‘family’ after 1972. The ceiling limits have also been lowered in the second phase with differences varying as between irrigated land with two crops, irrigated land with one crop and dry land.

But exemption for orchards, grazing land, cattle – breeding farms, religious/ charitable/educational trusts, sugar cane plantations, tank, fisheries have made the ceiling laws virtually redundant.

3. Technological Reforms:
For the improvement of agricultural yield, new technologies and equipment have been introduced in the recent years.

• Use of tube – wells and water – pumps, tractor, tiller, thresher, etc.
• Similarly, drip irrigation and sprinklers are used for irrigation, where the water supply is less and to irrigate more places with less water.
• Chemical fertilizers which have been used on a large – scale are now being supplemented by biofertilizers to retain the fertility of the land.
• The farm produces are carried to the market on trucks through all weather roads and faster means of transport.

4. Institutional Reforms:

• To initiate with government to provide facilities to the farmers. The government has started many programmes like Green Revolution, White Revolution or Operation floods.
• The government has assembled small lands to make them economically practicable.
• Radio and television broadcasting tell farmers about the new and improved techniques of cultivation or to give up to date knowledge to the farmers.
• Provision of crop – insurance, rural banking and small – scale cooperative societies protect farmers against the losses caused by crop – failure or help farmers for the modernization of agriculture.

Question 6.
Explain the achievements of Indian Agriculture?
Answer:
Achievements of Agrarian Reforms:

1. Increase in National Product:
Before 1990, the growth rate of national income was 4 – 7% on the implementation of new economic policy, growth rate reduced to 0 – 6 per cent. In 1993 – 1994, growth rate rose to 5 0 per cent at 1993 – 1994 prices and in 1996 – 1997, it rose to 8 – 2 per cent. In 2000 – 2001, growth rate was witnessed to be 62%.

2. Foreign Investment:
With the implementation of new economic policy foreign capital investment has increased. In 1990, total foreign investment was 5133 million dollar and it increased to 6133 million dollar. In 2003 – 2004, foreign investment was 35-31 billion dollar.

3. Agricultural Production:
Prior to implementation of new economic reforms, growth rate of agricultural production was 3%. But in 1991 – 1992, growth rate got down to 1 – 9%. The growth rate came down. In 1995 – 1996, growth rate of agricultural production stood at to 6 – 6% and in 2003 – 2004, it was 6 – 3%.

4. Foreign Currency Reserves:
New economic reforms have favourable effect on foreign currency reserves. In 1989-90, the foreign currency reserve was Rs. 6251 crore. In 1995 – 1996, foreign currency reserve stood at Rs. 58,446 crore and in 2003 – 2004, it touched 2,07,204 crore mark.

5. Fiscal Deficit:
The main thrust of new economic policy is to bring down fiscal deficit to the extent of 3 per cent of GDP. In 1991 – 1992, fiscal deficit come down to 5 – 9% and further to 5 – 2% in 1992 – 1993. No doubt, after the implementation of economic policy, fiscal deficit has reduced but Govt, is still far away from its target. As in 1995-96 fiscal deficit rise to 7 – 9% against the target of 4 – 7%. Moreover, it again moved to 4 – 5% in 2003 – 2004.

6. Imports:
Growth rate of imports saw wide fluctuation after the implementation of new economic policy. In 1991 – 1992, growth rate of imports declined to 11% against 22% in 1990 – 1991. But in 1992 – 1993, it jumped to 32 – 4%. Then in 1995 – 1996, it come down to 15%. In 2003 – 2004, growth rate of imports declined to 20 – 8 per cent.

Question 7.
Mention the important causes? Responsible for the limited success of economic planning in India?
Answer:

1. Unrealistic Targets:
Indian planners have been unrealistic setting the targets. There is multiplicity of objectives and there is no clear ranking of objectives.

2. Lack of Instruments:
Planners are of the view that once the financial allocations have been made and necessary expenses incurred, their job is done.

3. Lack of implementation:
Most of the plan policies have not been implemented due to apathy of bureaucracy and corruption.

4. Lack of cooperation from private sector:
Indian Planners did not receive whole hearted cooperation from private sector. The participation of private sector and trade unions was almost nil.

Question 8.
“Agriculture is the backbone of Indian Economy”? Explain?
Answer:
Agriculture is called as the backbone of Indian economy due to following reasons:

1. Agricultural influence on national income:
The contribution of agriculture during the first two decades towards the gross domestic product ranged between 48 and 60%. In the year 2001 – 2002, this contribution declined to only about 26%.

2. Agriculture plays vital role in generating employment:
In India, at least two-thirds of the working population earn their living through agricultural works. In India, other sectors have failed to generate much of employment opportunity the growing working populations.

3. Agriculture makes provision for food for the ever increasing population:
Due to the excessive pressure of population labour surplus economies like India and rapid increase in the demand for food, food production increases at a fast rate. The existing levels of food consumption in these countries are very low and with a little increase in the capita income, the demand for food rise steeply (in other words it can be stated that the income elasticity of demand for food is very high in developing countries).

Therefore, unless agriculture is able to continuously increase it marketed surplus of food grains, a crisis is like to emerge. Many developing countries are passing through this phase and in a bid to mark the increasing food requirements agriculture has been developed.

4. Contribution to capital formation:
There is general agreement on the necessity capital formation. Since agriculture happens be the largest industry in developing country like India, it can and must play an important role in pushing up the rate of capital formation. If it fails to do so, the whole process economic development will suffer a setback.

To extract surplus from agriculture the following policies are taken:

(I) Transfer of labour and capital from farm non – farm activities.

(II) Taxation of agriculture should be in such a way that the burden on agriculture is greater than the government services provided to agriculture. Therefore, generation of surplus from agriculture will ultimately depend on increasing the agricultural productivity considerably.

5. Supply of raw material to agro – based industries:
Agriculture supplies raw materials to various agro – based industries like sugar, jute, cotton textile and vanaspati industries. Food processing industries are similarly dependent on agriculture. Therefore the development of these industries entirely is dependent on agriculture.

Question 9.
Describe the importance of small scale and cottage industries?
Answer:
The importance of small scale and cottage industries are as follows:

1. Employment:
Small scale and cottage industries are labour based. By investing in these industries many people can be given employment.

2. Less capital:
Less capital is required in small scale and cottage industries. For these industries foreign exchange is not required.

3. Supplement to agriculture:
Small scale and cottage industries are supplement to agriculture. These industries are developed for developing agro – based industries.

4. Supplement to Industries:
Small scale and cottage industries are developed as supplement to industries.

5. Foreign trade:
Small scale and cottage industries doesn’t require imported goods. On the other hand products of these industries can be exported in large quantities.

Question 10.
What is small scale industry? Explain the need of development of small scale industries?
Answer:
Small scale industries are those industries which require less capital and more labour. It is a unit employing less than 50 employees if using power and less than 100 employees if not using power and with a capital asset not exceeding Rs.5 lakhs. Need for development of small scale industries:

1. Employment opportunities:
Labour is widely used in small scale industries compared to large scale industries. Which provides employment opportunities to many people.

2. Helps in Reducing regional imbalance:
Due to less capital required and small size these industries can be established anywhere which reduces regional imbalance.

3. Helpful in proper wealth distribution:
Small scale industries are established with less capital while large scale industries requires huge capital thus, it can be formed by big. Thus, through these industries proper distribution of wealth takes place.

Question 11.
State the factor responsible for adopting New Economic Policy in India in 1991?
Answer:
Following were the factor responsible for adopting New Economic Policy in India in 1991:

1. High rate of inflation:
The rate of inflation was about 16.7% in August 1991. The high rate of inflation adversely affected the cost of production and domestic and foreign demand of our products.

2. Increasing fiscal deficit:
The fiscal deficit of the government was very high due to borrowing by the government on large scale.

3. Poor performance of public sector: Public sector undertaking became liability on the economy since most of them were running in losses.

4. Problem of balance of payments:
Our foreign exchange reserves dropped down to about billion dollar which was not enough to meet import requirements. This seriously Lowered our credit worthiness in the international market.

Question 12.
Describe the Industrial Policy of 1991?
Answer:
New Industrial Policy:
The main features of new industrial policy of 1991 whereas follows:

1. Development of capital market.
2. MRTP provisions have also been abolished for setting up new undertakings.
3. Number of industries exclusively reserved for public sector was reduce from 17 to 4.
4. At the time 1991 industrial policy was announced 18 items were subject to industrial licensing but gradually their number has been reduced to 5 namely.
   • Cigars and cigarettes
   • Electronic aerospace and defence equipment
   • Industrial explosives
   • Hazardous chemicals
   • Certified specified drugs.

Question 13.
Explain the benefits of liberalization?
Answer:
Following are the benefits of economic liberalization:

1. Increase of Foreign Investments:
Apart from America and Great Britain, other world countries like Germany, Switzerland, Japan, France, Holland and Singapore have also invested in our country. Even India has got a lot of the proposals for direct investment.

2. Increase in Foreign Currency Fund:
The positive effects of economic reform, more export and more investment led to increased foreign fund up to 18 billion dollar and gold fund to 5 billion dollar.

3. Better Quality Product:
Liberalization reduced the importance of public sector and encouraged the private sector. It resulted in quality production and removed the problems of mismanagement.

4. Encouragement of Private Sector:
Due to liberal policies of investment, the private sector can produce, invest and export any product. The results are very encouraging.

5. Stability in Balance Payment:
The problem of balance payment was acute in last two decades, now improved gradually. It is a positive sign for our economy.

6. Effective Utilization of Natural Resources:
Due to New economic policy, the natural resources of India were properly and effectively utilized. It led to increased productivity economic development in India.

Question 14.
Describe the components of economic reforms?
Answer:
Components of Economic Reforms:

The economic reforms introduced from 1991 can be classified into two kinds:

1. Structural measures
2. Stabilization measures.

1. Structural measures:
Structural measures refer to those policies which strengthen the supply side of economic system. For example:

• Reforms with regard to trade, technology and foreign investment policy
• Re – forms with regard to industrial policy
• Financial reforms
• Reforms with regard to policy for public sector.

2. Stabilization measures:
Stabilization measures refer to those policies which strengthen the demand side of economic system. For example:

• Introducing liberal monetary policy by reducing the rates of interest
• Adjustment in the exchange rate of Indian rupee
• Amendment in fiscal policy
• Introducing an appropriate wage income policy.

Question 15.
Explain the concept of globalisation? What measures of globalisation have been adopted under New Economic Policy?
Answer:
Globalisation means opening up of the economy to the world market. The policy of globalisation encourages both foreign trade and foreign investment. Measures adopted under globalisation policy in India are:

1. Equity limit of foreign capital investment has been raised from 40% to 51 %.
2. Long time trade policy was adopted. The policy removed all restrictions and controls on the foreign trade.
3. Under the New Economic Policy custom duties and tariffs imposed on imports and exports are being reduced gradually.
4. Under the New Economic Policy individuals and firms can buy and sell foreign currency (like dollar) for foreign transactions more easily.

Question 16.
“Economic reforms have increased the role of the private sector”? Comment?
Answer:
Economic reforms have definitely reduced the role of public sector in the Indian economy. Privatisation was the major component of economic reforms programme. Privatisation means a greater role for private capital and enterprise. The main objective of economic reforms is to make use of privately owned resources for collective welfare of the people. Following steps have been taken to reduce the role of public sector in Indian economy:

1. Denationalisation i.e., transfer of the ownership of public sector enterprises to private sector
2. Disinvestment i.e., sale of a part of equity of public sector enterprises to private capitalists
3. Restrictions on the further expansion and setting up of new units in the public sector
4. Restricting the areas of public sector to the following:
5. Essential manufactured goods.
6. Exploration and exploitation of oil and mineral resources.
7. Strategic areas i. e., defence equipments.

Question 17.
Give arguments in favour of the New Economic Policy (economic reforms) in India?
Answer:
Arguments in favour of New Economic Policy:

1. Increase in growth rate:
The rate of growth of India’s GDP used to be about 4% in pre – reforms period. This has jumped to about 870 presently.

2. Increase in competitiveness of industrial sector:
New Economic Policy has increased competitiveness of the Indian industry. New economic policy aims to remove protective environment of the economy and to make productive enterprises competitive.

3. Increase in efficiency of public sector:
New Economic Policy has resulted in the increase in efficiency of public sector by removing its defects.

4. Decline in deficit of balance of payments:
New Economic policy aims to boost exports and to encourage foreign direct investment in India. As a result foreign exchange receives have increased.

5. End of government restrictions:
New Economic Policy aims to remove all types of controls. Producers are free to decide their scale and level of production. All price and distribution controls have been removed.

6. Limited role for the government:
New Economic Policy gives greater freedom to economic agents to take their own decisions. There is a very limited role for the government.

Question 18.
Give arguments against the new Economic policy?
Answer:
Arguments against New Economic Policy:

1. Less importance to agriculture:
New Economic Policy is biased towards industrialisation and ignores the role of agricultural sector to Indian economy.

2. Dependence on foreign capital and technology:
New Economic Policy has accorded more importance to foreign assistance and foreign technology than internal resources and local technology.

3. Unemployment:
Hundreds of small scale units throughout the country have been forced to close down in face of growing competition from MNCs. This has resulted in mass retrenchment and unemployment.

4. Promotion of consumerism:
New Economic Policy has encouraged alien culture and encouraged the production of “comforts” and “luxuries”.

5. More importance to privatisation:
New Economic policy encourages private sector and discourages public sector.

MP Board Class 11th Economics Important Questions

MP Board Class 11th Biology Solutions Chapter 21 तंत्रिकीय नियंत्रण एवं समन्वय

तंत्रिकीय नियंत्रण एवं समन्वय NCERT प्रश्नोत्तर

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित संरचनाओं का संक्षेप में वर्णन कीजिए –

1. मस्तिष्क
2. नेत्र
3. कर्ण।

उत्तर:
(i) मस्तिष्क (Brain):
मस्तिष्क की संरचना (Structure of Brain)-मस्तिष्क को मुख्य तीन भागों में विभाजित किया गया है

(A) अग्रमस्तिष्क (Fore Brain):
यह प्रमस्तिष्क (Cerebrum) एवं हाइपोथैलेमस (Hypothalamus) का बना होता है –

1. प्रमस्तिष्क (Cerebrum):
यह सम्पूर्ण मस्तिष्क का 2 / 3 भाग होता है और दो गोलार्डों का बना होता है। इसकी सतह पर सल्सी (Sulci) एवं गायरी (Gyri) पाए जाते हैं। दोनों सेरीब्रल गोलार्डों को जोड़ने वाली पट्टी को कॉर्पस कैलोसम कहते हैं। सेरिब्रल गोलार्द्ध चार पिण्डों में विभाजित होता है। सेरिब्रल के बाह्य स्तर को सेरीब्रम कॉर्टेक्स कहते हैं। जिस जीवधारी में सेरिब्रम जितना बड़ा होगा वह उतना ही अधिक बुद्धिमान होगा। मस्तिष्क गोलार्द्ध पर दो पिण्ड पाये जाते हैं, जिन्हें घ्राण पिण्ड कहते हैं।

2. हाइपोथैलेमस (Hypothalamus):

(B) मध्य मस्तिष्क (Mid Brain) – यह भाग सेरीब्रम को सेरीबेलम से जोड़ता है इसमें सेरीब्रल वृन्त पाया जाता है।
(C) पश्च मस्तिष्क (Hind Brain) – यह सेरीबेलम, पोन्स वैरोलाई एवं मेड्यूला आब्लांगेटा से मिलकर बना होता है

• सेरीबेलम (Cerebellum) – मस्तिष्क का पिछला भाग है। इसका भार 5 औंस होता है। इसमें किसी प्रकार की गुहा नहीं पाई जाती है।
• पोन्स वैरोलाई (Pons varolli) – यह तंत्रिका तन्तुओं से बनी पुल के समान संरचना है जो सेरिबेलम के किनारों को जोड़ती है।
• मेड्यूला आब्लांगेटा-यह मस्तिष्क का पिछला भाग है इसमें गुहा पाई जाती है। यह सेरिबेलम के नीचे स्थित होता है।

(ii) नेत्र (Eye):
मानव आँख:
मानव नेत्र एक द्रव से भरी गोलाकार रचना है, जो ऊपर-नीचे पलकों से ढकी रहती है। आँख, जिसे नेत्रगोलक कहते हैं, तीन स्तरों की बनी होती है-
1. दृढ़ पटल (Sclerotic):
यह सबसे बाहरी परत है, जिसका सामने का 1/3 भाग पारदर्शक होता है, इसे कॉर्निया कहते हैं।

2. रक्तक पटल (Choroid):
यह दृढ़ पटल के अन्दर की स्तर है, जो कॉर्निया के पीछे दृढ़ पटल से अलग होकर आइरिस का निर्माण करती है, जिसके मध्य में एक छोटा-सा छिद्र पाया जाता है, जिसे तारा या प्यूपिल कहते हैं। तारे के पीछे एक लेंस सधा रहता है, यही दिखाई देने वाली वस्तु की तस्वीर बनाता है।

3. दृष्टि पटल (Retina):
यह आँख कीb कोरोइड सबसे अन्दर की स्तर है। जब प्रकाश की किरणें दृढ़ पटल लेंस से होकर आती हैं तो दिखाई देने वाली वस्तु पीत बिन्द सिलियरी मांसपेशियाँ जलीय ध्रुव का उल्टा प्रतिबिम्ब रेटिना पर बनता है।

चूँकि कॉचाभ द्रव – कॉर्निया रेटिना संवेदी कोशिकाओं की बनी होती है, जिससे अन्ध बिन्दु पुतली आइरिस इस प्रकार प्रतिबिम्ब बनने पर यह उद्दीप्त हो जाती है और इस उद्दीपन को मस्तिष्क में पहँचा नेत्र लेंस देती है, जिससे मस्तिष्क इस प्रतिबिम्ब के माध्यम से सामने वाली वस्तु को देखता है। दृष्टि पटल दो स्तरों की बनी होती है –

(i) रंगा स्तर:
यह घनाकार कोशिकाओं की बनी एक कोशिका मोटी बाहरी स्तर होती है। इसकी कोशिकाओं में मिलैनिन नामक वर्णक पाया जाता है।

(ii) संवेदी स्तर-यह संवेदी कोशिकाओं की बनी भीतरी स्तर होती है, जो तीन उप-स्तरों की बनी होती है

• शलाका एवं शंकु स्तर – यह स्तर रंगा युक्त शलाका एवं शंकु कोशिकाओं की बनी होती है। ये प्रकाश एवं अंधकार उद्दीपन को ग्रहण करती हैं।
• द्विध्रुवीय स्तर – यह द्विध्रुवीय तन्त्रिका कोशिकाओं की बनी स्तर होती है।
• गुच्छकीय स्तर – यह भी द्विध्रुवीय तन्त्रिका कोशिकाओं की बनी होती है, जिनके ऐक्सॉन मिलकर दृष्टि तन्त्रिका का निर्माण करते हैं।

(iii) कर्ण (Ears):
मनुष्य के कर्ण अत्यधिक विकसित प्रकार के होते हैं एवं यह निम्नलिखित तीन भागों से मिलकर बना होता है।

1. बाह्य कर्ण
2. मध्य कर्ण
3. अन्तः कर्ण।

1. बाह्य कर्ण (External ear):
यह सिर के पार्श्व में पंखा के समान रचना है जो ध्वनि तरंगों को ग्रहण करती है और एक नली द्वारा मध्य कर्ण से जुड़ी होती है इस नली को कहते हैं। इसके अन्त में टिम्पैनिक झिल्ली स्थित होती है।

2. मध्य कर्ण (Middle ear):
इसमें टिम्पैनिक गुहा नामक एक गुहा पाई जाती है। यह गुहा यूस्टेकियन नलिका द्वारा ग्रसनी में खुलती है। टिम्पैनिक गुहा अन्तः कर्ण से दो छोटे-छोटे छिद्रों –

• फेनेस्ट्रा ओवेलिस
• फेनेस्ट्रा रोटेण्डम से जुड़ी रहती है।

फेनेस्ट्रा ओवेलिस एवं टिम्पेनिक गुहा के बीच तीन प्रकार की अस्थियाँ पाई जाती हैं –

1.  मैलियस (Malleus) – हथौड़े के समान
2. इन्कस (Incus) – निहाई के समान
3. स्टेप्स (Stapes) – रकाब के समान। ये अस्थियाँ टिम्पैनिक गुहा में लिगामेन्ट द्वारा लटकी रहती हैं एवं ध्वनि तरंगों का संवहन करती हैं।

3. आन्तरिक कर्ण (Internal ear):
अन्तः कर्ण को मेम्ब्रेनस लेबरिन्थ (Membranous Labyrinth) भी कहते हैं। मेम्ब्रेनस लेबरिन्थ के चारों ओर पेरीलिम्फ (Perilymph) पाया जाता है। लेबिरिन्थ के अन्दर एण्डोलिम्फ (Endolymph) पाया जाता है। इसी एण्डोलिम्फ में आटोलिथ (Otolith) पाए जाते हैं। आन्तरिक कर्ण में यूट्रीकुलस एवं सैकुलस (Utriculus and Sacculus) पाए जाते हैं।

यूट्रीकुलस में तीन अर्धवृत्ताकार नलिकाएँ पाई जाती हैं। सैकुलस का पिछला भाग कुण्डलित होकर एक नलिकाकार संरचना बनाता है, जिसे कॉक्लिया (Cochilea) कहते हैं।कॉक्लिया नलिका के बाहर की गुहा को स्केला वेस्टीबुलाई (Scala vestibuli) कहते हैं।

सबसे नीचे की गुहा को स्केला टिम्पैनी (Scala tympani) और इन दोनों के मध्य की गुहा को स्केलामीडिया कहते हैं। यूट्रीकुलस, सैकुलस एवं अर्द्ध वृत्ताकार नलिका में एण्डोलिम्फ पाया जाता है। कॉक्लियर नलिका में एक संवेदी उभार पाया जाता है, जिसे कॉरटाई का अंग (Organ of Corti) कहते हैं। इसमें उपस्थित संवेदी रोम (Sensory hairs) श्रवण संवेदना उत्पन्न करते हैं।

प्रश्न 2.
निम्नलिखित की तुलना कीजिए –

1. केन्द्रीय तंत्रिका तंत्र और परिधीय तंत्रिका तंत्र।
2. स्थिर विभव और सक्रिय विभव।
3. कोराइड और रेटिना।

उत्तर:
(1) केन्द्रीय तंत्रिका तंत्र और परिधीय तंत्रिका तंत्र में अंतर –

(i) केन्द्रीय तंत्रिका तंत्र (Central Nervous System, CNS):
इसके अन्तर्गत मस्तिष्क (Brain) एवं मेरुरज्जु (Spinal Cord) आते हैं। इनकी उत्पत्ति भ्रूण के बहिचर्म (Ectoderm) से बनने वाली तन्त्रिकीय नाल (Neural tube) से होती है। तन्त्रिका तंत्र के इस भाग में संवेदनाओं के संसाधन (Processing of information) का कार्य होता है।.

(ii) परिधीय तंत्रिका तंत्र (Peripheral Nervous System, PNS):
इसके अन्तर्गत सभी तंत्रिकाएँ (Nerves) तथा तंत्रिका परिपथ (Nerve pathways) आते हैं । यह केन्द्रीय तंत्रिका तंत्र (मस्तिष्क तथा मेरुरज्जु) को शरीर के विभिन्न भागों में स्थित संवेदांगों (Sensory Organ or Receptors) को अपवाहकों (Effectors) से जोड़कर शरीर में एक सूचना संचार प्रणाली (Communication System) स्थापित करता है।

(2) स्थिर विभव और सक्रिय विभव में अन्तर –

(i) स्थिर विभव (Resting Potential):
विश्राम अवस्था में प्लाज्मा झिल्ली में विद्युत् विभव के अन्तर को प्लाज्मा झिल्ली का स्थिर विभव कहा जाता है। प्लाज्मा झिल्ली में -70mV का विभव उत्पन्न होता है, जिसे स्थिर कला विभव कहा जाता है।

(ii) सक्रिय विभव (Active Potential):
जब भी एक्सॉन के किसी भी भाग में उद्दीपन (Stimulation) मिलता है, तब एक्सोलिमा या बाह्य प्लाज्मा झिल्ली का निध्रुवण (Depolarization) हो जाता है और उस स्थान पर विभवान्तर घटकर 30mv रह जाता है, इसे क्रियात्मक कला विभव (Action Membrane Potential) कहते हैं।

(3) कोराइड और रेटिना (Choroid and Retina):

(ii) नेत्र (Eye):
मानव आँख:
मानव नेत्र एक द्रव से भरी गोलाकार रचना है, जो ऊपर-नीचे पलकों से ढकी रहती है। आँख, जिसे नेत्रगोलक कहते हैं, तीन स्तरों की बनी होती है-
1. दृढ़ पटल (Sclerotic):
यह सबसे बाहरी परत है, जिसका सामने का 1/3 भाग पारदर्शक होता है, इसे कॉर्निया कहते हैं।

2. रक्तक पटल (Choroid):
यह दृढ़ पटल के अन्दर की स्तर है, जो कॉर्निया के पीछे दृढ़ पटल से अलग होकर आइरिस का निर्माण करती है, जिसके मध्य में एक छोटा-सा छिद्र पाया जाता है, जिसे तारा या प्यूपिल कहते हैं। तारे के पीछे एक लेंस सधा रहता है, यही दिखाई देने वाली वस्तु की तस्वीर बनाता है।

3. दृष्टि पटल (Retina):
यह आँख कीb कोरोइड सबसे अन्दर की स्तर है। जब प्रकाश की किरणें दृढ़ पटल लेंस से होकर आती हैं तो दिखाई देने वाली वस्तु पीत बिन्द सिलियरी मांसपेशियाँ जलीय ध्रुव का उल्टा प्रतिबिम्ब रेटिना पर बनता है।

चूँकि कॉचाभ द्रव – कॉर्निया रेटिना संवेदी कोशिकाओं की बनी होती है, जिससे अन्ध बिन्दु पुतली आइरिस इस प्रकार प्रतिबिम्ब बनने पर यह उद्दीप्त हो जाती है और इस उद्दीपन को मस्तिष्क में पहँचा नेत्र लेंस देती है, जिससे मस्तिष्क इस प्रतिबिम्ब के माध्यम से सामने वाली वस्तु को देखता है। दृष्टि पटल दो स्तरों की बनी होती है –

(i) रंगा स्तर:
यह घनाकार कोशिकाओं की बनी एक कोशिका मोटी बाहरी स्तर होती है। इसकी कोशिकाओं में मिलैनिन नामक वर्णक पाया जाता है।

(ii) संवेदी स्तर-यह संवेदी कोशिकाओं की बनी भीतरी स्तर होती है, जो तीन उप-स्तरों की बनी होती है

• शलाका एवं शंकु स्तर – यह स्तर रंगा युक्त शलाका एवं शंकु कोशिकाओं की बनी होती है। ये प्रकाश एवं अंधकार उद्दीपन को ग्रहण करती हैं।
• द्विध्रुवीय स्तर – यह द्विध्रुवीय तन्त्रिका कोशिकाओं की बनी स्तर होती है।
• गुच्छकीय स्तर – यह भी द्विध्रुवीय तन्त्रिका कोशिकाओं की बनी होती है, जिनके ऐक्सॉन मिलकर दृष्टि तन्त्रिका का निर्माण करते हैं।

प्रश्न 3.
निम्नलिखित प्रक्रियाओं का वर्णन कीजिए

1. तंत्रिका तंतु की झिल्ली का ध्रुवीकरण
2. तंत्रिका तंतु की झिल्ली का विध्रुवीकरण
3. तंत्रिका तंतु के समांतर आवेगों का संचरण
4. रासायनिक सिनैप्स द्वारा तंत्रिका आवेगों का संचरण।

अथवा

तंत्रिकीय आवेग क्या है ? इनका संचरण किस प्रकार होता है ?
उत्तर:
बाह्य तथा आंतरिक परिवर्तनों या उद्दीपनों (Stimuli) का अनुभव संवेदी अंगों द्वारा किया जाता है। इन अंगों की कोशिकाएँ, जो कि संवेदी प्रकृति की होती है, उद्दीपनों को ग्रहण करके उत्तेजित हो जाती हैं और इस उद्दीपन को तन्त्रिका तन्तु में पहुँचा देती हैं, इसी तंत्रिका (Resting form) तन्तु के उद्दीपन को तंत्रिकीय आवेग या प्रेरणा संवेग (Impulse) कहते हैं।

तंत्रिका तन्तु संवेदी (Resting region) अंगों को तंत्रिका तंत्र से जोड़ते हैं और इन आवेगों को विद्युत्-रासायनिक प्रेरणा या तरंगों (Electro chemical impulse or waves) के रूप में तंत्रिका तंत्र को पहुँचा देते हैं। युग्मानुबन्ध (Synapsis) पर आवेगों का संचरण कुछ रासायनिक क्रियाओं और पदार्थों द्वारा नियन्त्रित होता है।

तंत्रिकीय आवेगों का संचरण:
तंत्रिका तन्तुओं में उत्तेजना या आवेग का संचरण जैव विद्युत्-रासायनिक क्रिया के कारण होती है, जिसे क्रिया विभव (Action potential) कहते हैं। Depolarization तंत्रिकीय ऊतकों में आवेगों का संचरण कुछ उपापचयी क्रियाओं द्वारा नियन्त्रित होता है।

तंत्रिका कोशिकाओं के चारों तरफ अन्तराली द्रव (Interstitial fluid) नामक द्रव भरा होता है, जिसमें सोडियम (Na’) तथा पोटैशियम (K’) आयन घुले रहते हैं। सामान्य या विश्रामावस्था में तंत्रिका कोशिका का ऐक्सॉन पोटैशियम आयन के लिए Na’ आयन की अपेक्षा 30 गुना अधिक

पारगम्य होता है, जिसके परिणामस्वरूप Na’ झिल्ली के बाहर अधिक और अंदर कम सान्द्रता में पाया जाता है। बाह्य सतह पर सोडियम आयन की उपस्थिति के कारण यह धनात्मक आवेश युक्त होती है, जबकि आन्तरिक सतह कार्बनिक मूलकों के कारण ऋणात्मक होती है। इस अवस्था में झिल्ली –

(i) ध्रुवीय अवस्था (Polarized) में कही जाती है और इस समय इसका सुप्त विभव 70 mg होता है। जब तक तंत्रिका तन्तु विश्रामावस्था में रहता है दो आयनों की संख्या सन्तुलित रहती है, लेकिन जैसे V ही कोई उद्दीपन आवेग के रूप में ग्रहण किया जाता है, वैसे ही उद्दीपन के स्थान का आयनिक सन्तुलन बिगड़ जाता है, इस अवस्था को स्थानीय उत्तेजनशील अवस्था (Local excitatory state) कहते हैं । इस अवस्था में झिल्ली में

(ii) निधुवण (Depolarization) हो जाता है। इसके परिणामस्वरूप उत्तेजित आवेग की एक लहर तंत्रिका तन्तु पर क्रम से फैलती जाती है, तंत्रिका तन्तु की इस अवस्था को सक्रिय अवस्था कहते हैं। तंत्रिका तन्तु की सक्रिय अवस्था में पोटैशियम आयन विसरित होकर ऐक्सॉन से बाहर तथा सोडियम आयन अंदर आ जाता है। इस विसरण में सोडियम आयनों के अंदर आने की संख्या पोटैशियम आयनों के बाहर जाने के अनुपात में ज्यादा होती है।

इस घटना के कारण ऐक्सॉन की झिल्ली की सतहों पर आयनों की प्रकृति बदल जाती है। दूसरे शब्दों में, बाहरी सतह पर ऋण तथा आन्तरिक सतह पर धन आयन आ जाते हैं। ये विद्युत्-रासायनिक ऐक्सॉन के द्वारा युग्मानुबन्ध (Synapse) पर पहुँच जाते हैं और वहाँ से इसे पार कर दूसरे न्यूरॉन के डेण्ड्राइट में पहुँच जाते हैं।

इसके बाद पुनर्स्थापन अवस्था (Recovery phase) आती है, जिसमें फिर से ऐक्सॉन की बाहरी सतह पर धन आयन सोडियम आयन के झिल्ली से बाहर आने के कारण स्थापित हो जाते हैं। इस पूरी प्रक्रिया के लिए कुछ समय की आवश्यकता पड़ती है, जिसमें तंत्रिका फिर से उत्तेजना को ग्रहण नहीं कर सकती, इस समय को रिफ्रैक्टरी काल (Refractory period) कहते हैं, जो 1/1000 सेकण्ड के बराबर होता है।

प्रश्न 4.
निम्नलिखित का नामांकित चित्र बनाइए –
(1) न्यूरॉन
(2) मस्तिष्क
(3) नेत्र
(4) कर्ण।
उत्तर:
(1) न्यूरॉन

टीप:

(2) मस्तिष्क (Brain):
मस्तिष्क की संरचना (Structure of Brain)-मस्तिष्क को मुख्य तीन भागों में विभाजित किया गया है

(A) अग्रमस्तिष्क (Fore Brain):
यह प्रमस्तिष्क (Cerebrum) एवं हाइपोथैलेमस (Hypothalamus) का बना होता है –

1. प्रमस्तिष्क (Cerebrum):
यह सम्पूर्ण मस्तिष्क का 2 / 3 भाग होता है और दो गोलार्डों का बना होता है। इसकी सतह पर सल्सी (Sulci) एवं गायरी (Gyri) पाए जाते हैं। दोनों सेरीब्रल गोलार्डों को जोड़ने वाली पट्टी को कॉर्पस कैलोसम कहते हैं। सेरिब्रल गोलार्द्ध चार पिण्डों में विभाजित होता है। सेरिब्रल के बाह्य स्तर को सेरीब्रम कॉर्टेक्स कहते हैं। जिस जीवधारी में सेरिब्रम जितना बड़ा होगा वह उतना ही अधिक बुद्धिमान होगा। मस्तिष्क गोलार्द्ध पर दो पिण्ड पाये जाते हैं, जिन्हें घ्राण पिण्ड कहते हैं।

2. हाइपोथैलेमस (Hypothalamus):

(B) मध्य मस्तिष्क (Mid Brain) – यह भाग सेरीब्रम को सेरीबेलम से जोड़ता है इसमें सेरीब्रल वृन्त पाया जाता है।
(C) पश्च मस्तिष्क (Hind Brain) – यह सेरीबेलम, पोन्स वैरोलाई एवं मेड्यूला आब्लांगेटा से मिलकर बना होता है

• सेरीबेलम (Cerebellum) – मस्तिष्क का पिछला भाग है। इसका भार 5 औंस होता है। इसमें किसी प्रकार की गुहा नहीं पाई जाती है।
• पोन्स वैरोलाई (Pons varolli) – यह तंत्रिका तन्तुओं से बनी पुल के समान संरचना है जो सेरिबेलम के किनारों को जोड़ती है।
• मेड्यूला आब्लांगेटा-यह मस्तिष्क का पिछला भाग है इसमें गुहा पाई जाती है। यह सेरिबेलम के नीचे स्थित होता है।

(3) नेत्र (Eye):
मानव आँख:
मानव नेत्र एक द्रव से भरी गोलाकार रचना है, जो ऊपर-नीचे पलकों से ढकी रहती है। आँख, जिसे नेत्रगोलक कहते हैं, तीन स्तरों की बनी होती है-
1. दृढ़ पटल (Sclerotic):
यह सबसे बाहरी परत है, जिसका सामने का 1/3 भाग पारदर्शक होता है, इसे कॉर्निया कहते हैं।

2. रक्तक पटल (Choroid):
यह दृढ़ पटल के अन्दर की स्तर है, जो कॉर्निया के पीछे दृढ़ पटल से अलग होकर आइरिस का निर्माण करती है, जिसके मध्य में एक छोटा-सा छिद्र पाया जाता है, जिसे तारा या प्यूपिल कहते हैं। तारे के पीछे एक लेंस सधा रहता है, यही दिखाई देने वाली वस्तु की तस्वीर बनाता है।

3. दृष्टि पटल (Retina):
यह आँख कीb कोरोइड सबसे अन्दर की स्तर है। जब प्रकाश की किरणें दृढ़ पटल लेंस से होकर आती हैं तो दिखाई देने वाली वस्तु पीत बिन्द सिलियरी मांसपेशियाँ जलीय ध्रुव का उल्टा प्रतिबिम्ब रेटिना पर बनता है।

चूँकि कॉचाभ द्रव – कॉर्निया रेटिना संवेदी कोशिकाओं की बनी होती है, जिससे अन्ध बिन्दु पुतली आइरिस इस प्रकार प्रतिबिम्ब बनने पर यह उद्दीप्त हो जाती है और इस उद्दीपन को मस्तिष्क में पहँचा नेत्र लेंस देती है, जिससे मस्तिष्क इस प्रतिबिम्ब के माध्यम से सामने वाली वस्तु को देखता है। दृष्टि पटल दो स्तरों की बनी होती है –

(i) रंगा स्तर:
यह घनाकार कोशिकाओं की बनी एक कोशिका मोटी बाहरी स्तर होती है। इसकी कोशिकाओं में मिलैनिन नामक वर्णक पाया जाता है।

(ii) संवेदी स्तर-यह संवेदी कोशिकाओं की बनी भीतरी स्तर होती है, जो तीन उप-स्तरों की बनी होती है

• शलाका एवं शंकु स्तर – यह स्तर रंगा युक्त शलाका एवं शंकु कोशिकाओं की बनी होती है। ये प्रकाश एवं अंधकार उद्दीपन को ग्रहण करती हैं।
• द्विध्रुवीय स्तर – यह द्विध्रुवीय तन्त्रिका कोशिकाओं की बनी स्तर होती है।
• गुच्छकीय स्तर – यह भी द्विध्रुवीय तन्त्रिका कोशिकाओं की बनी होती है, जिनके ऐक्सॉन मिलकर दृष्टि तन्त्रिका का निर्माण करते हैं।

(4) कर्ण (Ears):
मनुष्य के कर्ण अत्यधिक विकसित प्रकार के होते हैं एवं यह निम्नलिखित तीन भागों से मिलकर बना होता है।

1. बाह्य कर्ण
2. मध्य कर्ण
3. अन्तः कर्ण।

1. बाह्य कर्ण (External ear):
यह सिर के पार्श्व में पंखा के समान रचना है जो ध्वनि तरंगों को ग्रहण करती है और एक नली द्वारा मध्य कर्ण से जुड़ी होती है इस नली को कहते हैं। इसके अन्त में टिम्पैनिक झिल्ली स्थित होती है।

2. मध्य कर्ण (Middle ear):
इसमें टिम्पैनिक गुहा नामक एक गुहा पाई जाती है। यह गुहा यूस्टेकियन नलिका द्वारा ग्रसनी में खुलती है। टिम्पैनिक गुहा अन्तः कर्ण से दो छोटे-छोटे छिद्रों –

• फेनेस्ट्रा ओवेलिस
• फेनेस्ट्रा रोटेण्डम से जुड़ी रहती है।

फेनेस्ट्रा ओवेलिस एवं टिम्पेनिक गुहा के बीच तीन प्रकार की अस्थियाँ पाई जाती हैं –

1.  मैलियस (Malleus) – हथौड़े के समान
2. इन्कस (Incus) – निहाई के समान
3. स्टेप्स (Stapes) – रकाब के समान। ये अस्थियाँ टिम्पैनिक गुहा में लिगामेन्ट द्वारा लटकी रहती हैं एवं ध्वनि तरंगों का संवहन करती हैं।

3. आन्तरिक कर्ण (Internal ear):
अन्तः कर्ण को मेम्ब्रेनस लेबरिन्थ (Membranous Labyrinth) भी कहते हैं। मेम्ब्रेनस लेबरिन्थ के चारों ओर पेरीलिम्फ (Perilymph) पाया जाता है। लेबिरिन्थ के अन्दर एण्डोलिम्फ (Endolymph) पाया जाता है। इसी एण्डोलिम्फ में आटोलिथ (Otolith) पाए जाते हैं। आन्तरिक कर्ण में यूट्रीकुलस एवं सैकुलस (Utriculus and Sacculus) पाए जाते हैं।

यूट्रीकुलस में तीन अर्धवृत्ताकार नलिकाएँ पाई जाती हैं। सैकुलस का पिछला भाग कुण्डलित होकर एक नलिकाकार संरचना बनाता है, जिसे कॉक्लिया (Cochilea) कहते हैं।कॉक्लिया नलिका के बाहर की गुहा को स्केला वेस्टीबुलाई (Scala vestibuli) कहते हैं।

सबसे नीचे की गुहा को स्केला टिम्पैनी (Scala tympani) और इन दोनों के मध्य की गुहा को स्केलामीडिया कहते हैं। यूट्रीकुलस, सैकुलस एवं अर्द्ध वृत्ताकार नलिका में एण्डोलिम्फ पाया जाता है। कॉक्लियर नलिका में एक संवेदी उभार पाया जाता है, जिसे कॉरटाई का अंग (Organ of Corti) कहते हैं। इसमें उपस्थित संवेदी रोम (Sensory hairs) श्रवण संवेदना उत्पन्न करते हैं।

प्रश्न 5.
निम्नलिखित पर संक्षिप्त टिप्पणी लिखिए –

1. तंत्रिकीय समन्वयन
2. अग्रमस्तिष्क
3. मध्यमस्तिष्क
4. पश्चमस्तिष्क
5. रेटिना
6. कर्ण अस्थिकाएँ
7. कॉक्लिय
8. ऑर्गन ऑफ कॉर्टाई व सिनेप्स।

उत्तर:
(1) तंत्रिकीय समन्वयन:
तंत्रिकीय नियन्त्रण एवं समन्वय एक विशिष्ट नियन्त्रण एवं समन्वयन की क्रिया है, जो केवल जन्तुओं में पायी जाती है और शरीर में स्थित एक विशिष्ट तन्त्र द्वारा संचालित होती है जिसे तन्त्रिका तन्त्र (Nervous system) कहते हैं।

तंत्रिकीय नियंत्रण एवं समन्वय के घटक (Components of Nervous Control and Coordination)-तंत्रिकीय नियंत्रण और समन्वय का कार्य मुख्यत: मस्तिष्क तथा मेरुरज्जु के द्वारा किया जाता है। तंत्रिका तंत्र के शेष भाग इस कार्य में सहायता करते हैं। तंत्रिकीय नियंत्रण एवं समन्वय में निम्नलिखित रचनाएँ या घटक भाग लेते हैं –

(1) संवेदांग (Sense organs):
हमारे शरीर की वे रचनाएँ जो बाहरी अथवा आन्तरिक परिवर्तनों (उद्दीपनों या Stimuli) का अनुभव कराती हैं, ज्ञानेन्द्रियाँ या संवेदांग या ग्राही अंग (Receptors) कहलाती हैं। इस प्रकार ये रचनाएँ उद्दीपनों को ग्रहण करती हैं। त्वचा, आँख, कान, जिह्वा तथा नासावेश्म संवेदांगों के उदाहरण हैं।

(2) संचार तंत्र (Transmitting system):
शरीर में पायी जाने वाली तंत्रिकाएँ इस श्रेणी में आती हैं, जो उद्दीपनों को संवेदी अंगों से मस्तिष्क या मेरुरज्जु तक लाती हैं तथा यहाँ से इनके निर्देशों को कार्यान्वयक अंगों तक ले जाती हैं। पहली प्रकार की तंत्रिकाएँ संवेदी (Sensory) तथा दूसरी प्रकार की तंत्रिकाएँ प्रेरक (Motor) तंत्रिकाएँ कहलाती हैं।

(3) कार्यान्वयक अंग (Effectors):
शरीर की वे रचनाएँ जो मस्तिष्क तथा मेरुरज्ज से प्राप्त निर्देशों को कार्य रूप देती हैं, कार्यान्वयक अंग कहलाती हैं। शरीर की पेशियाँ तथा ग्रन्थियाँ इसके उदाहरण हैं।

(2) अग्रमस्तिष्क:

(A) अग्रमस्तिष्क (Fore Brain):
यह प्रमस्तिष्क (Cerebrum) एवं हाइपोथैलेमस (Hypothalamus) का बना होता है –

1. प्रमस्तिष्क (Cerebrum):
यह सम्पूर्ण मस्तिष्क का 2 / 3 भाग होता है और दो गोलार्डों का बना होता है। इसकी सतह पर सल्सी (Sulci) एवं गायरी (Gyri) पाए जाते हैं। दोनों सेरीब्रल गोलार्डों को जोड़ने वाली पट्टी को कॉर्पस कैलोसम कहते हैं। सेरिब्रल गोलार्द्ध चार पिण्डों में विभाजित होता है। सेरिब्रल के बाह्य स्तर को सेरीब्रम कॉर्टेक्स कहते हैं। जिस जीवधारी में सेरिब्रम जितना बड़ा होगा वह उतना ही अधिक बुद्धिमान होगा। मस्तिष्क गोलार्द्ध पर दो पिण्ड पाये जाते हैं, जिन्हें घ्राण पिण्ड कहते हैं।

2. हाइपोथैलेमस (Hypothalamus):

(3) मध्यमस्तिष्क:

यह भाग सेरीब्रम को सेरीबेलम से जोड़ता है इसमें सेरीब्रल वृन्त पाया जाता है।

(4) पश्चमस्तिष्क:
यह सेरीबेलम, पोन्स वैरोलाई एवं मेड्यूला आब्लांगेटा से मिलकर बना होता है –

• सेरीबेलम (Cerebellum) – मस्तिष्क का पिछला भाग है। इसका भार 5 औंस होता है। इसमें किसी प्रकार की गुहा नहीं पाई जाती है।
• पोन्स वैरोलाई (Pons varolli) – यह तंत्रिका तन्तुओं से बनी पुल के समान संरचना है जो सेरिबेलम के किनारों को जोड़ती है।
• मेड्यूला आब्लांगेटा-यह मस्तिष्क का पिछला भाग है इसमें गुहा पाई जाती है। यह सेरिबेलम के नीचे स्थित होता है।

(5) रेटिना – उपर्युक्त (NCERT) प्रश्न क्र. 1(ii) का उत्तर देखिये।

नेत्र (Eye):
मानव आँख:
मानव नेत्र एक द्रव से भरी गोलाकार रचना है, जो ऊपर-नीचे पलकों से ढकी रहती है। आँख, जिसे नेत्रगोलक कहते हैं, तीन स्तरों की बनी होती है-
1. दृढ़ पटल (Sclerotic):
यह सबसे बाहरी परत है, जिसका सामने का 1/3 भाग पारदर्शक होता है, इसे कॉर्निया कहते हैं।

2. रक्तक पटल (Choroid):
यह दृढ़ पटल के अन्दर की स्तर है, जो कॉर्निया के पीछे दृढ़ पटल से अलग होकर आइरिस का निर्माण करती है, जिसके मध्य में एक छोटा-सा छिद्र पाया जाता है, जिसे तारा या प्यूपिल कहते हैं। तारे के पीछे एक लेंस सधा रहता है, यही दिखाई देने वाली वस्तु की तस्वीर बनाता है।

3. दृष्टि पटल (Retina):
यह आँख कीb कोरोइड सबसे अन्दर की स्तर है। जब प्रकाश की किरणें दृढ़ पटल लेंस से होकर आती हैं तो दिखाई देने वाली वस्तु पीत बिन्द सिलियरी मांसपेशियाँ जलीय ध्रुव का उल्टा प्रतिबिम्ब रेटिना पर बनता है।

चूँकि कॉचाभ द्रव – कॉर्निया रेटिना संवेदी कोशिकाओं की बनी होती है, जिससे अन्ध बिन्दु पुतली आइरिस इस प्रकार प्रतिबिम्ब बनने पर यह उद्दीप्त हो जाती है और इस उद्दीपन को मस्तिष्क में पहँचा नेत्र लेंस देती है, जिससे मस्तिष्क इस प्रतिबिम्ब के माध्यम से सामने वाली वस्तु को देखता है। दृष्टि पटल दो स्तरों की बनी होती है –

(i) रंगा स्तर:
यह घनाकार कोशिकाओं की बनी एक कोशिका मोटी बाहरी स्तर होती है। इसकी कोशिकाओं में मिलैनिन नामक वर्णक पाया जाता है।

(ii) संवेदी स्तर-यह संवेदी कोशिकाओं की बनी भीतरी स्तर होती है, जो तीन उप-स्तरों की बनी होती है

• शलाका एवं शंकु स्तर – यह स्तर रंगा युक्त शलाका एवं शंकु कोशिकाओं की बनी होती है। ये प्रकाश एवं अंधकार उद्दीपन को ग्रहण करती हैं।
• द्विध्रुवीय स्तर – यह द्विध्रुवीय तन्त्रिका कोशिकाओं की बनी स्तर होती है।
• गुच्छकीय स्तर – यह भी द्विध्रुवीय तन्त्रिका कोशिकाओं की बनी होती है, जिनके ऐक्सॉन मिलकर दृष्टि तन्त्रिका का निर्माण करते हैं।

(6) कर्ण अस्थिकाएँ:

कर्ण (Ears):
मनुष्य के कर्ण अत्यधिक विकसित प्रकार के होते हैं एवं यह निम्नलिखित तीन भागों से मिलकर बना होता है।

1. बाह्य कर्ण
2. मध्य कर्ण
3. अन्तः कर्ण।

1. बाह्य कर्ण (External ear):
यह सिर के पार्श्व में पंखा के समान रचना है जो ध्वनि तरंगों को ग्रहण करती है और एक नली द्वारा मध्य कर्ण से जुड़ी होती है इस नली को कहते हैं। इसके अन्त में टिम्पैनिक झिल्ली स्थित होती है।

2. मध्य कर्ण (Middle ear):
इसमें टिम्पैनिक गुहा नामक एक गुहा पाई जाती है। यह गुहा यूस्टेकियन नलिका द्वारा ग्रसनी में खुलती है। टिम्पैनिक गुहा अन्तः कर्ण से दो छोटे-छोटे छिद्रों –

• फेनेस्ट्रा ओवेलिस
• फेनेस्ट्रा रोटेण्डम से जुड़ी रहती है।

फेनेस्ट्रा ओवेलिस एवं टिम्पेनिक गुहा के बीच तीन प्रकार की अस्थियाँ पाई जाती हैं –

1.  मैलियस (Malleus) – हथौड़े के समान
2. इन्कस (Incus) – निहाई के समान
3. स्टेप्स (Stapes) – रकाब के समान। ये अस्थियाँ टिम्पैनिक गुहा में लिगामेन्ट द्वारा लटकी रहती हैं एवं ध्वनि तरंगों का संवहन करती हैं।

3. आन्तरिक कर्ण (Internal ear):
अन्तः कर्ण को मेम्ब्रेनस लेबरिन्थ (Membranous Labyrinth) भी कहते हैं। मेम्ब्रेनस लेबरिन्थ के चारों ओर पेरीलिम्फ (Perilymph) पाया जाता है। लेबिरिन्थ के अन्दर एण्डोलिम्फ (Endolymph) पाया जाता है। इसी एण्डोलिम्फ में आटोलिथ (Otolith) पाए जाते हैं। आन्तरिक कर्ण में यूट्रीकुलस एवं सैकुलस (Utriculus and Sacculus) पाए जाते हैं।

यूट्रीकुलस में तीन अर्धवृत्ताकार नलिकाएँ पाई जाती हैं। सैकुलस का पिछला भाग कुण्डलित होकर एक नलिकाकार संरचना बनाता है, जिसे कॉक्लिया (Cochilea) कहते हैं।कॉक्लिया नलिका के बाहर की गुहा को स्केला वेस्टीबुलाई (Scala vestibuli) कहते हैं।

सबसे नीचे की गुहा को स्केला टिम्पैनी (Scala tympani) और इन दोनों के मध्य की गुहा को स्केलामीडिया कहते हैं। यूट्रीकुलस, सैकुलस एवं अर्द्ध वृत्ताकार नलिका में एण्डोलिम्फ पाया जाता है। कॉक्लियर नलिका में एक संवेदी उभार पाया जाता है, जिसे कॉरटाई का अंग (Organ of Corti) कहते हैं। इसमें उपस्थित संवेदी रोम (Sensory hairs) श्रवण संवेदना उत्पन्न करते हैं।

(7) कॉक्लिया:

सिनेप्स:
एक तंत्रिका कोशिका के साइटॉन (Cyton) के डेन्ड्राइट्स एवं दूसरी तंत्रिका कोशिका के ऐक्सॉन एक विशिष्ट संधि द्वारा जुड़े होते हैं, जिन्हें युग्मानुबन्ध कहते हैं।

प्रश्न 6.
निम्नलिखित पर संक्षिप्त टिप्पणी दीजिए –

1. सिनैप्टिक संचरण की क्रियाविधि
2. देखने की प्रक्रिया
3. श्रवण की प्रक्रिया।

उत्तर:

(1) सिनैप्टिक संचरण की क्रियाविधि:
युग्मानुबन्ध में आवेग का संचरण (Conduction of Impulse in Synapse):
युग्मानुबन्ध अर्थात् दो न्यूरॉन्स के जोड़ पर आवेग का संचरण विद्युत्-रासायनिक तरंगों के रूप में न होकर, हॉर्मोन के द्वारा होता है। अतः यह एक हॉर्मोनल संचरण प्रक्रिया (Hormonal conduction process) है।

युग्मानुबन्ध बनाने वाले तंत्रिका तन्तु आपस में चिपके न होकर थोड़ा दूर – दूर स्थित होते हैं और इनके सिरे पर युग्मानुबन्ध घुण्डियाँ (Synaptic knobs) पायी जाती हैं, जिनके नीचे विशेष प्रकार की युग्मानुबन्ध थैलियाँ (Synaptic vesicles) स्थित होती हैं, जिसमें ऐसीटाइलकोलीन (Acetylcholines) नामक रासायनिक पदार्थ भरा रहता है, जो कि रासायनिक संचारी (Chemical transmitter) के समान आवेग को युग्मानुबन्ध पर पहुँचा देता है, इसीलिए इसे तंत्रिका संचारी (Neurohumor) भी कहते हैं।

जिस समय प्रेरणा ऐक्सॉन से होकर युग्मानुबन्ध घुण्डियों में पहुँचती हैं, Ca⁺ ऊतक द्रव्य से घुण्डियों में पहुँचते हैं, जिसके प्रभाव से ऐसीटाइलकोलीन मुक्त होकर पश्च युग्मानुबन्ध न्यूरॉन की कला की पारगम्यता को प्रभावित कर देता है। फलत: फिर से विद्युत् –  तरंगें पैदा हो जाती हैं, इसमें मात्र कुछ मिली सेकण्ड का समय लगता है।

जल्द ए-3 – ही ऐसीटाइलकोलीनेस्टेरेज (AcetyIcholinesterase) प्रकीण्व ऊतक में बनता है, जो ऐसीटाइलकोलीन को चित्र-युग्मानुबन्ध में आवेग के संचरण की कार्यिकी (चित्रात्मक) कोलीन और ऐसीटेट में विघटित कर देता है, इसी कारण प्रेरणा का संचारण केवल एक दिशा में होकर रह जाता है।

ऐसीटाइलकोलीन के ही समान कुछ अन्य तंत्रिकीय संचारी पदार्थ तंत्रिका तंत्र में पाये जाते हैं जैसे-सीरोटोनिन (Serotonin), सिम्पैथिन (Sympathin), डोपामीन (Dopamine), तथा नॉरएपिनेफ्रिन (Nor-epinephrine) या नॉर-ऐडीनेलीन, ये युग्मानुबन्ध में प्रेरणाओं का संचारण करते हैं।

(2) देखने की प्रक्रिया-नेत्र की कार्यविधि एवं समंजन क्षमता:
सबसे पहले आँख से संबंधित पेशियाँ आँख को देखी जाने वाली वस्तु की दिशा में लाती हैं। मनुष्य की आँख का आइरिस कैमरे के डायफ्राम का कार्य करता है और तारे को छोटा – बड़ा करके प्रकाश की उचित मात्रा को ही नेत्रगोलक में जाने देता है।

नेत्र गोलक का लेन्स कैमरे के लेन्स के समान कार्य करता है जब प्रकाश की किरणें किसी वस्तु से आकर एक्वियस ह्यूमर, तारा विट्रियस ह्यूमर से होते हुए रेटिना पर पड़ती हैं, तो सामने की वस्तु का एक उल्टा प्रतिबिम्ब रेटिना पर बनता है जिससे रेटिना की संवेदी कोशिकाएँ उद्दीप्त हो जाती हैं तथा इस उद्दीपन को दृष्टि तन्त्रिकाओं द्वारा मस्तिष्क को पहुँचा देती हैं, जो इस प्रतिबिम्ब को सीधा करके देखता है।

मनुष्य तथा अन्य स्तनी आँख के लेंस को सिलियरी काय में उपस्थित पेशियों और निलम्बन तन्तुओं के द्वारा छोटा-बड़ा कर सकते हैं। लेन्स के इसी गुण के कारण स्तनी जन्तु नजदीक तथा दूर की वस्तुओं को साफसाफ आसानी से देख सकते हैं। जब स्तनियों को दूर की वस्तु को देखना होता है तब सिलियरी काय की पेशियाँ शिथिलन अवस्था में आ जाती हैं, फलतः निलम्बन तन्तु खिंच जाते हैं, फलतः लेंस भी खिंचकर चपटा हो जाता है और इसकी फोकस दूरी (Focal length) बढ़ जाती है और आँख दूर की वस्तुओं को आसानी से देख लेती है।

नजदीक की वस्तुओं को देखते समय सिलियरी काय की पेशियाँ संकुचित होती हैं, जिसमें निलम्बन तन्तु ढीले पड़ जाते हैं। फलतः लेंस अधिक उत्तल हो जाता है और इसकी फोकस दूरी घट जाती है जिससे इस अवस्था में भी आँख वस्तुओं को आसानी से देख लेती है। जन्तुओं द्वारा आँख के लेंस की फोकस दूरी में परिवर्तन लाकर दूर तथा नजदीक की वस्तुओं को देखने की क्षमता को समंजन क्षमता (Accommodation power) तथा इस क्रिया को समायोजन या समंजन (Accommodation) कहते हैं। मनुष्य के आँख की समंजन क्षमता बहुत अधिक होती है।

(3) श्रवण की प्रक्रिया-श्रवण या सुनना (Hearing):
सुनने का कार्य मुख्य रूप से अन्तः कर्ण के कॉक्लिया द्वारा किया जाता है। ध्वनि की तरंगें जो चारों तरफ की वायु में पैदा होती हैं बाह्य ऑडिटरी मीटस से होकर टिम्पैनिक झिल्ली से टकराकर इसे कम्पित कर देती हैं। यह कम्पन मैलियस, इन्कस तथा स्टेप्स अस्थियों द्वारा फेनेस्ट्रा ओवेलिस की झिल्ली को पहुँचा दिया जाता है। जहाँ से यह कम्पन स्केला वेस्टीबुलाई में भरे पेरिलिम्फ द्रव में पहुँचता है।

इसी प्रकार कुछ कम्पन फेनेस्ट्रा रोटेण्डा द्वारा स्केला टिम्पैनाई के पेरिलिम्फ में पहुँचते हैं। इन दोनों नलियों के द्रव में होने वाले कम्पनों के कारण रीजनर्स तथा बेसीलर्स झिल्लियों के साथ स्केला मीडिया का इण्डोलिम्फ भी कम्पित होने लगता है, जिसके कारण कॉरटाई अंग की संवेदी कोशिकाओं के रोम बार-बार टैक्टोरियल झिल्ली को छूने लगते हैं, जिससे ध्वनि का एक आवेग बनता है, जो कॉरटाई अंग की संवेदी तंत्रिकाओं की शाखाओं द्वारा श्रवण तंत्रिका को पहुंचा दिया जाता है, जो इस उद्दीपन को मस्तिष्क में पहुँचा देती है और जन्तुओं को आवाज का अनुभव होता है।

प्रश्न 7.

1. आप किस प्रकार किसी वस्तु के रंग का पता लगाते हैं ?
2. हमारे शरीर का कौन-सा भाग शरीर का संतुलन बनाने में मदद करता है ?
3. नेत्र किस प्रकार रेटिना पर पड़ने वाले प्रकाश का नियमन करते हैं ?

उत्तर:
(1) रेटिना में दो प्रकार की प्रकाशग्राही कोशिकाएँ:
शलाका (Rod) एवं शंकु (Cone) होती हैं। दिन की रोशनी (Day light) में देखना और रंगों का ज्ञान शंकु (Cone) कोशिकाओं के कार्य हैं। मानव नेत्र में तीन प्रकार के शंकु होते हैं, जिनमें कुछ विशेष प्रकार के प्रकाश वर्णक (Photo-pigments) होते हैं, जो कि लाल, हरे और नीले प्रकाश को पहचानने में सक्षम होते हैं।

विभिन्न प्रकार के शंकुओं और उनके प्रकाश वर्णकों के मेल से अलग-अलग रंगों के प्रति संवेदना उत्पन्न होती है। जब इन शंकुओं को समान मात्रा में उत्तेजित किया जाता है, तो सफेद रंग के प्रति संवेदना उत्पन्न होती है।

(2) सन्तुलन (Balancing):
शरीर को सन्तुलित रखने का कार्य ऐम्पुला, सैक्कुलस तथा यूट्रिकुलस में उपस्थित श्रवण कूटों (Acoustic ridges) द्वारा किया जाता है। सामान्य अवस्था में श्रवण कूट की संवेदी कोशिकाओं के संवेदी रोम एण्डोलिम्फ में तैरते रहते हैं, लेकिन जब शरीर का सन्तुलन बिगड़ जाता है या वह एक ओर झुक जाता है, तब एण्डोलिम्फ में उपस्थित CaCO3 के कण या आटोलिथ (आटोकोनिया) गुरुत्वाकर्षण के कारण संवेदी रोमों पर एक दबाव डालते हैं, जिसकी संवेदना तंत्रिका शाखाओं द्वारा श्रवण तंत्रिका के द्वारा मस्तिष्क को पहुँचा दी जाती है। तब मस्तिष्क पैर, हाथ आदि संबंधित अंगों को सन्तुलन बनाये रखने का निर्देश देता है, फलतः शरीर सन्तुलित कर लिया जाता है और आटोकोनिया पुनः अपनी पुरानी स्थिति में लौट आते हैं।

(3) देखने की प्रक्रिया-नेत्र की कार्यविधि एवं समंजन क्षमता:
सबसे पहले आँख से संबंधित पेशियाँ आँख को देखी जाने वाली वस्तु की दिशा में लाती हैं। मनुष्य की आँख का आइरिस कैमरे के डायफ्राम का कार्य करता है और तारे को छोटा – बड़ा करके प्रकाश की उचित मात्रा को ही नेत्रगोलक में जाने देता है।

नेत्र गोलक का लेन्स कैमरे के लेन्स के समान कार्य करता है जब प्रकाश की किरणें किसी वस्तु से आकर एक्वियस ह्यूमर, तारा विट्रियस ह्यूमर से होते हुए रेटिना पर पड़ती हैं, तो सामने की वस्तु का एक उल्टा प्रतिबिम्ब रेटिना पर बनता है जिससे रेटिना की संवेदी कोशिकाएँ उद्दीप्त हो जाती हैं तथा इस उद्दीपन को दृष्टि तन्त्रिकाओं द्वारा मस्तिष्क को पहुँचा देती हैं, जो इस प्रतिबिम्ब को सीधा करके देखता है।

मनुष्य तथा अन्य स्तनी आँख के लेंस को सिलियरी काय में उपस्थित पेशियों और निलम्बन तन्तुओं के द्वारा छोटा-बड़ा कर सकते हैं। लेन्स के इसी गुण के कारण स्तनी जन्तु नजदीक तथा दूर की वस्तुओं को साफसाफ आसानी से देख सकते हैं। जब स्तनियों को दूर की वस्तु को देखना होता है तब सिलियरी काय की पेशियाँ शिथिलन अवस्था में आ जाती हैं, फलतः निलम्बन तन्तु खिंच जाते हैं, फलतः लेंस भी खिंचकर चपटा हो जाता है और इसकी फोकस दूरी (Focal length) बढ़ जाती है और आँख दूर की वस्तुओं को आसानी से देख लेती है।

नजदीक की वस्तुओं को देखते समय सिलियरी काय की पेशियाँ संकुचित होती हैं, जिसमें निलम्बन तन्तु ढीले पड़ जाते हैं। फलतः लेंस अधिक उत्तल हो जाता है और इसकी फोकस दूरी घट जाती है जिससे इस अवस्था में भी आँख वस्तुओं को आसानी से देख लेती है। जन्तुओं द्वारा आँख के लेंस की फोकस दूरी में परिवर्तन लाकर दूर तथा नजदीक की वस्तुओं को देखने की क्षमता को समंजन क्षमता (Accommodation power) तथा इस क्रिया को समायोजन या समंजन (Accommodation) कहते हैं। मनुष्य के आँख की समंजन क्षमता बहुत अधिक होती है।

प्रश्न 8.
(1) सक्रिय विभव उत्पन्न करने में Na⁺ की भूमिका का वर्णन कीजिए।
(2) सिनेप्स पर न्यूरोट्रांसमीटर मुक्त करने में Ca⁺ की भूमिका का वर्णन कीजिए।
(3) रेटिना पर प्रकाश द्वारा आवेग उत्पन्न करने की क्रियाविधि का वर्णन कीजिए।
(4) अंतःकर्ण में ध्वनि द्वारा तंत्रिका आवेग उत्पन्न होने की क्रियाविधि का वर्णन कीजिए।
उत्तर:

(1) सक्रिय विभव उत्पन्न करने में Na⁺ की भूमिका का वर्णन कीजिए।

बाह्य तथा आंतरिक परिवर्तनों या उद्दीपनों (Stimuli) का अनुभव संवेदी अंगों द्वारा किया जाता है। इन अंगों की कोशिकाएँ, जो कि संवेदी प्रकृति की होती है, उद्दीपनों को ग्रहण करके उत्तेजित हो जाती हैं और इस उद्दीपन को तन्त्रिका तन्तु में पहुँचा देती हैं, इसी तंत्रिका (Resting form) तन्तु के उद्दीपन को तंत्रिकीय आवेग या प्रेरणा संवेग (Impulse) कहते हैं।

तंत्रिका तन्तु संवेदी (Resting region) अंगों को तंत्रिका तंत्र से जोड़ते हैं और इन आवेगों को विद्युत्-रासायनिक प्रेरणा या तरंगों (Electro chemical impulse or waves) के रूप में तंत्रिका तंत्र को पहुँचा देते हैं। युग्मानुबन्ध (Synapsis) पर आवेगों का संचरण कुछ रासायनिक क्रियाओं और पदार्थों द्वारा नियन्त्रित होता है।

तंत्रिकीय आवेगों का संचरण:
तंत्रिका तन्तुओं में उत्तेजना या आवेग का संचरण जैव विद्युत्-रासायनिक क्रिया के कारण होती है, जिसे क्रिया विभव (Action potential) कहते हैं। Depolarization तंत्रिकीय ऊतकों में आवेगों का संचरण कुछ उपापचयी क्रियाओं द्वारा नियन्त्रित होता है।

तंत्रिका कोशिकाओं के चारों तरफ अन्तराली द्रव (Interstitial fluid) नामक द्रव भरा होता है, जिसमें सोडियम (Na’) तथा पोटैशियम (K’) आयन घुले रहते हैं। सामान्य या विश्रामावस्था में तंत्रिका कोशिका का ऐक्सॉन पोटैशियम आयन के लिए Na’ आयन की अपेक्षा 30 गुना अधिक पारगम्य होता है, जिसके परिणामस्वरूप Na’ झिल्ली के बाहर अधिक और अंदर कम सान्द्रता में पाया जाता है।

बाह्य सतह पर सोडियम आयन की उपस्थिति के कारण यह धनात्मक आवेश युक्त होती है, जबकि आन्तरिक सतह कार्बनिक मूलकों के कारण ऋणात्मक होती है। इस अवस्था में झिल्ली –

(i) ध्रुवीय अवस्था (Polarized) में कही जाती है और इस समय इसका सुप्त विभव 70 mg होता है। जब तक तंत्रिका तन्तु विश्रामावस्था में रहता है दो आयनों की संख्या सन्तुलित रहती है, लेकिन जैसे V ही कोई उद्दीपन आवेग के रूप में ग्रहण किया जाता है, वैसे ही उद्दीपन के स्थान का आयनिक सन्तुलन बिगड़ जाता है, इस अवस्था को स्थानीय उत्तेजनशील अवस्था (Local excitatory state) कहते हैं । इस अवस्था में झिल्ली में

(ii) निधुवण (Depolarization) हो जाता है। इसके परिणामस्वरूप उत्तेजित आवेग की एक लहर तंत्रिका तन्तु पर क्रम से फैलती जाती है, तंत्रिका तन्तु की इस अवस्था को सक्रिय अवस्था कहते हैं। तंत्रिका तन्तु की सक्रिय अवस्था में पोटैशियम आयन विसरित होकर ऐक्सॉन से बाहर तथा सोडियम आयन अंदर आ जाता है। इस विसरण में सोडियम आयनों के अंदर आने की संख्या पोटैशियम आयनों के बाहर जाने के अनुपात में ज्यादा होती है।

इस घटना के कारण ऐक्सॉन की झिल्ली की सतहों पर आयनों की प्रकृति बदल जाती है। दूसरे शब्दों में, बाहरी सतह पर ऋण तथा आन्तरिक सतह पर धन आयन आ जाते हैं। ये विद्युत्-रासायनिक ऐक्सॉन के द्वारा युग्मानुबन्ध (Synapse) पर पहुँच जाते हैं और वहाँ से इसे पार कर दूसरे न्यूरॉन के डेण्ड्राइट में पहुँच जाते हैं।

इसके बाद पुनर्स्थापन अवस्था (Recovery phase) आती है, जिसमें फिर से ऐक्सॉन की बाहरी सतह पर धन आयन सोडियम आयन के झिल्ली से बाहर आने के कारण स्थापित हो जाते हैं। इस पूरी प्रक्रिया के लिए कुछ समय की आवश्यकता पड़ती है, जिसमें तंत्रिका फिर से उत्तेजना को ग्रहण नहीं कर सकती, इस समय को रिफ्रैक्टरी काल (Refractory period) कहते हैं, जो 1/1000 सेकण्ड के बराबर होता है।

(2) सिनेप्स पर न्यूरोट्रांसमीटर मुक्त करने में Ca⁺ की भूमिका का वर्णन कीजिए।

(1) सिनैप्टिक संचरण की क्रियाविधि:
युग्मानुबन्ध में आवेग का संचरण (Conduction of Impulse in Synapse):
युग्मानुबन्ध अर्थात् दो न्यूरॉन्स के जोड़ पर आवेग का संचरण विद्युत्-रासायनिक तरंगों के रूप में न होकर, हॉर्मोन के द्वारा होता है। अतः यह एक हॉर्मोनल संचरण प्रक्रिया (Hormonal conduction process) है।

युग्मानुबन्ध बनाने वाले तंत्रिका तन्तु आपस में चिपके न होकर थोड़ा दूर – दूर स्थित होते हैं और इनके सिरे पर युग्मानुबन्ध घुण्डियाँ (Synaptic knobs) पायी जाती हैं, जिनके नीचे विशेष प्रकार की युग्मानुबन्ध थैलियाँ (Synaptic vesicles) स्थित होती हैं, जिसमें ऐसीटाइलकोलीन (Acetylcholines) नामक रासायनिक पदार्थ भरा रहता है, जो कि रासायनिक संचारी (Chemical transmitter) के समान आवेग को युग्मानुबन्ध पर पहुँचा देता है, इसीलिए इसे तंत्रिका संचारी (Neurohumor) भी कहते हैं।

जिस समय प्रेरणा ऐक्सॉन से होकर युग्मानुबन्ध घुण्डियों में पहुँचती हैं, Ca⁺ ऊतक द्रव्य से घुण्डियों में पहुँचते हैं, जिसके प्रभाव से ऐसीटाइलकोलीन मुक्त होकर पश्च युग्मानुबन्ध न्यूरॉन की कला की पारगम्यता को प्रभावित कर देता है। फलत: फिर से विद्युत् –  तरंगें पैदा हो जाती हैं, इसमें मात्र कुछ मिली सेकण्ड का समय लगता है।

जल्द ए-3 – ही ऐसीटाइलकोलीनेस्टेरेज (AcetyIcholinesterase) प्रकीण्व ऊतक में बनता है, जो ऐसीटाइलकोलीन को चित्र-युग्मानुबन्ध में आवेग के संचरण की कार्यिकी (चित्रात्मक) कोलीन और ऐसीटेट में विघटित कर देता है, इसी कारण प्रेरणा का संचारण केवल एक दिशा में होकर रह जाता है।

ऐसीटाइलकोलीन के ही समान कुछ अन्य तंत्रिकीय संचारी पदार्थ तंत्रिका तंत्र में पाये जाते हैं जैसे-सीरोटोनिन (Serotonin), सिम्पैथिन (Sympathin), डोपामीन (Dopamine), तथा नॉरएपिनेफ्रिन (Nor-epinephrine) या नॉर-ऐडीनेलीन, ये युग्मानुबन्ध में प्रेरणाओं का संचारण करते हैं।

(3) रेटिना पर प्रकाश द्वारा आवेग उत्पन्न करने की क्रियाविधि का वर्णन कीजिए।

सबसे पहले आँख से संबंधित पेशियाँ आँख को देखी जाने वाली वस्तु की दिशा में लाती हैं। मनुष्य की आँख का आइरिस कैमरे के डायफ्राम का कार्य करता है और तारे को छोटा – बड़ा करके प्रकाश की उचित मात्रा को ही नेत्रगोलक में जाने देता है।

नेत्र गोलक का लेन्स कैमरे के लेन्स के समान कार्य करता है जब प्रकाश की किरणें किसी वस्तु से आकर एक्वियस ह्यूमर, तारा विट्रियस ह्यूमर से होते हुए रेटिना पर पड़ती हैं, तो सामने की वस्तु का एक उल्टा प्रतिबिम्ब रेटिना पर बनता है जिससे रेटिना की संवेदी कोशिकाएँ उद्दीप्त हो जाती हैं तथा इस उद्दीपन को दृष्टि तन्त्रिकाओं द्वारा मस्तिष्क को पहुँचा देती हैं, जो इस प्रतिबिम्ब को सीधा करके देखता है।

मनुष्य तथा अन्य स्तनी आँख के लेंस को सिलियरी काय में उपस्थित पेशियों और निलम्बन तन्तुओं के द्वारा छोटा-बड़ा कर सकते हैं। लेन्स के इसी गुण के कारण स्तनी जन्तु नजदीक तथा दूर की वस्तुओं को साफसाफ आसानी से देख सकते हैं। जब स्तनियों को दूर की वस्तु को देखना होता है तब सिलियरी काय की पेशियाँ शिथिलन अवस्था में आ जाती हैं, फलतः निलम्बन तन्तु खिंच जाते हैं, फलतः लेंस भी खिंचकर चपटा हो जाता है और इसकी फोकस दूरी (Focal length) बढ़ जाती है और आँख दूर की वस्तुओं को आसानी से देख लेती है।

नजदीक की वस्तुओं को देखते समय सिलियरी काय की पेशियाँ संकुचित होती हैं, जिसमें निलम्बन तन्तु ढीले पड़ जाते हैं। फलतः लेंस अधिक उत्तल हो जाता है और इसकी फोकस दूरी घट जाती है जिससे इस अवस्था में भी आँख वस्तुओं को आसानी से देख लेती है। जन्तुओं द्वारा आँख के लेंस की फोकस दूरी में परिवर्तन लाकर दूर तथा नजदीक की वस्तुओं को देखने की क्षमता को समंजन क्षमता (Accommodation power) तथा इस क्रिया को समायोजन या समंजन (Accommodation) कहते हैं। मनुष्य के आँख की समंजन क्षमता बहुत अधिक होती है।

(4) श्रवण की प्रक्रिया-श्रवण या सुनना (Hearing):
सुनने का कार्य मुख्य रूप से अन्तः कर्ण के कॉक्लिया द्वारा किया जाता है। ध्वनि की तरंगें जो चारों तरफ की वायु में पैदा होती हैं बाह्य ऑडिटरी मीटस से होकर टिम्पैनिक झिल्ली से टकराकर इसे कम्पित कर देती हैं। यह कम्पन मैलियस, इन्कस तथा स्टेप्स अस्थियों द्वारा फेनेस्ट्रा ओवेलिस की झिल्ली को पहुँचा दिया जाता है। जहाँ से यह कम्पन स्केला वेस्टीबुलाई में भरे पेरिलिम्फ द्रव में पहुँचता है।

इसी प्रकार कुछ कम्पन फेनेस्ट्रा रोटेण्डा द्वारा स्केला टिम्पैनाई के पेरिलिम्फ में पहुँचते हैं। इन दोनों नलियों के द्रव में होने वाले कम्पनों के कारण रीजनर्स तथा बेसीलर्स झिल्लियों के साथ स्केला मीडिया का इण्डोलिम्फ भी कम्पित होने लगता है, जिसके कारण कॉरटाई अंग की संवेदी कोशिकाओं के रोम बार-बार टैक्टोरियल झिल्ली को छूने लगते हैं, जिससे ध्वनि का एक आवेग बनता है, जो कॉरटाई अंग की संवेदी तंत्रिकाओं की शाखाओं द्वारा श्रवण तंत्रिका को पहुंचा दिया जाता है, जो इस उद्दीपन को मस्तिष्क में पहुँचा देती है और जन्तुओं को आवाज का अनुभव होता है।

प्रश्न 9.
निम्न के बीच अंतर बताइए –
(1) आच्छादित और अनाच्छादित तंत्रिकाक्ष
(2) दुम्राक्ष्य और तंत्रिकाक्ष
(3) शलाका और शंकु
(4) थैलेमस और हाइपोथैलेमस
(5) प्रमस्तिष्क और अनुमस्तिष्क।
उत्तर:
(1) आच्छादित और अनाच्छादित तंत्रिकाक्ष –
आच्छादित तंत्रिकाक्ष(Myelinated axon):

• आच्छादित तंत्रिका तंतु श्वान कोशिका एवं मायलिन आवरण (Myelin sheath) के द्वारा तंत्रिका तन्तु (Axon) को चारों ओर से ढंके रहते हैं।
• अनाच्छादित तंत्रिकाक्ष सामान्यतः स्वायत: (Axon) स्पाइनल एवं कपालीय तंत्रिकाओं (Cranial Nerves) में पाया जाता है।

अनाच्छादित तंत्रिकाक्ष (Non-myelinated axon):

• अनाच्छादित तंत्रिकाक्ष श्वान कोशिकाओं द्वारा बँके रहते हैं, लेकिन इनमें मायलिन आवरण (Myelin sheath) का अभाव होता है।
• मायलिन के आवरण मुक्त तंत्रिकाक्ष या तंत्रिका तंतु, (Auto nomous) एवं सोमेटिक (Somatic) तंत्रिका तन्तुओं में पाये जाते हैं।

(2) दुम्राक्ष्य और तंत्रिकाक्ष में अंतर –
दुम्राक्ष्य (Dendrites):
ये छोटी-छोटी तंत्रिका तन्तुएँ है, जो तेजी से शाखित होकर कोशिका प्रवर्ध के रूप में कोशिका काय से बाहर निकल जाती है। इनमें छोटे-छोटे निसलस के कण (Nissl’s granules) पाये जाते हैं। ये कोशिका काय (Cell body) में आवेगों (Impules) को स्थानान्तरित करने का कार्य करता है।

तंत्रिकाक्ष (Axon):
तंत्रिकाक्ष (Axon) एक लम्बी शाखित तन्तु है, जो कि बल्बनुमा संरचना (सिनैप्टिक नॉब) के रूप में बदल जाती है। इसमें एक सिनैप्टिक ग्रंथि (Synap tic Vesicle) पायी जाती है, जिसके अंदर एक रासायनिक पदार्थ जिसे न्यूरोट्रांसमीटर (Neuro transmitters) कहते हैं, भरा रहता है। एक्सॉन, तंत्रिकीय आवेगों को कोशिका काय (Cell body or Cyton) से सिनैप्स (Synapse) की ओर स्थानान्तरित करता है।

शलाका एवं शंकु में अंतर –
शलाका (Rod):

• यह भूरे रंग वर्णक रोडोप्सिन का बना होता है। यह विटामिन A द्वारा बनता है।
• कम प्रकाश में गहरा भूरा एवं सफेद रंग का ज्ञान होता है।
• इनकी संख्या में या वर्णक की कमी होने पर रतौंधी (Night blindness) रोग होता है।

शंकु (Cone):

• यह तीन भिन्न-भिन्न वर्णक से मिलकर बना होता है एवं प्रकाश की उपस्थिति में रंगों का विभेदन होता है।
• तेज रोशनी में लाल, हरा एवं नीले रंग का ज्ञान होता है।
• यदि शंकु नहीं पाये जाते हैं तो उस स्थिति में वर्णान्धता रोग (Colour blindness) होता है।

(4) थैलेमस और हाइपोथैलेमस में अंतर –
थैलेमस (Thalamus):

• प्रमस्तिष्क या सेरीब्रम एक संरचना के द्वारा चारों ओर से लिपटा रहता है जिसे थैलेमस (Thalamus) कहते हैं।
• शरीर के सभी हिस्से से प्राप्त संवेदनाएँ सिनेप्स के रूप में थैलेमस पर पहुँचती हैं।
• यह भावनाओं (Emotion) एवं यादों (Memory) का नियंत्रण करता है।

हाइपोथैलेमस (Hypothalamus):

• यह थैलेमस के आधार (Base) में पाया जाता है।
• इनमें तंत्रिका स्रावी कोशिकाएँ पायी जाती हैं जिसके द्वारा हाइपोथैलेमस हॉर्मोन का स्रावण होता है।
• हाइपोथैलेमस द्वारा शरीर के तापमान, खाने-पीने की चीजों का नियंत्रण होता है।

(5) प्रमस्तिष्क और अनुमस्तिष्क में अंतर –
प्रमस्तिष्क या सेरीब्रम (Cerebrum):

• यह अग्र मस्तिष्क का भाग है।
• यह दो अर्द्ध गोलार्डों में बँटा रहता है, जिसे सेरीब्रल
• यह बुद्धि व स्मृति ज्ञान का केन्द्र है।

अनुमस्तिष्क या सेरीबेलम (Cerebellum):

• यह पश्च मस्तिष्क में स्थित होता है।
• यह पीछे की ओर सँकरी पट्टी के रूप में पाया हेमीस्फीयर कहते हैं। जाता है व मेड्यूला आब्लांगेटा बनाता है।
• यह अनैच्छिक क्रिया एवं शरीर सन्तुलन से संबंधित है।

प्रश्न 10.

• कर्ण का कौन-सा भाग ध्वनि की पिच का निर्धारण करता है ?
• मानव मस्तिष्क का सर्वाधिक विकसित भाग कौन-सा है ?
• केन्द्रीय तंत्रिका तंत्र का कौन-सा भाग मास्टर क्लॉक की तरह कार्य करता है ?

उत्तर:

• आंतरिक कर्ण (Internal Ear)
• सेरीब्रम (Cerebrum)
• मस्तिष्क (Brain)।

प्रश्न 11.
कशेरुकी के नेत्र का वह भाग जहाँ से दृक तंत्रिका रेटिना से बाहर निकलती है, कहलाता है –
(a) फोबिया
(b) आइरिस
(c) अंध बिंदु
(d) ऑप्टिक काएज्मा (चाक्षुष काएज्मा)।
उत्तर:
(c) अंध बिंदु

प्रश्न 12.
निम्न में भेद स्पष्ट कीजिए –
(1) संवेदी तंत्रिका और प्रेरक तंत्रिका
(2) आच्छादित एवं अनाच्छादित तंत्रिका तन्तु में आवेग संचरण
(3) एक्विअस ह्यूमर ( नेत्रोद) एवं विट्रिस ह्यूमर (काचाभ दव)
(4) पीत बिंदु एवं अंध बिंदु
(5) कपालीय तंत्रिकाएँ एवं मेरु तंत्रिकाएँ।
उत्तर:
(1) संवेदी तंत्रिका और प्रेरक तंत्रिका में अंतर –

संवेदी तंत्रिका(Afferent Neurons):
ऐसे तंत्रिका तन्तु को जो संवेदना को शरीर के परिधीय ऊतकों एवं अंगों से ग्रहण करके मस्तिष्क तक पहुँचाते हैं या केन्द्रीय तंत्र तक पहुँचाते हैं, अभिवाही न्यूरॉन्स कहते हैं।

प्रेरक तंत्रिका (Efferent Neurons):
ऐसे तन्तु को जो संवेदना को केन्द्रीय तंत्रिका तंत्र या मस्तिष्क से ग्रहण करके परिधीय ऊतकों या अंगों तक पहुँचाते हैं, अपवाही न्यूरॉन्स कहते हैं।

(2) आच्छादित एवं अनाच्छादित तंत्रिका तन्तु में आवेग का संचरण –
आच्छादित तंत्रिका तन्तु में आवेग का संचरण (Impulse conduction in Myelinated sheath):
अनाच्छादित तंत्रिका की तुलना में इसमें 20 गुना अधिक तेजी से आवेग संचरण होता है। बड़े व्यास के तंत्रिका तन्तुओं में आवेग 120  मीटर प्रति सेकण्ड की गति से आगे बढ़ता है।
विध्रुवण (Depolarization) सिर्फ नोड पर होता है।

अनाच्छादित तंत्रिका तन्तु में आवेग का संचरण (Impulse conduction in Non-myelinated sheath)
इसमें आयन परिवर्तन तथा विध्रुवण तंतु की झिल्ली पर पूरी लंबाई में होता है।  इनमें तंत्रिकीय आवेग का संचरण धीमा होता है।

(3) एक्विअस ह्यूमर ( नेत्रोद) एवं विट्रियस ह्यूमर (काँचाभ द्रव) में अंतर –

नेत्रोद(Aqueous humor):

• कार्निया और लेंस के बीच की जगह को नेत्रोद (Aqueous humor) कहते हैं।
• इनमें पतला जलीय द्रव पाया जाता है।

काँचाभ द्रव (Vitreous humor):
लेंस और रेटिना के बीच की जगह को कॉचाभ द्रव (Vitereous humor) कहा जाता है।

• इनमें पतला पारदर्शी जेलनुमा द्रव पाया जाता है।
• यह नेत्र गोलक को सहारा देता है।

(4) पीत बिन्दु एवं अन्ध बिन्दु में अंतर –
पीत बिन्दु (Yellow spot):

• रेटिना का वह भाग जहाँ पर प्रतिबिम्ब सबसे स्पष्ट बनता है, उसे पीत बिन्दु (Yellow spot) कहते हैं।
• पीत बिन्दु पर शंकु एवं शलाका पाये जाते हैं।

अन्ध बिन्दु (Blind spot):

• रेटिना का वह भाग जहाँ पर किसी प्रकार का प्रतिबिम्ब नहीं बनता है, उसे अन्ध बिन्दु (Blind Spot) कहते हैं।
• अन्ध बिन्दु पर शंकु एवं शलाका नहीं पाये जाते हैं।

(5) कपालीय तंत्रिकाएँ एवं मेरु तंत्रिकाएँ में अंतर –
कपालीय तंत्रिकाएँ (Cranial nerves):

• कपालीय तंत्रिकाएँ मस्तिष्क से उत्पन्न होकर सिर एवं शरीर के ऊपरी अंगों में चली जाती हैं।
• शरीर में 12 जोड़ी कपालीय तंत्रिकाएँ पायी जाती हैं।
• कपाल तंत्रिकाओं में मुख्यतः संवेदी तंत्रिकाएँ (Sensory nerves) होती हैं। कुछ में संवेदी तथा प्रेरक (Motor) दोनों प्रकार की तंत्रिकाएँ पायी जाती हैं।

मेरु तंत्रिकाएँ (Spinal nerves):

• मेरु तंत्रिकाएँ, मेरुरज्जु (Spinal cord) से उत्पन्न होकर शरीर के सिर के नीचे के अंगों में संभरित होती हैं।
• मेरुरज्जु से 31 जोड़ी मेरु तंत्रिकाएँ निकलती हैं।
• प्रत्येक मेरु तंत्रिका से दोनों प्रकार संवेदी तथा प्रेरक की तंत्रिकाएँ पायी जाती हैं।

तंत्रिकीय नियंत्रण एवं समन्वय अन्य महत्वपूर्ण प्रश्नोत्तर

तंत्रिकीय नियंत्रण एवं समन्वय वस्तुनिष्ठ प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए –
1. अनुमस्तिष्क का प्रमुख कार्य है –
(a) सन्तुलन
(b) देखना
(c) सुनना
(d) स्मृति।
उत्तर:
(a) सन्तुलन

2. तीसरा वेण्ट्रिकिल उपस्थित होता है –
(a) हृदय में
(b) मस्तिष्क में
(c) वृक्क में:
(d) यकृत में।
उत्तर:
(b) मस्तिष्क में

3. डायफ्राम से सम्बन्धित तन्त्रिका है –
(a) वेगस
(b) फ्रीनिक
(c) ट्राजेमाइनल
(d) ट्रॉक्लियर।
उत्तर:
(b) फ्रीनिक

4. सबसे बड़ी कपाल तन्त्रिका है –
(a) वेगस
(b) घ्राण तन्त्रिका
(c) हाइपोग्लासल
(d) जीह्वा ग्रसनी।
उत्तर:
(a) वेगस

5. कान का पर्दा कहा जाता है –
(a) टिम्पैनिक झिल्ली
(b) टेन्सर टिम्पैनाई
(c) स्केला टिम्पैनाई
(d) स्केला वेस्टीबुली।
उत्तर:
(a) टिम्पैनिक झिल्ली

6. लेक्राइमल ग्रन्थियों का कार्य है –
(a) श्लेष्मा का स्रावण
(b) अश्रु का स्रावण
(c) तेल का स्रावण
(d) वसा का स्रावण।
उत्तर:
(b) अश्रु का स्रावण

7. यदि हृदय को जाने वाली परानुकम्पी तन्त्रिका काट दी जाये तो हृदय धड़कन
(a) बढ़ जायेगी
(b) घट जायेगी
(c) सामान्य रहेगी
(d) बन्द हो जायेगी।
उत्तर:
(a) बढ़ जायेगी

8. स्तनी मस्तिष्क का कौन-सा भाग पेशीय समन्वय को नियमित करता है –
(a) प्रमस्तिष्क
(b) अनुमस्तिष्क
(c) महासंयोजन पिण्ड
(d) मेड्यूला।
उत्तर:

9. पार्श्व वे वेण्ट्रिकिल्स पाये जाते हैं –
(a) हृदय में
(b) मस्तिष्क में
(c) अवटु ग्रन्थि में
(d) मस्तिष्क और हृदय में।
उत्तर:
(b) मस्तिष्क में

10. तन्त्रिकीय आवेग का रासायनिक संचरण एक तन्त्रिका कोशिका से दूसरी में या तन्त्रिका कोशिका से पेशी को होता है –
(a) ऐसीटिल कोलीन द्वारा
(b) कोलीसिस्टोकाइनिन द्वारा
(c) कोलेस्ट्रॉल द्वारा
(d) A.T.P. द्वारा।
उत्तर:
(b) कोलीसिस्टोकाइनिन द्वारा

11. सन्तुलन बनाये रखने की संवेदना का कार्य कान का कौन-सा भाग करता है –
(a) कॉरटाई के अंग की संवेदी कोशिकाएँ
(b) एम्पुला के संवेदी कूट
(c) कॉक्लिया की संवेदी झिल्ली
(d) कॉक्लिया की वेसिलर झिल्ली।
उत्तर:
(a) कॉरटाई के अंग की संवेदी कोशिकाएँ

12. तंत्रिका आवेग किसकी गति के साथ आरंभ होता है –
(a) K⁺
(b) Mg⁺
(c) Ca⁺
(d) Na⁺
उत्तर:
(b) Mg⁺

13. मायलीन शीथ ढंके रहती है –
(a) पेशी तन्तु को
(b) तंत्रिका तन्तु को
(c) कोलेजन तन्तु को
(d) टेण्डन को।
उत्तर:
(d) टेण्डन को।

14. निम्न में से न्यूरॉन का कौन सा भाग वसीय आवरण द्वारा ढंका रहता है –
(a) एक्सॉन
(b) सायटॉन
(c) डेन्ड्राइट
(d) रैनवियर के नोड।
उत्तर:
(a) एक्सॉन

प्रश्न 2.
रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिये –

1. दो न्यूरॉनों के मध्य उपस्थित जंक्शन को …………… कहते हैं।
2. एसीटिलकोलीन एक …………… है।
3. मनुष्य में ………….. जोड़ी स्पाइनल तंत्रिकायें एवं ………….. जोड़ी क्रेनियल तंत्रिकायें पाई जाती हैं।
4. दृक तंत्रिका …………. से उत्पन्न होती हैं।
5. आँखों के शंकु केवल …………… प्रकाश के प्रति संवेदी होते हैं।
6. स्पाइनल कार्ड से निकलने वाली सभी तंत्रिकायें ………….. तंत्रिकायें होती हैं।
7. आन्तरिक कर्ण अस्थीय …………… एवं …………… का बना होता है।
8. रात्रिचर-जीवों के आँखों में केवल …………… पाये जाते हैं।
9. कार्पस कैलोसम ……………….. में होता है।
10. स्पाइनल संवेदी तन्तुओं के कोशिकाकाय ……………….. में होते हैं।

उत्तर:

1. सिनैप्सिस
2. न्यूरोट्रांसमीटर
3. 31,12
4. अंध बिन्दु
5. चमकीले
6. मिश्रित
7. अस्थीय लेबिरिन्थ झिल्लीनुमा लेबिरिन्थ
8. शलाका
9. मानव मस्तिष्क
10. स्पाइनल गुच्छकों।

प्रश्न 3.
उचित संबंध जोड़िए –

उत्तर:

1. (c) मस्तिष्क
2. (d) कॉक्लिया
3. (e) चिंतन
4. (b) प्रतिवर्ती क्रिया
5. (a) श्वसन केन्द्र

उत्तर:

1. (c) सन्तुलन
2. (a) रंग
3. (e) गंध
4. (b) आन्तरिक कर्ण
5. (d) ड्यूरामेटर

प्रश्न 4.
एक शब्द में उत्तर दीजिए –

1. रेटिना के उस भाग का नाम बताइए जिसमें केवल कोन्स पाये जाते हैं।
2. सामान्य प्रतिवर्ती क्रिया का एक उदाहरण दीजिए।
3. तन्त्रिका कोशिका के बड़े प्रवर्थों को क्या कहते हैं?
4. आँख में पाये जाने वाले काँचाभों के नाम बताइए।
5. उन ऊतकों के नाम बताइए जो पिन्ना को आधार प्रदान करते हैं।
6. जीभ को घुमाने वाली तन्त्रिका का नाम लिखिए।
7. शंकु और शलाका के दृष्टि रंगक के नाम दीजिए।
8. त्वचा में पाये जाने वाले वर्णक का नाम लिखिये।
9. हाथी का काला रंग किस स्थान का अनुकूलन है ?
10. मस्तिष्क में चौथा वेण्ट्रीकल कहाँ स्थित होता है ?
11. न्यूरॉन किससे बनते हैं ?
12. सिनैप्स किसके बीच बनता है ?
13. कौन सी तन्त्रिका विशुद्ध चालक होती है ?
14. मस्तिष्क के उस भाग का नाम लिखिए जो हृदय स्पंदन का नियन्त्रण करता है।
15. कॉक्लिया कहाँ पाया जाता है ?

उत्तर:

1. पीत बिन्दु के केन्द्रीय खात में
2. सुई चुभाने पर पैरों को हटाना
3. एक्सॉन
4. एक्वयस एवं विट्रियस
5. लचीली उपास्थि या ऐच्छिक पेशी
6. हाइपोग्लासल तंत्रिका
7. रोडोप्सिन एवं आयोडोप्सिन
8. मिलैनिन
9. गर्म स्थान का
10. मेड्युला में
11. एक्टोडर्म
12. दो तंत्रिका तन्तुओं के बीच
13. ऑक्यूलोमोटर
14. मेड्युला आब्लाँगेटा
15. कान में।

तंत्रिकीय नियंत्रण एवं समन्वय अति लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
जीभ को घुमाने वाली तन्त्रिका का नाम, प्रकृति, उद्भव तथा वितरण क्षेत्र लिखिए।
उत्तर:
हाइपोग्लॉसल तन्त्रिका (Hypoglossal nerve) जीभ एवं गर्दन को घुमाने वाली तन्त्रिका का नाम हाइपोग्लॉसल तन्त्रिका है। यह प्रेरक प्रकृति की होती है और मस्तिष्क के मेड्यूला से निकलती है एवं जिह्वा की पेशियों को जाती है।

प्रश्न 2.
सिनाप्सिस में ऐसीटिलकोलीन न रहे तो क्या होगा?
उत्तर:
ऐसीटिलकोलीन ही सिनाप्सिस में उद्दीपनों को एक तंत्रिका कोशिका के ऐक्सॉन से दूसरी कोशिका के डेन्ड्राइट तक पहुँचाता है। अतः ऐसीटिलकोलीन के अभाव में तंत्रिकीय संवेदना या उद्दीपन एक तंत्रिका से दूसरी तंत्रिका कोशिका में नहीं जा पाएँगे, फलतः तंत्रिकीय आवेगों का संचरण रुक जायेगा।

प्रश्न 3.
सामान्य प्रतिवर्ती क्रिया का एक उदाहरण दीजिए।
उत्तर:
सोते हुए व्यक्ति के हाथ में सुई चुभाने पर हाथ को वहाँ से हटा लेना एक सामान्य प्रतिवर्ती क्रिया का उदाहरण है।

प्रश्न 4. ऐक्सॉन्स (Axons) क्या हैं ?
उत्तर:
न्यूरॉन या तंत्रिका कोशिका के लम्बे प्रवर्धा (डेण्ड्राइट) को ऐक्सॉन कहते हैं। यह सूचनाओं का सम्वहन करता है।

प्रश्न 5.
आँख में पाये जाने वाली काँचाभों (Humors) के नाम तथा कार्य बताइए।
उत्तर:
आँख में दो प्रकार के काँचाभ पाये जाते हैं –
(i) एक्वियस काँचाभ (Aqueous humor):
यह एक द्रव है, जो आँख की कॉर्निया और लेंस के बीच स्थित एक्वियस कक्ष में भरा रहता है। यह लेन्स, आइरिस, कन्जक्टाइवा को सीधे प्रकाश एवं आघातों से बचाता है।

(ii) विट्रियस काँचाभ (Vitreous humor):
यह एक गाढ़ा जेली के समान द्रव है, जो लेंस तथा रेटिना के बीच स्थित विट्रियस कक्ष में भरा रहता है। यह नेत्र गोलक को चिपकने नहीं देता और उसे निश्चित आकार देता है।

प्रश्न 6.
निम्नलिखित के मुख्य कार्य बताइए –

1. सेरीबेलम
2. आइरिस
3. यूस्टेकियन नलिका।

उत्तर:

1. सेरीबेलम (Cerebellum) – यह कंकाली पेशियों में संकुचन एवं शिथिलन, ऐच्छिक गतियों का नियमन तथा शरीर में साम्यावस्था का नियन्त्रण करता है।
2. आइरिस (Iris) – यह आँख के अंदर पहुंचने वाले प्रकाश की मात्रा का नियमन करता है।
3. यूस्टेकियन नलिका (Eustachian tube) – यह टिम्पैनम (बाह्य कर्ण तथा मध्य कर्ण के बीच की झिल्ली) पर पड़ने वाले दबाव को नियन्त्रित करती है।

प्रश्न 7.
युग्मानुबन्ध क्या है ?
उत्तर:
युग्मानुबन्ध (Synapse):
एक तंत्रिका कोशिका के साइटॉन (Cyton) के डेन्ड्राइट्स एवं दूसरी तंत्रिका कोशिका के ऐक्सॉन एक विशिष्ट संधि द्वारा जुड़े होते हैं, जिन्हें युग्मानुबन्ध कहते हैं।

प्रश्न 8.
चार संवेदी अंगों के नाम एवं कार्य लिखिए।
उत्तर:
संवेदी अंग –

1. त्वचा    स्पर्श
2. आँख    देखना
3. कर्ण    सुनना
4. नासिका  गन्ध।

प्रश्न 9.
निम्नलिखित तंत्रिकाओं की प्रकृति बताइए –

1. ऑल्फैक्टरी
2. वैगस
3. ऑडिटरी
4. मैण्डिबुलर।

उत्तर:
तंत्रिकाओं की प्रकृति –

1. ऑल्फैक्टरी संवेदी
2. वैगस चालक एवं संवेदी
3. ऑडिटरी संवेदी
4. मैण्डिबुलर चालक।

प्रश्न 10.
उल्लू दिन में अंधा होता है पर रात में इसे सब कुछ स्पष्ट दिखाई देता है। कारण बताइये।
उत्तर:
उल्लू दिन में भले प्रकार नहीं देख सकता, क्योंकि उसकी आँख की रेटिना में शंकु (Cone) का अभाव होता है। लेकिन वह रात्रि में बहुत स्पष्ट देख सकता है, क्योंकि रेटिना में शलाका (Rods) कोशिकाओं की संख्या बहुत अधिक होती है।

तंत्रिकीय नियंत्रण एवं समन्वय लघु उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
मनुष्य में सेरीब्रम के कार्य लिखिए।
उत्तर:
सेरीब्रम के कार्य (Functions of cerebrum):

1. इसका पैराइटल लोब, दर्द, स्पर्श तथा तापक्रम की प्रेरणा का केन्द्र है।
2. इसका चालक क्षेत्र ऐच्छिक पेशियों की गति को नियन्त्रित करता है।
3. इसका प्रमोटर क्षेत्र स्वायत्त तंत्रिका तंत्र द्वारा संचालित सभी क्रियाओं का नियन्त्रण करता है।
4. इसका टेम्पोरल लोब स्वाद एवं गन्ध का अनुभव कराता है।
5. दृष्टि क्षेत्र से प्रकाश एवं अंधकार का ज्ञान होता है।
6. हाइपोथैलेमस तापक्रम, भूख, प्यास तथा मूत्र की मात्रा को नियन्त्रित करता है। यह पीयूष ग्रन्थि के अग्रपिण्ड के स्रावण पर नियन्त्रण रखता है।

प्रश्न 2.
मनुष्य की मस्तिष्क गुहिकाओं के नाम बताइए।
उत्तर:
मनुष्य के मस्तिष्क के अंदर एक खोखली गुहा पायी जाती है, जिसमें से प्रमस्तिष्क की गुहा को पार्श्व गुहा कहते हैं, जो प्रथम एवं द्वितीय गुहा को व्यक्त करती है। डायनसेफेलान की गुहा को तृतीय गुहा या डायोसील कहते हैं, जबकि मध्य मस्तिष्क की गुहा आइटर कहलाती है। पश्च मस्तिष्क की गुहा को चतुर्थ गुहा कहते हैं।

प्रश्न 3.
मनुष्य के कर्ण में स्थित सबसे छोटी अस्थि का नाम क्या है ? इस अस्थि को निकाल देने पर क्या प्रभाव पड़ेगा?
उत्तर:
मनुष्य के कर्ण में स्थित सबसे छोटी अस्थि स्टेप्स है, इसको निकाल देने से ध्वनि की तरंग आन्तरिक कर्ण तक नहीं पहुँच सकेगी क्योंकि स्टेप्स, जो कि फेनेस्ट्रा ओवेलिस से संबंधित होती है, कम्पन को वेस्टिबुलर गुहा में स्थित पेरिलिम्फ में पहुँचाने का कार्य करती है। इस कम्पन की तरंग कॉक्लियर नली से होती हुई सैकुला टेम्पैनी के पेरिलिम्फ में पहुँचकर फेनेस्ट्रा रोटण्डस तक पहुँचते-पहुँचते लगभग समाप्त हो जाती है।

प्रश्न 4.
दूरदर्शिता तथा निकटदर्शिता दोष क्या हैं ?
उत्तर:
दूरदर्शिता दोष (Hypermetropia):
इस दृष्टि दोष में दूर की वस्तुएँ साफ लेकिन पास की वस्तुएँ धुंधली दिखाई देती हैं। यह नेत्र दोष लेंस के चपटा हो जाने, नेत्र गोलक के छोटा हो जाने अथवा कॉर्निया चपटा हो जाने के कारण होता है। इस दोष को दूर करने के लिए उत्तल लेंस के चश्मे का प्रयोग करते हैं।

निकटदर्शिता दोष (Myopia):
इस दृष्टि दोष में पास की वस्तुएँ साफ लेकिन दूर की धुंधली दिखाई देती हैं। यह दोष नेत्र गोलक के बढ़ जाने, लेंस तथा कॉर्निया की सतह के अधिक उत्तल हो जाने के कारण होता है। इस दोष से बचने के लिए अवतल लेंस के चश्मे का प्रयोग किया जाता है।

प्रश्न 5.
मनुष्य के नेत्र की लम्ब काट का केवल नामांकित चित्र बनाइए।
उत्तर:
मनुष्य के नेत्र की लम्ब काट का नामांकित चित्र

प्रश्न 6.
ऐड्रीनेलिन एवं ऐसीटिलकोलीन क्या है ? इनके कार्यों का वर्णन कीजिए।
उत्तर:
ऐड्रीनेलिन एवं ऐसीटिलकोलीन ऐसे रासायनिक पदार्थ हैं, जो परानुकम्पी तंत्रिका तन्तु एवं अनुकम्पी तंत्रिका तन्तुओं द्वार! मुक्त होते हैं। ये दोनों रासायनिक पदार्थ एक-दूसरे के विपरीत कार्य करते हैं। ऐसीटिलकोलीन सामान्यतः क्रियाओं का अवरोधक है जबकि ऐड्रीनलिन शरीर तंत्र में प्रेरणा उत्पन्न करता है।

प्रश्न 7.
मिश्रित दृष्टि (Mosaic vision) क्या है ?
उत्तर:
इस प्रकार की दृष्टि कॉकरोच एवं कीटों में पायी जाती है, क्योंकि इनमें मिश्रित आँख (Compound eye) पायी जाती है, जो साधारण आँख से भिन्न है । ओमेटियम द्वारा छोटे-छोटे बहुत से प्रतिबिम्ब बनते हैं। पूर्ण दृष्टि इन बहुत से प्रतिबिम्ब का संयुक्त रूप है, जिसे मिश्रित दृष्टि (Mosaic vision) कहते हैं।

प्रश्न 8.
तंत्रिका तंत्र से आप क्या समझते हो ? तंत्रिका तंत्र को कितने भागों में विभाजित किया गया है ?
उत्तर:
वह तन्त्र जो शरीर की विभिन्न क्रियाओं के नियन्त्रण एवं समन्वय का कार्य करता है, तंत्रिका तन्त्र कहलाता है। तंत्रिका तन्त्र निम्नलिखित तीन भागों का बना होता है –

1. केन्द्रीय तंत्रिका तंत्र (Central nervous system) – इसके अंतर्गत मस्तिष्क एवं मेरुरज्जु आते हैं।
2. परिधीय तंत्रिका तंत्र (Peripheral nervous system) – इसके अन्तर्गत मस्तिष्क से निकलने वाली क्रेनियल तंत्रिकाएँ एवं मेरुरज्जु से निकलने वाली स्पाइनल तंत्रिकाएँ आती हैं।
3. स्वायत्त तंत्रिका तंत्र (Autonomous nervous system) – इसके अंतर्गत अनुकम्पी (Sympathetic) एवं परानुकम्पी तंत्रिका तंत्र आते हैं।

प्रश्न 9.
कार्य के आधार पर तंत्रिकाओं को कितने भागों में विभाजित किया गया है ?
उत्तर:
कार्य के आधार पर तंत्रिकाओं को तीन भागों में विभाजित किया गया है

1. संवेदी तंत्रिकाएँ (Sensory nerves) – ऊतकों या अंगों से संवेदनाओं को ग्रहण करके केन्द्रीय तंत्रिका तंत्र तक पहुँचाती हैं।
2. चालक तंत्रिकाएँ (Motor nerves) – केन्द्रीय तंत्रिका तंत्र से सूचनाओं को ग्रहण करके प्रभावी अंगों (Effector organs) तक पहुँचाती हैं।
3. मिश्रित तंत्रिकाएँ (Mixed nerves) – इस प्रकार की तंत्रिकाएँ चालक या संवेदो दोनों प्रकार की होती हैं।

प्रश्न 10.
मानव नेत्र में शंकु, शलाका तथा पीत बिन्दु का एक-एक कार्य लिखिये।
उत्तर:

1. शंकु का कार्य-शंकु कोशिकाएँ प्रकाश व अन्धकार का ज्ञान कराती हैं।
2. शलाका का कार्य-शलाका कोशिकाएँ रंग उद्दीपन को ग्रहण कर रंग का बोध कराती हैं।
3. पीत बिन्दु का कार्य-पीत बिन्दु स्पष्ट प्रतिबिम्ब बनाने का कार्य करता है। पीत बिन्दु में केवल कोन्स पाये जाते हैं।

प्रश्न 11.
मेरुरज्जु की रचना (अनुप्रस्थ काट) को चित्रांकित कीजिए।
अथवा
मेरुरज्जु की संरचना एवं कार्य का सचित्र वर्णन कीजिए।
उत्तर:
मेरुरज्जु खोखली बेलनाकार पृष्ठ (Dorsal) व प्रतिपृष्ठ (Ventral) सतह पर चपटी होती है। इन दोनों सतहों पर Dorsal fissure व Ventral fissure पाया जाता है। मध्य में केन्द्रीय नाल होती है। नाल के छत तथा फर्श को क्रमश: Dorsal व Ventral commissures कहते हैं। इसमें द्रव से भरी गुहा एपिड्यूरल गुहा होती है।

भीतरी स्तर Gray matter व बाहरी स्तर White matter कहलाता है। धूसर पदार्थ पृष्ठ व प्रतिपृष्ठ किनारों को क्रमश: Dorsal and ventral horns कहते हैं। यह मस्तिष्क का पिछला हिस्सा है जो पतली रस्सी के समान कशेरुक दंड के अंतिम सिरे तक फैला रहता है।

कार्य:

1. प्रतिवर्ती क्रियाओं का नियंत्रण व समन्वय करती है।
2. मस्तिष्क आने जाने वाले उद्दीपनों का संवहन करती है।
3. तंत्रिकाओं व मस्तिष्क के मध्य संबंध बनाती है।
4. अनैच्छिक क्रियाओं का नियंत्रण एवं समन्वय करती है।

प्रश्न 12.
निम्नलिखित में अंतर स्पष्ट कीजिए –

1. निकट इंष्टि एवं दूर दृष्टि
2. एण्डोलिम्फ एवं पेरिलिम्फ।

उत्तर:
(i) निकट दृष्टि एवं दूर दृष्टि में अंतर –
निकट दृष्टि (Short sight):

1. इसमें निकट की वस्तुएँ स्पष्ट दिखाई देती हैं, जबकि दूर की वस्तुएँ नहीं दिखाई देती हैं।
2. प्रतिबिम्ब रेटिना के पहले बनता है।
3. अवतल लेन्स की सहायता से यह दोष दूर होता है।

दूर दृष्टि (Long sight):

1. दूर की वस्तुएँ स्पष्ट दिखाई देती हैं एवं निकट की वस्तुएँ स्पष्ट नहीं दिखाई देती हैं।
2. प्रतिबिम्ब रेटिना से दूर बनता है।
3. उत्तल लेन्स की सहायता से यह दोष दूर होता है।

(ii) एण्डोलिम्फ एवं पेरिलिम्फ में अंतर –

एण्डोलिम्फ (Endolymph):
यह एक विशेष प्रकार का द्रव है जो अन्तः कर्ण में पाया जाता है, जब ध्वनि तरंगें गुजरती है, तब इसमें कम्पन उत्पन्न होता है तो ध्वनि। सुनाई देती है।

पेरिलिम्फ (Perilymph):
यह अन्त:कर्ण में उपस्थित विशेष प्रकार का द्रव जो अन्त:कर्ण के ऊतकों के चारों तरफ पाया हैं जाता है। यह अन्त:कर्ण की रक्षा करता है।

तंत्रिकीय नियंत्रण एवं समन्वय दीर्घ उत्तरीय प्रश्न

प्रश्न 1.
अनुकंपी एवं परानुकंपी तंत्रिकीय तंत्र के तीन-तीन कार्यों को लिखिए।
उत्तर:
अनुकंपी तंत्रिका तंत्र के कार्य:

1. यह त्वचा में उपस्थित रुधिर वाहिनियों को संकीर्ण करता है, जिसके कारण पैलर (Pallor) होता है।
2. इसके द्वारा इरेक्टर पिलाई पेशियों का संकुचन होता है और बाल खड़े हो जाते हैं।
3. यह लार ग्रंथियों के स्राव को कम करता है।
4. यह हृदय स्पंदन को तेज करता है।
5. यह रक्त चाप को बढ़ाता है।
6. यह स्वेद ग्रंथियों के स्राव को प्रारम्भ करता है।
7. इसके कारण आँख की पुतली अधिक फैल जाती है।
8. इसके द्वारा श्वसन दर तीव्र हो जाती है।
9. यह आँत में क्रमाकुंचन गति (Peristalsis) को कम करता है।
10. यह मूत्राशय की पेशियों का विमोचन करता है।
11. यह मूत्राशय की स्फिक्टर पेशियों का संकुचन करता है।
12. यह रुधिर में शर्करा के स्तर को बढ़ाता है।
13. यह रुधिर में लाल रुधिर कणिकाओं की संख्या में वृद्धि करता है तथा रुधिर को शीघ्र जमाता है।
14. इसके सामूहिक प्रभाव से भय, पीड़ा तथा क्रोध पर प्रभाव पड़ता है।

परानुकंपी तंत्रिका के कार्य:

1. यह रुधिर वाहिनियों की गुहा को चौड़ा करता है, केवल कोरोनरी रुधिर वाहिनियों को छोड़कर।
2. यह लार के स्राव में तथा अन्य पाचक रसों में वृद्धि करता है।
3. यह नेत्र की पुतली का संकुचन करता है।
4. आंत्रीय भित्ति में संकुचन एवं गति उत्पन्न करता है।
5. ब्रौन्काई का संकीर्णन करता है।
6. यह मूत्राशय की स्फिक्टर पेशियों का विमोचन करता है। यह मूत्राशय की दूसरी पेशियों को भी संकुचित करता है।
7. बाह्य जनन अंगों की रुधिर वाहिनियों की गुहा को भी चौड़ा करता है।
8. इस तंत्रिका तंत्र का प्रभाव सामूहिक रूप से आराम, सुख की स्थितियाँ उत्पन्न करना है।

प्रश्न 2.
मस्तिष्क में स्थित नियंत्रण केन्द्र की उपस्थिति बताइए –

1. तापक्रम
2. भूख
3. श्वसन
4. जल सन्तुलन
5. दृष्टि
6. श्रवण
7. मासिक चक्र
8. सीखना
9. पीयूष हॉर्मोन
10. साम्यावस्था एवं समन्वयन
11. परिवहन
12. सोना
13. हृदय धड़कन।

उत्तर:

1. तापक्रम – थैलेमस (Thalamus)
2. भूख – हाइपोथैलेमस (Hypothalamus)
3. श्व सन – मेड्यूला आब्लांगेटा (Medulla Oblongata)
4. जल सन्तुलन – हाइपोथैलेमस (Hypothalamus)
5. दृष्टि – सेरीब्रल कॉर्टेक्स (Cerebral Cortex)
6. श्रवण – सेरीब्रल कॉर्टेक्स (Cerebral Cortex)
7.  मासिक चक्र – हाइपोथैलेमस (Hypothalamus)
8. सीखना – सेरीब्रल कॉर्टेक्स (Cerebral Cortex)
9. पीयूष हॉर्मोन – हाइपोथैलेमस (Hypothalamus)
10. साम्यावस्था एवं समन्वयन – सेरीबेलम (Cerebellum)
11. परिवहन – मेड्यूला आब्लांगेटा (Medulla Oblongata)
12. सोना – सेरीब्रल कॉर्टेक्स (Cerebral Cortex)
13. हृदय धड़कन – मेड्यूला आब्लांगेटा (Medulla Oblongata)।

प्रश्न 3.
मनुष्य के मस्तिष्क के विभिन्न भागों के कार्य लिखिए।
उत्तर:
मानव मस्तिष्क के विभिन्न भागों के नाम तथा कार्य निम्नानुसार हैं –
(1) अग्रमस्तिष्क –

• प्रमस्तिष्क
• डायनसेफेलॉन हाइपोथैलेमस।

(2) मध्य मस्तिष्क –

• सेरीब्रल पिण्डक
• कार्पोरा क्वाड्रीजेमिना।

(3) पश्च मस्तिष्क –

• सेरीबेलम
• पॉन्स (Pons)
• मेड्यूला आब्लांगेटा।

कार्य:
(1) प्रमस्तिष्क के कार्य:

• ये चेतना बुद्धि, विचार, स्मृति एवं इच्छा शक्ति के केन्द्र हैं।
• यह भावनाओं एवं वाणी पर भी नियन्त्रण रखता है।
• यह बोध का केन्द्र है।
• इसमें विभिन्न संवेदनाओं के लिये अलग-अलग केन्द्र होते हैं।

(2) डायनसेफेलॉन के कार्य –

• यह भावनाओं को प्रकट करने तथा सर्दी, गर्मी तथा पीड़ा का अभिज्ञान कराता है।
• यह कार्बोहाइड्रेट तथा वसा का उपापचय, शरीर के ताप, रुधिर दाब तथा जल संकुचन का नियमन करता है।
• इसमें भूख, प्यास, नींद, थकावट, क्रोध आदि के नियमन के लिये स्वायत्त तंत्रिका तंत्र के केन्द्र होते हैं।

(3) सेरिब्रल पिंडक के कार्य-ये प्रमस्तिष्क के चालक आवेगों को पादों की पेशियों तक पहुँचाने का कार्य करते हैं।

(4) कॉर्पोरा क्वाड्रीजेमिना के कार्य-ये दृष्टि व घ्राण प्रतिवर्ती के केन्द्र हैं।

(5) सेरीबेलम के कार्य-यह कंकाल पेशियों के आकुंचन एवं समन्वय का नियमन करता है।

• यह प्रमस्तिष्क द्वारा प्रेरित ऐच्छिक गतियों का नियमन करता है।
• यह शरीर के सन्तुलन एवं साम्यावस्था का नियमन करता है।

(6) पॉन्स वैरोलाई के कार्य-शरीर के दोनों पार्यों की पेशियों की गतियों में समन्वय बनाता है।

(7) मेड्यूला आब्लांगेटा के कार्य –

• सभी अनैच्छिक क्रियाओं का नियन्त्रण होता है, जैसे-हृदय • स्पंदन, श्वास दर, आहारनाल की नलियों का संकुचन।
• मेड्यूला में निगलने, वमन करने, रलसने और छींकों की क्रियाओं के नियमन केन्द्र भी होते हैं।

प्रश्न 4.
प्रतिवर्ती क्रिया क्या है ? प्रतिवर्ती क्रियाओं के प्रकार, इसकी क्रियाविधि एवं महत्वों का वर्णन कीजिए।
अथवा
प्रतिवर्ती चाप का सचित्र वर्णन कीजिये।
अथवा
प्रतिवर्ती क्रिया क्या है ? इसे प्रदर्शित करते हुए प्रतिवर्ती क्रिया का चित्र बनाइये।
उत्तर:
प्रतिवर्ती क्रियाएँ (Reflex actions):
वे अनैच्छिक क्रियाएँ, जो किसी उद्दीपन अथवा क्रिया की प्रतिक्रिया के रूप में होती है, प्रतिवर्ती क्रिया कहलाती हैं। इनका संचालन तथा नियन्त्रण मेरुरज्जु के द्वारा होता है । सुई चुभोने पर पैर को हटाना, मिठाई देखकर लार का आना इत्यादि प्रतिवर्ती क्रिया के उदाहरण हैं। प्रतिवर्ती क्रिया के प्रकार-प्रतिवर्ती क्रियाएँ दो प्रकार की होती हैं –

• ऐच्छिक एवं
• अनैच्छिक।

ऐच्छिक क्रियाओं का नियंत्रण मस्तिष्क एवं अनैच्छिक क्रियाओं का नियंत्रण मेरुरज्जु (Spinal Cord) के द्वारा होता है। प्रतिवर्ती क्रिया एक प्रकार की अनैच्छिक क्रिया है, जो हमारे शरीर में किसी क्रिया के विपरीत होती है। यह दो प्रकार की होती हैं –

(1) अनुबंधी प्रतिवर्ती क्रिया (Conditional reflex actions):
जब प्रतिवर्ती क्रियाएँ सीखने पर होती हैं, जैसे-पैवलोव का प्रयोग कुत्तों में भोजन देखकर लार का टपकना, साइकिल चलाना।

(2) आबन्धित प्रतिवर्ती क्रिया (Unconditional reflex action):
जब प्रतिवर्ती क्रियाएँ वंशानुगत या जन्म से होती हैं एवं किसी प्रकार के सीखने या अनुभव की आवश्यकता नहीं होती है।

प्रतिवर्ती क्रियाविधि (Mechanism of reflex action):
प्रतिवर्ती क्रिया का नियंत्रण मेरुरज्जु द्वारा होता है। इस क्रिया में संवेदी तंत्रिका या अभिवाही तंत्रिका द्वारा संवेदना मेरुरज्जु तक पहुँचती है। प्रेरणा या संवेदना संवेदी तन्तुओं से होकर पृष्ठ मूल (Dorsal root) एवं गुच्छिका (Ganglia) से होते हुए मेरुरज्जु में पहुँचती है। चालक तंत्रिका या अपवाही तंत्रिका अधर मूल (Ventral root) से निकलकर पेशियों में जाकर विभाजित हो जाती है।

इस प्रकार संवेदना मेरुरज्जु में पहुँचने के पश्चात् तुरन्त चालक तंत्रिकाओं द्वारा वापस कर दी जाती है, उसे प्रतिवर्ती क्रिया (Reflex action) कहते हैं। प्रतिवर्ती क्रिया के पूर्ण पथ को प्रतिवर्ती चाप (Reflex arch) कहते हैं। प्रतिवर्ती क्रियाओं के मुख्य उदाहरण निम्नलिखित हैं –

• स्वादिष्ट भोजन देखकर मुख में लार आना।
• तीव्र प्रकाश में नेत्र पलकों का सिकुड़ना।
• घबराकर हृदय गति का तीव्र होना।
• डरकर रोंगटे खड़े हो जाना।
• काँटा चुभने पर घुटने को तेजी से उठा लेना।

प्रतिवर्ती क्रिया में संवेदना पृष्ठ मूल से होकर मेरुरज्जु में एवं मेरुरज्जु के अधर मूल से संवेदना प्रभावी अंगों में पहुँचती है। प्रतिवर्ती क्रिया एक महत्वपूर्ण क्रिया है, जो बाहरी आघातों एवं दुर्घटनाओं से शरीर की रक्षा करती है। शरीर के भीतर होने वाली क्रियाओं का नियंत्रण मेरुरज्जु द्वारा होता है।

प्रतिवर्ती चाप का महत्व (Importance of Reflex Arch):

• यह क्रिया मेरुरज्जु द्वारा नियंत्रित होने के कारण समय कम लगता है एवं भयंकर दुर्घटना से शरीर की रक्षा होती है।
• जीव शरीर की रक्षा अचानक होती रहती है।
• मस्तिष्क को अन्य क्रियाओं के लिए समय मिलता है, क्योंकि प्रतिवर्ती क्रिया का नियंत्रण मेरुरज्जु द्वारा होता है।

प्रश्न 5.
मानव में पाये जाने वाली क्रेनियल तंत्रिकाओं की संख्या, नाम, स्थान एवं कार्य बताइए।
उत्तर:
मानव मस्तिष्क से निकलने वाली तंत्रिकाओं को क्रेनियल तंत्रिकाएँ (Cranial nerves) कहते हैं। मनुष्य में 12 जोड़ी क्रेनियल तंत्रिकाएँ पायी जाती हैं, जिनके नाम, स्थान एवं कार्य निम्नानुसार हैं –

MP Board Class 11th Biology Solutions

MP Board Class 11th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 2 Fundamental Assumptions and Principles of Accounting

Fundamental Assumptions and Principles of Accounting Important Questions

Fundamental Assumptions and Principles of Accounting Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Generally the duration of an Accounting period is of –
(a) 6 months
(b) 3 months
(c) 12 months
(d) 1 month.
Answer:
(c) 12 months

Question 2.
The sum of Liabilities and Capital is –
(a) Expense
(b) Income
(c) Drawings
(d) Assets.
Answer:
(d) Assets.

Question 3.
In India, the accounting standard board was set up in the year –
(a) 1972
(b) 1977
(c) 1956
(d) 1932.
Answer:
(b) 1977

Question 4.
The basic accounting postulates are denoted by –
(a) Concepts
(b) Book – keeping
(c) Accounting standards
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Concepts

Question 5.
The amount drawn by businessmen for his personal use is –
(a) Capital
(b) Drawing
(c) Expenditure
(d) Loss.
Answer:
(b) Drawing

Question 6.
Meaning of credibility of going concern is :
(a) Closing of business
(b) Opening of business
(c) Continuing of business
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Continuing of business

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. ……………. is a document that verifies the business transaction.
2. The existence of business is different from its ………………
3. …………….. has been applied on accountants by accounting standard board, law or professional institutions.
4. …………….. aspects are affected in every transaction.

Answer:

1. Voucher
2. Owner
3. Code of conduct
4. Two.

Question 3.
Answer in one word/sentence:

1. When was Indian Accounting standard board formed?
2. “The rules and conventions of accounting are commonly referred to as principles.” Who said it?
3. On what basis accounting principles are developed?
4. Which concept denotes that the existence of business is separate from its owner?

Answer:

1. 21 st April, 1977
2. R.N. Anthony
3. Accounting Conventions & Concepts
4. Business entity concept.

Fundamental Assumptions and Principles of Accounting Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain each of the following in about 50 words:

1. Accounting period concept
2. Going concern concept
3. Business entity concept
4. Money measurement concept.

Answer:

1. Accounting period concept:
Every businessman wish to know the result (profit or loss) of the business for a given period. For this purpose, he compares the capital which is invested in the business during the commencement of business with the total value of assets. This accounting period is so long that we are unable to calculate, i.e., he wants to know how his invested money is utilized in the business after a particular period of time.

For tax assessment like income tax, sales tax, etc. accounting period is considered. Generally, this period is one year. During the end of the year, the financial result and financial position is ascertained by making a financial statement.

2. Going concern concept:
Going concern concept means, the business will continue in future also, i.e., the business will continue for an indefinite period. The business will not be closed down in immediate future. According to Kohler a going concern is that “Any enterprise which is expected to continue operating indefinitely in the future.

Due to this reason an accountant adjusts various adjustments in the final accounts in this concept. Viz outstanding expenses, prepaid expenses, accrued income, unearned income, depreciation on fixed assets, etc.

3. Business entity concept:
According to this concept, the business is considered to be a separate entity or unit. These all the transactions are recorded from the point of view of the business and not from the point of view of the proprietor. Even the proprietor is treated as a creditor of the business when he invests money as capital. This rule is applied in all types of business whether it is sole trade or partnership or company. Due to this reason, the profit or loss is correctly ascertained, along with its financial position to a particular period.

4. Money measurement concept:
This concept implies that only those transactions are entered in the books of accounts which can be measured in terms of money. The transactions must be of financial nature. Those transactions or events are not recorded in the books which cannot be expressed in monetary terms.

For example:
The production policy, superior quantity of goods, purchase of 200 acres of land, 100 tonnes of coal etc. Thus, In order to record a transaction or an event, it must be expressed in terms of money.

Question 2.
Write short notes on the following:

1. Dual aspect principle
2. Principle of full disclosure
3. Accounting equation principle
4. Historical cost principle.

Or
Explain the Principle of full disclosure.
Answer:

1. Dual aspect principle:
According to this principle, each transaction has two aspects or two sides, i.e., a debit aspect and credit aspect or a debit side and a credit side.

For example:
Shubham started a business by investing Rs. 50,000 in cash. In this transaction, on one side cash and on the other side Shubham who has contributed cash by way of capital is taken. The cash is treated as the asset of the business on one side and Shubham the proprietor (capital) as a business liability on the other side, because the amount invested is not of the business but of a person named Shubham. Here, it formulates the accounting equation:

Assets = Liabilities. This concept is the core of accountancy. All the business transactions are entered on the basis of this concept. Their concept gave birth to ‘Double Entry System’ of book – keeping.

2. Principle of full disclosure:
It means all the material information regarding the accounting should be given. It is the speciality of this principle that, whenever accounting work is done all the relevant rules along with detailed description is to be given regarding the accounts. For the fulfilment of accounting work, this is essential, therefore a format of ‘ final account is given, for its preparation under the Companies Act 1956.

It is essential for a company to show its financial position, i.e., (i) Aprofit and loss account and (ii) A Balance Sheet in a prescribed form. Scholar Committee has also pointed out that for responsible transactions, full disclosure is good for a company. As a result of full disclosure, businessmen, investors and all other interested parties should get detailed and essential informations, as when they are needed.

3. Accounting equation principle:
For the recording of business transaction some accounting equations are popular. The whole entry of business transaction depend on those accounting equations. Hence, they are known as accounting equation convention. Some of them are as follows:

• Assets – Liabilities + Profit.
• The debit total of all the accounts must be equal to the total of all the accounts. i.e., Debit total = Credit total.
• When one person is receiver, the other is giver. All the receipt are equal to all the payments. It is cleared from the following equation.

Expenses + losses + assets = Liabilities + Capital + Profit + Incomes.

Accounting equation:

An example
(i) When a businessman starts a business by investing Rs. 40,000, the accounting equation is:
Capital = Assets Rs. 40,000 = Rs. 40,000.

(ii) Out of cash Rs. 40,000 he purchased a machine for Rs. 10,000, a furniture for Rs. 5,000 and goods for Rs. 4,000, the accounting equation is:
Capital = Machine + Furniture + Goods + Cash
Rs. 40,000 = Rs. 10,000 + Rs. 5,0.00 + Rs. 4,000 + Rs. 21,000.

(iii) When he takes a loan of Rs. 10,000 for the business, the equation is:
Capital + Loan = Machine + Furniture + Goods + Cash
[Rs. 40,000 + Rs. 10,000 = Rs. 10,000 + Rs. 5,000 + Rs. 4,000 + (Rs. 21,000 + Rs. 10,000)].

(iv) When he sold goods costing Rs. 2,000 at Rs. 3,000 cash, the accounting equation is:
Capital + Loan + Profit = Machine + Furniture + Goods + Cash
[Rs. 40,000 + Rs. 10,000 + Rs. 1,000 = Rs. 10,000 + Rs. 5,000 + Rs. 34,000 + (4,000 – 2,000)].

4. Historical cost principle:
According to this principle all the transactions are shown in the books of accounts at their original cost and at its present value. Depreciation is to be charged on the original cost of an asset. However, it must be remembered that the cost concept never means that assets are always shown at its cost price year after year. If an asset is purchased by paying nothing, it would not be shown in the Balance Sheet as an asset. On the other hand, the assets which are received as donation or charity are shown there.

Question 3.
What are the Modifying principles of Accounting? Explain.
Answer:
Modifying Principles of Accounting:
There are certain principles which can be modified as per the needs of the business. In Order to maintain the reliability of Accounting. Modification or change in existing principles is necessary. Infact the exceptions of Accountancy principles are called as modifying principles. They are as follows:

1. Materiality:
This principle implies that those items should also be entered in the books of accounts, which effect the financial result of the business. Those items which are not important may be left out. The selection of items depends on circumstance. Sometimes some items becomes more important due to its circumstance and some become unimportant and may be left out due to its circumstance. So, special care must be given when such items are dealt with.

2. Consistency:
This principle implies that there should be similarity in accounting procedure in each and every year. But, if need arise, these rules can be changed and on that basis accounts can be maintained.

For example:
For charging depreciation, for creating provision for doubtful debts, for the valuation of unsold stock etc., the rules adopted should be similar, in each year similar type of accounting procedure helps in comparison of accounts every year. As a result we can ascertain whether the business or industry is progressing or not.

3. Conservation:
Principle of conservation implies that the losses which may arise in future are entered in accounts; but not the profits. The importance of this convention is that, by keeping in mind, the losses which may arise in future, the minimum amount of net profit is shown in the account.

For example:
If the value of closing stock is less than the invoice price or the market price, it should be shown only on that price, whichever is lower. For doubtful debts from sundry debtors, a provision or reserve for doubtful debtors is to be created, charge depreciation on fixed assets, etc.

Question 4.
Write a Short Note on ‘Accounting standard’?
Or
What do you understand by accounting standards?
Answer:
Accounting Standard:
The generally accepted accounting principles has been developed on the basis of various concepts and conventions of Accounting. There are alternate customs existing to record the financial transactions on the basis of these developed principles. Due to the difference in accounting customs arid traditions, there is a lack of similarity and comparability in the financial statements prepared by different business organizations engaged in similar business operations.

Hence there is a need to bring similarity in various existing accounting customs and traditions and to certify them so that each party having interest in the business could be benefitted in order to bring similarity in accounting policies and principles. International accounting standard committee or IASC was established on 29th june, 1973. In India, Accounting standard board or ASB was setup on 21st April, 1977 for the same purpose.

Question 5.
Prepare Rajesh’s accounting equation from the following information?

1. Commenced business with cash Rs. 25,000.
2. Bought goods from Surendra Rs. 10,000.
3. Sold goods to Shyam Rs. 1,800 (cost 1,500).

Answer:
Accounting Equation:

Question 6.
Describe the nature of accounting principles?
Answer:
The nature of accounting principles are as follows:

1. Developing – Accounting principles are influenced by financial statement technique of business and tradition and custom of business so they are developing.

2. Man – made principles – These are man – made principle. These principles cannot be experimented in any lab. These principles are based on logic, experience and implementation.

3. Universally not acceptable – Ail the accounting experts are not agree at any one principle.

4. Lack of brief analysis list – Brief analysis list is not available at are place.

Question 7.
Mention any 5 limitations of Accounting?
Answer:
Limitations/Disadvantages of Accountancy:

1. Incomplete information:
In accountancy, only those transactions are recorded which are monetary in nature. It records only those transactions which are of quantitative aspect. Government policies, economic and political situation, etc. do not find any place in accounting.

2. Showing valueless asset:
There are some assets which do not have any original value but they are shown in balance sheet. They are goodwill, patents, trade mark, preliminary expenses, etc. The value of these assets are assumed and then shown in balance sheet. This assets when shown in the balance sheet makes the financial result doubtful.

3. In accuracy:
Various accountants determine the valuation of stock, method of charging depreciation according to the way they like. Based on this mode the profit and loss is determined on the basis of real or assumed estimation. The result of the business changes with the change in practise.

4. Ignorance about the present value of the assets:
Business is carried out for an indefinite period. So, the assets are shown in the balance sheet at its book value and not at market value. Moreover, some assets after becoming valueless are shown in the balance sheet even. Hence, accountancy ignores to show the present sale value of the asset.

5. Manipulation:
Accounting records are based on the information supplied. Accountant shows the portion of the business as deserved by the owner. In this condition, the underestimation or overestimation of asset takes place and this is done by omitting certain account.

MP Board Class 11 Accountancy Important Questions

MP Board Class 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 16 प्रायिकता विविध प्रश्नावली

प्रश्न 1.
एक डिब्बे में 10 लाल, 20 नीली व 30 हरी गोलियाँ रखी हैं। डिब्बे से 5 गोलियाँ यादृच्छया निकाली जाती हैं। प्रायिकता क्या है कि
(i) सभी गोलियाँ नीली हैं?
(ii) कम से कम एक गोली हरी है ?
हल:
एक डिब्बे में 10 लाल, 20 नीली तथा 30 हरी कुल 60 गोलियाँ हैं।
(i) 60 गोलियों में से 5 गोलियाँ निकालने के तरीके = \(60 \mathrm{C}_{5}\)
∴ n(S) = \(60 \mathrm{C}_{5}\)
20 नीली गोलियाँ हैं इनमें से 5 गोलियाँ चुनने के तरीके = \(20 \mathrm{C}_{5}\)
5 नीली गोलियाँ निकालने की प्रायिकता

प्रश्न 2.
ताश के 52 पत्तों की एक अच्छी तरह फेंटी गई गड्डी से 4 पत्ते निकाले जाते हैं। इस बात की क्या प्रायिकता है कि निकाले गए पत्तों में 3 ईंट और एक हुकुम का पत्ता है ?
हल:
कुल 52 पत्तों की ताश की गड्डी में से 4 पत्ते निकालने के तरीके = \(^{52} C_{4}\)
∴ n(S) = \(^{52} C_{4}\)
3 ईट के पत्ते निकालने के तरीके = \(^{13} C_{3}\)
एक हुकुम का पत्ता निकालने के तरीके = \(^{13} C_{1}\)
3 ईट और 1 हुकुम का पत्ता निकालने के तरीके = \(^{13} C_{3} \times^{13} C_{1}\)
अनुकूल परिणामों की कुल संख्या = \(^{13} C_{3} \times^{13} C_{1}\)
अतः 3 ईंट और एक हुकुम के पत्ते निकालने की प्रायिकता = \(\frac{13 C_{3} \times 13 C_{1}}{^{52} C_{4}}\).

प्रश्न 3.
एक पासे के दो फलकों में से प्रत्येक पर संख्या 1 अंकित है। तीन फलकों में प्रत्येक पर संख्या 2 अंकित है और एक फलक पर संख्या 3 अंकित है। यदि पासा एक बार फेंका जाता है, तो निम्नलिखित ज्ञात कीजिए :
(i) P(2)
(ii) P(i या 3)
(iii) P(3 – नहीं)
हल:
पासे पर कुल संभावित परिणाम = 6
(i) 2 अंक 3 फलकों पर अंकित है
2 प्राप्त करने के 3 तरीके हैं
P(2) = \(\frac{3}{6}=\frac{1}{2}\)

(ii) दो फलकों पर 1 है।
∴ 1 प्राप्त करने के तरीके, P(1) = \(\frac{2}{6}\)
3 एक फलक पर अंकित है। अत: 3 एक तरीके से मिल सकता है, P(3) = \(\frac{1}{6}\)
∴ P(1 या 3) = \(\frac{2}{6}+\frac{1}{6}=\frac{3}{6}=\frac{1}{2}\)

(iii) 6 फलकों में 3 केवल एक फलक पर है।
अतः 3 प्राप्त न करने के तरीके = 6 – 1 = 5
∴ P(3 – नहीं) = \(\frac{5}{6}\).

प्रश्न 4.
एक लाटरी में 10000 टिकट बेचे गए जिनमें दस समान इनाम दिए जाने हैं। कोई भी इनाम न मिलने की प्रायिकता क्या है यदि आप
(a) एक टिकट खरीदते हैं
(b) दो टिकट खरीदते हैं
(c) 10 टिकट खरीदते हैं ?
हल:
टिकटों की संख्या जिन पर इनाम नहीं है
= 10000 – 10 = 9990
∵ कुल टिकटों की संख्या = 10000
(a) एक टिकट जिससे कोई इनाम नहीं मिलेगा ऐसे कुल तरीके
= \(9990 C_{1}\) = 9990
जबकि कुल संभावी परिणाम = 10,000
एक टिकट के साथ इनाम न मिलने की प्रायिकता
= \(\frac{9990}{10000}=\frac{999}{1000}\)

(ii) बिना इनाम वाले 9990 में से 2 टिकट मिलने के तरीके
= \(9990 \mathrm{C}_{2}\)
कुल 10000 टिकट हैं। उनमें से 2 टिकट पाने के तरीके
= \(10000 \mathrm{C}_{2}\)
दो टिकट के साथ इनाम न मिलने की प्रायिकता = \(\frac{9990 C_{2}}{10000 C_{2}}\).

(iii) इसी प्रकार 9990 में बिना इनाम वाले 10 टिकट को पाने के तरीके
= \(9990 \mathrm{C}_{10}\)
10000 में से 10 टिकट पाने के तरीके = \(10000 C_{10}\)
अतः 10 टिकट के साथ इनाम न मिलने की प्रायिकता
= \(\frac{9990 \mathrm{C}_{10}}{10000 \mathrm{C}_{10}}\).

प्रश्न 5.
100 विद्यार्थियों में से 40 और 60 विद्यार्थियों के दो वर्ग बनाए गए हैं। यदि आप और आपकाएक मित्र 100 विद्यार्थियों में हैं तो प्रायिकता क्या है कि
(a) आप दोनों एक ही वर्ग में हों।
(b) आप दोनों अलग-अलग वर्गों में हों।
हल:
माना दो वर्ग A और B हैं जिनमें क्रमशः 40 और 60 विद्यार्थी हैं।
(i) मान लीजिए दोनों विद्यार्थी वर्ग A में आते हैं।
∴ 98 विद्यार्थियों में से 38 विद्यार्थी चुने जाते हैं।
98 विद्यार्थियों में से 38 विद्यार्थी चुनने के तरीके = \(98 \mathrm{C}_{38}\)
बिना किसी शर्त के, 100 में से 40 विद्याथीं चुनने के तरीके n(S) = \(^{100} C_{40}\)
दोनों विद्यार्थी (वह और उसका मित्र) एक ही वर्ग A में प्रवेश करने की प्रायिकता

(ii) यदि दोनों विद्यार्थी वर्ग B में प्रवेश करते हैं। तब 98 विद्यार्थियों में से 58 विद्यार्थी चुनने के तरीके = \(98 \mathrm{C}_{58}\)
100 विद्यार्थियों में से 60 विद्यार्थी चुनने के तरीके = \(^{100} C_{60}\)
अतः यदि वे विद्यार्थी वर्ग B में प्रवेश पाते हैं तो उसकी प्रायिकता


दोनों विद्यार्थी वर्ग A या वर्ग B में प्रवेश पाते हैं तो उसकी प्रायिकता
= \(\frac{26}{165}+\frac{59}{165}=\frac{85}{165}=\frac{17}{33}\).
(b) दोनों विद्यार्थियों के विभिन्न वर्गों में प्रवेश पाने की प्रायिकता
= 1 – \(\frac{17}{33}=\frac{33-17}{33}=\frac{16}{33}\).

प्रश्न 6.
तीन व्यक्तियों के लिए तीन पत्र लिखवाए गए हैं और प्रत्येक के लिए पता लिखा एक लिफाफा है। पत्रों को लिफाफों में यादृच्छया इस प्रकार डाला गया कि प्रत्येक लिफाफे में एक ही पत्र है। प्रायिकता ज्ञात कीजिए कि कम से कम एक पत्र अपने सही लिफाफे में डाला गया है।
हल:
मान लीजिए लिफाफों को A, B, C और संगत पत्रों को क्रमशः a, b, c से निरूपित किया गया है।
(i) एक पत्र उसके संगत लिफाफे में और दूसरे दो गलत लिफाफे में रखने के तरीके
(Aa, Bc, Cb), (Ac, Bb, Ca), (Ab, Ba, Cc)

(ii) यदि दो पत्र संगत (ठीक) लिफाफों में रखे गए हैं तो तीसरा भी संगत (ठीक) लिफाफे में होगा।

(iii) तीनों पत्र उनके संगत (ठीक) लिफाफों में रखे जाए (Aa, Bb, Cc) एक तरीका है।
पत्र कम से कम एक संगत लिफाफे में रखे जाने के तरीके
3 + 1 = 4
तीन पत्रों को तीन लिफाफा में रखने के कुल तरीके = 3! = 6
∴ कम से कम एक पत्र संगत लिफाफे में रखे जाने की प्रायिकता
= \(\frac{4}{6}=\frac{2}{3}\).

प्रश्न 7.
A और B दो घटनाएँ इस प्रकार हैं कि P(A) = 0.54, P(B) = 0.69 और P(A ∩ B) = 0.35, ज्ञात कीजिए:
(i) P(A ∪ B)
(ii) P(A’ ∩ B)
(iii) P(A ∩ B’)
(iv) P(B ∩ A’)
हल:
P(A) = 0.54, P(B) = 0.69, P(A ∩ B) = 0.35
P(A ∪ B) = P(A) + P(B) – (A ∩ B)
= 0.54 + 0.69 – 0.35 = 0.88

(ii)P(A’ ∩ B’) = P[(A ∪ B)’] = 1 – P(A ∪ B)
= 1 – 0.88 = 0.12.

(iii) P(A ∩ B’) = P(A) – P(A ∩ B)
= 0.54 – 0.35 = 0.19.

(iv) P(B ∩ A’) = P(B) – P(B ∩ A)
= 0.69 – 0.35 = 0.34.

प्रश्न 8.
एक संस्था के कर्मचारियों में से 5 कर्मचारियों का चयन प्रबन्ध समिति के लिए किया गया है। पाँच कर्मचारियों का ब्यौरा निम्नलिखित है :

इस समूह से प्रवक्ता पद के लिए यादृच्छया एक व्यक्ति का चयन किया गया। प्रवक्ता के पुरुष या 35 वर्ष से अधिक आयु का होने की प्रायिकता क्या है ?
हल:
माना A पुरुष के चयन और B व्यक्ति की आयु 35 वर्ष से अधिक को दर्शाते हैं।
पुरुषों की कुल संख्या = 3
35 वर्ष से अधिक आयु के कुल लोग = 2
35 वर्ष से अधिक आयु का पुरुष 1 है।

प्रश्न 9.
यदि 0, 1, 3, 5 और 7 अंकों द्वारा 5000 से बड़ी चार अंकों की संख्या का यादृच्छया निर्माण किया गया हो तो पाँच से भाज्य संख्या के निर्माण की क्या प्रायिकता है जब :
(i) अंकों की पुनरावृत्ति नहीं की जाए ?
(ii) अंकों की पुनरावृत्ति की जाए ?
हल:
(i) जब अंकों की पुनरावृत्ति नहीं होती।
मान लीजिए अंकों के स्थानों को I, II, III, IV से निरूपित किया गया हैं।
5000 से बड़ी संख्या बनाने के लिए स्थान I पर 5 या 7 रखना होगा अर्थात स्थान I को भरने के तरीके = 2
अब 5 अंक शेष रह जाते हैं।
स्थान II, III और IV को 4, 3 व 2 तरीकों से भर सकते हैं।
∴ 5000 से बड़ी संख्याएँ = 4 x 4 x 3 x 2 = 48 = n(S)
5 से भाज्य संख्याएँ वे हैं जब इकाई (स्थान IV) पर 0 या 5 हो। 5 को स्थान I पर तथा 0 को स्थान IV पर रखने के बाद 3 अंक बचते हैं। स्थान II और III, को 2 x 3 = 6 तरीकों से भरा जा सकता है।
इस प्रकार स्थान I पर जब 5 हो और IV पर 0 हो तो 6 संख्याएँ बनती हैं।
जब स्थान I पर 7 और स्थान IV पर 5 हो तो भी 6 संख्याएँ बनेंगी।
∴ 5000 से बड़ी और 5 से भाज्य संख्याएँ
= 6 + 6 + 6 = 18
अत: 5000 से बड़ी और 5 से भाज्य संख्याओं के बनने की प्रायिकता
= \(\frac{18}{24}=\frac{3}{4}\)

(ii) जब पुनरावृत्ति की जा सकती है।
स्थान [ पर 5 या 7 रख सकते है जिससे संख्या 5000 से बड़ी बन सके।
∴ स्थान I को 2 तरीकों से भर सकते हैं।
क्योंकि पुनरावृत्ति की अनुमति है तो प्रत्येक स्थान II, III, IV को 5 तरीकों से भर सकते हैं।
चारों स्थानों को भरने के तरीके या 5000 से बड़ी संख्याएँ
= 2 × 5 × 5 × 5 = 250 = n(S)
संख्या यदि 5 से भाज्य है तो इकाई (IV) स्थान पर 0 या 5 रखना होगा।
इसलिए इकाई के स्थान को 2 तरीकों से भर सकते हैं।
बीच के स्थान II और III को 5 × 5 तरीकों से भर सकते हैं।
इस प्रकार 5000 से बड़ी और 5 से भाज्य संख्याएँ = 2 × 5 × 5 × 2 = 100
5000 से बड़ी और 5 से भाज्य बनाने वाली संख्याओं की प्रायिकता
= \(\frac{100}{250}=\frac{2}{5}\).

प्रश्न 10.
किसी अटैची के ताले में चार चक्र लगे हैं। जिनमें प्रत्येक पर 0 से 9 तक 10 अंक अंकित हैं। ताला चार अंकों के एक विशेष क्रम (अंकों की पुनरावृत्ति नहीं) द्वारा ही खुलता है। इस बात की क्या प्रायिकता है कि कोई व्यक्ति अटैची खोलने के लिए सही क्रम का पता लगा ले।
हल:
प्रथम स्थान पर कोई अंक 10 तरीकों से ही लाया जा सकता है। यहाँ 0, 1, 2, …. 9 में से कोई भी अंक ‘हो सकता है।
दूसरे, तीसरे व चौथे स्थान को 9 × 8 × 7 तरीकों से भरा जा सकता है।
इस प्रकार चार अंकों की संख्या (जबकि पुनरावृत्ति नहीं की गई है) बनने के तरीके = 10 × 9 × 8 × 7 = 5040
ताले को खोलने के लिए सही संख्या केवल एक ही है।
∴ अटैची को खोलने का सही क्रम ज्ञात करने की प्रायिकता = \(\frac{1}{5040}\).

MP Board Class 11th Maths Solutions

MP Board Class 11th Accountancy Important Questions Chapter 1 Accounting

Accounting Important Questions

Accounting Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The art of recording all business transactions in a systematic manner in a set of books is called –
(a) Accounting
(b) Book – keeping
(c) Ledger
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Book – keeping

Question 2.
The process of recording, classifying and summarizing all business transactions in order to know the financial result is called –
(a) Book – keeping
(b)Accounting
(c) Journalizing
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b)Accounting

Question 3.
Cash, goods or assets invested by the proprietor in the business for earning profit is called –
(a) Profit
(b) Capital
(c) Fixed assets
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Capital

Question 4.
The person, firm or institution who does not pay the price in cash for the goods purchased or the services received is called –
(a) Creditor
(b) Proprietor
(c) Debtor
(d)None of these.
Answer:
(c) Debtor

Question 5.
Book – keeping is –
(a) An art
(b) A science
(c) An art and science both
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) An art and science both

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. The document certifying the purchase or sale of goods or any monetary transaction is called …………….
2. The thing which is purchased and sold in the business is called …………….
3. The things or properties which helps in smooth functioning of the business and which are owned by the business are called ……………. of the business.
4. The unsold goods left at the end of the year is called ……………..
5. ……………. represents the excess of assets over liabilities.

Answer:

1. Voucher
2. Goods
3. Assets
4. Closing stock
5. Capital

Question 3.

Answer:

1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (e).

Question 4.
Answer in one word/sentence:

1. Any legal activity performed for earning profit is called.
2. The head under which transactions pertaining to a person, institution, firm, expenses, assets etc. is recorded is called.
3. The system in which only one aspect of the transaction is recorded is called.
4. The concession given on cash transactions is called.

Answer:

1. Business
2. Account
3. Single entry system
4. Cash discount.

Question 5.
State True or False:

1. Trade discount is given on credit transactions only.
2. Furniture purchased by a Trader dealing in Furniture will be treated as ‘purchases’ for him.
3. Cash is a Fixed Asset of a Business.
4. The goods invested at the commencement of the business is called closing stock.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. False
4. False.

Accounting Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain any five advantages of accounting towards Traders?
Answer:

1. Important information – With the help of it, the trader can attain many important informations regarding the business easily.

2. Helps in purchase and sale – If the businessman wants to sale or purchase the business, he can collect the informations from the books of accounts.

3. Comparative study – It enables the trader to formulate policies for the future, for more profit by comparing with old books of accounts.

4. Helps in taking loans – On the basis of systematic books of accounts prepared the trader can take loans easily.

Control of an employee:
By checking the books of accounts prepared by the employee, errors and frauds can be detected and easily corrected.

Question 2.
Explain any two objects of accounting?
Answer:
The following are the objects of accounting:

1. Knowledge of assets and liabilities – By book keeping and accountancy, the knowledge of assets and liabilities can be ascertained.

2. Knowledge of profit and loss – The knowledge of profit and loss of a business can be known from the books of accounts.

3. To know the financial position of the business –  Accounting provides valuable information about business assets and liabilities. The name of these information known is balance sheet.

4. Meeting statutory requirement – Under companies act 1956, and for registered partnership, maintenance of accounts are compulsory as per law.

Question 3.
Explain the following terms?

1. Capital
2. Drawings
3. Entry
4. Bad debt
5. Assets
6. Insolvent
7. Voucher
8. Commission
9. Debtors
10. Creditors
11. Closing stock.

Or
Describe the following:

(a) Bad debts
(b) Insolvent.

Answer:
1. Capital:
Capital represents that amount which is invested by the proprietor in the business. It may be in the form of cash, goods or assets. It is excess of assets over liabilities at a given time. Capital – assets – liabilities.

2. Drawings:
The withdrawal of goods or cash from the business by the proprietor for his personal use or domestic use is called drawings. It reduces the capital of the business.

3. Entry:
Recording of business transactions in the books of accounts is called entry. It is recorded as journal entry in journal book.

4. Bad debts:
The debts which can’t be recovered from the debtors are called bad debt. It arises when a debtor becomes insolvent or bankrupt.

5. Assets:
The properties which are vital for running the business are called assets, e.g., Buildings, furniture, machinery, etc. These are things of value owned by the firm.

6. Insolvent:
A person who is unable to pay his debt to his creditors, he is said to be insolvent by the court. He is also known as ‘Bankrupt’. The liabilities of such persons are more than the value of assets he possesses.

7. Voucher:
A written document. Certificate or paper verifying the business trans¬actions is called voucher, e.g.; invoice, money receipt, cash memo etc.

8. Commission:
The remuneration or allowance either paid or received for buying or selling of goods or for any other services for the business is called commission. It may be in the form of a fixed amount or percentage.

9. Debtor:
A debtor is a person who owe money Or money’s worth to the business. A person becomes a debtor when he purchases goods from the business on credit, i.e., to the business, the person who buys the goods becomes a debtor.

10. Creditor:
The person from whom goods are purchased on credit is known as creditor. Creditor arises when there is credit purchase of goods.

11. Closing stock:
The unsold goods remaining on a particular date or during a particular period is called stock in hand. It is estimated at the end of the accounting year for the purpose of calculating profit of the business, is called closing stock. At the beginning of the next accounting year it becomes opening stock of the business.

Question 4.
Mention the various characteristics of accountancy?
Answer:
The various characteristics of accountancy are:

1. It is both an art and a science.
2. In accoutancy, only business transactions are recorded.
3. The transactions are entered in a systematic manner on the basis of certain definite principles in the book of accounts.
4. It is prepared for a particular accounting period.
5. In accountancy only specific accounts are opened.

Question 5.
Is book – keeping a ‘science’ or an ‘art’? Explain.
Answer:

Book – keeping is an ‘art’:
The business transactions are recorded in a systematic manner in separate books. On the basis of some accepted theories, principles and rules the business transactions are entered in achieving a desired object. Thus, it is an ‘art’.

Book – keeping is a ‘science’:
It is an organized and systematic body of knowledge which is based on certain basic principles. The summarizing and classifying of transactions are done on fixed basic principles. They are universally accepted. Hence, we can say that book – keeping is both an ‘art’ and a ‘science’.

Question 6.
Differentiate between cash discount and trade discount (any five)?
Answer:
Difference between trade discount and cash discount:

Trade Discount:

1. It is allowed on the time of sale.
2. The object of trade discount is to promote sales.
3. It is shown in invoice.
4. T.D. is allowed to every customer according to the terms and conditions of the business.
5. T.D. is calculated on the list price of goods.

Cash Discount:

1. It is allowed on the payment of cash within or fixed period.
2. The object of cash discount is encourage the customer to make payment promptly.
3. It is not shown in invoice.
4. C.D. is not allowed to all customers.
5. C.D. depends on the amount to be paid.

Accounting Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the various systems of book – keeping?
Or
Describe the different systems of accounting?
Answer:
The various systems of book – keeping are:

1. Indian accounting system:
This system is also known as Mahajani System. It is written in any Indian languages, according to the customs and rules prevailing in a particular area.

2. English system of accounting:
This system is originated in England. It is of two types. They are as follows:

(i) Double entry system:
According to this system, each transaction has two aspects: debit and credit. On this base transactions are entered. This system is popular all over the world. It is the only one scientific system which we can relie.

(ii) Cash system:
Under this system, only a cash – book is maintained in the business to enter the cash transactions. Generally, this system is following by non – trading concerns.

(iii) Single entry system:
Under this system, along with cash-book, some other accounts are also maintained. It includes the personal accounts of debtors and creditors. It is also known as incomplete system of accounting.

Question 2.
Explain the importance / advantages of accountancy?
Or
What are the advantages of accounting to businessmen/traders?
Answer:
Accountancy not only reveals correct profits and loss and financial position of business but also benefits Govt., society and other sections of society. This can be explained as under:

I. Advantages to traders:

1. Important information – With the help of it, the trader can attain many important informations regarding the business easily.
2. Helps in purchase and sale – If the businessman wants to sale or purchase the business, he can collect the informations from the books of accounts.
3. Comparative study – It enables the trader to formulate policies for the future, for more profit by comparing with old books of accounts.
4. Helps in taking loans – On the basis of systematic books of accounts prepared the trader can take loans easily.
5. Control of an employee – By checking the books of accounts prepared by the employee, errors and frauds can be detected and easily corrected.

II. Advantages to government:

1. On the basis of the progress of the business, the government can collect the informations regarding the development of commercial and industrial sector of the nation.
2. Determination of taxes: The tax authorities can determine different taxes like income tax, sales tax, etc. easily on the basis of accounts kept in the business.
3. The government can know which business or industrial unit is sick and steps can be taken to remove it, on the basis of accounts kept in the business.
4. For issuing the various licences by the government, it makes use of accounts.
5. If any business or industry needs financial assistance, the government can provide it on the basis of accounts.

III. Advantages to Investors:
Accounting reveals the actual financial position of the business which helps a lot to the investors for investing their money at right place.

IV. Advantages to consumers:
If appropriate cost accounting procedure is adapted, then per unit cost of production can be ascertained which helps for fixing the selling price of f the commodity. Thus it saves the consumers from being exploited.

Question 3.
Differentiate between Book – keeping and Accounting.
Answer:

Question 4.
Explain some properties of Accounting Informations?
Answer:
Accounting Information:
As we all know, accounting information relating to business is very benefecial for all parties related to the business. Hence, the preparation and presentation of accounting information should be scientific and clear. For it, the following characteristics must be present in the accounting information.

1. Reliability:
It is essential for accounting information to be reliable. The information must be prepared in such a way that its reliability can be checked and proved. The information can be trustworthy. If it is based on various source documents used in the business like cash memo, invoice Agreement, letters, etc. The information can be checked and tested anytime with the help of these source documents.

2. Relevance:
The accounting information given in the financial documents must be in accordance with the objectives laid down by the organization. Relevant informations refers to the informations that helps the various parties connected with the business in taking decisions. The information contained in financial documents is beneficial to all parties of business if the accountants had collected the information keeping in mind the requirements of various parties.

The same information displayed in financial documents may be general to some and special or important to others the information is general or special depends on the objects of various parties/users of information.

3. Understandibility:
The presentation of accounting information must be so simple and logical that’any party having interest in the business can understand the information easily. There are of course, various information which could be comprehended by people having knowledge of accounting, terms but such information can be accompanied by explanation wherever needed so that a common man may also understand the meaning inherent in the disclosed information.

4. Comparability:
While preparing financial documents it must be borne in mind that accounting information relating to current year can be presented in a comparative manner with previous year’s information, facts and figures if presented in this way helps in the formation of business policies for future. A comparative study can be conducted and reasons can be sorted out for any unfavorable information and according remedial measures can be taken in the interest of the business.

MP Board Class 11 Accountancy Important Questions

MP Board Class 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 16 प्रायिकता Ex 16.3

प्रश्न 1.
प्रतिदर्श समष्टि S = {ω₁, ω₂, ω₃, ω₄, ω₅, ω₆} के परिणामों के लिए निम्नलिखित में से कौन से प्रायिकता निर्धारण वैध नहीं हैं :

हल:
(a) 0.1 + 0.01 + 0.05 + 0.03 + 0.01 + 0.2 + 0.6 = 1.00
घटनाओं की दी गयी प्रायिकता का योगफल 1 है।
अतः निर्धारित प्रायिकता वैध है।
(b) दी गयी प्रायिकताओं का योगफल
= \(\frac{1}{7}+\frac{1}{7}+\frac{1}{7}+\frac{1}{7}+\frac{1}{7}+\frac{1}{7}+\frac{1}{7}=\frac{7}{7}\) = 1
∴ दी गयी प्रायिकता वैध है।
(c) दी हुई प्रायिकताओं का योग
= 0.1 + 0.1 + 0.3 + 0.4 + 0.5 + 0.6 + 0.7
= 2.7
यह एक से अधिक है
अतः दी गयी प्रायिकता वैध नहीं है।
(d) किसी भी घटना की प्रायिकता ऋणात्मक नहीं हो सकती।
यहाँ पर दो प्रायिकताएँ – 0.1 और – 0.2 ऋणात्मक हैं।
अतः दी गयी प्रायिकता वैध नहीं है।
(e) दी गयी प्रायिकताओं का योगफल

जो कि एक से अधिक है
अतः दी गयी प्रायिकता वैध नहीं है।

प्रश्न 2.
एक सिक्का दो बार उछाला जाता है। कम से कम एक पट प्राप्त होने की क्या प्रायिकता है ?
हल:
दिए हुए परीक्षण का प्रतिदर्श समष्टि
S = {HH, HT, TH, TT}
∴ कुल सम्भावित परिणामों की संख्या = 4 कम से कम एक पट प्राप्त करने के तरीके TH, HT, TT = 3
एक सिक्के को दो बार उछालने से कम से कम 1 पट प्राप्त करने की प्रायिकता = \(\frac{3}{4}\).

प्रश्न 3.
एक पासा फेंका जाता है। निम्नलिखित घटनाओं की प्रायिकता ज्ञात कीजिए :
(i) एक अभाज्य संख्या प्रकट होना।
(ii) 3 या 3 से बड़ी संख्या प्रकट होना।
(iii) 1 या 1 से छोटी संख्या प्रकट होना।
(iv) छः से बड़ी संख्या प्रकट होना।
(v) छः से छोटी संख्या प्रकट होना।
हल:
एक पासे को फेंकने में परीक्षण का प्रतिदर्श समष्टि
S = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
अर्थात् कुल सम्भावित परिणाम n (S) = 6
(i) अभाज्य संख्याएँ 2, 3, 5 हैं।
n (A)= 3
अतः एक अभाज्य संख्या प्रकट होने की प्रायिकता
= \(\frac{n(A)}{n(S)}=\frac{3}{6}=\frac{1}{2}\)

(ii) माना घटना 3 या 3 से बड़ी संख्या को B से दर्शाया गया है, 3 या 3 से बड़ी संख्याएँ 3, 4, 5, 6 हैं।
n (B) = 4
अतः प्रायिकता, P(B) = \(\frac{n(B)}{n(S)}=\frac{4}{6}=\frac{2}{3}\).

(iii) माना घटना 1 या 1 से छोटी संख्या को C से दर्शाया गया है।
1 या 1 से छोटी संख्याएँ = 1
∴ n(C) = 1
अतः प्रायिकता, P(C) = \(\frac{1}{6}\).

(iv) एक पासे पर 6 से बड़ी कोई संख्या नहीं होती है, अर्थात् इसकी प्रायिकता
= \(\frac{0}{6}\) = 0

(v) 6 से छोटी संख्याएँ : 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 हैं। यदि इसे E से दर्शाया गया हो, तब
n(E) = 5
अतः प्रायिकता, P(E) = \(\frac{5}{6}\).

प्रश्न 4.
ताश की एक गड्डी के 52 पत्तों में से एक पत्ता यादृच्छया निकाला गया है।
(a) प्रतिदर्श समष्टि में कितने बिन्दु हैं ?
(b) पत्ते का हुकुम का इक्का होने की प्रायिकता क्या है ?
(c) प्रायिकता ज्ञात कीजिए कि पत्ता
(i) इक्का है
(ii) काले रंग का है।
हल:
(a) ताश की गड्डी में कुल 52 पत्ते होते हैं। जब एक पत्ता निकाला जाता है तो इसके प्रतिदर्श समष्टि में 52 बिन्दु होते हैं।
(b) ताश को गड्डी में हुकुम का एक इक्का होता है। यदि एक पत्ता निकालने की घटना को A से दर्शाया जाए तो
n(A) = 1, n(S) = 52
P(A) = P(हुकुम का इक्का) = \(\frac{1}{52}\).
(c) (i) यदि B इक्का निकालने को दर्शाता हो तो
n(B) = 4 [∵ ताश की गड्डी में 4 इक्के होते हैं।]
n(S) = 52
∴ P(B) = \(\frac{1}{13}\).

(ii) C काले रंग हुकुम की पत्ते आने की घटना को दर्शाता है .
n(C) = 26 [∵ ताश की गड्डी में 26 काले पत्ते होते हैं।]
n(s) = 52
∴ P(C) = \(\frac{26}{52}=\frac{1}{2}\)

प्रश्न 5.
एक अनभिनत (unbiased) सिक्का जिसके एक तल पर 1 और दूसरे तल पर 6 अंकित है तथा एक अनभिनत पासा दोनों को उछाला जाता है। प्रायिकता ज्ञात कीजिए कि प्रकट संख्याओं का योग (i) 3 है (ii) 12 है।
हल:
एक पासे पर 1 व 6 अंकित है और दूसरे पर 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.
∴ प्रतिदर्श समष्टि = {(1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 3), (1, 4), (1, 5), (1, 6), (6, 1), (6, 2), (6, 3), (6, 4), (6, 5), (6, 6)}
(i) दी गयी संख्याओं का योग 3 घटना (1, 2) से प्राप्त होता है।
अनुकूल परिणामों की संख्या = 1
∴ प्रायिकता जब प्राप्त संख्याओं का योग 3 है = \(\frac{1}{12}\)

(ii) दी गयी संख्याओं का योग घटना (6, 6) से प्राप्त होता है। यहाँ अनुकूल परिणामों की संख्या = 1
∴ प्रायिकता जब प्राप्त संख्याओं का योग 12 है = \(\frac{1}{12}\)

प्रश्न 6.
नगर परिषद् में चार पुरुष व छः स्त्रियाँ हैं। यदि एक समिति के लिए यादृच्छया एक परिषद् सदस्य चुना गया है तो एक स्त्री के चुने जाने की कितनी सम्भावना है ?
हल:
नगर परिषद् में चार पुरुष व छः स्त्रियाँ हैं।
उनमें से किसी एक को चुनने के तरीके = \(^{10} C_{1}\)
∴ कुल सम्भावित परिणामों की संख्या = 10
कुल 6 स्त्रियाँ हैं। उनमें से एक स्त्री को चुनने के तरीके = 6
अनुकूल परिणामों की संख्या = 6
एक स्त्री को चुने जाने की प्रायिकता = \(\frac{6}{10}=\frac{3}{5}\).

प्रश्न 7.
एक अनभिनत सिक्के को चार बार उछाला जाता है और एक व्यक्ति प्रत्येक चित्त पर एक रूपया जीतता है और प्रत्येक पट पर 1.50 रू हारता है। इस परीक्षण के प्रतिदर्श समष्टि से ज्ञात कीजिए कि आप चार उछालों में कितनी विभिन्न राशियाँ प्राप्त कर सकते हैं। साथ ही इन राशियों से प्रत्येक की प्रायिकता भी ज्ञात कीजिए।
हल:
सिक्के की उछाल में पाँच तरीकों से चित्त प्राप्त कर सकते हैं। जो निम्न प्रकार हैं।
कुल संभावित परिणाम = {HHHH, HHHT, HHTH, HHTT, HTHH, HTHT, HTTH, HTTT, THHH, THHT, THTH, THTT, TTHH, TTHT, TTTH, TTTT}
(i) कोई भी चित्त प्राप्त नहीं होता या चारों पट प्राप्त होते हैं।
चारों पट् के आने पर हानि = 4 × 1.50 = 6 रू
चार पट प्राप्त करने के तरीके (TTTT) = 1
कुल सम्भावित परिणाम = 16
∴ चार पट प्राप्त करने की प्रायिकता = \(\frac{1}{16}\).

(ii) जब एक चित्त और 3 पट प्राप्त होते हैं।
हानि = 3 × 1.50 – 1 × 1
= 4.50 – 1.00 = 3.50 रू
एक चित्त और 3 पट इस प्रकार आ सकते हैं :
{TTTH, TTHT, THTT, HTTT}
∴ 4 तरीकों से एक चित्त और 3 पट प्राप्त हो सकते हैं।
कुल सम्भावित परिणाम = 16
एक चित्त प्राप्त करने की प्रायिकता = \(\frac{6}{16}=\frac{1}{4}\).

(iii) जब 2 चित्त और 2 पट् प्रकट होते हैं
हानि = 2 × 1.5 – 1 × 2 .
= 3 – 2 = 1 रू
2 चित्त और 2 पट् इस प्रकार प्राप्त हो सकते हैं।
{HHTT, HTHT, HTTH, THHT, THTH, TTHH}
छः तरीकों से 2 चित्त और 2 पट प्राप्त हो सकते हैं।
कुल सम्भावित परिणाम = 16
2 चित्त प्राप्त करने की प्रायिकता = 2.

(iv) जब 3 चित्त और 1 पट् प्रकट होता है, तब
लाभ = 3 × 1 – 1 × 1.5
= 3 – 1.50 = 1.50 रू
3 चित्त प्राप्त करने के तरीके = {HHHT, HHHH, HTHH, THHH}
चार तरीकों से 3 चित्त और 1 पट प्राप्त होता है।
कुल सम्भावित परिणाम = 16
3 चित्त प्राप्त करने की प्रायिकता = \(\frac{4}{16}=\frac{1}{4}\).

(v) चारों चित्त एक तरीके से प्राप्त कर सकते हैं, तब
लाभ = 4 × 1 = 4 रू
कुल सम्भावित परिणाम = 16.
चार चित्त प्राप्त करने की प्रायिकता = \(\frac{4}{16}=\frac{1}{4}\).

प्रश्न 8.
तीन सिक्के एक बार उछाले जाते हैं। निम्नलिखित की प्रायिकता ज्ञात कीजिए :
(i) तीन चित्त प्रकट होना
(ii) 2 चित्त प्रकट होना
(iii) न्यूनतम 2 चित्त प्रकट होना
(iv) अधिकतम 2 चित्त प्रकट होना
(v) एक भी चित्त प्रकट न होना
(vi) 3 पट प्रकट होना
(vii) तथ्यतः 2 पट् प्रकट होना
(viii) कोई भी पट प्रकट न होना
(ix) अधिकतम 2 पट् प्रकट होना
हल:
यदि 3 सिक्के उछाले जाते हैं तो परीक्षण का प्रतिदर्श समष्टि
S = {HHH, HHT, HTH, THH, TTH, THT, HTT, TTT}
कुल सम्भावित परिणाम = 8
(i) तीन चित्त {HHH} एक तरीके से प्रकट होता है।
अतः 3 चित्त प्राप्त करने की प्रायिकता = \(\frac{1}{8}\).

(ii) 2 चित्त या 2 चित्त 1 पट प्राप्त करने के HHT, HTH, THH तीन तरीके हैं।
कुल सम्भावित परिणाम = 8
2 चित्त प्रकट होने की प्रायिकता = \(\frac{3}{8}\)

(iii) न्यूनतम 2 चित्त प्राप्त करने के लिए 2 चित्त 1 पट् या 3 चित्त आएंगे
∴ न्यूनतम 2 चित्त HHT, HTH, THH, HHH, चार तरीकों से प्रकट हो सकते हैं।
अतः न्यूनतम 2 चित्त प्रकट होने की प्रायिकता = \(\frac{4}{3}=\frac{1}{2}\).

(iv) अधिकतम 2 चित्त, इस प्रकार प्रकट होंगे।
(a) कोई चित्त नहीं या तीन पट्
(b) एक चित्त 2 पट्
(c) 2 चित्त 1 पट्
यह {TIT, HTT, THT, TTH, HHT, HTH, THH} सात तरीकों से प्रकट हो सकते हैं।
कुल संभावित परिणाम = 8
∴ अधिकतम 2 चित्त प्रकट होने की प्रायिकता = \(\frac{7}{8}\)

(v) एक भी चित्त न आने का अर्थ है तीन पट प्रकट होना जो (TTT) एक तरीके से हो सकता है।
कुल संभावित परिणाम = 8
अतः एक भी चित्त न आने की प्रायिकता = \(\frac{1}{8}\)

(vi) तीन पट (TIT) एक तरीके से प्रकट हो सकते हैं।
तीन पट् प्रकट होने की प्रायिकता = \(\frac{1}{8}\)

(vii) तथ्यतः 2 पट् (TTH, THT, HTT) तीन तरीकों से प्राप्त हो सकते हैं।
कुल संभावित परिणाम = 8
∴ दो पट् प्रकट होने की प्रायिकता = \(\frac{3}{8}\)

(viii) कोई पट् नहीं का अर्थ है तीनों चित्त प्रकट होते हैं तो (HHH) 1 तरीके से ही हो सकता है।
कुल संभावित परिणाम = 8
कोई पट् प्रकट न होने की प्रायिकता = \(\frac{1}{8}\)

(ix) अधिकतम दो पट् प्रकट होना
⇒ तीनों पट् प्रकट नहीं होते।
तीनों पट् प्रकट होने की प्रायिकता = \(\frac{1}{8}\)
∴ अधिकतम दो पट् प्रकट होने की प्रायिकता = 1 – (तीनों पट् प्रकट होने की प्रायिकता)
= 1 – \(\frac{1}{8}=\frac{7}{8}\).

प्रश्न 9.
यदि किसी घटना A की प्रायिकता \(\frac{2}{11}\) है तो घटना ‘A – नहीं’ की प्रायिकता ज्ञात कीजिए।
हल:
P(A) = \(\frac{2}{11}\)
P(A – नहीं) = P (A’) = 1 – P(A)
= 1 – \(\frac{2}{11}=\frac{9}{11}\).

प्रश्न 10.
शब्द ‘ASSASSINATION’ से एक अक्षर यादृच्छया चुना जाता है। प्रायिकता ज्ञात कीजिए कि चुना गया अक्षर
(i) एक स्वर (vowel) है
(ii) एक व्यंजन (consonant) है।
हल:
शब्द ASSASSINATION में कुल 13 अक्षर हैं जिसमें (AAAIIO) 6 स्वर और (SSSSNNT) 7 व्यंजन है।
(i) n(S) = 13
स्वरों की संख्या = 6
एक स्वर चुनने की प्रायिकता = \(\frac{6}{13}\).
(ii) व्यंजनों की संख्या = 7
n(S) = 13
एक व्यंजन चुनने की प्रायिकता = \(\frac{7}{13}\)

प्रश्न 11.
एक लाटरी में एक व्यक्ति 1 से 20 तक की संख्याओं में से छः भिन्न-भिन्न संख्याएँ यादृच्छया चुनता है और यदि ये चुनी गई छः संख्याएँ उन छः संख्याओं से मेल खाती हैं जिन्हें लाटरी समिति ने पूर्व निर्धारित कर रखा है, तो वह व्यक्ति इनाम जीत जाता है। लाटरी के खेल में इनाम जीतने की प्रायिकता क्या है ?
हल:
1 से 20 तक की प्राकृत संख्याओं में से 6 संख्या चुनने के तरीके = \(20 \mathrm{C}_{6}\)
= \(\frac{20 \times 19 \times 18 \times 17 \times 16 \times 15}{1 \times 2 \times 3 \times 4 \times 5 \times 6}\)
= 38760
केवल एक ही अनुकूल परिणाम है।
अतः लाटरी जीतने की प्रायिकता = \(\frac{1}{38760}\).

प्रश्न 12.
जाँच कीजिए कि निम्न प्रायिकताएँ P(A) और P(B) युक्ति संगत (consistently) परिभाषित की गई हैं:
(i) P(A) = 0.5, P(B) = 0.7, P(A ∩ B) = 0.6
(ii) P(A) = 0.5, P(B) = 0.4, P(A ∪ B) = 0.8
हल:
(i) दिया है : P(A) = 0.5, P(B) = 0.7, P(A ∩ B) = 0.6
∴ यहाँ P(A ∩ B) = 0.6 > P(A)
अत: P(A) और (B) युक्ति संगत नहीं है।
(ii) यहाँ पर P(A) = 0.5, P(B) = 0.4, P(A ∪ B) = 0.8
अब
P(A ∩ B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(A ∪ B)
= 0.5 + 0.4 – 0.8
∴ P(A ∩ B) = 0.1
अतः P(A) और P(B) युक्ति संगत है।

प्रश्न 13.
निम्नलिखित सारणी में खाली स्थान भरिए :

हल:
(i) P(A) = \(\frac{1}{3}\), P(B) = \(\frac{1}{5}\), P(A ∩ B ) = \(\frac{1}{15}\). P(A∪ B) = ?
P (A ∪ B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(A ∩ B)
= \(\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{5}-\frac{1}{15}=\frac{8}{15}-\frac{1}{15}=\frac{7}{15}\).
(ii) P(A ∪ B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(A ∩ B)
0.6 = 0.35 + P(B) – 0.25
या P(B) = 0.6 – 0.35 + 0.25 = 0.5.
(iii) P(A ∪ B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(A ∩ B)
0.7 = 0.5 + 0.35 – P(A ∩ B)
∴ P(A ∪ B) = 0.5 + 0.35 – 0.7 = 0.15.

प्रश्न 14.
P(A) = \(\frac{3}{5}\) और P(B) = \(\frac{1}{5}\) दिया गया है। यदि A और B परस्पर अपवर्जी घटनाएँ हैं, तो P(A या B) ज्ञात कीजिए।
हल:
A और B परस्पर अपवर्जी घटनाएँ हैं, तब
P(A ∩ B) = 0
P(A) = \(\frac{3}{5}\), P(B) = \(\frac{1}{5}\)
P(A या B) = P(A ∪ B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(A ∩ B)
∴ P(A ∪ B) = \(\frac{3}{5}+\frac{1}{5}-0=\frac{4}{5}\).

प्रश्न 15.
यदि E और F घटनाएँ इस प्रकार की हैं कि P(E) = \(\frac{1}{4}\), P(F) = \(\frac{1}{2}\), और P(E और F) = \(\frac{1}{8}\) तो ज्ञात कीजिए
(i) P(E या F)
(ii) P(E – नहीं और F – नहीं)।
हल:
P(E) = \(\frac{1}{4}\), P(F) = \(\frac{1}{2}\), P(E और F) = P(E ∩ B) = \(\frac{1}{8}\)
(i) P (E) या F) = P(E U F) = P(E) + P(F) – P(E ∩ F)
= \(\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{8}=\frac{2+4-1}{8}=\frac{5}{8}\)
(ii) P(E नहीं और F – नहीं) = P(E ∩ F)
= P[(E ∪ F)’] = 1 – P(E ∪ F)
= 1 – \(\frac{5}{8}=\frac{3}{8}\).

प्रश्न 16.
घटनाएँ E और F इस प्रकार हैं कि P(E – नहीं और F – नहीं) = 0.25, बताइए कि E और F परस्पर अपवर्जी हैं या नहीं।
हल:
P(E – नहीं और F – नहीं) = P(E ∩ F)
= P[(E ∪ F)’]
अर्थात् = 1 – P(E ∪ F) = 0.25
या P(E ∪ F) = 1 – 0.25
= 0.75.
∴ P(E) ∪ F) ≠ 0 इसलिए E और F परस्पर अपवर्जी नहीं है।

प्रश्न 17.
घटनाएँ A और B इस प्रकार हैं कि P(A) = 0.42, P(B) = 0.48 और P(A और B) = 0.16, ज्ञात कीजिए: .
(i) P(A – नहीं)
(ii) P (B – नहीं)
(iii) P(A या B)
हल:
P(A) = 0.42, P(B) = 0.48
P(A और B) = P(A ∩ B) = 0.16
(i) P(A – नहीं) = P(A’) = 1 – P(A) = 1 – 0.42 = 0.58.
(ii) P(B – नहीं) = P(B’) = 1 – P(B) = 1 – 0.48 = 0.52.
(iii) P(A या B) = P (A ∪ B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(A ∩ B)
= 0.42 + 0.48 – 0.16
= 0.90 – 0.16 = 0.74.

प्रश्न 18.
एक पाठशाला की कक्षा XI के 40% विद्यार्थी गणित पढ़ते हैं और 30% जीव विज्ञान पढ़ते हैं। कक्षा के 10% विद्यार्थी गणित और जीव विज्ञान दोनों पढ़ते हैं । यदि कक्षा का एक विद्यार्थी यादृच्छया चुना जाता है, तो प्रायिकता ज्ञात कीजिए कि वह गणित या जीव विज्ञान पढ़ता होगा।
हल:
एक पाठशाला के 40% विद्यार्थी गणित पढ़ते हैं।
∴ गणित पढ़ने वाले विद्यार्थी की प्रायिकता P(M) = \(\frac{40}{100}\) = 0.4
30% विद्यार्थी जीव विज्ञान पढ़ते हैं।
∴ जीव विज्ञान पढ़ने वाले विद्यार्थी की प्रायिकता P(B) = \(\frac{30}{100}\) = 0.3
∴ 10% विद्यार्थी गणित और जीव विज्ञान दोनों पढ़ते हैं।
∴ गणित और जीव विज्ञान वाले विद्यार्थियों की प्रायिकता, P(M ∩ B)
= \(\frac{10}{100}\)
= 0.1
अब एक विद्यार्थी यादृच्छया चुना गया हो, तब उस विद्यार्थी द्वारा गणित या जीव विज्ञान लिए गए विषय की प्रायिकता
P(M ∪ B) = P(M) + P(B) – P(M ∩ B)
= 0.4 + 0.3 – 0.1
= 0.6

प्रश्न 19.
एक प्रवेश परीक्षा की दो परीक्षणों (Tests) के आधार पर श्रेणीबद्ध किया जाता है। किसी यादृच्छया चुने गए विद्यार्थी की पहले परीक्षण में उत्तीर्ण होने की प्रायिकता 0.8 है और दूसरे परीक्षण में उत्तीर्ण होने की प्रायिकता 0.7 है। दोनों में से कम से कम एक परीक्षण उत्तीर्ण करने की प्रायिकता 0.95 है। दोनों परीक्षणों को उत्तीर्ण करने की प्रायिकता क्या है?
हल:
माना A और B क्रमशः पहले और दूसरे परीक्षण में उत्तीर्ण होने को दर्शाते हैं।
P(A) = 0.8, P(B) = 0.7
कम से कम एक परीक्षण में उत्तीर्ण होने की प्रायिकता
= 1 – P(A’ ∩ B’) = 0.95
⇒ P(A’ ∩ B’) = 1 – 0.95 = 0.05
परन्तु A’ ∩ B’ = (A ∪ B)’ (डी-मोर्गन नियम से)
∴ P(A’ ∩ B’) = P(A ∪ B)’ = 1 – P(A ∪ B) = 0.05
∴ P(A ∪ B) = 1 – 0.05 = 0.95
अब P(A ∪ B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(A ∩ B)
0.95 = 0.8 + 0.7 – P(A ∩ B)
P(A ∩ B) = 1.5 – 0.95 = 0.55
इस प्रकार दोनों परीक्षणों को उत्तीर्ण करने की प्रायिकता = 0.55.

प्रश्न 20.
एक विद्यार्थी के अंतिम परीक्षा के अंग्रेजी और हिन्दी दोनों विषयों को उत्तीर्ण करने की प्रायिकता 0.5 है और दोनों में से कोई भी विषय उत्तीर्ण न करने की प्रायिकता 0.1 है। यदि अंग्रेजी की परीक्षा उत्तीर्ण करने की प्रायिकता 0.75 हो तो हिन्दी की परीक्षा उत्तीर्ण करने की प्रायिकता क्या है?
हल:
माना E और H क्रमशः अंग्रेजी और हिन्दी में पास करने को दर्शाते हैं।
तब अंग्रेजी और हिन्दी दोनों परीक्षा में उत्तीर्ण होने की प्रायिकता
P(E ∩ H) = 0.5
दोनों में से कोई परीक्षा उत्तीर्ण न करने की प्रायिकता
= P(E’ ∩ H’) = 0.1
या P[(E ∪ H)’] = 1 – P(E ∪ H) = 0.1
⇒ P(E ∪ H) = 1 – 0.1 = 0.9
अंग्रेजी परीक्षा में उत्तीर्ण होने की प्रायिकता = P(E) = 0.75
अतः
P(E ∪ H) = 0.9, P(E) = 0.75, P(E ∩ H) = 0.5
P(E ∪ H) = P(E) + P(H) – P(E ∩ H)
0.9 = 0.75 + P(H) – 0.5
P(H) = 0.9 + 0.5 – 0.75
= 1.4 – 0.75 = 0.65
अतः हिन्दी परीक्षा में उत्तीर्ण होने की प्रायिकता = 0.65.

प्रश्न 21.
एक कक्षा के 60 विद्यार्थियों में से 30 ने एन.सी.सी. (NCC), 32 ने एन.एस.एस. (NSS) और 24 ने दोनों को चुना है। यदि इनमें से एक विद्यार्थी यादृच्छया चुना गया है तो प्रायिकता ज्ञात कीजिए कि
(i) विद्यार्थी ने एन.सी.सी. या एन.एस.एस. को चुना है।
(ii) विद्यार्थी ने न तो एन.सी.सी. और न ही एन.एस.एस. को चुना है।
(iii) विद्यार्थी ने एन.एस.एस. को चुना है किन्तु एन.सी.सी को नहीं चुना है।
हल:
माना A और B क्रमशः एन.सी.सी. और एन.एस.एस. चुनने की घटना को दर्शाते हैं।
विद्यार्थियों की कुल संख्या = 60
एन.सी.सी. चुनने वाले विद्यार्थियों की संख्या = 30
एन.सी.सी. चुनने की प्रायिकता P(A) = \(\frac{30}{60}=\frac{1}{2}\)
एन.एस.एस. चुनने वाले विद्यार्थियों की संख्या = 32
∴ एन.एस.एस. चुने जाने की प्रायिकता P(B) = \(\frac{32}{60}\)
एन.सी.सी. और एन.एस.एस. चुनने वालों की संख्या = 24
एन.सी.सी. और एन.एस.एस. चुनने की प्रायिकता = \(\frac{24}{60}\)
(i) एन.सी.सी. और एन.एस.एस. चुने जाने की प्रायिकता P(A ∪ B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(A ∩ B)
= \(\frac{30}{60}+\frac{32}{60}-\frac{24}{60}=\frac{38}{60}=\frac{19}{30}\).
(ii) एन.सी.सी. और एन.एस.एस. में से कोई भी विषय न चुने जाने की प्रायिकता
P(A’ ∩ B’) = P[(A ∪ B)’]
= 1 – P(A ∪ B)
= 1 – \(\frac{19}{30}=\frac{11}{30}\).
(iii) विद्यार्थी ने एन.एस.एस. को चुना है परन्तु एन.सी.सी. को नहीं
इसकी प्रायिकता = P(A’ ∩ B) = P(B) – P(A ∩ B)
= \(\frac{32}{60}-\frac{24}{60}=\frac{8}{60}=\frac{2}{15}\).

MP Board Class 11th Maths Solutions

MP Board Class 11th Business Studies Important Questions Chapter 11 International Business

International Business Important Questions

International Business Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which document is not necessary for getting license –
(a) IPC number
(b) Credit letter
(c) Registration cum membership certificate
(d) Bank account number.
Answer:
(b) Credit letter

Question 2.
Which document is not required for import –
(a) Shipping builty
(b) Shipping bill
(c) Certificate of origin
(d) Loading information.
Answer:
(a) Shipping builty

Question 3.
Which is not related to money refund policy –
(a) Refund of production expenses
(b) Refund of excise duty
(c) Refund of export duty
(d) Duty at loading port
Answer:
(d) Duty at loading port

Question 4.
Which is not a part of custom documentation process –
(a) Shipping bill
(b) Export license
(c) Insurance letter
(d) Proforma invoice.
Answer:
(d) Proforma invoice.

Question 5.
Which is not a part of export related documents –
(a) Commercial invoice
(b) Certificate of origin
(c) Entry bill
(d) Mate’s receipt
Answer:
(c) Entry bill

Question 6.
When goods are loaded on the ship, then the captain of the ship issues a receipt which is called –
(a) Shipping receipt
(b) Mate’s receipt
(c) Loading receipt
(d) Receipt of rent of bill.
Answer:
(b) Mate’s receipt

Question 7.
Which document is made by the exporter which contains details of the goods to be sent by ship like name of the sender, number of packages, shipping bill, destination port, name of ship, etc –
(a) Shipping bill
(b) Packaging list
(c) Mate’s receipt
(d) Bills of exchange.
Answer:
(c) Mate’s receipt

Question 8.
The document in which the bank gives guarantee to make the payment of exporter’s bill:
(a) Mortgage letter
(b) Credit letter
(c) Shipping builty
(d) Bills of exchange.
Answer:
(b) Credit letter

Question 9.
Which is not a member of World Bank group:
(a) International Bank of Development and Reconstruction
(b) Multiple Investment Guarantee Agency
(c) International Development Union
(d) International Monetary Fund.
Answer:
(d) International Monetary Fund.

Question 10.
TRIP is one of the WTO agreements that deals with –
(a) Agricultural trade
(b) Service trade
(c) Trade related investment measures
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(d) None of these.

Question 11.
In which of the following modes of entry, does the domestic manufacturer give the right to use intellectual property such as patent and trade mark to a manufacturer in a foreign country for a fee –
(a) Licensing
(b) Contract manufacturing
(c) Joint venture
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Licensing

Question 12.
Outsourcing a part of or entire production and concentrating on marketing operations in international business is known as –
(a) Licensing
(b) Franchising
(c) Contract manufacturing
(d) Joint venture.
Answer:
(c) Contract manufacturing

Question 13.
When two or more firms come together to create a new business entity that is legally separate and distinct from its parents it is known as –
(a) Contract manufacturing
(b) Franchising
(c) Joint ventures.
(d) Licensing.
Answer:
(c) Joint ventures.

Question 14.
Which of the following is not an advantage of exporting –
(a) Easier way to enter into international markets
(b) Comparatively lower risks
(c) Limited presence in foreign markets
(d) Less investment requirements.
Answer:
(c) Limited presence in foreign markets

Question 15.
Which one of the following modes of entry requires higher level of risks –
(a) Licensing
(b) Franchising
(c) Contract manufacturing
(d) Joint venture.
Answer:
(d) Joint venture.

Question 16.
Which one of the following modes of entry permits greatest degree of control over overseas operations –
(a) Licensing/franchising
(b) Wholly owned subsidiary
(c) Contract manufacturing
(d) Joint venture.
Answer:
(d) Joint venture.

Question 17.
Which one of the following modes of entry brings the firm closer to international markets –
(a) Licensing
(b) Franchising
(c) Contract manufacturing
(d) Joint venture.
Answer:
(d) Joint venture.

Question 18.
Which one of the following is not amongst India’s major export items –
(a) Textiles and garments
(b) Gems and jewellery
(c) Oil and petroleum products
(d) Basmati rice.
Answer:
(c) Oil and petroleum products

Question 19.
Which one of the following is not amongst India’s major import items –
(a) Ayurvedic medicines
(b) Oil and petroleum products
(c) Pearls and precious stones
(d) Machinery.
Answer:
(a) Ayurvedic medicines

Question 20.
Which one of the following is not amongst India’s major trading partners –
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Germany
(d) New Zealand.
Answer:
(d) New Zealand.

Question 21.
Which is related to World Bank –
(a) ICICI
(b) Ex – Im Bank
(c) IDA
(d) Asian Development Bank.
Answer:
(c) IDA

Question 22.
Which is not correct –
(a) India is not primary member of World Bank
(b) UNCTAD is organization of UNO
(c) UNCTAD Secretariat is at Geneva
(d) India became member of GATT in 1947.
Answer:
(a) India is not primary member of World Bank

Question 23.
GATT was implemented on –
(a) 30 October, 1947
(b) 15 March, 1947
(c) 26 April, 1945
(d) 12 May, 1947.
Answer:
(a) 30 October, 1947

Question 24.
GATT came to an end in the year –
(a) 1944
(b) 1997
(c) 1995
(d) 1985.
Answer:
(c) 1995

Question 25.
The scope of WTO as compared to GATT is –
(a) Wide
(b) Narrow
(c) Equal
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Wide

Question 26.
India became member of World Bank in the year –
(a) 1950
(b) 1948
(c) 1945
(d) 1949.
Answer:
(c) 1945

Question 27.
For membership of World Bank it is necessary to be the member of –
(a) Member of IMF
(b) Member of UNCTAD
(c) Member of WTO
(d) Member of UNO.
Answer:
(a) Member of IMF

Question 28.
In international trade CIF includes –
(a) Cost
(b) Cost and insurance
(c) Cost and rent
(d) Cost, rent and insurance.
Answer:
(d) Cost, rent and insurance.

Question 29.
Characteristics of EPZ –
(a) Established in special region
(b) Established by government
(c) Entry in good industrial units
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above.

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. The trade which is undertaken within two country is called as …………….
2. Goods sending by a country to other country is called as …………….
3. Goods purchased by a country from another country is called as …………….
4. The documents which is related to ownership is in International business is called as …………….
5. The World Bank is established in ……………. year.
6. The trade which exist in within the boundary of a country is called …………….
7. The head office of World Trade Center in …………….
8. The head office of I.M.F. is in …………….
9. The number of members in world trade organisation is …………….
10. Indent is system of importing of …………….
11. International invoice is prepared by …………….
12. Shipping receipt is ……………. document of bills of exchange.
13. GATT organisation converted in …………….
14. The world trade organisation held ……………. ministerial conference up to 2013.

Answer:

1. External trade
2. Export,
3. Import
4. Shipping receipt
5. 1945.
6. Internal trade
7. Geneva
8. Washington
9. 151
10. Indirect
11. Importer
12. Half
13. World Trade Organisation
14. 9

Question 3.
Write true or false:

1. Shipping receipt is contract.
2. Indent is sent to direct producer.
3. Captain gives shipping receipt to captain.
4. Indent is also called demand draft.
5. Export promotion means import is more then export.
6. Charter party contract is two types.
7. Mates receipt is used in export.
8. External trade give foreign exchange.
9. In external trade the payment is easy.
10. Nav Bhatak and charter party are different document.
11. For promoting export business India start devaluation of money in 1991.
12. Shipping receipt is issued by captain.
13. Indent send to producers.
14. The head office of World Trade Organisation is in Geneva.
15. Number of member in World Trade Organisation is 164.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. True
5. False
6. False
7. True
8. True
9. False
10. False
11. True
12. False
13. False
14. True
15. True.

Question 4.
Match the columns:

Answer:

1. (b)
2. (c)
3. (d)
4. (a)
5. (j)
6. (i)
7. (h)
8. (g)
9. (e)
10. (f).

Question 5.
Give answer in one word / sentence:

Question 1.
Trade between two countries.
Answer:
Foreign trade.

Question 2.
When World Bank was established?
Answer:
1945.

Question 3.
Sending of goods from one country to another country.
Answer:
Export trade.

Question 4.
Document related to ownership in foreign trade?
Answer:
Shipping builty.

Question 5.
Establishment of WTO?
Answer:
1995.

Question 6.
Office at port for collection of tax?
Answer:
Custom house.

Question 7.
Order for goods in foreign trade?
Answer:
Indent.

Question 8.
When one country purchases goods from other country then it is called?
Answer:
Import.

Question 9.
The document which contains information of the imported goods?
Answer:
Entry bill.

Question 10.
The document which contains incomplete details of the imported goods?
Answer:
Sight bill.

Question 11.
Number of copies made of shipping builty?
Answer:
4 (four).

Question 12.
When the whole ship is hired for the export then by which name it is called?
Answer:
Charter party.

Question 13.
Write other name of charter party?
Answer:
Travel or time charter.

Question 14.
Write different types of foreign trade?
Answer:
Import, export, entreport.

Question 15.
WTO stands for?
Answer:
World Trade Organization.

Question 16.
Objective of WTO?
Answer:
Implementation of new trade policy.

Question 17.
Headquarter of WTO is situated at?
Answer:
Geneva (Switzerland).

Question 18.
One function of WTO?
Answer:
Working for business liberalization.

Question 19.
Two MNC’s in India?
Answer:
LG, Samsung.

Question 20.
WTO members meeting is held after every year?
Answer:
2 year.

International Business Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is international trade?
Answer:
The exchange of goods and services for money’s worth among different countries is known as foreign trade.

Question 2.
Why there is need of international trade?
Answer:
Division of labour and specialization, depending of one country on other country for goods and services so the economies have now got working on global level leading to the need of international trade.

Question 3.
What is Dead Rent?
Answer:
The exporter for exporting goods hire the shipping company by means of con-tract, but it due to some reason, if the exporter is not able to send the goods, then also the shipping company get the claim of the transportation charges which is called as Dead Rent.

Question 4.
What is certificate of origin?
Answer:
Some importing countries provide tariff concessions or other exemptions to the goods coming from a particular country. If such benefits are available, the importer may ask the exporter to send a certificate of origin.

Question 5.
What is bill of entry?
Answer:
Bill of entry is a form filled by the importer for assessment of customs import duty. One appraiser examines the document carefully and gives the examination order.

Question 6.
What do you understand by shipping order?
Answer:
The forwarding agent arranges for obtaining order for loading the goods on the ship. Hie shipping order is an order to the captain of the ship directing him to accept and load the goods on the ship.

Question 7.
What is Mate’s Receipt?
Answer:
The shipping order, shipping bill, insurance policy, dock receipt, etc., are given to the captain of the ship. After verification, he orders that the goods may be loaded into the ship. He also issued a receipt to this effect. This is known as Mate’s Receipt.

Question 8.
What is Shipping bill?
Answer:
After entering into contract with the shipping company, the forwarding agent prepares a shipping bill. Three copies of this bill are prepared. These copies are of different colours. One copy is kept by the customs department and the remaining two copies are given to the exporters.

Question 9.
Write about the documents which are used in the import business?
Answer: Following are the documents used in the import business:

1. Import license
2. Delivery of indent
3. Foreign B/E
4. Delivery of entry bill
5. Dock challan
6. Dock warranty
7. Order
8. Railway/Motor Receipt.

Question 10.
How many types of Mate’s Receipt are there? Why it is received?
Answer:
There are two types of Mate’s Receipt:

1. Clean Mate’s Receipt
2. Foul Mate’s Receipt.

It is received as the consent of the captain of the ship or his assistant.

Question 11.
What are bonded warehouses?
Answer:
If the import duty is not paid on the imported goods they are kept in the special warehouses and they are called as ‘bonded warehouses’.

Question 12.
Write the meaning of foreign trade?
Answer:
Legal trade between two or more countries is called as foreign trade.

Question 13.
What is Indent?
Answer:
When any exporter send order for the purchaser of goods then this demand letter is called as indent.

Question 14.
Explain Charter Party?
Answer:
The exporter can hire the whole vessel or a large part of the ship for shipping the goods to the importer. The agreement made by the hirer with the ship owner for such an arrangement is known as ‘Charter Party’.

Question 15.
What is dock challan?
Answer:
Like railway platform, there is a platform at ports which is called dock and where the goods are dumped before loading them on the ship. For this purpose, a dock challan is i filled up in duplicate by the forwarding agent and submitted to the dock officer enclosing one copy of shipping order and one copy of shipping bill.

Question 16.
Name the act passed by the government to check the quality of goods to be exported?
Answer:
Export Quality Control and Inspection Act, 1963.

Question 17.
Under which act the payment of the excise duty is done on the goods used for the reconstruction?
Answer:
As per central excise duty.

Question 18.
What is Bitty?
Answer:
After delivering the good the receipt issued by the officer certifying it called as Bilty.

Question 19.
Name the document on the basis of which the custom office give permission of export?
Answer:
Shipping bill.

Question 20.
How many copies of shipping bill is submitted to the custom officer?
Answer:
Five copies.

Question 21.
What is Air – way bill?
Answer:
When the goods are to be sent by the air route then the shipping company is required to sent the goods upto the required destination is called as Air – way bill.

Question 22.
From where the exporters/importers get the Exam code?
Answer:
Ministry of Foreign Trade.

Question 23.
For ensuring die quality control in the export, what step has been taken by the government?
Answer:
Establishment of Export Quality Control and Inspection Act, 1963.

International Business Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
List the items which are exported by the India?
Answer:
The items which are exported by the India are:

1. Cloths and ready made clothes
2. Pearls and ornaments
3. Engineering products and chemical items
4. Agricultural and its equipment’s.

India share 0 – 8% of world export.

Question 2.
List the country to which India trade?
Answer:
The countries which India trade are: America, England, Belgium, Germany, Japan, Switzerland, Hong Kong, UAE, China, Singapore, Malaysia.

Question 3.
Write three profits of international trade?
Answer:
Profits from international trade is as under:

1. Indifferent distribution of natural resources:
Each and every country is not gifted by the nutural resources. This indifference is solved by having trading with different nations.

2. Division of labour and specialization:
Due to difference in availability of natural resources, use of these also differs from place to place. Each and every country produces those goods which have favourable condition in their country through the labour and its specialization.

3. Different in currency:
Due to difference in currency, it is only possible through the foreign or international trade.

Question 4.
Write limitation of manufacturing through the contract
Answer:
Followings are the limitations of manufacturing through the contract:

1. Local firms do not produce standard goods.
2. Other country local manufacturers do not have any control on production process.

Question 5.
Differentiate between the International trade and international business?
Answer:

1. International trade have narrow scope and international business have wide scope.
2. International trade include export import of goods and services while in international business along with trading other factors are also included.

Question 6.
Why it is called that licensing is a simple path to global expansion? Clarify.
Answer:
Licensing is a simple path to global expansion because under it there is no need of any firm or businessmen to invest any capital also they are not required to take risk. By means of licensing a firm gives right to other firm either in country or abroad to work and against that they get the royalty from it. If the goods are not produced as per order then the license can be cancelled. But under this the businessmen need not required to suffer any loss.

Question 7.
Why country do trade ? Explain.
Answer:
Because of following reason country do business:

1. Comparative cost principle – As per this principle every country should try to produce that commodity which is skilled because of this specialization production will increase and it can exchange it with other goods and services.
2. Increase in national income – Through the trading people get profit and also profit is available for the country also.
3. Profit of geographical location – Each and every country have own internal and external geographical location.

Question 8.
Differentiate between contract manufacturing to foreign countries and full ownership production subsidiary company.
Answer:

1. Contract manufacturing:
   Under it contract is given to other country producer for production.
2. Full ownership production subsidiary company:
   Under it goods and services are produced under self supervision by the company.

Question 9.
What are the reasons of trade between two countries?
Answer:
The reasons of trade between two countries are:

1. Export of die extra production.
2. Labour division and supervision.
3. Increase in the living standard
4. Facility of trade education.

Question 10.
Differentiate between licensing and franchising?
Answer:
Licensing:
Related to purchase and sale of goods and it is flexible to operate.

Franchising:
Related to purchase and sale of services and it is complicated to operate.

Question 11.
Write limitations of contract manufacturing?
Answer:
Followings are the limitations of contract manufacturing:

1. Local firms do not produce goods as per international standards.
2. No control on production process.
3. Manufacturing firm can not sell the commodity produced as per their will.

Question 12.
Differentiate between contract manufacturing and setting up wholly owned production subsidiary abroad?
Answer:
Contract manufacturing refers to a type of international business where a firm enters into a contract with one or a few local manufacturers in foreign countries to get certain components or goods produced as per its specifications while in a wholly owned subsidiary the parent company acquires full control over the foreign company by making 100% investment in its equity capital.

Question 13.
Explain the procedure of getting payment under export?
Answer:
Importer writes a bill on exporter in order to receive the payment. Bills of exchange is an order of payment of certain amount to the certain person. It is of two types:

1. Sight bill
2. Time bill.

Question 14.
What is shipping bill?
Answer:
The bill which is prepared after entering into contract with the shipping company, the forwarding agent prepare it which is called as shipping bill. It is prepared in 3 copies of different colour.

Question 15.
What is World Bank? Write its functions.
Answer:
The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), commonly known as World Bank, emerged from the Bretton Woods Conference. The main objectives of World Bank were to aid the task of reconstruction of the war-affected economies of Europe and assist in the development of the underdeveloped nations of the world. At present, the World Bank is a group of five international organizations responsible for providing finance to different countries. Its headquarters is situated at Washington DC.

World Bank is entrusted with the task of economic growth and widening the scope of international trade. During its initial years of inception, it placed more emphasis on developing infrastructure facilities like energy, transportation and others but the results were not found to be very satisfactory due to poor administrative structure, lack of institutional frame work and non – availability of skilled labour in under developed countries.

World Bank also extends assistance to different countries for raising cash crops so that their incomes rise and they may export the same for earning foreign exchange. The bank has also been providing resources for education, sanitation, health care and small scale enterprises.

Question 16.
Why it is necessary to get registered in Export Promotion Council?
Answer:
It is necessary to get registered in Export Promotion Council in order to get the profit which made available by the government.

Question 17.
What is Export – Import code number?
Answer:
Export – Import code number is that number which every export firm should have in order to deal in foreign trade which is generally issued by DGFT or regional export import licensing authority.

Question 18.
Write the names of main organization related to World Bank.
Answer:
The names of main organization related to World Bank are:

1. IBRD
2. IFC
3. EDA
4. MIGA
5. ICSID.

Question 19.
What is letter of credit? Why this document is necessary for the exporter?
Answer:
Letter of credit is a guarantee letter issued by the bank in which the payment to the exporter bank guarantee is given. It is required by the exporter because:

1. It is safe method of payment in foreign trade.
2. Exporters do not have to wait for the payment.

Question 20.
Why there was need of making WTO?
Answer:
After first and second world war almost all the economics got affected due to large destruction of.life and assets. Due to faulty currency system of different economies also led to adverse effect on the international trading system. Under these conditions almost 40 countries under the chairmanship of J.M. Keynes made 3 international organizations.

1. (1) IMF
2. IBRD
3. ITO.

Question 21.
Discuss the formalities to be fulfilled in getting the export license.
Answer:
Following formalities are to be performed in getting the export license:

1. Getting account opened and receiving of account number in any bank authorized by RBI.
2. Getting license from DGFT and receiving IEC code.
3. Submission of documents to export council.
4. Registration with ECGL for non-receipt of payment risks.
5. For get IEC number applying to the DGFT.

Question 22.
Write different steps of import?
Answer:
Different steps of import are as under:

1. Trade enquiry
2. Procurement of import license
3. Obtaining foreign exchange or currency
4. Placing order or indent
5. Acknowledgement of indent
6. Dispatching letter of credit
7. Obtaining shipping documents
8. Appointment of clearing agent
9. Endorsement of shipping bill
10. Payment of custom duty
11. Payment of dock charges
12. Taking delivery of goods.

Question 23.
Write different steps of export?
Answer:
The steps of export are:

1. Receipt of letter of enquiry
2. Sending quotation
3. Receipt of order/indent
4. Acknowledgement of indent
5. Obtaining export license
6. Collection of goods
7. Packing of goods
8. Appointment of forwarding agent
9. Preparation of invoice
10. Information to importer
11. Payment.

Question 24.
Differentiate between the following:

1. Sight and usance drafts
2. Bill of lading and airway bill
3. Pre – shipment and post – shipment finance.

Answer:

1. Sight and usance drafts:
In the case of sight draft, the drawer instructs the bank to handover the relevant documents to die importer against payment But in the case of usance draft, the drawer instructs the bank to handover the relevant documents to the importer against acceptance of the bill of exchange.

2. Bill of lading and airway bill:
Bill of lading is a document prepared and signed by the master of the ship acknowledging the receipt of goods on board. It contains terms and conditions on which the goods are to be taken to the port of destination. On the other hand, Airway Bill is a document wherein an airline/shipping company gives its official receipt of the goods on board its aircraft and at the same time gives an undertaking to carry them to the port of destination.

3. Pre – shipment and post – shipment finance:
Pre – shipment finance is provided to an exporter for financing the purchase, processing, manufacturing or packaging of goods for export purpose while the post-shipment finance is provided to the exporter from the date of extending the credit after the shipment of goods to the export country.

Question 25.
What is pre – shipment finance?
Answer:
Pre – shipment finance is provided to an exporter for financing the purchase, processing, manufacturing or packing of goods for export purpose.

Question 26.
Why it is important for a export firm to get pre – shipment inspection?
Answer:
In order ensure that only quality goods should be export the country to the other country.

Question 27.
Discuss the procedure related to excise clearance of goods?
Answer:
The exporter has to apply to the concerned Excise Commissioner in the region with an invoice because according to the Central Excise Tariff Act, excise duty is payable on the materials used in manufacturing goods. If the Excise Commissioner is satisfied, he may issue the excise clearance.

Question 28.
Explain briefly the process of customs clearance of export goods.
Answer:
The goods must be cleared from the customs before these can be loaded on the ship. For obtaining customs clearance, the exporter prepares the shipping bill which contains particulars of the goods being exported, the name of the vessel, the port at which goods are to be discharged, country of final destination, exporter’s name and address, etc. Five copies of the shipping bill along with the following documents are submitted to the Customs . Appraiser at the Customs House for clearance:

1. Export Contract or Export Order
2. Letter of Credit
3. Commercial Invoice,
4. Certificate of Origin
5. Certificate of Inspection, where necessary
6. Marine Insurance Policy.

After submission of these documents the superintendent of the concerned port trust is approached for carting order and after obtaining it, the Cargo is physically moved into the port area and stored in shed.

Question 29.
What is Multinational Investment Guarantee Agency?
Answer:
It is established in 1988 in order to help in functions of World Bank and I. L. C.

Question 30.
Write the important agreements of WTO?
Answer:
The WTO officially commenced on 1 January, 1995 under the Marrakesh Agreement signed by 123 nations on 15 April, 1994. Following agreement were made:

1. ATC – This was made on 1 January, 2005 to regulate the clothing trade.
2. AA – It was made to have proper trading in the agricultural sector.
3. GATS – It is made to regulate the services which cannot seen but only can be felt.

Question 31.
What is bill of lading? How does it differ from bill of entry?
Answer: Bill of lading is issued by the shipping company after the receipt of freight, it serves as an evidence that the shipping company has accepted the goods for carrying to the designated destination. In case the goods are being sent by air, this document is referred to as airway bill.

On the other hand “Bill of entry” is filled by the importer for assessment of customs import duty. One appraiser examines the document carefully and gives the examination order. The importer procures the said document prepared by the appraiser and pays the duty, if any. After payment of the import duty, the bill of entry has to be presented to the dock superintendent.

International Business Long Answer Type Questions – I

Question 1.
Explain the meaning of the following documents used in connection with import transactions:

1. Trade enquiry
2. Import licence
3. Shipment of advice
4. Import general manifest

Answer:

1. Trade enquiry:
A trade enquiry is a written request by an importing firm to the exporter for supply of information regarding the price and various terms and conditions on which the letter is ready to exports goods.

2. Import licence:
Licence which permits the import of goods that cannot be im-ported freely is called an import licence. The importer needs to consult the Export – Import (EX – IM) policy in force to know whether the goods that he or she wants to import are subject to import licensing. In case goods can be imported only against the licence, the importer needs to procure an import licence.

3. Shipment of advice:
Shipment advice contains information about the shipment of goods. The information provided in the shipment advice includes details such as invoice number, bill of lading/airways bill number and date, name of the vessel with date, the port of export, description of goods and quantity, and the date of sailing of vessel. The overseas supplier dispatches the shipment advice to the importer after loading the goods on the vessel.

4. Import general manifest:
Import general manifest is a document that contains the details of the imported goods. It is a document on the basis of which unloading of cargo takes place. It is provided by the person in charge of the carrier (ship or airway) to the officer in charge at the dock.

Question 2.
Write short notes on the following:

1. UNCTAD
2. MIGA
3. World Bank
4. ITPO
5. IMF.

Answer:
1. UNCTAD:
The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) was established in 1964 as a permanent intergovernmental body. It is the principal organ of the United Nations General Assembly dealing with trade, investment and development issues.

The organization’s goals are to “maximize the trade, investment and development opportunities of and developing countries and assist them in their efforts to integrate into the world economy on an equitable basis”. UNCTAD was created to address the concerns of developing countries over the international market, multinational corporations, and the disparity between developed nations and developing nations.

The primary objective of the UNCTAD is to formulate policies relating to all aspects of development including trade, aid, transport, finance and technology. The conference ordinarily meets once in four years. UNCTAD has 194 member states and has its permanent secretariat in Geneva.

2. MIGA:
The Multinational Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA) was established in April, 1988 to supplement the functions of the World Bank and IfC with the fol-lowing objectives:

1. To encourage flow of direct foreign investment into the less developed member countries.
2. To provide insurance cover to investors against political risks.
3. To provide guarantee against non – commercial risks (like currency transfer risk, war and civil disturbances and breach of contract).
4. To insure new investments, expansion of existing investments, privatisation and financial restructuring.
5. To provide promotional and advisory services.
6. To establish credibility.

3. World Bank:
The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), commonly known as World Bank, emerged from the Bretton Woods Conference. The main objectives of World Bank were to aid the task of reconstruction of the war – affected economies of Europe and assist in the development of the underdeveloped nations of the world. At present, the World Bank is a group of five international organizations responsible for providing finance to different countries. Its headquarter is situated at Washington DC.

World Bank is entrusted with the task of economic growth and widening the scope of international trade. During its initial years of inception, it placed more emphasis on developing infrastructure facilities like energy, transportation and others but the results were not. found to be very satisfactory due to poor administrative structure, lack of institutional frame¬work and non-availability of skilled labour in under developed countries.

4. TPO:
Indian Trade Promotion Organization (ITPO) was set up on 1st January, 1992 under the Companies Act. 1956 by the Ministry of Commerce, Government of India. Its headquarter is at New Delhi. ITPO was formed by merging the two erstwhile agencies viz Trade Development Authority and Trade Fair Authority of India. ITPO is a service organization and maintains regular and close interaction with trade, industry and government.

It serves the industry by organizing trade fairs and exhibitions within the country as well as abroad. It helps export firms in participating in international trade fairs and exhibitions, developing exports of new items and providing support and updated commercial business information. ITPO has five regional offices at Mumbai, Bengaluru, Kolkata, Kanpur and Chennai and four international offices at Germany, Japan, UAE and USA.

5. IMF:
International Monetary Fund (IMF) came into existence in 1945 and has its headquarters located in Washington DC. In 2005 it had 191 countries as its members. The major idea underlying the setting up of the IMF is to evolve an orderly international monetary system to facilitate the system of international payments and adjustments in exchange rates among national currencies.

Some of the important functions of IMF include:

1. Acting as a short – term credit institution.
2. Providing machinery for the orderly adjustment of exchange rates.
3. Acting as a reservoir of the currencies of all the member countries from which a borrower nation can borrow the currency of other nations.
4. Acting as a lending institution of foreign currency and current transaction.
5. Determining the value of a country’s currency and altering it, if needed, so as to bring about an orderly adjustment of exchange rates of member countries.
6. Providing machinery for international consultations.

Question 3.
Write advantages of foreign trade?
Answer:
Advantages of Foreign Trade:

1. Advantages of geographical facilities:
Every country has different natural and geographical facilities. Their production, minerals, agriculture and industries are different. Foreign trade helps to obtain goods which are not produced.

2. Specialization and efficiency in production:
Foreign trade enables a country to produce only such goods which can be most efficiently and economically produced. As a result the cost of production will be reduced.

3. Availability of goods not produced in the country:
Foreign trade enables a country to enjoy the possession of goods which it is not producing.

4. Ability to face natural calamities:
The production in a country is affected due to draught, earthquake, flood, epidemic, war and such other natural calamities. Such calamities are faced by importing goods from other countries.

5. Advantage to agricultural and industrial countries:
Agricultural countries can easily exchange their raw materials with finished goods or machinery from other countries.

Question 4.
Explain the nature of Indian foreign trade. Which goods are traded by India with the foreign countries?
Answer:
India had very small percentage of the total foreign trade. Due to fast development in the Indian economy since few years there had been tremendous growth in the foreign trade. As a result the share of foreign trade in GDP in 1990 – 91 was 14-6% which rised to 24.1% in 2003 – 04. The level of export in 1950 – 51 was Rs. 606 crore which rosed to Rs. 293367 in 2003 – 04. Import has also raised from Rs. 608 crore (1950 – 51) to Rs. 359108 in 2003 – 04. Now GDP is 20% of the foreign trade which include the trade of cloth, ornaments, chemical and agricultural products.

Question 5.
Explain:

1. IDA
2. IFC
3. MIGA
4. IMF.

Answer:
1. IDA:
IDA is agency working under the World Bank. It provides finance on easy terms, help in poverty alleviation, provides help in economic development programmes and also extend macro economic management services.

2. IFC:
It was established in July 1956 for providing the finance to the private sector. It is also separate organization related to World Bank having its separate existence with legal entity, fund and functions. All the member of World Bank can also be the member of IFC.

3. MIGA:
The Multinational Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA) was established in April, 1988 to supplement the functions of the World Bank and IfC with the following objectives:

1. To encourage flow of direct foreign investment into the less developed member countries.
2. To provide insurance cover to investors against political risks.
3. To provide guarantee against non – commercial risks (like currency transfer risk, war and civil disturbances and breach of contract).
4. To insure new investments, expansion of existing investments, privatisation and
   financial restructuring.
5. To provide promotional and advisory services.
6. To establish credibility.

4. IMF:
International Monetary Fund (IMF) came into existence in 1945 and has its headquarters located in Washington DC. In 2005 it had 191 countries as its members. The major idea underlying the setting up of the IMF is to evolve an orderly international monetary system to facilitate the system of international payments and adjustments in exchange rates among national currencies.

Question 6.
Write a detailed note on features, structure, objectives and functioning of WTO?
Answer:
GATT was transformed into World Trade Organisation (WTO) with effect from 1st January 1995. The headquarter of WTO is situated at Geneva, Switzerland.

Features of WTO:

1. WTO is a permanent organisation created by an international treaty ratified by the governments and legislatures of member states.
2. It governs trade not only in goods,”but also in services and intellectual property rights.
3. It is a‘member driven rule based organisation in the sense that all the decisions are taken by the member governments on the basis of a general consensus.
4. It is the principal international body concerned with solving trade problems between countries and providing a forum for multilateral trade negotiations.
5. It has a global status similar to that of the IMF and the World Bank.
6. As on 11th December 2005, there were 149 members in WTO.

Structure of WTO:

1. WTO comprises of The Ministerial Conference, which is composed of international trade ministers from all member countries and is responsible for setting the strategic direction of the organization and making all final decisions on agreements under its wings. The Ministerial Conference meets atleast once every two years.

2. The General Council is composed of senior representatives of all members responsible for overseeing the day – to – day business and management of the WTO.

3. The Trade Policy Review Body is also composed of all the WTO’members. It periodically reviews the trade policies and practices of all member states.

4. The Dispute Settlement Body is also composed of all the WTO members and over – sees the implementation and effectiveness of the dispute resolution process for all WTO agreements.

5. The Councils on Trade in Goods and Trade in Services operate under the policy of the General Council and are members. They provide a mechanism to oversee composed the details of all of the general and specific agreements on trade in goods and services.

Major Objectives of WTO:

1. To ensure reduction of tariffs and other trade barriers imposed by different countries.
2. To engage in such activities which improve the standards of living, create employment, increase income and effective demand and facilitate higher production and trade.
3. To facilitate the optimal use of the world’s resources for sustainable development.
4. To promote an integrated, more viable and durable trading system.

Functions of WTO:

1. Promoting an environment that is encouraging to its member countries to come forward to WTO in mitigating their grievances.
2. Laying down a commonly accepted code of conduct with a view to reducing trade barriers including tariffs and eliminating discriminations in international trade relations.
3. Acting as a dispute settlement body.
4. Ensuring that all the rules and regulations prescribed in the Act are duly followed by the member countries for the settlement of their disputes.

Question 7.
Discuss the principal documents used in exporting?
Answer:
Following are the principal documents used in exporting:

1. Documents Related to Goods:

(a) Export Invoice:
Export invoice is a sellers’ bill for merchandise and contains information about goods such as quantity, total value, number of packages, marks on packing, port of destination, name of ship, bill of lading number, terms of deli very and payments, etc.

(b) Packing List:
A packing list is a statement of the number of cases or packs and the details of the goods contained in these packs. It gives details of the nature of goods, which are being exported and the form in which these are being sent.

(c) Certificate of Origin:
This is a certificate which specifies the country in which the goods are being produced which entitles the importer to claim tariff concessions or other exemptions on goods originating from certain pre – specified countries.

(d) Certificate of Inspection:
For ensuring quality, the government has made it compulsory for certain products to be inspected by some authorised agency like Export Inspection Council of India (EICI) which issues the certificate that the consignment has been inspected as required under the Export (Quality Control and Inspection) Act 1963, and satisfies the conditions relating to quality control and inspection as applicable to it, and is export worthy.

2. Documents Related to Shipment:

(a) Mate’s Receipt:
The mate’s receipt indicates the name of the vessel, berth, date of shipment, description of packages, marks and numbers, condition of the cargo at the time of receipt on board the ship, etc. and is given by the commanding officer of the ship to the exporter after the cargo is loaded on the ship.

(b) Shipping Bill:
The shipping bill contains particulars of the goods being exported, the name of the vessel, the port at which goods are to be discharged, country of final destination, exporter’s name and address, etc. It is the main document on the basis of which customs office grants permission for the export.

(c) Bill of Lading/Airway Bill:
Bill of lading is issued by the shipping company after receipt of the freight, which serves as an evidence that the shipping company has accepted the goods for carrying to the designated destination. In the case the goods are being sent by air, this document is referred to as airway bill.

(d) Marine Insurance Policy:
It is a certificate of insurance contract whereby the insurance company agrees in consideration of a payment called premium to indemnify the insured against loss incurred by the latter in respect of goods exposed to pennies of the sea.

3. Documents Related to Payment:

(a) Letter of Credit:
A letter of credit is a guarantee issued by the importer’s bank that it will honour up to a certain amount the payment of export bills to the bank of the exporter letter of credit is the most appropriate and secure method of payment adopted to settle international transactions.

(b) Bill of Exchange:
Bill of exchange is a written instrument drawn by exporter on the importer asking the tatter to pay a certain amount to a certain person or the bearer of the bill of exchange. The documents giving title to the export consignment are passed on to the importer only when the importer accepts die order contained in die bill of exchange.

(c) Bank Certificate of Payment:
Bank certificate of payment is a certificate that the necessary documents relating to the particular export consignment has been presented to the importer for payment and the payment has been received in accordance with the exchange control regulations.

Question 8.
Explain the procedure of Export trade?
Answer:
Procedure of Export Trade:
The procedure of export trade commences with the receipt of inquiry letter following procedure is followed in export trade:

1. Receipt of letter of inquiry:
The export receives a letter of inquiry from the importer inquiring about die availability of goods, quantity and of goods, price, delivery time, other terms and conditions, etc.

2. Sending quotation:
In response to the inquiry letter the export sends a letter of quotation containing all details inquiry about the goods and other terms and conditions.

3. Receipt of order / indent:
The exporter either receives order directly from the importer or receives an indent through indent house agent. The order / indent is received in response to the quotation letter sent by the exporter.

4. Acknowledgement of indent:
The exporter acknowledges the receipt of indent which enables the importer to know that the procedure of export is going to start.

5. Obtaining export licence:
The next step is to obtain export licence from the authority concerned. For instance, if the exporter belong to India, he would receive permission from the controller of export, Ministry of Finance Government of India. He will have to submit an application in a prescribed form along with requisite fee mentioning the type, quality and quantity of goods, name of importing country, etc. The export licence is valid for three months which is extendable for a period of 1 month more.

6. Collection of goods:
As per the indent, the exporter starts collecting the goods. If the goods are not available in sufficient quantity in his inventory, he arranges the goods from the various suppliers of his country. Emphasis is levied on quality and quantity of goods as per the indent.

7. Packing of goods:
Goods are packed according to the instructions maintained in the indent or as per the prevalent methods. The name of sender and receiver is written along with the precautions. The trade symbol is to be compulsorily printed on the packed goods in order to facilitate easy identification of goods and their proper arrangement on the ships by the shipping personnels.

8. Appointment of forwarding agent:
The job of sending goods is performed by the forwarding agent on behalf of the exporter. He has to perform the following tasks:

• Accepting goods from trader.
• Obtain permit from custom officials.
• Arrangement of ship.
• Obtain shipping order.
• Obtain shipping bill.
• Payment of export duty.
• Obtain dock challan.
• Loading goods on ship.
• Obtain mates receipt.
• Insurance of goods.
• Obtaining certificate of origin and consular invoice.

9. Preparation of invoice:
After receiving the various documents and expenditure details, the exporter prepare invoice of the goods. It is prepared in triplicate. It is most important document and base of all other expenses and final payment

10. Information to importer:
The exporter inform is the importer regarding sending of goods. It is informed in two ways:

• Through a letter known as letter of advice other documents are also sent.
• The invoice is sent along with the letter of advice through post and other documents are sent through the bank of exporter to the bank of importer.

11. Payment:
If the documents are sent through bank, the payment is received through bank itself else the payment is done according to other terms and conditions mentioned in the indent.

Question 9.
Write the difficulties which comes in path of foreign trade?
Answer:
Difficulties of Foreign Trade:

1. Difficulties relating to language:
Language of every country is different, therefore it is difficult for businessmen of various countries to understand each other.

2. Distance:
Due to long distance between the countries goods take long time to reach from one country to another and payment for the goods may also be delayed.

3. Difficulties of payment:
Each country businessman wants to get payment of goods in the currency of his own country. Thus, there are lot of difficulties in making payments.

4. Difficulty to get right type of goods:
It is often difficult to get the right type of goods because of the absence of personal contact and inspection.

5. Difficulty of sea – perils:
There are various hazards in sea routes. The cyclone or sea winds overturn the ships, which may lead to the loss of ship and goods both.

6. Local and foreign duties:
Many local and foreign duties are imposed on foreign goods. It increases the cost of goods. Therefore, the markets are spoiled.

Question 10.
Differentiate between Inland trade and Foreign trade?
Answer:
Differences between Inland and Foreign trade:

International Business Long Answer Type Questions – II

Question 1.
Your firm is planning to import textile machinery from Canada. Describe the procedure involved in importing?
Answer:
Following is the procedure involved in importing textile machinery from Canada:

1. Trade Enquiry:
The importing firm approaches the textile machinery export firms in Canada with the help of trade enquiry they collecting information about their export prices and terms of exports. After receiving a trade enquiry, the exporter will prepare a quotation called proforma invoice and send it to our firm.

2. Procurement of Import Licence:
We will consult the Export Import (EXIM) policy in force to know whether the textile machinery imports are subject to import licensing. In case, it can be imported only against the licence, we will procure an import licence.

3. Obtaining Foreign Exchange:
As payment for imports will be made in Canadian dollars, our firm will have to make an application to a bank authorised by RBI to issue foreign exchange.

4. Placing Order or Indent:
After obtaining the import licence, our firm will place an import order or indent with the exporter for supply of the specified products containing information about the price, quantity, grade and quality of machinery and the instructions relating to packing, shipping, ports of shipment and destination, delivery schedule, insurance and mode of payment.

5. Obtaining Letter of Credit:
If the payment terms agreed between us and the overseas supplier then our firm should obtain the letter of credit from its bank and forward it to the overseas supplier.

6. Arranging for Finance:
Our firm would make arrangements in advance to pay to the exporter on arrival of goods at the port.

7. Receipt of Shipment Advice:
After loading the ordered textile machinery on the vessel, the overseas supplier will dispatch the shipment advice to our firm which contains information about the shipment of goods.

8. Retirement of Import Documents:
After shipping the machinery, the overseas supplier will prepare a set of necessary documents including bill of exchange, commercial invoice, bill of lading/airway bill, packing list, certificate of origin, marine insurance policy, etc. and will hand it over to his or her banker for their onward transmission and negotiation to our firm.

The acceptance of bill of exchange for the purpose of getting delivery of the documents is known as retirement of import documents after which the bank handover the import documents to the importer.

9. Arrival of Goods:
Goods will be shipped by the overseas supplier as per the contract. The officer in charge at the dock will provide the document called import general manifest on the basis of which unloading of cargo will take place.

10. Customs Clearance and Release of Goods:
Textile machinery imported into India will have to pass through customs clearance. Firstly, our firm will have to obtain a delivery order, pay dock dues and obtain port trust dues receipt and then fill in a form ‘bill of entry’ for assessment of customs import duty. After payment of the import duty, the bill of entry has to be presented to the dock superintendent.

The examiner will give his report on the bill of entry and we will present the bill of entry to the port authority who will issue the release order after receiving necessary charges.

Question 2.
List and explain various incentives and schemes that the government has evolved for promoting the country’s export.
Answer:
Major export promotion measures are as follows:

1. Duty Drawback Scheme:
Excise and customs duties paid on export goods are refunded to exporters on production of proof of exports of these goods to the concerned authorities.

2. Export Manufacturing Under Bond Scheme:
This facility entitles firms to produce goods without payment of excise and other duties if the firms give an undertaking (i.e. bond) that they are manufacturing goods for export purposes and will export such products on then production.

3. Exemption from Payment of Sales Taxes and Income Tax Goods Meant for Export Purposes are not Subject to Sales Tax: Exemption from income tax is available only to 100% Export Oriented Units (100% EOUs) and units set-up in Export Processing Zones (EPZs)/Special Economic Zones (SEZs) for select years.

4. Advance Licence Scheme:
It is a scheme under which an exporter is allowed to duty free supply of domestic as well as imported inputs required for the manufacture of export goods.

5. Export Promotion Capital Goods Scheme (EPCGS):
The main objective of this scheme is to encourage the import of capital goods for export production. This scheme allows export firms to import capital goods at very low rates of customs duties subject to actual user condition and fulfilment of specified export obligations.

6. Scheme of Recognising Export Finns as Export House, Trading House and Superstar Trading House:
The government grants the status of export house, trading house, star trading house to select export finns based on achieving a prescribed average export of performance in past select years and assistance is given to them in marketing their products globally.

Question 3.
What is international trade? How it is different from internal trade?
Or,
What is international business? How is it different from domestic business?
Answer:
Manufacturing and trade beyond the boundaries of one’s own country is known as international business. International business is defined as those business activities that take place across the national frontiers. It involves not only the international movements of goods and services, but also of capital, personnel, technology and intellectual property like patents, trademarks, and copyrights.

Differences between Domestic and International businesses:

1. Nationality of Buyers and Sellers:
In the case of domestic business, both the buyers and sellers are from the same country but in international business buyers and sellers come from different countries and their languages, attitudes, social customs and business goals and practices are not identical as in case of domestic business. This makes relatively more difficult for them to interact with one another and finalize business transactions.

2. Nationality of Other Stakeholders:
The other stakeholders such as employees, suppliers, shareholders/partners and general public associated with firms doing international business have different nationalities while in the case of domestic business all such factors belong to one country. Therefore, decision making in international business becomes much more complex due to wider set of values and aspirations of the stakeholders belonging to different nations.

3. Mobility of Factors of Production:
The degree of mobility of factors like labour and capital is generally less between countries than within a country due to legal restrictions and variations in socio – cultural environments, geographic influences and economic conditions.

4. Customer Heterogeneity:
Across markets since buyers in international markets hail from different countries, they differ in their socio -cultural background. Differences in their tastes, fashions, languages, beliefs and customs, attitudes and product preferences cause variations in not only’their demand for different products and services, but also in variations in their communication patterns and purchase behaviors. Such variations greatly complicate the task of designing products and evolving strategies appropriate of customers in different countries.

5. Differences in Business Systems and Practices:
The differences in business systems and practices are considerably higher among countries than within a country as countries differ from one another in terms of their socio – economic development, availability, cost and efficiency of economic infrastructure and market support services, etc. which make it necessary for firms interested in international business to adapt their production, finance, human resource and marketing plans as per the conditions prevailing in the international markets.

Question 4.
Differentiate between internal trade and foreign trade.
Answer:
Differences between Inland and Foreign trade:

Question 5.
How entry in foreign trade for export is more beneficial than the establishment of full owned and controlled companies in the foreign countries?
Or,
Write advantages of foreign trade.
Answer:
Advantages of Foreign Trade:

1. Advantages of geographical facilities:
Every country has different natural and geographical facilities. Their production, minerals, agriculture and industries are different. Foreign trade helps to obtain goods which are not produced.

2. Specialization and efficiency in production:
Foreign trade enables a country to produce only such goods which can be most efficiently and economically produced. As a result the cost of production will be reduced.

3. Availability of goods not produced in the country:
Foreign trade enables a country to enjoy the possession of goods which it is not producing.

4. Ability to face natural calamities:
The production in a country is affected due to draught, earthquake, flood, epidemic, war and such other natural calamities. Such calamities are faced by importing goods from other countries.

5. Advantage to agricultural and industrial countries:
Agricultural countries can easily exchange their raw materials with finished goods or machinery from other countries.

Question 6.
Discuss the elements for entry in foreign trade?
Answer:
Following elements are required for entry in the foreign trade:

1. Import and Export:
The process of purchasing goods from the foreign countries is called as import and the process of sending or selling goods to foreign countries is called as export

Profits:

• It is very simple method which can be handled singly, jointly without opening any unit in foreign countries.
• No much investment is required and also time.
• Risk in this is also zero.

Limitations:

• Goods are purchased and sold physically. Only packaging, transport and insurance expenditure is incurred.
• When in any country import is restricted then export cannot be done. Then only in such conditional unit is to be setup in those countries for trade.
• Manufacturing is done in home country and then it is send to the other country for
  sale.

2. Contract manufacturing:
It is that mode when one company makes contract with other foreign company for manufacturing of goods in other country as per the need and benefit of the both companies and the country.

Profits:

• Some items like upper part of car or upper portion shoes is done under contract manufacturing.
• Then those items are assembled into complete goods and sold.
• Some goods are manufacture fully.

Limitations:

• Under its international firm get manufacturing on large scale without much investment.
• Less capital is invest and production is done.
• Manufacturing on contract make costing less.

3. Joint venture establishment.

4. Fully owned and controlled unit can be established.

Question 7.
How business units gets profit from the international trade?
Answer:
Advantages of Foreign Trade:

1. Advantages of geographical facilities:
Every country has different natural and geographical facilities. Their production, minerals, agriculture and industries are different. Foreign trade helps to obtain goods which are not produced.

2. Specialization and efficiency in production:
Foreign trade enables a country to produce only such goods which can be most efficiently and economically produced. As a result the cost of production will be reduced.

3. Availability of goods not produced in the country:
Foreign trade enables a country to enjoy the possession of goods which it is not producing.

4. Ability to face natural calamities:
The production in a country is affected due to draught, earthquake, flood, epidemic, war and such other natural calamities. Such calamities are faced by importing goods from other countries.

5. Advantage to agricultural and industrial countries:
Agricultural countries can easily exchange their raw materials with finished goods or machinery from other countries.

Question 8.
Identify various organisations that have been set – up in the country by the government for promoting country’s foreign trade?
Answer:
Various organisations that have been set-up in the country by the government for promoting country’s foreign trade are as follows:

1. Department of Commerce:
Department of Commerce in the Ministry of Commerce, Government of India is the apex body responsible for formulating policies in the. sphere of foreign trade, increasing commercial relations with other countries, state trading, export promotional measures and the development and regulation of certain export oriented industries and commodities.

2. Export Promotion Councils (EPCs):
Export Promotion Councils are non-profit organisations registered under the Companies Act or the Societies Registration Act, as the case may be. Their basic objective is to promote and develop the country’s exports of particular products falling under their jurisdiction.

3. Commodity Boards:
Commodity Boards are the boards which have been specially established by the Government of India for the development of production of traditional commodities and their exports and supplement the EPCs. At present there are seven commodity boards in India : Coffee Board, Rubber Board, Tobacco Board, Spice Board, Central Silk Board, Tea Board, and Coir Board.

4. Export Inspection Council (EIC):
Export Inspection Council of India was set – up by the Government of India under Section 3 of the Export Quality Control and Inspection Act – 1963. The council aims at sound development of export trade through quality control and pre – shipment inspection.

5. Indian Trade Promotion Organisation (ITPO):
Indian Trade Promotion Organisation was set – up on 1st January 1992. ITPO is a service organisation which serves the industry by organising trade fairs and exhibitions within the country and abroad and helps export firms in participating in international trade fairs and in developing exports of new items.

6. Indian Institute of Foreign Trade (HFT):
Indian Institute of Foreign Trade is an institution that was set – up in 1963 by the Government of India as an autonomous body. It has recently been recognised as Deemed University. It provides training in international trade, conduct researches in areas of international business and analysing and disseminating data relating to international trade and investments.

Question 9.
What is World Bank? Discuss its various objectives and role of its affiliated agencies?
Answer:
The World Bank was established in 1945, the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD) is the common name of World Bank, which was formed as a result of the Bretton Woods Conference.

The main objectives behind setting up this international organisation were to aid the task of reconstruction of the war affected economies of Europe and assist in the development of the underdeveloped nations of the world. Till late 1950s, the World Bank remained preoccupied with the task of restoring war tom nations in Europe after which it turned its attention to the development of underdeveloped nations.

Various objectives and roles of its affiliated agencies are given below International Development Association (EDA). The main objectives of IDA are:

1. It provides finance on easy terms.
2. It provides help in poverty alleviation.
3. It provides help in economic development programmes.
4. Extend macro economic management services.

The Multinational Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA) Major objectives of MIGA
are:

1. To encourage flow of direct foreign investment into the less developed member countries.
2. To provide insurance cover to investors against political risks.
3. To provide guarantee against non – commercial risks (like, dangers involved in currency transfers, war and civil disturbances and breach of contract).
4. To insure new investments, expansion of existing investments, privatisation and financial restructuring.
5. To provide promotional and advisory services.
6. To establish credibility.

We can conclude that the World Bank is no longer confined to simply providing financial assistance for infrastructure development, agriculture, industry, health and sanitation  and is involved in areas like removal of rural poverty through raising productivity, providing technical support, and initiating research and co – operative ventures.

Question 10.
Differentiate between Indent and Order?
Answer:

Question 11.
Give suggestion to increase foreign trade in India?
Answer:
Following suggestions should be implemented for increasing foreign trade:

1. Reforms in production – Quality of production should be increased in order to growth in the foreign trade.
2. Tax rebate – Export units should be given tax reforms so that, the exporter may get benefit of it.
3. Widespread market – Along with structural, there should be bi-agreement among the different nations for its spread.
4. Quality control – The goods which are used for foreign trade should go on strict inspection to enhance its quality.
5. Distribution research – There should be proper reach made for the new commodities also so that it can be dealt with.
6. Export subsidy – Government should give subsidy in order to promote the foreign

MP Board Class 11 Business Studies Important Questions

MP Board Class 11th Economics Important Questions Unit 3 Statistical Tools and Interpretation

Statistical Tools and Interpretation Important Questions

Statistical Tools and Interpretation Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct option:

Question (a)
The most common measurement of central tendency is:
(a) Median
(b) Multiple
(c) Mean
(d) Weighted mean.
Answer:
(c) Mean

Question 2.
Division of one column in ten equal parts is called:
(a) Decile
(b) Quartile
(c) Percentile
(d) None.
Answer:
(a) Decile

Question 3.
Which of the following equation is correct:
(a) Anova = σ
(b) Anova = σ ^-2
(c) Anova = σ ⁴
(d) Anova = √σ × 2.
Answer:
(b) Anova = σ ^-2

Question 4.
Where is correlation multiple placed:
(a) Between 0 and + 1
(b) Between – 1 and 0
(c) Between – 1 and + 1
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Between – 1 and + 1

Question 5.
Base year is:
(a) Comparison year
(b) Present year
(c) Any year
(d) One year previous to present year.
Answer:
(a) Comparison year

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

1. Rule of ……………………….. is supposed to be idle for creation of index.
2. Multiple is the value of column in which ……………………… comes repeatedly.
3. The value which divides the column into more than two parts is called ……………………………
4. ………………………. is the difference between maximum and minimum value.
5. …………………………. is the simple ray that shows relation between two values.

Answer:

1. Fisher
2. Maximum
3. Division
4. Range
5. Analogical relation.

Question 3.
Match the columns:

Answer:

1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (e)
5. (b).

Question 4.
State true or false:

1. Cumulative frequency shows “less than” or “more than” of any sequence.
2. 5 is the mode of the numbers 3, 4, 3, 5, 5, 3, 2.
3. Range is found by adding highest value and smallest value.
4. Money inflation is measured on changes of index number of whole sale market of weekly statement.
5. High income leads high savings.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. False
4. True
5. True.

Question 5.
Answer in one word:

1. Graphic method of studying dispersion.
2. Definite relation between two or more groups.
3. One which divides column in ten equal parts.
4. In India which index helps to measure average change in prices.
5. Saving is directly related to.

Answer:

1. Lorenz curve
2. Correlation
3. Deciles
4. Consumer Price Index
5. Income.

Statistical Tools and Interpretation Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is measure of central tendency?
Answer:
Measure of central tendency is the single value which represents the characteristics of the entire universe.

Question 2.
Which is the popular measure of central tendency?
Answer:
Arithmetic mean.

Question 3.
Define Arithmetic mean?
Answer:
It is defined as the sum of the values of all observations divided by the number of observations.

Question 4.
Find out mode from the following data:
7, 12, 8, 5, 9, 10, 9, 11, 96
Answer:
9 is the number which is repeated maximum number of times. Hence, mode is 9.

Question 5.
Write the formula of weighted arithmetic mean?
Answer:
Weighted Arithmetic Mean = \(\frac{ΣWx}{ΣW}\)

Question 6.
Arrange the following series in descending order:
5, 16, 18, 2, 13, 15, 3, 19, 17, 20.
Answer:
20, 19, 18, 17, 16, 15, 13, 5, 3, 2

Question 7.
Name any two positional averages?
Answer:

1. Median and
2. Mode.

Question 8.
What is median?
Answer:
Median is that value which divides a series into two equal parts.

Question 9.
Write the formula of median in discrete series?
Answer:
Median (M) = size of (\(\frac{N+1}{2}\))^th item.

Question 10.
Write the formula of median in continuous series?
Answer:
Median (M) =

Question 11.
What is Quartile?
Answer:
It divides the series into four equal parts. These are three quartiles Q₁, Q₂ and Q₃.

Question 12.
Write the formula of first quartile?
Answer:
First Quartile (Q₁) =

Question 13.
Write the formula of third quartile?
Answer:
Third quartile (Q₃) =

Question 14.
What is a mode?
Answer:
Mode is defined as that value which occurs the most frequently in the distribution.

Question 15.
Write the formula to calculate mode?
Answer:
Mode Z =

Question 16.
Write the names of two measures of central tendency which can be determined from graph paper?
Answer:

1. Median and
2. Mode.

Question 17.
Which is the mostly used measure of central tendency?
Answer:
Mean.

Question 18.
Which measure of central tendency is not affected by extreme values?
Answer:
Median.

Question 19.
What is Percentile?
Answer:
Percentile divides the series into 100 equal parts.

Question 20.
Which measure of central tendency is used to explain qualitative data?
Answer:
Mode.

Question 21.
Name the measure of central tendency which is based on all items?
Answer:
Mean.

Question 22.
Define measure of dispersion?
Answer:
Dispersion measures that extent to which different items tend to disperse away from an average.

Question 23.
What is Range?
Answer:
Range is the difference between the highest value and lowest value in a series.

Question 24.
Write the formula of range?
Answer:
Range = Highest value in series – Lowest value in series.

Question 25.
Define Quartile deviation?
Answer:
Quartile deviation is the half of inter quartile range.

Question 26.
Write the formula of quartile deviation?
Answer:
Quartile deviation = \(\frac { Q_{ 3 }-Q_{ 1 } }{ 2 } \)

Question 27.
Write the formula of coefficient of quartile deviation?
Answer:
Coefficient of quartile deviation = \(\frac{Q_{3}-Q_{1}}{Q_{3}+Q_{1}}\)

Question 28.
Define mean deviation?
Answer:
It is the arithmetic mean of the deviations of various items from their average.

Question 29.
Write the formula of coefficient of mean deviation?
Answer:
Coefficient of mean deviation = \(\frac { MD }{ \overline { XorMorZ } } \)

Question 30.
Define standard deviation?
Answer:
Standard deviation is the square root of the arithmetic mean of the squares of all deviation.

Question 31.
Write the formula of standard deviation?
Answer:
Standard deviation =

Question 33.
What is coefficient of variation?
Answer:
It is the percentage variation in the mean, the standard deviation being considered as the total variation in the mean.

Question 34.
Write the formula of coefficient of variation?
Answer:
Coefficient of variation = \(\frac { \sigma }{ \overline { X } } \) × 100.

Question 35.
What does Lorenz curve show?
Answer:
Lorenz curve is the graphic representation of dispersion in a distribution. It shows the actual distribution of items.

Question 36.
What is coefficient of correlation?
Answer:
Correlation is an analysis of covariation between two or more variables.

Question 37.
What is positive correlation?
Answer:
Correlation is said to be positive when two variables move together in the same direction.

Question 38.
What is negative correlation?
Answer:
Correlation is said to be negative when two variables move together in the opposite direction.

Question 39.
If coefficient of correlation is zero then what does it mean?
Answer:
There is no correlation between two variable.

Question 40.
Write the formula of Karl Pearson to calculate correlation?
Answer:
\(r=\frac{\sum x y}{N \sigma_{1} \sigma_{2}}\)

Question 41.
When is Spearman’s rank difference method used?
Answer:
When variables are qualitative like Beauty, Bravery, Ability, Intelligence etc.

Question 42.
Write the formula of Spearman’s rank difference method?
Answer:

Question 44.
What is the measure of Index in base year?
Answer:
100.

Question 45.
What is base year?
Answer:
Base year is the year of reference with which the extent of change in the current year is measured.

Question 46.
Write two types of Index number?
Answer:

1. Simple Index number and
2. Weighted Index number.

Question 47.
What is simple index number?
Answer:
These are the index numbers in which all items of the series are accorded equal importance.

Question 48.
What is weighted index number?
Answer:
These are the index numbers in which different items of the series are accorded different weightage, depending upon their relative importance.

Question 49.
Who publishes wholesale price index in India?
Answer:
Central statistics organization (CSO).

Question 50.
What does wholesale price index show?
Answer:
It measures the relative changes in the prices of commodity traded in the wholesale markets.

Question 51.
On which basis wholesale price index is available in India?
Answer:
Weekly basis.

Question 52.
What is the other name of consumer price index?
Answer:
Cost of living index.

Question 53.
Define consumer price index?
Answer:
Consumer price index is the index number which measures the average change in prices paid by the specific class of consumers for goods and services consumed by them in the current year in comparison with base year.

Question 54.
What is base year of Index number of Industrial production?
Answer:
1993 – 1994.

Question 55.
What is Assumed mean?
Answer:
Assumed mean is the value of a series which helps in calculating the arithmetic mean.

Question 56.
What is senses?
Answer:
Sensex is an index representing the movement in share price of major companies listed in Bombay stock exchange.

Question 57.
What is the base year of sensex?
Answer:
1978 – 1979.

Question 58.
How many companies are included in sensex?
Answer:
30.

Question 59.
What does it mean when sensex goes up?
Answer:
If sensex goes up it means that the prices of the stocks of most of the companies under BSE sensex have gone up.

Statistical Tools and Interpretation Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
A measure of dispersion is a good supplement to the central value in under – standing a frequency distribution? Comment?
Answer:
Dispersion is the extent to which values in a distribution differ from the average of the distribution. Knowledge of only average is insufficient as it does not reflect the quantum of variation in values. Measures of dispersion enhance the understanding of a distribution considerably by providing information about how much the actual value of items in a series deviate from the central value, e.g., per capita income. Thus, a measure of dispersion is a good supplement to the central value in understanding a frequency distribution.

Question 2.
Which measure of dispersion is the best and how?
Answer:
Standard deviation is considered to be the best measure of dispersion and is therefore the most widely used measure of dispersion.

1. It is based on all values and thus provides information about the complete series.
2. It is independent of origin but not of scale.
3. It is useful in advanced statistical calculations like comparison of variability in two data sets.
4. It can be used in testing of hypothesis.
5. It is capable of further algebraic treatment.

Question 3.
Some measures of dispersion depend upon the spread of values whereas some calculate the variation of values from a central value. Do you agree?
Answer:
Yes, it is true that some measures of dispersion depend upon the spread of values, whereas some calculate the variation of values from the central value. Range and Quartile Deviation measure the dispersion by calculating the spread within which the value lie. Mean deviation and standard deviation calculate the extent to which the values differ from the average or the central value.

Question 4.
In town, 25% of the persons earned more than? 45,000 whereas 75% earned more than 18,000. Calculate the absolute and relative values of dispersion?
Answer:
25% of the persons earned more than 45,000. This implies that upper quartile Q₃ = 45,000 75% earned more than 18,000. This implies that lower quartile Q₁ = 18,000. Absolute measure of dispersion = Q₃ – Q₁ = 45,000 – 18,000 = 27,000
Relative measure of Dispersion:
Co – efficient of Quartile Deviation = \(\frac { Q_{ 3 }-Q_{ 1 } }{ Q_{ 3 }+Q_{ 1 } } \) where Q₃ = 3rd Quartile Q₁ = 1st Quartile
= \(\frac{45,000-18,000}{45,000+18,000}\) = \(\frac{27,000}{63,000}\)

Question 5.
When is rank correlation more precise than simple correlation coefficient?
Answer:
Rank correlation is more precise than simple correlation coefficient in the following situations:

1. When the measurement of the variables are suspect e.g., in a remote village where measuring rods or weighing scales are not available, height and weight of people cannot be measured precisely but the people can be easily ranked in terms of height and weight.

2. When data is qualitative: It is difficult to quantify qualities such as fairness, honesty etc.

3. When data has extreme values: Sometimes the correlation coefficient between two variables with extreme values may be quite different form the coefficient without the extreme values. Under these circumstances rank correlation provides a better alternative to simple correlation.

Question 6.
Does zero correlation mean independence?
Answer:
No, zero correlation does not mean independence. If there is zero correlation (r_XY= 0), it means the two variables are uncorrelated and there is no linear relation between them. However, other types of relation may be there and they may not be independent.

Question 7.
Why do we need on Index number?
Answer:
Index number are needed due to the following reasons:

1. Measurement of change in the price level or the value of money.
2. Information of foreign trade.
3. Calculating real wages.
4. Measuring and comparing output.
5. Policy making of government.

Question 8.
What are the desirable properties of the base period?
Answer:
Base period should have the following properties:

1. The base year should be a normal period and periods in which extraordinary events have occurred should not be taken as base periods as they are not appropriate for general comparisons.
2. Extreme value should not be selected as base period.
3. The period should not be too far in the past as comparison with current period cannot be done with such base year as policies, economic and social conditions change with time.
4. It should be updated periodically.

Question 9.
Why is it essential to have different CPI for categories of consumers?
Answer:
The Consumer Price Index (CPI) in India is calculated for different categories as under:

1. CPI for industrial workers.
2. CPI for urban non – manual employees.
3. CPI for agricultural labourers.

Question 10.
What is the difference between a price index and a quantity index?
Answer:
The difference between a Price index and a Quantity index:
Price Index:

1. It measure and allow for comparison of the prices of certain goods.
2. Its widely used.
3. It is known as unweighted index numbers.

Quantity Index:

1. It measure the changes in the physical volume of production construction or employment.
2. Its narrowly used.
3. It is known as weighted index numbers.

Question 11.
“Index numbers are Economic Barometers”? Explain?
Answer:
Index numbers are used to measure the level of economic activities like barometers. They are called as barometers due to following reasons:

1. Wholesale price index number shows the changes in general price level which can be used for any consumer category.
2. Index number of agricultural production is a weighted average of quantity relatives.
3. Index number is a useful guide to help in decision making while investing in the stock market.

Question 12.
What is “mode”? Explain its merits?
Answer:
The word “mode” has been derived from the French word “La mode” which means fashion. In statistics, mode means the value, which occurs most frequently in the series. Following are the merits of mode:

1. Simple calculation:
Calculation of mode is simple. Sometimes in individual and discrete series it can be found out by inspection only.

2. Least effect of extreme values:
Mode is not affected by extreme values. If the groups are unequal even then mode can be calculated.

3. Representative measure:
Mode is a representative and real measure of the series because this is one of the values from the group itself.

4. Use in quantitative facts:
Mode is also used for describing the quantitative data.

Question 13.
Explain the merits and demerits of Karl Pearson’s coefficient of correlation?
Answer:
Merits:

1. This method gives us precise magnitude of the correlation due to which interpretation of result becomes easy.
2. It is the most popular method of measuring relationship between the two variables.
3. It expresses the direction and degree of change in two variables.

Demerits:

1. It cannot be used to quantity qualities such as honesty fairness, etc.
2. The value of correlation are largely affected by the values of extreme items.

Question 14.
Explain the merits and demerits of Spearman rank difference method?
Answer:
Merits:

1. Simple:
Spearman’s ranking method is very simple compare to Pearson’s method. It can be easily calculated and understood than Pearsonian coefficient of correlation. In Karl Pearson’s method more calculation are required

2. Compulsory calculations:
In case ranks of values in the series are given rank methods is the only way to compute coefficient of correlation.

3. Useful for data of qualitative nature:
In case the data is related to ability, performance, beauty, honesty, intelligence and honesty etc. So this is the most suitable method to calculate coefficient of correlation.

4. Same result:
The answer obtained by rank method equals the answers determined through Pearsonian method, if values are not repeated.

5. Convenient:
This method can be used convenient by even if numbers in series are given in irregular way.

6. Best method:
This method is the best method in cases where the correlation is found by personal data.

7. This method is appropriate when number of elements is only 20 or 30.

Demerits:
Though the method is good but still there are certain drawbacks in it. They are as follows:

1. Unsuitable of grouped frequency distribution:
This method cannot be used for finding out correlation in grouped frequency distribution. This method is applicable only in individual observation.

2. Unsuitable if the values of the series exceed 30:
In such cases, obtaining ranks their difference and square becomes difficult so Pearsonian coefficient of correlation method is recommended. When N becomes more than thirty the counting becomes complicated. The scope of this method is limited.

3. Lack in precision:
This method is based on ranks. All the information related to data is not used, so it lacks precision as compared to Pearsonian method of coefficient of correlation.

Question 15.
The monthly expenditure of some families in a village are as follows:

Calculate range and its coefficient?
Answer:
Range = H – L
= 5,000 – 500 = 4,500 Rs.
Coefficient of range = \(\frac{H – L}{H + L}\) = \(\frac{5000 – 500}{5000 + 500}\) =\(\frac { 4500 }{ 5500 }\) = 0.82

Question 16.
Two factories A and B are established in one industry? Following information are available about them:

In which of factory wages rates are more?
Answer:
To find out the difference in wage rates we will have to find out coefficient of variation.
Coefficient of variation = \(\frac{S D}{\bar{X}} \times 100\)
Coefficient of variation of factory A = \(\frac{3}{120}\) × 100 = 2.5 %
Coefficient of variation of factory B = \(\frac{4}{85}\) × 100 = 4.7 %
Wage rates of factory B is more.

Question 17.
Explain the importance of correlation in statistics?
Answer:
Some importance features about the correlation:

1. The correlation of a sample is represented by the letter r.
2. The range of possible values for a correlation is between – 1 to +1.
3. A positive correlation indicates a positive linear association. The strength of the positive linear association increases as the correlation becomes closer to +1.
4. A negative correlation indicates a negative linear association. The strength of the negative linear association increases as the correlation becomes closer to -1.
5. A correlation of either +1 or -1 indicates a perfect linear relationship. This is hard to find with real data.

Question 18.
Explain the utility of index numbers?
Answer:

1. Index numbers help in framing suitable policies:
Index numbers provide various type of information on the basis of which various policies suitable to our economy are framed. On the basis of index number the insurance companies fix their premiums and banks fix their interest rates. Railways fixed their fare on this index only. It gives knowledge about the purchasing power, industrial and agricultural production about other countries.

2. Make the difficult facts easy:
By index number, sometimes we make some facts and events easy which is not possible by any other method. For example, measurement of trading activities is not possible by studying single fact. But by analysing the progress of industrial production, Banking and transportation the trading index can be found out. Many emotional facts take the concrete form with the help of index. Thus, they are made simple and easier for general people.

3. Comparative study is possible:
By index number comparative study is possible. This is because they express changes in relative form so it is not difficult to compare two things.

4. Indication towards future economic tendency:
Index number expresses not only the present conditions but on the basis of it we can find out the conclusions of the facts of future also. Thus, we reach to the present facts with the help of future inferences and thus we get the indication of future economic tendency.

Question 19.
Define base year? What are the guidelines to be observed while determining the base year?
Answer:
Base year is the period with respect to which change is measured. Following guidelines are to be observed while determining the base year:

1. Base year should be a normal year i.e. it should be free form abnormalities like wars, earthquakes, floods, etc.
2. Base year should not be too old.
3. Base year should be clearly defined.

Question 20.
Construct price index for 1990 taking 1989 as base year from the following information:

Answer:
Calculation of Price Index by simple aggregative method:

Price Index for year 1990 (P₀₁) = \(\frac { \Sigma P_{ 1 } }{ \Sigma P_{ 0 } } \) x 100
= \(\frac{360}{300}\) x 100
= \(\frac{36000}{300}\) = 120
These is a net increase of (120 – 100) = 20% in prices in 1989 as compared to 1990.

Question 21.
Calculate Index for 1989 taking base year 1989 by average of price relatives method?

Answer:
Calculation of Price Index by average of price relatives method:

Question 22.
Calculation of Index by Laspeyre’s method from the following:

Answer:
Calculate of Index by Laspeyre’s method:

Question 23.
Calculate index by Paasche’s method the following:

Answer:
Calculation of index by Paasche’s method:

Statistical Tools and Interpretation Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
If the arithmetic mean of the data given below is 28. Find:

1. Missing frequency
2. Median of the series.

Answer:
Calculation of missing frequency:

\(\overline { X } \) = \(\frac{Σfm}{Σf}\)
or 28 = \(\frac{2100+35x}{80+x}\)
or or 2240+ 28x = 2100 + 35x
or 2240 – 2100 = 35x – 28x
or 7x = 140
x = \(\frac{140}{7}\)
Hence, missing frequncy is 20.

Question 2.
Calculate median from the following:

Answer:
Calculation of median:

Median = Size of (\(\frac{N}{2}\))^th items.
= \(\frac{100}{2}\)^th item.
= 50^th item.
50th median class is 20 – 30.

= 20 + \(\frac{20}{27}\) x 10 = 20 + 7.41 = 27.41

Question 3.
Calculate arithmetic mean by shortcut method:

Answer:
Calculate of mean by shortcut method:

Formula: \(\overline { X } \) = A + \(\frac { \Sigma fdx }{ N } \)
Here, \(\overline { X } \) = ?, N = 100, A = 25, Σfdx = 620.
∴ \(\overline { X } \) = 25 + \(\frac{620}{100}\) = 25 + 6.2 = 31.2.

Question 4.
Calculate mode from the following data:

Answer:
From the following table modal class is 20 – 30 as its frequency is the highest.

Question 5.
Calculate quartiles from the followings:

Answer:
Calculate of quartiles:

Q₁ = \(\frac{N+1}{4}\) th item = \(\frac{100+1}{4}\) th item.
= 25.25 th item
= 25 th item + 0.25 (26 th item – 25 th item)
= 7 + 0.25 (7-7)
= 7 + 0.25(0) = 7 + 0 = 7.
Q₂ = 2 (\(\frac{N+1}{4}\)) th item = 50.50 th item.
= 50 th item + 0.5 (51th item – 50th item)
= 9 + 0.5 (9 – 9) = 9 + 0.5(0) = 9 + 0 = 9.
Q₃ = 3 (\(\frac{N+1}{4}\)) th item = 75.75 th item
75th item + 0.75 (76 th item – 75 th item)
= 16 + 0.75 (16 – 16)
= 16 + 0.75(0) = 16 + 0
= 16.

Question 6.
Calculate dispersion and relative measures of dispersion:

Answer:
Calculating relative measure of dispersion:

Here, R = ?, L = 35.5, S = 3.5.
Formula: R = L – S = 35.5 – 3.5 = 32
∴ Relative measure of dispersion = \(\frac{L-S}{L+S}\)
= \(\frac{35.5-3.5}{35.5+3.5}\)
= \(\frac{32}{39}\) = 0.8205 (Approx).

Question 7.
Calculate quartile deviation and its coefficient from the following data:

Answer:
Calculation of quartile deviation and its coefficient:

Q₁ = Size of \(\frac{N+1}{4}\) th item = Size of \(\frac{87+1}{4}\) th item.
= Size of \(\frac{88}{4}\) th item.
= Size of 22 th item, which lies in C.F. 38
∴ Q₁ =9

∴ Coefficient of Q.D. = 0.5.

Question 8.
The yield of wheat and rice per acre for 10 districts of a state:

Calculate mean deviation about mean.
Answer:

Question 9.
The yield of wheat and rice of 10 districts of a state are:

Calculate mean deviation from median.
Answer:

Question 10.
The yield of rice and wheat of 10 districts of a state are:

Calculate standard deviation and its coefficient?
Answer:

Question 11.
A batsman is to be selected for a cricket team? The choice is between X and Y on the basis of their scores in five previous scores which are:

Which batsman should be selected if we want?

1. A higher run gether or
2. A more reliable batsman is the team

Answer:

Question 12.
Calculate the correlation coefficient between the heights of fathers in inches (x) and their son (y):?

Answer:

Question 13.
Calculate coefficient of correlation between x and y, and comment on their relationship?

Answer:

These are perfectly positive correlation between x and y.

Question 14.
There are 80 students in a class. Average marks of statistics in class is 65 marks. There are two sections in the class, first have 50 students whose average marks is 60. Calculate the average marks of other section?
Answer:
Total students N = 80
Average of marks \(\bar{X}_{1}\) = 65
Students of 1st section N₁ = 50
Students of second section N₂ = 80 – 50 = 30
Average marks of students of 1st section \(\bar{X}_{1}\) = 60
N \(\bar{X}_{1}\) = + N₁ \(\overline { X } _{ 1 }\) + N₂ \(\overline { X } _{ 2 }\)
80 x 65 = 50 x 60 + 30 \(\overline { X } _{ 2 }\)
5,200 – 3,000 = 30 \(\overline { X } _{ 2 }\)
30 \(\overline { X } _{ 2 }\) = 2,200
Average marks of students of 2nd section \(\overline { X } _{ 2 }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)
\(\overline { X } _{ 2 }\) = 73.33.

Question 15.
Calculate mode from the following data:

Answer:
Modal class is 30 – 40 as from observation highest frequency is 32?

Question 16.
The median in following table is 42? Determine the missing frequency?

Answer:
Let the frequency of class 20 – 30 be f₂ Unknown frequency of class 50 – 60 f₂.

N = 288 = 106 + f_{1 +} f₂
160 + f₁ + f₂ = 288
f₁ + f₂ = 288
f₁ + f₂ = 288 – 106 = 182
Median 42 is in class 40 – 50.

= 5 (42 – 40) = 94 – f₁
= 210 – 200 = 94 – f₁
= 10 – 94 = – f₁
f₁ = 84
f₁ + f₂ = 182
f₂ = 182 – f₁ = 182 – 84
f₂ = 98

Question 17.
Compare the arithmetic mean, median and mode as measures of central tendency?
Answer:
Following table shows the comparison of arithmetic mean, median and mode as measures of central tendency:

Question 18.
Distinguish between mean deviation and standard deviation?
Answer:
Following are differences between mean deviation and standard deviation:

1. Algebraic sign like plus (+) and minus (-) are ignored while calculating mean deviation, they are taken into account in the calculation of standard deviation.
2. Mean deviation can be calculated by any of the three averages i.e., mean, median and mode standard deviation can be calculated only by the Arithmetic mean.
3. Mean deviation cannot be used for further algebraic treatment while standard deviation is capable of further algebraic treatment.
4. Standard deviation is considered to be superior to mean deviation.
5. Mean deviation is easy to calculated and to understand as compared to standard deviation.

Question 19.
Calculate standard deviation from the following data:

Answer:

Question 20.
Calculate coefficient of correlation by Karl Pearson method from following data:

Answer:

Question 21.
Calculate coefficient of correlation by Karl Pearson method from following data:

Answer:

Question 22.
Calculate coefficient of correlation by Spearman rank difference method?

Answer:

Question 23.
In a drama competition two judges gave the following marks to 10 participants? Calculate rank coefficient?

Answer:

Question 24.
What is index number? What is its importance in statistics?
Answer:
An index number is a specialised average designed to measure the net change in a group of related variables over a period of time. Following are the main uses of index number which show its importance in statistics:

1. To simplify complicated matters:
Index numbers present the given information in such a manner that it can be easily understood.

2. To measure comparative changes:
Index numbers facilitate comparison of changes from time to time, among different places and in series expressed in different units. The changes in price level, cost of living etc. which are not capable to measurement directly are measured with the help of index numbers.

3. To frame suitable policies:
Index numbers guide a lot in framing suitable economic policies. For example, wholesale and retail price index number help in economic and business policy – making regarding, price, output, demand, sales etc. The indices of consumption of various commodities help in the planning of their future production. Index numbers are applied with advantage for formulating and revising their policies from time to time.

4. To measure the purchasing power of money:
Index numbers are helpful in measuring the purchasing power, i. e., value of the money. This helps in fixing proper wage policy in the country.

5. To study trends and to make forecast:
Index number are most widely used for measuring changes over a period of time. On the basis of present indices, the forecast for the future can be made.

Question 25.
What is the purpose of constructing an index number of price and quantities?
Answer:
The purpose of constructing and index number of prices is to enable us to compare prices of certain goods over a period of time. It is used to measure change in the price level or the value of money during different periods of time.

The purpose of constructing an index number of quantities is to enable us to compare physical quantity of goods produced, consumed or distributed over a period of time. It is used to show whether the level of agricultural and industrial production in the economy is increasing or decreasing.

Question 26.
What are the limitations of index number?
Answer:
The limitation of index numbers are as follows:

1. Since index numbers are based on sample data, they only provide approximate results which may not exactly represent the changes in relative levels.
2. There are more chances of errors in construction of index numbers. It may be any where from level of selection of commodities to choice of the formula.
3. Index numbers often find difficulty to record change in the quality of a variable.
4. There does not exist a unique index number method which is acceptable to all.
5. Index numbers are also misused by dishonest persons to draw desirable conclusion for their selfish motives.

Question 27.
Throw light on importance of consumer price index?
Answer:
The importance of consumer price index is:

• It is used to determine the purchasing power of money and real wages.
• It is also used to analyze the market of specific commodities.
• It helps to formulate government policies.
• It helps in estimation of national income.
• Cost of living index numbers are used as basis for the wage adjustments.

Question 28.
Calculate Price Index by Fisher’s method from following data:

Answer:

Question 29.
What are the points to be kept in mind while constructing index number?
Answer:
The points to be kept in mind while constructing Index number are:

1. Purpose:
The purpose of construction of Index numbers should be clearly defined because every index number has a specific use.

2. Selection of a base years:
Selection of base year is important for construction of index number. It should be selected carefully.

3. Selection of number of Items:
It refers to collection of data which should be determined by the purpose for which the index is constructed.

4. Selection of an average:
As Index number are specialized averages. We need to decide on the average to be used. We need to select from various averages such as
arithematic mean, geometric mean, etc.

5. Selection system of weighing:
Weighing is having an important place in construction of index number. In this various goods are weighed according to their weights.

MP Board Class 11th Economics Important Questions